IBPS Bank Clerk CWE Ist Sitting Examination
Held on 11-12-2011
Test I
Test of Reasoning
1. In a certain code ‘TERMINAL’ is written as ‘NSFUMBOJ’ and ‘TOWRS’ is written as ‘XPUTSF’. How is ‘MATE’ written in that code?
(1) FUBN
(2) UFNB
(3) BNFU
(4) BNDS
(5) None of these
2. The positions of how many digit in the number 5314687 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. What should come in p lace of the question mark (?) in the following letter series?’
AC EG IK MO ?
(1) PR
(2) QS
(3) QR
(4) PS
(5) None of these
4. ‘ERID’ is related to ‘DIRE’ in the same way s ‘RIPE’ is related to …….. ?
(1) EPIR
(2) PERI
(3) EPRI
(4) PEIR
(5) IPRE
5. How many meaningful English words can be made with the third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word ‘DOWNGRADED’, using each letter only once in each word?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) N each question below, a group of digits/symbols is given, followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations (1), (2), (3) and (4) correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions those follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5) i.e., ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol 5 9 @ © 3 8 1 $ % 4 2 6 * 7 δ #
Letter code B E P A K D F H Q I R J U M V T
Conditions
(i) If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol, both these are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(ii) If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is an even digit, their codes are to the interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last units in the group are symbols, both these are to be coded as ‘X’.
6. @91$26
(1) JEFHRP
(2) PEFHRP
(3) XEFHRX
(4) PEFHRJ
(5) None of these
7. 387#©9
(1) KMDTAE
(2) KDMATE
(3) EDMTAK
(4) KDMTAK
(5) None of these
8. 4@312δ
(1) VPKFRV
(2) VPKFRI
(3) XPKFRX
(4) IPKFRV
(5) None of these
9. %4187*
(1) QIFDMU
(2) UIFDMQ
(3) XIFDMX
(4) UIFDMU
(5) None of these
10. 9124δ6
(1) EFRIVJ
(2) JFRIVE
(3) EFRIVE
(4) XFRIVX
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In the following question, the symbols ?, % *, $ and © are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements D $ T, T % M, M * J Conclusions J δ D II. M © D
12. Statements B * K, K $ N, N % R Conclusions R $ K II. R * K
13. Statements H % F, F * W, W $ E Conclusions E δ F II. H δ W
14. Statements Z δ D, D © K, K δ M, Conclusions M * D II. Z δ K
15. Statements W © B, N δ B, N © F Conclusions F δ B II. W * N
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, T, V, R, D, K and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. V is second to the left of T. T is fourth to the right of M. D and P are not immediate neighbours of T. D is third to the right of P. W is not an immediate neighbour of P. P is to the immediate left of K.
16. Who is second to the left K?
(1) P
(2) R
(3) M
(4) W
(5) Data inadequate
17. Who is to the immediate left of V?
(1) D
(2) M
(3) W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
18. Who is third to the right of V?
(1) T
(2) K
(3) P
(4) M
(5) None of those
19. What is R’s position with respect to V?
(1) Third to the right
(2) Fifth to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way base on their positions in the above seating arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(1) DW
(2) TP
(3) VM
(4) RD
(5) KR
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data given in both the statement I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data both the statement I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
21. Towards which direction is village M from Village T?
I. Village P is to the South of Village M and Village P is to the West of Village T.
II. Village K is to the East of village M and Village K is to the North of Village T.
22. On which day in July was definitely Mohan’s mother’s birthday?
I. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before eighteenth but after twelfth July.
II. Mohan’s sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after fifteenth but before nineteenth July.
23. How is D related to M?
I. K and D are only sisters of R.
II. M is married to R’s father.
24. How is ‘near’ written in a code language?
I. ‘go near the tree’ is written as ‘sa na pa ta’ in that code language.
II. ‘tree is near home’ is written as ‘ja pa da sa’ in that code language.
25. Among A, B, C, D and E, each having scored different marks in an exam, who has scored the lowest marks?
I. D has scored more marks than only three of them.
II. A has scored more marks than only E.
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input pink for 25 72 white jar 12 96
Step I 96 pink for 25 72 white jar 12
Step II 96 for pink 25 72 white jar 12
Step III 96 for 72 pink 25 white jar 12
Step IV 96 for 72 jar pink 25 white 12
Step V 96 for 72 jar 25 pink white 12
Step VI 96 for 72 jar pink 12 white
and Step Vi is the last step of the rearrangement as the desired arrangement is reached..
As per the rules followed the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
26. Input 16 power failure 61 53 new cost 27
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Five
(4) Four
(5) None of these
27. Step II of an Input 84 ask quit these 39 12 old 51
Which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1) quit these 39 12 old 84 ask 51
(2) quit these 39 12 old 51 84 ask
(3) quit 84 these ask 39 12 old 51
(4) Cannot b e determined
(5) None of these
28. Step III of an Input 63 bed 58 never go home 46 28
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these
29. Input rows 25 columns 39 46 fear star 72
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(1) V
(2) VI
(3) VII
(4) VIII
(5) None of these
30. Input ordinary 47 tablet 36 dry 91 32 handle
(1) 91 dry 47 handle 36 32 ordinary tablet
(2) 91 dry 47 handle 36 ordinary 32 tablet
(3) 91 dry 47 handle 36 ordinary tablet 32
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a club. Each of them likes one day of the week viz. Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them owns a different car type viz. Swift, Alto, Figo, Beat, SX4, Estillo and Optra, not necessarily in the same order.
