IBPS Bank Clerk CWE Ist Sitting Examination
Held on 4-12-2011
Test I
Test of Reasoning
1. In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code ?
(1) EPMT
(2) TMPE
(3) EMPT
(4) CKNR
(5) ETPM
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that codes not belong to that group?
(1) 19
(2) 17
(3) 13
(4) 27
(5) 37
3. How many meaningful English words can b e made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
4. What should come in place of the question mar (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?
BE GJ LO QT ?
(1) UX
(2) VY
(3) SV
(4) RU
(5) WZ
5. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of the which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In the following question, the symbols δ, %, $ # and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than or equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and II are true
6. Statements F @ N, N δ R, H @ R
Conclusions I. H δ N
II. F # R
7. Statements M # T, T @ K, K $ N
Conclusions I.M # N
II. K δ M
8. Statements T % H, H $ W
Conclusions I. W # T
II. W % T
9. Statements N δ K, K # D, D % M
Conclusions I. M δ K
II. D δ N
10. Statements J $ B, B % R, R δ F
Conclusions I. F # B
II. R @ J
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.
11. Who is to the immediate right of C?
(1) D
(2) G
(3) E
(4) B
(5) Data inadequate
12. Who is the only one person sitting between A and G?
(1) B
(2) D
(3) C
(4) E
(5) F
13. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) A
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
14. Who is second to the left of C?
(1) B
(2) G
(3) F
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
15. What is E’s position with respect to D?
(1) To the immediate right
(2) To the immediate left
(3) Third to the right
(4) Second to the right
(5) Third to the left
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). Yu have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and the conditions given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits/Symbols Conditions 4 $ 1 2 3 # 5 @ © 6 % δ 7 9
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as ‘*’.
Note All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.
16. ERWHKA
(1) 2@©6#1
(2) 1@©6#2
(3) 1@©6#2
(4) 2@©6#2
(5) None of these
17. MPEKDU
(1) $42#5δ
(2) $42#5$
(3) δ42#5δ
(4) δ425#$
(5) None of these
18. TMEIUF
(1) 7$2% δ9
(2) 7$2%δ7
(3) 9$2%δ7
(4) 9$2%δ9
(5) None of these
19. JTAERI
(1) %712@3
(2) 3712@3
(3) *712@*
(4) %712@%
(5) None of these
20. UKTMIH
(1) δ#7$%6
(2) 6#7$%δ
(3) *#7$%*
(4) δ7#$%6
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Each of the question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (2) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (4) If the data given in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (5) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
21. In a row of girls facing North, what is D’s position from the left end?
I. D is twentieth from the right end.
II. There are ten girls between B and D.
22. Town M is towards which direction of Town K?
I. Town K is towards North-West of Town D.
II. Town M is towards South-East of Town D.
23. How many daughters does P have ?
I. K and M are sisters of T.
II. T’s father is husband of P’s mother.
24. On which day of the week from Monday to Sunday did Arun leave for London?
I. Arun did not leave for London during the weekend.
II. Arun’s brother left for London on Friday two days after Arun left for London.
25. How is ‘new’ written in a code language?
I. ‘new good clothes’ is written as ‘5 3 9’ in that code language.
II. ‘good clothes are costly’ is written as ‘9 6 7 3’ in that code language.
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All numbers are two-digit numbers)
Input good for everything 19 37 26 all 65
Step I all good for everything 19 37 26 65
Step II all 65 good for everything 19 37 26
Step III all 65 everything good for 19 37 26
Step IV all 65 everything 37 good for 19 26
Step V all 65 everything 37 for good 19 26
Step VI all 65 everything 37 for 26 good 19
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is reached.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. (All numbers are two-digit numbers.)
26. Input won 13 now 25 72 please go 47
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these
27. Step III of an input is : car 81 desk 15 42 39 tall more which of the following will be step VI?
(1) car 81 desk 42 39 15 tall more
(2) car 81 desk 42 15 39 tall more
(3) car 81 desk 42 more 39 15 tall
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
28. Step II of an input is : bell 53 town hall near 27 43 12
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these
29. Step II of an input is : box 93 25 year end 41 32 value
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 25 year end box 93 41 32 value
(2) 25 year end 93 41 32 value box
(3) 93 25 box year end 41 32 value
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
30. Input paper dry 37 23 height call 62 51
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(1) V
(2) IV
(3) VI
(4) III
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q< R, S, T< V and W are travelling in three buses A, B and C with at least two of them in any of these buses. Each of them has a favourite (likes) cuisine viz. Punjabi, Rajasthani, Bengali, Maharashtrian, Gujarati, Kashmiri and Udipi not necessarily in the same order.
Q is travelling in Bus B with T. T’s favourite cuisine is Udipi. Those who travel in Bus A don not like Punjabi and Maharashtrian cuisines. The one who likes Rajasthani cuisine travels only with W in Bus C. The one whose favourite cuisine is Gujarati does not travel in the same bus with either T or W. P does not travel in Bus B. P likes Kashmiri cuisine. S and V are travelling in the same bus. V does not like Bengali cuisine. The one whose favourite cuisine is Maharashtrian does not travel in Bus B.
31. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) A-V-Gujarati
(2) B-S-Bengali
(3) C-W-Punjabi
(4) B-Q-Gujarati
(5) All are incorrect
32. Whose favourite cuisine is Rajasthani?
(1) Q
(2) S
(3) V
(4) R
(5) Data inadequate
33. What is S’s favourite cuisine?
(1) Maharashtrian
(2) Bengali
(3) Rajasthani
(4) Kashmiri
(5) Data inadequate
34. What is Q’s favourite cusine?
(1) Kashmiri
(2) Mahrashtrian
(3) Punjabi
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
35. In which bus are three of them travelling
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) A or B
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow
36. Statements No holiday is vacations.
Some vacations are trips.
Conclusions
I. No trip is a holiday.
II. Some holidays are definitely not trips.
37. Statements Some kites are birds.
No kite is an aeroplane.
Conclusions
I. All aeroplanes are birds.
II. Some birds are definitely not kites.
38. Statements All metals are plastics. All plastics are fibres.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some fibres are metals.
II. Some metals are not fibres.
39. Statements All roads are streets. No street is a highway.
Conclusions
I. No highway is a road.
II. All streets are roads.
40. Statements Some animals are plants.
All plants are rocks
Conclusions
I. All plants are animals.
II. Atleast some rocks are animals.
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued?
41. Question Figures
Answer Figures
42. Question Figures
Answer Figures
43. Question Figures
Answer Figures
44. Question Figures
Answer Figures
45. Question Figures
Answer Figures
46. Question Figures
Answer Figures
47. Question Figures
Answer Figures
48. Question Figures
Answer Figures
49. Question Figures
Answer Figures
50. Question Figures
Answer Figures
Test II
Test of English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) N each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1) (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number that word is the answer
51. I. Our office decided to organize a party for the ………. couple.
II. She …… him in conversation to while away some time.
(1) new
(2) engaged
(3) pledged
(4) held
(5) encountered
52. I. It is required that you fill out these two …… to register for the job.
II. This subject has many practical …… in day to day life.
(1) forms
(2) applications
(3) relevance
(4) statements
(5) views
53. I. The next …… of this case is after two months.
II. After the accident, her …… has been affected.
(1) dates
(2) balance
(3) evidence
(4) health
(5) hearing
54. I. As a last …… we had to accept these terms and conditions.
II. This place has become a good tourist …… now.
(1) resort
(2) step
(3) attraction
(4) spot
(5) means
55. I. The organization decided on an hourly minimum …… of Rs. 35.
II. Will he …… a war on these fronts to improve things?
(1) pay
(2) declare
(3) pose
(4) wage
(5) campaign
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.
56. One of the factor for her failure is the lack of concern for others.
(1) The mainly factor
(2) One off factor
(3) One of the factors
(4) Among of the factor
(5) No correct required
57. In reality, this policy will only lead to ore corruption in an already corrupt
(1) a already corrupt
(2) already an corrupt
(3) among already corrupt
(4) overly corrupt already
(5) No correct required
58. At currently estimates, the cost of modernizing the airport would be more than double the earlier estimate.
(1) By currently estimates
(2) On current estimates
(3) With estimates currently
(4) At current estimates
(5) No correct required
59. No of these moves brought credit to the management.
(1) Any of these
(2) Some off these
(3) None of these
(4) These of all
(5) No correction required
60. India has always been primarily an agricultural country.
(1) always be
(2) been towards
(3) become always
(4) always become
(5) No correct required
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of these sentence, mark (5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
61. By the summer of 1939, Hitler was ready to unleash his army on Europe.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
All correct
(5)
62. The two national emblems of India are of Buddhist origin. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
63. Political decisions ought to have a rationale. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
64. Traditionalli, sale get a boost in the festival season. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
65. Fifteen per cent of India’s land is still covered by forrests. All correct
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-80) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Organized retail has fuelled new growth categories.-like liquid hand wash, breakfast cereals and pet foods in the consumer goods industry, accounting for almost 50% of their sales, said data from market search firm Nielsen. The figures showed some of these new categories got more than 40% of their business from modern retail outlets. The data also suggests how products in these categories reach the neighbourhood kirana stores after they have established themselves in modern trade.
While grocers continue to be an important channel, for the new and evolving categories we saw an increased presence of high-end products in modern trade. For example, premium products in laundry detergents, dishwashing, car air fresheners and surface care increased in availability through this format as these products are aimed at affluent consumers who are more likely to shop in supermarket/hypermarket outlets and who are willing to pay more for specialized products.
Some other categories that have grown exceptionally and now account for bulk of the sales from modern retail are frozen and read-to-eat foods, pet food, diapers, pre- and post-wash products, hair conditioners and high-ends having products, besides others. “With the evolution of modern trade, our growth in this channel has been healthy as it is for several other categories. Modern retail is an important part of our business” said managing director, Kellogg India.
What modern retail offers to companies experimenting with new categories is the chance to educate customers which was not the case with a general trade store. “Category creation and market development starts with modern trade but s more consumers start consuming this category, they penetrate into other channels,’ said President, food &FMCG category, Future Group – the country’s largest retailer which operates stores like Big Bazaar.
But a point to note here is that modern retailers themselves push their own private brands in these very categories and can emerge as a big threat for the consumers goods and foods companies.