C likes Wednesday and his favourite car is neither SX4 nor Optra. E does not like Monday and his favourite car is likes Tuesday. D likes Saturday and D’s favourite car is not SX4. G’s favourite car is Alto. F likes Thursday. B does not like Estillo.
31. Who among them likes Tuesday?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
32. Whose favourite car is Figo?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) C
(5) None of these
33. Who among them likes Sunday?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) F
(4) E
(5) Data inadequate
34. Whose favourite car is SX4?
(1) B
(2) A
(3) F
(4) D
(5) None of these
35. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) F – Thursday – Estillo
(2) C – Wednesday – Alto
(3) D – Saturday – Beat
(4) G – Monday – Swift
(5) All are incorrect
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known fats and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
36. Statements Some trees are bushes. All flowers are bushes.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some bushes are trees. II. Atleast some flowers are trees.
37. Statements All colours are paints. No paint is a brush.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some brushes are colours. II. No brush is a colour.
38. Statements Some chemical are organics. All organics are fertilizers.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some fertilizers are chemicals. II. All fertilizers are organics.
39. Statements No air is solid. Some solids are liquids.
Conclusions
I. No liquid is air. II. Some airs are definitely not liquids.
40. Statements All gems are diamonds. All diamonds are rocks.
Conclusions
I. Atleast some rocks are gems. II. All gems are rocks.
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
41. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
Test II
Test of English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) In each of the these questions, two sentences I and II are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.
51. I. Boats take more time going against the ………. of the river.
II. She keeps herself abreast …….. events.
(1) flow
(2) latest
(3) water
(4) all
(5) current
52. I. While trying to open the door, the ……broke.
II. It is not difficult to ………tricky situations.
(1) handle
(2) knob
(3) bracket
(4) overcome
(5) win
53. I. This course teaches you not to …….. to temptations.
II. We hope to increase our ……….. of rice this year.
(1) succumb
(2) produce
(3) yield
(4) share
(5) submit
54. I. When you play your radio at high ………., it disturbs others.
II. We have just received a latest ……… of this encyclopaedia.
(1) edition
(2) volume
(3) channel
(4) frequency
(5) pitch
55. I. It helps to rinse one’s mouth early morning with a ……….. of salt and water.
II. You can always refers to this reference material to find the …….. to these problems.
(1) mixture
(2) answers
(3) liquid
(4) fix
(5) solution
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1) (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt in appropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.
56. Solving the energy challenge (1) / requires behaviour (2) / change and new technological (3) / (4) / All correct (5)
57. The first thing that catches your eye (1) / in this building (2) / is the flour (3) / to the economic (4) / All correct (5)
58. The services (1) / sector has contributed (2) / significantly (3) / to the economic (4) / All correct (5)
59. IT Companies have (1) / been allotted landing (2) / in this area to develop (3) / and start their operations (4) / All correct (5)
60. Other then (1) / the regular incentives (2) / the government (3) / is offering land sites at concessional (4) / All correct (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.
61. In term with seating capacity, it is the third largest stadium in India.
(1) On terms with
(2) As far as
(3) In respective to terms with
(4) In terms of
(5) No correction required
62. That actor can double for the star if needed
(1) if need
(2) if need be
(3) while it is needed
(4) whenever needed be
(5) No correction required
63. The 1982 Asian Games brought about a major change in India.
(1) brought after
(2) bring after
(3) best resulted
(4) bring around
(5) No correction required
64. Tourism, surely has suffered given the huge social unrest in the country.
(1) giving the huge
(2) because to
(3) as the huge
(4) taken the huge
(5) No correction required
65. Combining the ongoing crisis in Europe, the data does make a case for a pause in rate hike.
(1) Together
(2) Apart with
(3) Combined with
(4) Combination of
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-80) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words/ phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The e-waste (management and Handling) Rules, 2011 notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, have the potential to turn a growing problem into a developmental opportunity. With almost half-a-year to go before the rules take effect, there is enough time to create the necessary infrastructure for collection, dismantling, and recycling of electronic waste. The focus must be on sincere and efficient implementation. Only decisive action can reduce the pollution and health costs associated with India’s hazardous waste recycling industry. If India can achieve a transformation, it will be creating a whole new employment sector that provides good wages and working conditions for tens of thousands. The legacy response of the States to even the basic law on urban waste, the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, has been one of indifference, many cities continue to simply burn the garbage or dump it in lakes. With the emphasis now on segregation of waste at source and recovery of materials, it should be feasible to implement both sets of rules efficiently. A welcome feature of the new e-waste rules is the emphasis on extended producer responsibility. In other words, producers must take responsibility for the disposal of end-of-life products. For this provision to work, they must ensure that consumers who sell scrap get some form of financial incentive.
The e-waste rules, which derive from those pertaining to hazardous waste, are scheduled to come into force on May 1, 2012. Sound as they are, the task of scientifically disposing a few hundred thousand tones of trash electronics annually depends heavily on a system of oversight by State Pollution Control Boards (PCBs). Unfortunately, most PCBs remain unaccountable and often lack the resource for active enforcement. It must be pointed out that, although agencies handling e-waste must obtain environmental clearances and be authorized and registered by the PCBs even under the Hazardous Wastes (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008, there has been little practical impact. Over 95 per cent of electronic waste is collected and recycled by the informal sector. The way forward is for the PCBs to be made accountable for enforcement of the e-waste rules, and the levy of penalties under environmental laws. Clearly, the first order priority is to create a system that will absorb the 8000-strong workforce in the informal sector into the proposed scheme for scientific recycling. Facilities must be created to upgrade the skills of these workers through training and their occupational health must be ensured.
Recycling of e-waste is one of the biggest challenges today. In such a time, when globalization and information technology are growing at a pace which could only be imagined few years back, e-waste and its hazards have become more prominent over a period of time and should be given immediate attention.
66. What according to the passage is important now for e-waste management?
(1) Making rules
(2) Reviewing rules
(3) Implementing rules
(4) Notifying rules
(5) Amending rules
67. Which of the following can be one of the by-products of effective e-waste management?
(1) India can guide other countries in doing so
(2) It will promote international understanding
(3) It will promote national integration
(4) It will create a new employment sector
(5) It will further empower judiciary
68. Which of the following rules h as not been indicated in the passage?
(1) e-waste Rules, 2011
(2) Pollution Check Rules
(3) Hazardous Wastes Rules, 2008
(4) Municipal Solid Wastes Rules
(5) All above have been indicated
69. “both sets of rules” is being referred to which of the following?
(1) Solid wastes and Hazardous wastes
(2) e-waste and Hazardous waste
(3) Solid waste and e-waste
(4) e-waste and e-production
(5) Solid waste and recycling waste
70. e-waste rules have been derived from those pertaining to
(1) Hazardous waste
(2) PC waste
(3) Computer waste
(4) Municipal solid waste
(5) National waste
71. Which of the following will help implement “both sets of rules”?
(1) Employment opportunities
(2) International collaboration
(3) Financial incentive
(4) Segregation of waste at source
(5) Health costs
72. e-waste Rules came/come into force from
(1) 2008
(2) 2009
(3) 2010
(4) 2011
(5) 2012
73. Which of the following best explains the meaning of the phrase – “which could only be imagined few years back”, as used in the passage?
(1) It was doomed
(2) It took us few years
(3) It took us back by few years
(4) Imagination is better than IT
(5) None of these
74. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(1) No city dumps its waste in lakes
(2) Some cities burn garbage
(3) PCBs have adequate resources for active enforcement
(4) e-waste was a much bigger challenge in the past
(5) None of the above
75. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) Some form of financial incentive is recommended for the producers
(2) Some financial incentive is recommended for the consumers
(3) e-waste will be a few hundred thousand tonnes
(4) The agencies handling e-waste have to obtain environmental clearances
(5) Those involved in e-waste management would need to upgrade their skills
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-78) Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
76. clearance
(1) cleaning
(2) permission
(3) sale
(4) remedy
(5) clarity
77. turn
(1) throw
(2) chance
(3) send
(4) transform
(5) rotate
78. potential
(1) intelligence
(2) aptitude
(3) possibility
(4) portion
(5) will
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-80) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
79. feasible
(1) unattended
(2) physical
(3) practical
(4) unviable
(5) wasteful
80. indifference
(1) interest
(2) difference
(3) ignorance
(4) rule-bound
(5) insignificance
Directions (Q. Nos. 81-90) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (5).
81. If you have made a mistake (1) / while filling up the form (2) / you should be informed (3) / the Income Tax Department immediately. (4) / No error (5)
82. Reading newspapers will (1) / help you (2) / in understand banking (3) / and business concepts. (4) / No error (5)
83. Government departments should (1) / share information with (2) / one another so that (3) / they records are up-to-date. (4) / No error (5)
84. The bank will decide (1) / unless Ashok is (2) / eligible for a loan (3) / based on his monthly salary. (4) / No error (5)
85. The power supplying in (1) / many states has been (2) / badly affected because (3) / of the shortage of coal. (4) / No error (5)
86. The government has many (1) / new schemes for people (2) / who want to start (3) / businesses in rural aras. (4) / No error (5)
87. The rate of interest (1) / offered by banks to (2) / customers who had savings banks accounts (3) / was decided by RBI early. (4) / No error (5)
88. To provide more such facility (1) / to its workers, the company (2) / is planning to build (3) / schools and parks in the township. (4) / No error (5)
89. Every year this IT company (1) / conducts training programmes (2) / for employees so that (3) / they learn new skills. (4) / No error (5)
90. According to newspaper reports (1) / there is more internet users (2) / in small towns (3) / than in metros. (4) / No error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-100) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which of it’s the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Today countries all over the world are experiencing many natural disasters like floods and earthquakes. In 2011, the United Nations conducted as (91) on the natural disasters that occurred (92) 1975 to 2007. Their report said that the (93) of natural disasters has increased tremendously (94) we do not respect the environment and (95) unsafe cities. Some countries like Japan are also (96) in the areas where earthquakes often take place. (97) countries cope with these natural disasters efficiently (98) making technological developments. So Japan invests in (99) buildings which earthquakes will not destroy (100).
We cannot avoid challenges but must face up to them.
91.
(1) war
(2) discovery
(3) study
(4) experiment
(5) test
92.
(1) earlier
(2) before
(3) sooner
(4) from
(5) throughout
93.
(1) loss
(2) time
(3) reports
(4) examples
(5) number
94.
(1) therefore
(2) because
(3) that
(4) accordingly
(5) simply
95.
(1) live
(2) travel
(3) build
(4) constructs
(5) crowded
96.
(1) located
(2) situate
(3) position
(4) put
(5) nearby
97.
(1) When
(2) These
(3) How
(4) Neighbouring
(5) Any
98.