For instance, Big Bazaar’s private label Clean Mate is hugely popular and sells more than a brand like Harpic in its own stores. “So, there is a certain amount of conflict and competition that will play out over the next few years which the FMCG companies will have to watch out for”, said KPMG’s executive director (retail).
In the past, there have been instance of retailers boycotting products from big FMCG players on the issue of margins, but as modern retail becomes increasingly significant for pushing new categories, experts say we could see more partnerships being forged between retailers and FMCG companies.
“Market development for new categories takes time so brand wars for leadership and consumer franchise will be fought on the modern retail platform. A new brand can overnight compete with established companies by tying up with few retailers in these categories”, President of Future Group added.
66. Which of the following is being referred to as new growth category?
(1) Soap cake
(2) Fresh fruits
(3) Fresh vegetables
(4) Liquid Hand-wash
(5) Usual groceries
67. Which of the following is being referred to as modern retail outlet?
(1) Kirana Store
(2) On-line Store
(3) Door-to-door Selling
(4) Road-side Hawkers
(5) Supermarket
68. Which of the following best conveys the meaning of the phrase, “watch out for” as used in the passage?
(1) Demand justice
(2) Avoid conflict
(3) Be on the alert
(4) Passively accept
(5) Open for competition
69. Which of the following is being referred to as ‘certain amount of conflict’?
(1) Retailers selling their own products with products of companies
(2) Retailers selling products of different consumer companies
(3) Offering differential rate of margin for different products
(4) New products killing the old products
(5) Different retailers selling same category of products
70. The new growth category products
(1) reach first the neighbourhood Kirana shop and then the modern retail outlets
(2) account for less than 20% of sales in organized retail
(3) reach all the outlets almost at the same time
(4) first become popular in modern trade outlets before reaching Kirana shops
(5) are aimed at the poor section of the society
71. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) Clean mate is a product of an organized retailers
(2) Some retailers don’t keep some products if the profit margin is not good
(3) A new brand can never quickly displace an established brand
(4) Kirana store still remains an important channel
(5) In future there will be more partnerships between retailers and FMCG Companies
72. Which of the following categories has become very popular through sales from modern retail outlets?
(1) Frozen foods
(2) Computers
(3) Cell phones
(4) Fresh fruits
(5) Soft-drinks
73. Which class/section of people are more likely to shop in Hypermarket outlets?
(1) Senior citizens
(2) Younger generation
(3) Rich consumers
(4) Poor section
(5) Women
74. Which of the following advantages do modern retail outlets provide for new categories of products as compared to general trade stores?
(1) Higher profit margins
(2) Experimenting with new products
(3) Competition with similar products
(4) Better packing of the product
(5) Products at much lower price
75. ………. penetrate into other Channels.” Which of the following is being referred to as Channels?
(1) Products
(2) Companies
(3) New products
(4) Existing products
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-78) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
76. Fuelled
(1) Killed
(2) Conflicted
(3) Stimulated
(4) Contained
(5) Retained
77. Pushing
(1) Stalling
(2) Introducing
(3) Depressing
(4) Segregating
(5) Suggesting
78. Premium
(1) Superior
(2) Bonus
(3) Payable
(4) Promotional
(5) Indistinguished
79. Established
(1) Small
(2) New
(3) Orthodox
(4) Modern
(5) Remaining
80. Affluent
(1) Affected
(2) Rural
(3) Uneducated
(4) Poor
(5) Younger
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5).
81. The cost of constructing (1) / houses are increased (2) / because of the high (3) / price of cement. (4) / No error (5)
82. According to the Twelfth (1) / Five Year Plan, India should (2) / invest one trillion dollars (3) / in infrastructure projects. (4) / No error (5)
83. To increase the selling (1) / of products in rural areas (2) / the company will hire (3) / over five hundred trainees. (4) / No error (5)
84. We have spent (1) / most of the profits (2) / that we earn (3) / last year on purchasing new computers. (4) / No error (5)
85. The Government has (1) / promised to revise (2) / the pension scheme for bank (3) / staff since next year. (4) / No error (5)
86. If a software company (1) / sends its employees abroad (2) / to work for a foreign client, they (3) / pays them a daily allowance. (4) / No error (5)
87. As per RBI guidelines (1) / a bank account in which (2) / there is no transactions for (3) / two years is a dormant account. (4) / No error (5)
88. Farmers can easy (1) / get loans under (2) / the Kisan Credit Card Scheme which (3) / was launched by RBI. (4) / No error (5)
89. Today there are very few (1) / tigers left in India (2) / and many NGOs are (3) / working saving our national animal. (4) / No error (5)
90. People are willing to (1) / pay higher taxes so that (2) / the Government can build better roads (3) / and provide safe drinking water. (4) / No error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been unnumbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words, are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Today the economies of African countries are growing at 5 per cent every year.
Rich countries usually help poorer ones (91) African countries through donations and aid. Their (92) are not always successful as loans are (93) not used for the projects for which they are (94). China, however, has found a different (95) to help Africa – by trading more with the (96). In 2009 China’s trade with African countries was $ 90 billion – (97) than the US which was $ 86 billion. (98) countries have now begun to notice the (99) available in Africa. China’s attitude has (100) the way word deals with poor countries.
91.
(1) belonging
(2) similarly
(3) compared
(4) with
(5) like
92.