(1) for
(2) is
(3) inspite
(4) try
(5) by
99.
(1) designing
(2) drawing
(3) buying
(4) damaging
(5) falling
100.
(1) finally
(2) noisily
(3) naturally
(4) luckily
(5) easily
Test III
Test of Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 101-115) What should come in place of the question mar (?) in the following questions?
101. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
102. 8 × 5.5 × 8.4 = ?
(1) 458.69
(2) 489.96
(3) 498.96
(4) 485.69
(5) None of these
103. 45 ÷ 5 – 0.05 = ?
(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 9.5
(4) 8.5
(5) None of these
104. 5 × (60 ÷ 2.5) = ?
(1) 62
(2) 96
(3) 74
(4) 88
(5) None of these
105. (4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4)5 × (4 × 4 × 4)8 ÷ (4)3 = (64)?
(1) 17
(2) 10
(3) 16
(4) 11
(5) None of these
106. 5 × ? = 8484 ÷ 4
(1) 444.2
(2) 424.2
(3) 442.2
(4) 422.2
(5) None of these
107. 7059 – 2350 + 1936 = ? × 50
(1) 123.6
(2) 132.3
(3) 132.6
(4) 123.9
(5) None of these
108. 16% of 550 × ?% of 500 = 2.5
(1) 5.64
(2) 8.11
(3) 7.04
(4) 6.08
(5) None of these
109. 8648 – 7652 = ? × 40
(1) 24.7
(2) 28.9
(3) 27.4
(4) 25.9
(5) None of these
110. 22% of 364 − ? = 23
(1) 50.02
(2) 57.08
(3) 53.16
(4) 59.14
(5) None of these
111. 46 – 227.39 – 341.85 = ?
(1) 114.22
(2) 141.22
(3) 144.22
(4) 112.22
(5) None of these
112. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
113. 
(1) 
(2) (52)2
(3) 
(4) 52
(5) None of these
114. 5% of 608 = ?
(1) 88.16
(2) 86.18
(3) 81.68
(4) 86.88
(5) None of these
115. 840 ÷ 40 ÷5 = ?
(1) 8.5
(2) 21
(3) 10.5
(4) 42
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(Note You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
116. 0003 ÷ 19.999 = ?
(1) 49
(2) 18
(3) 22
(4) 45
(5) 38
117. 0009 – 487.999 – 87.989 = ?
(1) 6000
(2) 6570
(3) 6430
(4) 6200
(5) 6310
118. (9.5)2 = ?
(1) 75
(2) 90
(3) 125
(4) 110
(5) 80
119. 003 × 22.998 – 280.110 = ?
(1) 220
(2) 110
(3) 160
(4) 90
(5) 200
120. 5454 ÷ 54 ÷ 5 = ?
(1) 15
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 20
(5) 10
Directions (Q. Nos. 121-125) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
121. 10000 2000 400 80 16 2 ?
(1) 0.38
(2) 0.45
(3) 0.64
(4) 0.54
(5) None of these
122. 2 10 42 170 ? 2730 10922
(1) 588
(2) 658
(3) 596
(4) 682
(5) None of these
123. 600 519 ? 406 370 345 329
(1) 435
(2) 455
(3) 425
(4) 445
(5) None of these
124. 5 ? 15 75 525 4725 51975
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 6
(5) None of these
125. 3 6 12 24 48 96 ?
(1) 192
(2) 182
(3) 186
(4) 198
(5) None of these
126. 3 women and 18 children together take 2 days to complete a piece of work. How many days 9 children alone take to complete the piece of work if 6 women alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?
(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6
(5) None of these
127. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following question?
(1) 16
(2) 64
(3) 2
(4) 4
(5) 8
128. Out of the fractions 
what is the difference between the largest and smallest fractions?
(1) 6/13
(2) 11/18
(3) 7/18
(4) 11/20
(5) None of these
129. The average weight of 21 boys was recorded as 64 kg. If the weight of the teacher was added, the average increased by one kg. What was the teacher’s weight?
(1) 86 kg
(2) 64 kg
(3) 72 kg
(4) 98 kg
(5) None of these
130. The perimeter of square is twice the perimeter of a rectangle. If the perimeter of the square is 72 cm and the length of the rectangle is 12 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the side of the square?
(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 18 cm
(4) 3 cm
(5) None of these
131. Find the average of the following set of scores
253, 124, 255, 534, 836, 375, 101, 443, 760
(1) 427
(2) 413
(3) 441
(4) 490
(5) None of these
132. Raj sold an item for Rs. 6384 and incurred as loss of 30%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 30%?
(1) Rs. 14656
(2) Rs. 11856
(3) Rs. 13544
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
133. What would be the simple interest accrued in 4 yr on a principle of Rs. 18440 @ 15% per annum?
(1) Rs. 11075
(2) Rs. 12250
(3) Rs. 11500
(4) Rs. 12985
(5) None of these
134. A truck covers a distance of 640 km in 10 h. A car covers the same distance in 8 h. What is the respective ratio between the speed of the truck and the car?
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 5 : 6
(4) 6 : 7
(5) None of these
135. The respective ratio between Sita’s, Riya’s and Kunal’s monthly income is 84 : 76 : 89. If Riya’s annual income is Rs. 456000, what is the sum of Sita’s and Kuna’s annual incomes? (In some cases monthly income and some cases annual income is used.)
(1) Rs. 1195000
(2) Rs. 983500
(3) Rs. 1130000
(4) Rs. 1038000
(5)
136. The sum of 15% of a positive number and 20% of the same number is 126. What is one-third of that number?
(1) 360
(2) 1080
(3) 120
(4) 40
(5) None of these
137. Nandita scored 80 per cent marks in five subjects together viz, Hindi, Science, Maths, English and Sanskrit together, wherein the maximum marks of each subject were 105. How many marks did Nandita score in Science if she scored 89 marks in Hind, 92 marks in Sanskrit, 98 marks in Maths and 81 marks in English?
(1) 60
(2) 75
(3) 65
(4) 70
(5) None of these
138. At present Anil is 1.5 times Purvi’s age. Eight years hence, the respective ratio between Anil and Purvis age then will be 25 : 18. What is Purvi’s present age?
(1) 50 yr
(2) 28 yr
(3) 42 yr
(4) 36 yr
(5) None of these
139. The average of four consecutive numbers A, B, C and D respectively 49.5. What is the product of B & D?
(1) 2499
(2) 2352
(3) 2450
(4) 2550
(5) None of these
140. Faisal walks 325 m every day. How many kilometers will he walk in four weeks?
(1) 6.2
(2) 9.1
(3) 8.6
(4) 7.8
(5) None of these
141. Niraj incurred as loss of 55 per cent on selling an article for Rs. 9549. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 27700
(2) Rs.25600
(3) Rs. 21220
(4) Rs. 29000
(5) None of these
142. What is the difference between the compound interest and simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 16200 at the end of three years @ 25%? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)
(1) Rs. 3213.44
(2) Rs. 3302.42
(3) Rs. 3495.28
(4) Rs. 3290.63
(5) None of these
143. A 280 m long train crosses a platform thrice its length in 6 min 40 s. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 3.2 m/s
(2) 1.4 m/s
(3) 2.8 m/s
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
144. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a circle with circumference equal to 39.6 m. What is the length of the rectangle if its breadth is 4.5m?
(1) 33.52 m
(2) 21.63 m
(3) 31.77 m
(4) 27.72 m
(5) None of these
145. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘VENTURE’ be arranged?
(1) 840
(2) 5040
(3) 1260
(4) 2520
(5) None of these
146. In order to pass in an exam a student is required to get 780 marks out of t he aggregate marks. Sonu got 728 marks and was declared failed by 5 per cent. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get in the examination?
(1) 1040
(2) 1100
(3) 1000
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
147. What would be the measure of the diagonal of a square whose area is equal to 882 cm2?
(1) 38 cm
(2) 32 cm
(3) 42 cm
(4) 48 cm
(5) None of these
148. A man riding a bicycle, completes one lap of a circular field along its circumference at the speed of 14.4 km/h in 1 min 28 s. What is the area of the field?
(1) 7958 m2
(2) 9856 m2
(3) 8842 m2
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
149. Harish, Dilip and Asha start running around a circular stadium and complete one round in 27 s, 9s and 36 s respectively. In how much time will they meet again at the starting point?
(1) 1 min 48 s
(2) 2 min 36 s
(3) 3 min 11 s
(4) 2 min 25 s
(5) None of these
150. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 300 children. But no that particular day 50 children remained absent, hence each child go one sweet extra. How many sweets were distributed?
(1) 1450
(2) 1700
(3) 1500
(4) 1650
(5) Cannot be determined
Test IV
Test of General Awareness
(With Special Reference to Banking Industry)
151. Which of the following is not a function of commercial bank?
(1) Providing project finance
(2) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
(3) Deciding policy rates like CRR, SLR & Repo Rates
(4) Issuing credit/debit/ATM cards
(5) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances
152. The Election Commission of India is given training to the electoral officers of which of the following countries in its neighbourhood?
(1) Nepal
(2) Pakistan
(3) China
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Bhutan
153. What is money laundering?
(1) Conversion of assets into cash
(2) Conversion of money which his illegally obtained
(3) Conversion of cash into gold
(4) Conversion of gold into cash
(5) Conversion of gold with foreign currency
154. As per news reports in various newspapers and journals, ‘IAEA’ Governors approved the safety plan, so that it can be implemented by all the countries, willing to adopt it. IAEA is an agency/organization working in the area of
(1) Nuclear Energy
(2) Word Trade
(3) International Banking
(4) Defence
(5) Social Welfare
155. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card?
(1) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(2) No interest earning for banks