(1) efforts
(2) practices
(3) challenges
(4) achievements
(5) attempt
93.
(1) given
(2) approved
(3) regular
(4) often
(5) being
94.
(1) grant
(2) sanctioned
(3) took
(4) hired
(5) apply
95.
(1) goal
(2) fund
(3) way
(4) skill
(5) dream
96.
(1) countries
(2) others
(3) abroad
(4) neighbours
(5) poor
97.
(1) further
(2) extra
(3) more
(4) less
(5) high
98.
(1) Recently
(2) Any
(3) Friendly
(4) Many
(5) While
99.
(1) differences
(2) supply
(3) quantity
(4) people
(5) opportunities
100.
(1) substitute
(2) changed
(3) exchanged
(4) transform
(5) convert
Test III
Test of Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-115) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
101. 16% of 450 ÷ ?% of 250 = 4.8
(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
102. 5% of 524 = ?
(1) 102.18
(2) 122.81
(3) 120.18
(4) 112.81
(5) None of these
103. 
(1) 
(2) (28)2
(3) 
(4) 50
(5) None of these
104. 700 ÷ 70 ÷ 0.5 = ?
(1) 10
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 20
(5) None of these
105. 8 × 4.5 × 2.2 = ?
(1) 168.27
(2) 126.72
(3) 128.27
(4) 162.72
(5) None of these
106. 55 ÷ 5.5 – 0.5 = ?
(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 8.5
(4) 10.5
(5) None of these
107. (5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5)4 × (5 × 5)6 ÷ (5)2 = (25)?
(1) 10
(2) 17
(3) 19
(4) 12
(5) None of these
108. 8059 – 7263 = ? × 40
(1) 19.9
(2) 18.7
(3) 15.9
(4) 17.7
(5) None of these
109. 4 × ? = 4062 ÷ 5
(1) 203.1
(2) 213.1
(3) 205.1
(4) 215.1
(5) None of these
110. 5 × (80 ÷ 2.5) = ?
(1) 122
(2) 111
(3) 222
(4) 212
(5) None of these
111.
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
112. 13% of 258 – ? = 10
(1) 23.45
(2) 24.53
(3) 23.54
(4) 24.35
(5) None of these
113. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
114. 15 – 218.82 – 321.43 = ?
(1) 89.2
(2) 82.2
(3) 89.9
(4) 79.2
(5) None of these
115. 5437 – 3153 + 2284 = ? × 50
(1) 96.66
(2) 91.36
(3) 96.13
(4) 93.16
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(Note You are not expected to calculate the eact value.)
116. 003 × 27.998 – 209.010 = ?
(1) 150
(2) 200
(3) 75
(4) 240
(5) 110
117. 0003 ÷ 23.999 = ?
(1) 47
(2) 8
(3) 35
(4) 18
(5) 23
118. 009 – 419.999 – 94.989 = ?
(1) 6650
(2) 6830
(3) 6370
(4) 6200
(5) 6450
119. (6.5)2 = ?
(1) 58
(2) 25
(3) 43
(4) 35
(5) 50
120. 1111 ÷ 111 ÷ 11 = ?
(1) 9
(2) 20
(3) 5
(4) 2
(5) 25
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following numbers series?
121. 2 16 112 672 3360 13440 ?
(1) 3430
(2) 3340
(3) 40320
(4) 43240
(5) None of these
122. 4 9 19 ? 79 159 319
(1) 59
(2) 39
(3) 49
(4) 29
(5) None of these
123. 4000 2000 1000 500 250 125 ?
(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 62.5
(4) 83.5
(5) None of these
124. 588 563 540 519 ? 483 468
(1) 500
(2) 496
(3) 494
(4) 490
(5) None of these
125. 121 ? 81 64 49 36 25
(1) 92
(2) 114
(3) 98
(4) 100
(5) None of these
126. The average weight of 15 girls was recorded as 54 kg. If the weight of the teacher was added, the average increased by 2 kg. What was the teacher’s weight?
(1) 75 kg
(2) 95 kg
(3) 78 kg
(4) 86 kg
(5) None of these
127. Find the average of the following set of scores.
152, 635, 121, 423, 632, 744, 365, 253, 3202
(1) 403
(2) 396
(3) 428
(4) 383
(5) None of these
128. The sum of 15% of a positive number and 10% of the same number is 70. What is twice of that number?
(1) 440
(2) 280
(3) 560
(4) 140
(5) None of these
129. Vikram scored 72 per cent marks in five subjects together, viz Hindi, science, Maths, English and Sanskrit together, wherein the maximum marks of each subject were 100. How many marks did Vikram score in Science if he scored 80 marks in Hindi, 70 marks in Sanskrit, 76 marks in Maths and 65 marks in English?
(1) 72
(2) 69
(3) 59
(4) 71
(5) None of these
130. The respective ratio between Pooja’s, Prarthana’s and Falguni’s monthly income is 53 ; 70 : 57. If Prarthana’s annual income is Rs. 420000, what is the sum of Pooja’s and Falguni’s annual incomes? (in some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 592500
(2) Rs. 683500
(3) Rs. 660000
(4) Rs. 779200
(5) None of these
131. Manhar sold an item for Rs. 8400 and incurred a loss of 25%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 40%?