(3) Works like a normal withdrawal slip
(4) 45 days credit is given to the card holder
(5) All of the above
156. Shanti Swarup Bhatangar Award is given for excellence in the field of
(1) Literature
(2) Music
(3) Sports
(4) Science and Technology
(5) Social Service
157. Funding of which of the following is not a lending for infrastructure sector?
(1) Highway Project
(2) Construction of Educational Institution
(3) Construction of Hospital
(4) Laying of Petroleum Pipelines
(5) Higher Studies
158. ‘Raag Darbari’ is a famous book written in Hindi by
(1) Shri Amarkant
(2) Shri Shrilal Shukla
(3) Shri Nirmal Verma
(4) Shri Harivansh Rai Bachchan
(5) Smt Malti Joshi
159. Which of the following is a measure taken by Reserve Bank of India to control inflation in our country?
(1) Increase in CRR
(2) Increase in SLR
(3) Contraction of supply of currency
(4) Raising of Repo / Reverse Repo Rate
(5) Decrease the SLR
160. Leila Lopes who was crowned Miss Universe recently is a citizen of
(1) USA
(2) Britain
(3) Brazil
(4) India
(5) Angola
161. What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
(1) Consumption loan
(2) Mortgage loan
(3) Consumer durables loan
(4) Home loan
(5) None of these
162. Ms Helle Thorning Schmidt is the first Woman Prime Minister of
(1) Norway
(2) Brazil
(3) Denmark
(4) Argentina
(5) None of these
163. What is a stale cheque?
(1) A cheque issued without drawer’s signature
(2) A cheque with only signature of the drawer
(3) A cheque which has completed six months from its date of issue
(4) A six months’ post dated cheque
(5) Any one of the above
164. The 34th General Assembly of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) was organized recently in
(1) London
(2) New Delhi
(3) Vienna
(4) Milan
(5) Stockholm
165. Ram has been nominated in the Savings Account of Sita. Ram requests the bank authorities to allow him to operate Sita’s account as she is unwell. What will the bank do?
(1) Bank will allow Ram to operate the account as he is the nominee
(2) As nomination will come into effect only after death of depositor, Bank will not allow
(3) As Ram is husband of Sita in addition to being the nominee, the Bank should allow
(4) Out of pity for Sita and on account of long term relationship, the Bank may allow
(5) Bank can take a promissory note from Ram and allow him to operate the account
166. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Last Man in the Tower’?
(1) Vikram Seth
(2) Kiran Desai
(3) Shobha De
(4) Chetan Bhagat
(5) Aravind Adiga
167. Which one of the following is ‘material alternation’ of a negotiable instrument?
(1) Converting an order cheque to bearer cheque
(2) Converting a bearer cheque to order cheque
(3) Crossing of an uncrossed cheque
(4) Writing an amount on a blank cheque
(5) Putting a signature on the back of a cheque
168. Which of the following days was proclaimed ‘International Literacy Day’ by UNESCO?
(1) 8th September
(2) 18th September
(3) 18th October
(4) 8th October
(5) 28th November
169. What do you understand by the term ‘Mortgage’?
(1) Sale of a moveable security in the event of default by the borrower
(2) Registration of charge with the Registrar of Companies
(3) Making the security of immovable property available as a cover for a home loan by the borrower
(4) Registration of charge with the Regional Transport Authority
(5) Returning of the security to borrower by the bank on receipt of full payment
170. Which of the following honorary rank is given to MS Dhoni in the Territorial Army?
(1) Major General
(2) Sergeant
(3) Major
(4) Lieutenant Colonel
(5) Colonel
171. Which one of the following constitutes the largest percentage of Retail loans in India?
(1) Auto loans
(2) Personal loans
(3) Personal overdrafts
(4) Consumer loans
(5) Home loans
172. Which of the following is a food crop?
(1) Jute
(2) Jatropha
(3) Jowar
(4) Cotton
(5) Tobacco
173. Credit risk to the bank is high from which of these cards?
(1) Debit cards
(2) Credit cards
(3) ATM cards
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
174. Who among the following is not a sports person?
(1) Sania Mirza
(2) Azim H Premji
(3) Leander Paes
(4) Ricky Ponting
(5) Rahul Dravid
175. Depreciation of an asset occurs due to
(1) fire in the unit
(2) theft
(3) labour trouble
(4) wear and tear
(5) None of these
176. Which of the following international events is associated with the game for car racing?
(1) Twenty-20
(2) FIFA World Cup
(3) Dubai Open
(4) Singapore Grand Prix
(5) Grand Master
177. Which of the following is not a source of funds of a commercial bank?
(1) Capital
(2) Borrowings from RBI
(3) Call money borrowings
(4) Deposits
(5) Cash reserves with RBI
178. Who among the following is a Golf Player and represents India in International Events?
(1) Mahesh Bhupati
(2) Pankaj Advani
(3) Jeev Milkha Singh
(4) Vijendra Singh
(5) Zaheer Khan
179. Which one of the is a Credit Card Association?
(1) India Card
(2) Master Card
(3) SBI Cards
(4) Citi Bank Cards
(5) BOB Card
180. Which one of the following Indian companies makes Tractors?
(1) Maruti Suzuki
(2) Ford Motors
(3) Ashok Leyland
(4) Mahindra Gujarat
(5) Tata Motors
181. Which one of the following is not an electronic banking delivery channel?
(1) Mobile Vans
(2) Mobile Phone Banking
(3) Internet Banking
(4) Tele Banking
(5) ATM
182. Who among the following women is a Minister in Union Cabinet?
(1) Smt M Vijaya Shanthi
(2) Smt Priya Dutt
(3) Smt Sonia Gandhi
(4) Smt Sushma Swaraj
(5) Smt Ambika Soni
183. The Rate at which the domestic currency can be converted into foreign currency and vice-versa is known as the
(1) Exchange rate
(2) MIBOR
(3) Inter bank Call money rate
(4) Base rate
(5) LIBOR
184. Which of the following is not a major IT company in India?
(1) CMC Ltd
(2) Raymonds
(3) HCL Technologies
(4) Infosys Technologies
(5) Tata Consultancy Services
185. Which of the following institutions is an asset reconstruction company?
(1) CIBIL
(2) DICGC
(3) BCSBI
(4) ARCIL
(5) IRDA
186. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Economics?
(1) Biosphere
(2) Exchange Rate
(3) Equator
(4) Harmonic Tremor
(5) Lignite
187. Crossing on a cheque can be cancelled by the ……… of the cheque, under his full signature.
(1) payee
(2) drawee
(3) endorser
(4) holder
(5) drawer
188. Who among the following is the President of a country at present?
(1) Ban-ki Moon
(2) Pascal Lemy
(3) Margaret Chan
(4) Dmitry Medvedev
(5) Kaushik Basu
189. Which of the following category of advance accounts is not an NPA?
(1) Standard account
(2) Substandard account
(3) Doubtful account
(4) Loss account
(5) All ‘1; to ‘4’ are NPAs
190. Who among the following is the Cabinet Secretary, Govt. of India at present?
(1) Shri Ajit Kumar Seth
(2) Shri Ranjan Mathai
(3) Shri Shiv Shankar Menon
(4) Shri R K Singh
(5) None of the above
191. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
(1) Leg-Bye
(2) Smash
(3) Kidney Punch
(4) Deuce
(5) Love
192. Which of the following is a metal?
(1) Chlorine
(2) Zinc
(3) Neon
(4) Iodine
(5) Hydrogen
193. Which of the following is the name of India’s Space launching vehicle?
(1) Edusat
(2) G-SAT
(3) PSLV
(4) Kalpana 1
(5) HTPB
194. Who among the following is the author of the famous Russian Classic book ‘The Mother’?
(1) Maxim Gorky
(2) Vladimir Nabokov
(3) Leo Tolstoy
(4) Edgar Allan Poe
(5) Nikita Khruschev
195. Which of the following is not the name of a game?
(1) Billiards
(2) Polo
(3) Bridge
(4) Wrestling
(5) Olympic
196. Which of the following is the name of a Chinese food equally popular in India?
(1) Chopsticks
(2) Sumo
(3) Chowmein
(4) Fengshui
(5) Kanji
197. Which of the following film is directed by Karan Johar?
(1) Wake up Sid
(2) Chandni Bar
(3) My Name is Khan
(4) Fashion
(5) Ra-One
198. Which of the following awards has been given to Brajesh Mishra in 2011?
(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
(4) Padmashri
(5) Man of the Year 2011
199. Which of the following is the Capital of Madhya Pradesh?
(1) Indore
(2) Lucknow
(3) Dehradun
(4) Bhopal
(5) Raipur
200. Kabul is town in
(1) Pakistan
(2) Nepal
(3) Bhutan
(4) Bangladesh
(5) Afghanistan
Test V
Test of Computer Knowledge
201. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process is known as a
(1) digit
(2) byte
(3) megabyte
(4) kilobyte
(5) bit
202. Compatibility, with regard to computers, refers to
(1) the software dong the right job for the user
(2) it being versatile enough to handle the job
(3) the software being able to run on the computer
(4) software running with only other previously installed software
(5) software permanently available in the computer
203. A ……….. uses pressure as a user presses it with a stylus to send signals.
(1) touchpad
(2) TrackPoint
(3) graphics tablet
(4) trackpad
(5) keyboard
204. The justification that aligns text on both margins of a document in word is
(1) Justify
(2) Bold
(3) Center
(4) Right
(5) Balanced
205. A partially completed workbook that contains formulas and formatting, but no data is called a
(1) prototype
(2) template
(3) model
(4) function
(5) None of these
206. A byte can represent any number between 0 and
(1) 2
(2) 255
(3) 256
(4) 1024
(5) 1025
207. Connectivity for a new computer means
(1) allowing a printer to be connected to it
(2) having a modem and/or network connection to communicate with other computers
(3) connecting the software to the hardware of the system
(4) connecting a mouse, a keyboard and a printer-al essential hardware pieces for the average user
(5) software permanently available in the computer
208. A ………… is used to read handwritten or printed text to make a digital image that is stored in memory.
(1) printer
(2) laser beam
(3) scanner
(4) touchpad
(5) keyboard
209. The shortcut key Ctrl+F in Word is used for
(1) to view document in full view
(2) to open the Formula dialog box
(3) to save the file
(4) to open the Find and Replace dialog box
(5) None of the above
210. Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel document is referred to by its cell address, which is the