(1) Rs. 15680
(2) Rs. 16220
(3) Rs. 14540
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
132. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?
(1) 8
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 16
(5) 2
133. What would be the simple interest accrued in 4 yr on a principle of Rs. 16500 at the rate of 16% per annum?
(1) Rs. 11560
(2) Rs. 10250
(3) Rs. 12500
(4) Rs. 9980
(5) None of these
134. A truck covers a distance of 360 km in 8 h. A car covers the same distance in 6 h. What is the respective ratio between the speed of the truck and the car?
(1) 3 : 5
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 4 : 5
(5) None of these
135. In order to pass in an exam a student is required to get 975 marks out of the aggregate marks. Piya got 870 marks and was declared failed by 7%. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the examination?
(1) 1500
(2) 1000
(3) 1200
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
136. The average of four consecutive numbers A, B, C, and D respectively is 56.5. What is the product of A and C?
(1) 3363
(2) 3306
(3) 3192
(4) 3080
(5) None of these
137. Parag walks 226 m everyday. How many kilometers will he walk in five weeks?
(1) 6.57
(2) 7.91
(3) 8.23
(4) 9.41
(5) None of these
138. At present Kavita is twice Sarita’s age. Eight years hence, the respective ratio between Kavita’s and Sarita’s ages then will be 22 : 13. What is Kavita’s present age?
(1) 26 yr
(2) 18 yr
(3) 42 yr
(4) 36 yr
(5) None of these
139. Out of the fractions 
what is the difference between the second largest and second smallest fractions?
(1) 2/35
(2) 1/45
(3) 3/35
(4) 4/45
(5) None of these
140. What would be the area of a square shoe diagonal measures 28 cm?
(1) 288 cm2
(2) 514 cm2
(3) 428 cm2
(4) 392 cm2
(5) None of these
141. Riya, Manasvi and Pintu start running around a circular stadium and complete one round in 24 s, 6 s and 14 s respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
(1) 1 min 32 s
(2) 4 min 8 s
(3) 3 min 25 s
(4) 2 min 48 s
(5) None of these
142. A 240 m long train crosses a platform twice its length in 2 min. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
143. ‘On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 200 children. But on that particular day 40 children remained absent; hence each child got 2 sweets extra. How many sweets were distributed?
(1) 3000
(2) 1500
(3) 2000
(4) 1600
(5) Cannot be determined
144. The perimeter of a square is one-fourth the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 44 cm and the length of the rectangle is 51 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 30 cm
(2) 18 cm
(3) 26 cm
(4) 32 cm
(5) None of these
145. What is the difference between the compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 12000 at the end 3 yr at the rate of 12%?
(1) Rs. 539.136
(2) Rs. 602.242
(3) Rs. 495.248
(4) Rs. 488.322
(5) None of these
146. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a circle with circumference equal to 220 m. What is the length of the rectangle of its breadth is 50 m?
(1) 56 m
(2) 83 m
(3) 77 m
(4) 69 m
(5) None of these
147. Prashant incurred a loss of 75 per cent on selling an article for Rs. 6800.. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 27700
(2) Rs. 25600
(3) Rs. 21250
(4) Rs. 29000
(5) None of these
148. 2 women and 10 children together take 8 days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 10 children alone take to complete the piece of work in 8 women alone can complete the piece of work in 6 days?
(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 24
(5) None of these
149. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘TROUBLE’ be arranged?
(1) 840
(2) 5040
(3) 1260
(4) 2520
(5) None of these
150. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of a circular field along its circumference at the speed of 79.2 km/h in 2 min 40 s. What is the area of the field?
(1) 985600 m2
(2) 848500 cm2
(3) 795600 cm2
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Test IV
Test of General Awareness
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
151. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature?
(1) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(2) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(3) Padma Bhushan
(4) Nirja Bhanot Award
(5) Pultizer Prize
152. Ms Hina Rabbani Khar of Pakistan and Mr Yang Jiechi of China held a meeting recently in Beijing. Both of them are holding which of the following positions in their respective countries?
(1) Prime Ministers
(2) Commerce Ministers
(3) Foreign secretarties
(4) Foreign Ministers
(5) None of the above
153. International Cricket Matches are not played in
(1) Mohali Stadium
(2) Wankhede Stadium
(3) Eden Gardens
(4) Green Park Stadium
(5) Mughal Garden
154. Which term is used in Physics?
(1) Credit
(2) Absolute Zero
(3) Rabies
(4) Thyroxin
(5) Liquidity
155. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Chess?
(1) Checkmate
(2) Hoops
(3) Stroke
(4) Heave
(5) Deuce
156. Bank branches which can undertake foreign exchange business directly are known as ……….. in foreign exchange.
(1) authorized dealers
(2) foreign dealers
(3) overseas branches
(4) approved dealers
(5) Exchange branches
157. Which of the following is the name of a Scientific Instrument?
(1) Plasma
(2) Pascal
(3) Radiation
(4) Lactometer
(5) Adrenal Cortex
158. India recently conducted joint naval exercise SLINEX II with which of the following countries?
(1) Sri Lanka
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Russia
159. Insurance cover for bank deposits in our country is provided by
(1) SBI
(2) Govt. of India
(3) GIC
(4) LIC
(5) DICGC
160. The Financial Literacy does not include which of the following?
(1) How to invest the funds
(2) How to use the limited funds carefully
(3) How to minimize the risks
(4) How to reinvest the money earned
(5) None of these
161. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
(1) China
(2) India
(3) Russia
(4) France
(5) USA
162. Many times we read a term Dot in various newspapers in connection of 2G Spectrum. What is its full form?
(1) Department of Transport
(2) Department of Training
(3) Directorate of Technology
(4) Director of Tele Services
(5) Department of Telecom
163. As per the reports by the US Agencies, which of the following countries was the largest purchaser of weapons in 2010?
(1) China
(2) India
(3) Pakistan
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) Iran
164. Who among the following players got Honorary Rank of Lt. Colonel in the Territorial Army of India?
(1) Rahul Dravid
(2) Sachin Tendulkar
(3) Abhinav Bindra
(4) Leander Paes
(5) Gagan Narang
165. Which of the following Social Welfare Schemes is launched by the Govt. of India?
(1) Mid-day Meal Scheme
(2) Jeevan Asha
(3) Jeevan Bharti
(4) Look East Policy
(5) Bharat Narang
166. ‘Dinar’ is the currency of which of the following countries?
(1) Pakistan
(2) Iran
(3) Ghana
(4) South Sudan
(5) Libya
167. Who among the following also presides the sessions of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman/person?
(1) President
(2) Vice President
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(5) Minister of Home Affairs
168. Loans of very small amounts given to low income groups is called
(1) Cash credit
(2) Micro credit
(3) Simple overdraft
(4) No frills loans
(5) Rural credit
169. Which of the following awards was given to Mrs Nilima Mishra recently?
(1) Pulitzer Prize
(2) Ramon Magsaysay
(3) Nobel Peace Prize
(4) Golden Pen Award
(5) Kalinga Award
170. Which of the following is the name of the currency of a country?
(1) Mexico
(2) Peru
(3) Syria
(4) Zambia
(5) Lira
171. Which of the following is not the name of a country?
(1) Congo
(2) Ethiopia
(3) Paris
(4) Uganda
(5) East Timer
172. Mr Mahindra Rajapaksa is the
(1) President of Sri Lanka
(2) Prime Minister of Sri Lanka
(3) President of Nepal
(4) Prime Minister of Nepal
(5) Foreign Minister of Fiji
173. When a banker talks about CDR, what is the talking about?
(1) Corporate Debt Restructuring
(2) Corporate Debt Rollover
(3) Company Debt Rollover
(4) Corporate Deposit Restructuring
(5) Company Deposit Restructuring
174. Expand the term ALM as used in Banking/Finance sector?
(1) Asset Liability Management
(2) Asset Liability Maturity
(3) Asset Liability Mismatch
(4) Asset Liability Manpower
(5) Asset Liability Maintenance
175. Which of the following is the overall female literacy rate in India as per recent cenus? Approximately
(1) 50%
(2) 60%
(3) 65%
(4) 70%
(5) 73%
176. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) are terms most closely related to which of the following industries/markets?
(1) Capital market
(2) Banking industry
(3) Commodities market
(4) Money Market
(5) Mutual fund industry
177. What is the maximum period for which domestic term deposits are normally accepted by banks in our country?
(1) 3 yr
(2) 5 yr
(3) 7 yr
(4) 10 yr
(5) 12 yr
178. If you wish to purchase some US Dollars for your travel abroad, you should approach…….
(1) The ministry of finance
(2) The US Embassy
(3) Any Bank Branch authorized to do such activity
(4) The Reserve Bank of India
(5) External Affairs Ministry
179. Which of the following is a mineral?
(1) Isabgol
(2) Camphor
(3) Tobacco
(4) Nickel
(5) Jute
180. Which of the following countries is passing through a peculiar political impasse as there is no constitutional government in the country?
(1) Belgium
(2) Sudan
(3) Mongolia
(4) Iraq
(5) Greece
181. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar
(1) A Brief History of Time
(2) A Sense of Time
(3) Sunny Days
(4) Half A Life
(5) Great Expectations
182. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news?
(1) Liquidity
(2) Least
(3) Liabilities
(4) Long
(5) Liquid
183. The Banking Ombudsman
(1) is in charge of bank loans for buses
(2) fixes the rates of interest for loans
(3) resolves complaints of customers
(4) issues licences for new bank branches
(5) is the head of all nationalized banks
184. Which of the following is not classified as a Commercial Bank?
(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Foreign Bank
(3) Private Sector Bank
(4) Regional Rural Bank
(5) Urban Cooperative Bank
185. Which of the following is not the name of a Banking Organization?
(1) HDFC
(2) IDBI
(3) YES
(4) SEBI
(5) ICICI
186. Which of the following terms is used in Sports/Game?
(1) Equator
(2) Clean-Bowled
(3) Erosion
(4) Neap Tide
(5) Rotation
187. Money laundering means
(1) Hiding of income source mainly to avoid Income Tax
(2) Money acquired through criminal source
(3) Money acquired from undisclosed sources and deposited in foreign banks
(4) Process of conversion of money obtained illegally to appear to have originated from legitimate sources