(1) cell’s column label
(2) cell’s column label and worksheet tab name
(3) cell’s row label
(4) cell’s row and column labels
(5) cell’s contents
211. The most widely used code that represents each character as a unique 8-bit code is
(1) ASCII
(2) Unicode
(3) binary numbering system
(4) EBDIC
(5) ACSII
212. Operating systems and utility programs are in a class of software known as
(1) application software
(2) sequential software
(3) system software
(4) BIOS software
(5) system software
213. OCR stands for
(1) Optical Coding Recognizer
(2) Ostensibly Characterized Reader
(3) Original Code Reader
(4) Original Character Reader
(5) Optical Character Recognition
214. The Open, Print and Save buttons are all located on the
(1) Status bar
(2) Formatting toolbar
(3) Standard toolbar
(4) Title bar
(5) Status and Title bars
215. To copy a cell, you would drag the cell border while simultaneously holding down the Ctrl key when
(1) you have one or more cells to copy
(2) only some of the cells are visible in the window
(3) you don’t want to refer to absolute references
(4) the distance between cells is short and they are both visible in the window
(5) None of the above
216. The permanently etched program in ROM that automatically begins executing the computer’s instructions is the
(1) BIOS
(2) ROM
(3) CMOS
(4) RAM
(5) None of these
217. Information stored in RAM is considered volatile, which means it is
(1) stored there permanently
(2) not held permanently, only temporarily
(3) stored when the electricity is shut off
(4) stored permanently in the CPU device
(5) None of these
218. The display size of a monitor is measured
(1) zig-bag
(2) horizontally
(3) vertically
(4) from center to the furthest corner
(5) diagonally
219. The name of the a Microsoft Office Word document is displayed in both the . and the taskbar.
(1) menu bar
(2) task bar
(3) formatting toolbar
(4) standard toolbar
(5) title bar
220. Excel is designed to provide visual cues to the relationships between the cells that provide values to the formulas or the cells that depend on the formulas by
(1) bolding the cell references to match the colour coding of the borders around the references worksheet cells
(2) highlighting the cell references
(3) colour coding the cell references in the formula to match the borders around the referenced worksheet cells
(4) bolding the cell references
(5) None of the above
221. A limitation of software that digitizes voice data is that it
(1) is prohibitively expensive
(2) must be trained to recognize individual voices
(3) can only be used on high-end computers
(4) cannot be used on laptop computers
(5) cannot be used on desktop computers
222. External devices such as printers, keyboards and modems are known as
(1) add-on devices
(2) extra hardware devices
(3) extra hardware devices
(4) PC expansion slot add-ons
(5) special-buys
223. The higher the resolution of a monitor, the
(1) larger the pixels
(2) less clear the screen is
(3) further apart the pixels
(4) closer together the pixels
(5) None of the above
224. To select a word, you click it
(1) once
(2) twice
(3) three times
(4) four times
(5) None of these
225. This Excel feature includes functions to calculate an Average, Minimum, Maximum and Count
(1) format
(2) number
(3) autosum
(4) calculate
(5) MIN
226. For a computer to recognize and understand analog data, it must first be
(1) sent to a mainframe for interpretation
(2) analyzed by the ALU of the CPU
(3) decoded
(4) analyzed for viruses
(5) digitized
227. Expansion cards are inserted into
(1) slots
(2) peripheral devices
(3) the CPU
(4) the back of the computer
(5) pegs
228. Which type of software is distributed free but requires the users to pay some amount for further use?
(1) Freeware
(2) Shareware
(3) Rentalware
(4) Public-domain-software
(5) Abandonware
229. Using print preview is useful when you want to
(1) colour the document
(2) save the document
(3) delete the document
(4) copy the document
(5) view how the document will appear when printed
230. What does a website address uniquely specify?
(1) Web browser
(2) Website
(3) PDA
(4) Storage
(5) Hard disk
231. A pixel is a
(1) picture element or dot on a screen
(2) point of ink on a laser-printed page
(3) point of ink on an ink-jet printed page
(4) light beam used as an input device
(5) None of the above
232. The most common pointing input device is the
(1) trackball
(2) touchpad
(3) touchscreen
(4) mouse
(5) scanner
233. The file that is created through word processing is a
(1) database file
(2) storage file
(3) worksheet file
(4) document file
(5) graphical file
234. Web pages are saved in ……. format.
(1) http://
(2) HTML
(3) DOC
(4) URL
(5) None of these
235. What are the two parts of an e-mail address?
(1) User name and street address
(2) Legal name and phone number
(3) User name and domain name
(4) Initials and password
(5) Login name and password
236. If employees reside in different parts of the country and need to meet monthly, useful computer technology would be
(1) video-display software
(2) video digitizing
(3) video conferencing
(4) video scanning
(5) None of these
237. The wheel located between the two standard buttons on a mouse is used to
(1) click in web pages
(2) shut down
(3) click and select items
(4) jump to different web pages
(5) scroll
238. Which type of software is used in the design of products, structures, civil engineering drawings and maps?
(1) CAD programs
(2) Desktop programs
(3) Drawing programs
(4) Painting programs
(5) Video/audio programs
239. Advanced word processing features include all except creation of
(1) alternate headers and footers
(2) columns
(3) detailed architectural drawings
(4) stylesheets
(5) None of these
240. The computer that hosts your e-mail account is known as a(n)
(1) host
(2) e-mail client
(3) e-main server
(4) listserv
(5) None of these
241. ………… can interpret voice data into words that can be understood by the computer.
(1) Speech input hardware
(2) Talking software
(3) Word recognition software
(4) Speech recognition software
(5) Adobe reader
242. A touchpad responds to
(1) light
(2) pressure
(3) clicking
(4) the sense of heat from fingertips
(5) None of these
243. What is the term for calculations used within spreadsheets?
(1) Analyses
(2) Ranges
(3) Formulas
(4) Recalculations
(5) Values
244. This is a set of values that you want to chart in Excel.
(1) object
(2) numbers
(3) data mart
(4) formulas
(5) data series
245. Before you can begin using e-mail, you must have a(n)
(1) browser
(2) modem
(3) server
(4) scanner
(5) account
246. Until a computer can recognize handwriting, an input device must
(1) store the information in secondary storage
(2) optimize the information
(3) digitize the information
(4) show the information on a screen
(5) become an output device also
247. The pointing device that comes built into a laptop computer can be any except a
(1) mouse
(2) trackball
(3) touchpad
(4) pointing stick
(5) None of these
248. The button that displays the window over the entire screen is
(1) scroll box
(2) downsize
(3) restore down
(4) minimize
(5) maximize
249. The .xls extension is used for …… files.
(1) Windows
(2) Access
(3) Power Point
(4) Word
(5) Excel
250. Which of the following are tasks that may be completed when configuring your e-mail client?
(1) Provide the IP address of your ISP’s mail server
(2) Provide the name of your e-mail account
(3) Specify that mail is to be deleted from the host computer after it is downloaded to your computer
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
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