(5) Money acquired from drug trafficking
188. Monetary Policy as an arm of the economic policy is administered by
(1) Government of India
(2) Reserve Bank of India
(3) State Bank of India
(4) Governments of the respective states
(5) None of the above
189. ‘Thumba’ India’s Rocket Launching Centre is located in
(1) Haryana
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Gujarat
(5) Odisha
190. Which of the following is not a primary function of a Bank?
(1) Granting Loans
(2) Collecting Cheques/Drafts of customers
(3) Facilitating import of goods
(4) Issuing Bank Drafts
(5) Selling Gold/Silver Coins
191. Mr Tony Tan is the new President of
(1) China
(2) Japan
(3) Singapore
(4) Hong Kong
(5) North Korea
192. Which of the following is observed as ‘World Food Day’ ?
(1) 6th November
(2) 16th November
(3) 6th October
(4) 16th October
(5) 17th January
193. Which of the following States is among the North East States of India?
(1) Jammu & Kashmir
(2) Punjab
(3) Himachal Pradesh
(4) Meghalaya
(5) Rajasthan
194. Which of the following is an agricultural product?
(1) Honey
(2) Butter
(3) Molasses
(4) Ginger
(5) Ethanol
195. Which of the following represent correct meaning of ‘REPO RATE’?
(1) Rate on which RBI sells Government Securities to Banks
(2) Rate for borrowing rupees by banks from RBI
(3) Rate offered by banks to their prime customers
(4) Rate applicable for grant of priority sector loans
(5) None of the above
196. Reserves which can act as a liquidity buffer for Commercial Banks during crisis times are
(1) CAR
(2) CRR
(3) CAR & CRR
(4) CRR & SLR
(5) SLR
197. Savings Bank accounts are opened by
(1) Trading entities, manufacturing entities and individuals for savings purposes
(2) Traders and manufacturers for business purposes
(3) Individuals for savings purposes
(4) Limited companies and partner ships for savings purposes
(5) Cooperative Banks for savings
198. Union Budget is always presented in the month of
(1) January
(2) March
(3) April
(4) December
(5) February
199. A customer drawing a cheque on a bank has a right to
(1) take back the cheque from the bank after it is paid
(2) take back the cheque from the ban after it is paid with the permission of RBI
(3) stop payment of the cheque before it is paid
(4) stop payment of the cheque after it is paid
(5) stop payment of the cheque after it is paid
200. Who among the following is a well known Politician and also a member of the Lok Sabha?
(1) Sri LK Advani
(2) Sr Ranjan Mathai
(3) Sri Mahesh Bhupathi
(4) Ms Saina Nehwal
(5) VVS Laxman
Test V
Test of Computer Knowledge
201. Assembly language is
(1) Machine language
(2) High-level programming language
(3) Low-level programming language
(4) Language for assembling computers
(5) None of the above
202. Which of the following is not one of the syntax rules?
(1) The order in which you list the function’s arguments
(2) The precedence of the arguments
(3) Whether or not the function has arguments
(4) Properly spelling the function’s name
(5) None of the above
203. The binary system is a n umber system to the base
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10
(5) 16
204. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
(1) Scanner
(2) Printer
(3) Monitor
(4) Mouse
(5) Interpreter
205. Which contents are lost when the computer turns off?
(1) Storage
(2) Input
(3) Output
(4) Memory
(5) None of these
206. Which of the following is hardware and not software?
(1) Excel
(2) Operating System
(3) Printer driver
(4) PowerPoint
(5) CPU
207. On a CD-RW, you can
(1) read and write information
(2) only read information
(3) only write information
(4) read, write and rewrite information
(5) None of the above
208. To be able to “boot”, the computer must have a(n)
(1) Compiler
(2) Loader
(3) Operating System
(4) Assembler
(5) None of these
209. This is a not a function category in Excel
(1) Logical
(2) Data Series
(3) Financial
(4) Text
(5) None of these
210. In Excel, this is a prerecorded formula that provides a shortcut for complex calculations
(1) Value
(2) Data Series
(3) Function
(4) Field
(5) None of these
211. The following computer’s memory is characterized by low cost per bit stored
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Hard Disk
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
212. What happens when we try to delete the files on the floppy?
(1) The files get moved to the Recycle Bin
(2) Files on a floppy cannot be deleted
(3) The files get deleted and can be restored again from Recycle Bin
(4) The files get deleted and cannot be restored again
(5) The file gets copied on the Hard disk
213. In word, replace option is available on
(1) File Menu
(2) View Menu
(3) Edit Menu
(4) Format Menu
(5) None of these
214. In word, you can change Page Margins by
(1) dragging the scroll box on the scroll bars
(2) deleting the margin boundaries on the ruler
(3) dragging the margin boundaries on the ruler
(4) clicking the right mouse button on the ruler
(5) None of the above
215. What type of keys are ‘ctrl’ and ‘shift’?
(1) Adjustment
(2) Function
(3) Modifier
(4) Alphanumeric
(5) None of these
216. A word gets selected by clicking it to select a word, in word
(1) once
(2) twice
(3) three times
(4) four times
(5) None of these
217. To reverse the effect of your last action in word,
(1) use the cut command
(2) use the undo command
(3) press the delete key
(4) use the redo command
(5) None of the above
218. Your position in the text is shown by a
(1) Blinker
(2) Cursor
(3) Causer
(4) Pointer
(5) None of these
219. The time for the actual data transfer after receiving the request for data from secondary storage is referred to as the disk’s
(1) transfer time
(2) movement time
(3) access time
(4) data input time
(5) None of these
220. Which of the following categories would include a keyboard?
(1) Printing Device
(2) Output Device
(3) Pointing Device
(4) Storage Device
(5) Input Device
221. Using output devices one can
(1) input data
(2) store data
(3) scan data
(4) view or print data
(5) None of these
222. Why is the Caps Lock key referred to as a toggle key?
(1) Because its function goes back and forth every time it is pressed
(2) Because it cannot be used for entering numbers
(3) Because it cannot be used to delete
(4) Because it cannot be used to insert
(5) None of the above
223. Using Print Preview is useful when you want to
(1) colour the document
(2) save the document
(3) delete the document
(4) copy the document
(5) view how the document will appear when printed
224. Which of the following can input graphical images and pictures for a computer?
(1) Plotter
(2) Scanner
(3) Mouse
(4) Printer
(5) Keyboard
225. When a chart is placed on this, it is much larger and there is no other data on it
(1) Chart sheet
(2) Exclusive sheet
(3) Primary sheet
(4) Reference sheet
(5) None of these
226. The process of trading goods over the Internet is known as
(1) e-selling-n-buying
(2) e-trading
(3) e-finance
(4) e-salesmanship
(5) e-commerce
227. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called
(1) Output
(2) Input
(3) Throughput
(4) Reports
(5) None of these
228. The main system board of a computer is called the
(1) integrated circuit
(2) motherboard
(3) processor
(4) microchip
(5) None of these
229. This dialog box specifies or modifies the worksheet cell range containing data to be charted
(1) Chart Location
(2) Chart Style
(3) Chart Options
(4) Chart Source Data
(5) None of these
230. If you change Windows 98 to Windows XP, you are actually performing
(1) upstart
(2) upgrade
(3) update
(4) patch
(5) None of these
231. The operating system that is self-contained in a device and resident in the ROM is
(1) Batch Operating System
(2) Real-time Operating System
(3) Embedded Operating System
(4) Multi-Processor Operating System
(5) None of these
232. To make a copy of the current document to disk
(1) use the “save” command
(2) this cannot be done
(3) use the “duplicate” command
(4) copy the document
(5) use the “save as” command
233. …….. is the process of carrying out commands.
(1) Fetching
(2) Storing
(3) Decoding
(4) Executing
(5) None of these
234. In the formula, =B1/B2+B3, which of the following is the correct precedence?
(1) Addition higher precedence than division
(2) Equal precedence among the two operators, proceed right to left
(3) Equal precedence among the two operators, proceed left to right
(4) Division higher precedence than addition
(5) None of the above
235. POST stands for
(1) Power on Self Test
(2) Program on Self Test
(3) Power on System Test
(4) Program on System Test
(5) Power Off System Test
236. In word, you can use Styles to
(1) make copies of documents
(2) save changes to documents
(3) delete text in documents
(4) format your documents
(5) None of these
237. How many megabytes make a gigabyte?
(1) 1024
(2) 128
(3) 256
(4) 512
(5) 64
238. An educational institution would generally have the following in its domain name
(1) .org
(2) .edu
(3) .inst
(4) .com
(5) .sch
239. Which of t he following is not a term pertaining to the Internet?
(1) Keyboard
(2) Link
(3) Browser
(4) Search Engine
(5) Hyperlink
240. Which of the following is used by the browser to connect to the location of the Internet resources?
(1) Linkers
(2) Protocol
(3) Cable
(4) URL
(5) None of these
241. Excel would evaluate the formula = 20*10/4*8 and return the answer
(1) 400
(2) 40
(3) 6.25
(4) 232
(5) 600
242. Which of the following is the fastest type of computer?
(1) Laptop
(2) Notebook
(3) Personal computer
(4) Workstation
(5) Supercomputer
243. Linux is a type of ……… software.
(1) Shareware
(2) Commercial
(3) Proprietary
(4) Open Source
(5) Hidden type
244. In a website, the ‘homepage’ refers to
(1) the best page
(2) the last page
(3) the first page
(4) the most recent page
(5) he oldest page
245. Which key is used to delete one character to the left of the current position of the cursor?
(1) Backspace
(2) Delete
(3) Insert
(4) Esc
(5) Ctrl
246. Which part of the computer helps to store information?
(1) Monitor
(2) Keyboard
(3) Disk drive
(4) Printer
(5) Plotter
247. To restart the computer, the following combination of keys is used
(1) Del + Ctrl
(2) Backspace + Ctrl
(3) Esc + Ctrl
(4) Insert + Esc
(5) Ctrl + Alt + Del
248. ASCII stands for
(1) American Special Computer for Information Interaction
(2) American Standard Computer for Information Interchange
(3) American Special Code for Information Interchange
(4) American Special Computer for Information Interchange
(5) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
249. In word, whey you indent a paragraph, you
(1) push the text in with respect to the margin
(2) change the margins on the page
(3) move the text up by one line
(4) move the text down by one line
(5) None of the above
250. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly?
(1) Ctrl, shift and alt
(2) Function keys
(3) The numeric keypad
(4) Arrow keys
(5) None of these
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