Union Bank of India
Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination
Held on 10-01-2010
Test I
Reasoning Ability
1. If ‘P’ denotes ‘−’; ‘Q’ denotes ‘÷’; ‘R’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘W’ denotes ‘+’, then
48 Q 12 R 10 P 8 W 4
(1) 56
(2) 40
(3) 52
(4) 44
(5) None of these
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in t he English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
3. In a certain code language, ‘green grass everywhere’ is written as ‘dik pa sok’ and ‘cow eats grass’ is written as ‘nok ta pa’. How is ‘cow’ written in that code language ?
(1) nok
(2) ta
(3) nok or ta
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
4. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
5. In a certain code, MAIN is written as ‘9364’ and DEAR is written as ‘8532’. How is MEND written in that code ?
(1) 9548
(2) 9458
(3) 9538
(4) 9528
(5) None of these
6. Prakash walked 30 m towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 m. He again took a left turn and waked 30 m. He then took a right turn and stopped. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped ?
(1) South
(2) North
(3) East
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
7. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest number among the five three-digit numbers given below ?
512 739 428 843 654
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
(5) 5
8. The positions of how many digits in the number 5314697 will remain unchanged if the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. In a certain code, DREAMING is written as BFSEFMHL. How is TREATISE written in that code ?
(1) USFBDRHS
(2) BFSUDRHS
(3) BFSUSHRD
(4) BDQSDRHS
(5) None of these
10. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different amount of money, C has more money that only E. B has more money than D but less than A. Who among them has the highest amount of money ?
(1) B
(2) A
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-16) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
D 3 M % R 1 @ 6 F 9 E © K P 2 B 1 7 ⋆ U Q 4 A W F 5 $ 8 # Z δ
11. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a number and not immediately p receded by a number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
12. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
13. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) Four
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) KP©
(2) UQ⋆
(3) 9EF
(4) IB7
(5) R1%
15. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(1) 6
(2) %
(3) 8
(4) A
(5) None of these
16. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the eleventh from the left end ?
(1) P
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) B
(5) None of t hese
Directions (Q. 17-22) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II follow
17. Statements : All bells are hammers. All hammers are dogs. All dogs are packets.
Conclusions : I. Some packets are hammers.
II. Some dogs are bells.
18. Statements : Some days are night. All nights are stars. All stars are clouds.
Conclusions : I. Some clouds are days.
II. Some stars are days.
19. Statements : All cardsa re boxes. No box is slate. Some slates are tiles.
Conclusions : I. No slate is card.
II. Some tiles are boxes.
20. Statements : Some trees are forests. Some forests are houses. Some houses are tents.
Conclusions : I. Some tents are forests.
II. Some houses are trees.
21. Statements : All ropes are tiles. Some tiles are bangles. All bangles are nails.
Conclusions : I. Some nails are topes.
II. Some nails are tiles.
22. Statements : Some papers are arrows. All arrows are sticks. Some sticks are boards.
Conclusions : I. Some boards are papers.
II. No board is paper.
Directions (Q. 23-28) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. R is second to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. T is third to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of either R or Z. S is fourth to the right of Z. Q is fourth to the right of T.
23. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting in between the second and the third person ?
(1) TRV
(2) PST
(3) WPQ
(4) QZV
(5) Data inadequate
24. In which of the following pairs is the first persons sitting to the immediate left of the second person ?
(1) RV
(2) ZV
(3) WQ
(4) SP
(5) None of these
25. What is S’s position, with respect to W ?
(1) Third to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Fourth to the right
(4) Fourth to the left
(5) Second to the right
26. Who is second to the right of S ?
(1) T
(2) V
(3) W
(4) Data indequate
(5) None of these
27. Who is to the immediate right of Q ?
(1) P
(2) W
(3) Z
(4) V
(5) None of these
28. Who is to the immediate left of T ?
(1) S
(2) P
(3) R
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 29-34) : In the following questions, the symbols $, %, ⋆, ? and # are used with the following meaning as illustrate below.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor equal than to Q’.
‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater nor equal than to Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater nor equal than to Q’.
Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
Given answer (5) if both Conclusion I and II are true
29. Statements : K $ R, R δ W, W # T
Conclusions : I. T % R
II. K $ W
30. Statements : H % R, R # K, K $ B
Conclusions : I. B ⋆ R
II. K $ H
31. Statements : B δ V, V % M, M $ J
Conclusions : I. J ⋆ V
II. M # B
32. Statements : D # R, R δ M, M $ J
Conclusions : I. M δ D
II. M $ D
33. Statements : K ⋆ T, T $ M, M δ J
Conclusions : I. J ⋆ K
II. J ⋆ T
34. Statements : N % F, F # H, H ⋆ U
Conclusions : I. U $ F
II. H % N
Directions (Q. 35-40) : In each questions below as given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the four combinations correctly represents the groups of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number f that combination as your answer. If none of the combination correctly represents the group of letter, mark (5) ie, ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter : A M P J E I R T W B U K Y Z H
Digit/ 1 9 2 @ 3 © 4 8 7 $ 6 % 5 ⋆ δ
Symbol code
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
35. IMPBEZ
(1) ©92$3©
(2) ⋆92$3⋆
(3) ⋆92$3©
(4) ©9$23©
(5) None of these
36. KHAPYI
(1) %δ125%
(2) ©δ125%
(3) ©δ215©
(4) ©δ125©
(5) None of these
37. UPAMYE
(1) 612953
(2) 321956
(3) 621956
(4) 621953
(5) None of these
38. JPERTB
(1) @3248$
(2) @2348@
(3) $2348@
(4) @23485
(5) None of these
39. BPTRKA
(1) $284%1
(2) 1284%$
(3) 1284%1
(4) $284%$
(5) None of these
40. JETWBH
(1) δ387$@
(2) @387$@
(3) @387$δ
(4) δ387$δ
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 41-50) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures, if the sequence were continued ?
41. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
42. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
43. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
44. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
45. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
46. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
47. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
48. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
49. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
50. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
Test II
Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. 51-75) : What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions ?
51. 4 × 22.5 – 232 ÷ 8 = ?
(1) 1242
(2) 1422
(3) 1240
(4) 1268
(5) None of these
52. 013 – 22.104 + 62.903 – 9.048 = ?
(1) 44.744
(2) 42.764
(3) 4.724
(4) 44.764
(5) None of these
53. 125 × 625 ÷ 25 = 5 (13 – ?)
(1) 3
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 9
(5) None of these
54. (0.6)4 × (0.36)2 × (0.216) = (0.6)(?)
(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 11
(4) 13
(5) None of these
55. 37% of 248 – 27% of 310 = ?
(1) 8.60
(2) 7.06
(3) 9.10
(4) 8.06
(5) None of these
56. 38% of 295 + 62% of 445 = ?
(1) 380
(2) 388
(3) 346
(4) 391
(5) None of these
57. 831 – 31.425 + 18.749 – (?) = 12
(1) 3.255
(2) 3.105
(3) 4.155
(4) 4.345
(5) None of these
58. 5% of 320 + 7.4% of 450 = ?
(1) 90.5
(2) 92.8
(3) 86.3
(4) 98.6
(5) None of these
59. 
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4
(5) None of these
60. 
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
(5) None of these
61. 62626 – 6262 + 626 – 62 + 6 = ?
(1) 56934
(2) 56494
(3) 54694
(4) 54664
(5) None of these
62. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
63. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
64. 42 – 43.82 + 16.57 – 32.49 = ?
(1) 24.68
(2) 22.48
(3) 29.58
(4) 26.68
(5) None of these
65. 494 ÷ 38 × (?) = 832 ÷ 4
(1) 18
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 12
(5) None of these
66. 4359 – 320 × 3 = 2156 ÷ 14 + (?)
(1) 3225
(2) 3425
(3) 3545
(4) 3595
(5) None of these
67. 
(1) 7
(2) 49
(3) 6
(4) 36
(5) None of these
68. (?)% of 432 × 5 = 540
(1) 45
(2) 25
(3) 34
(4) 30
(5) None of these
69. 
(1) 240
(2) 280
(3) 290
(4) 254
(5) None of these
70. 18% of 350 + 12% of 600 = ?
(1) 125
(2) 137
(3) 135
(4) 149
(5) None of these
71. 21 × 24 – (4)3 + 72 – (?) = 192
(1) 134
(2) 128
(3) 161
(4) 149
(5) None of these
72. 4611 – (18)2 – 440 + (16)2 = ?
(1) 4183
(2) 4003
(3) 4103
(4) 4193
(5) None of these
73. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
74. 94 + 36.78 – 71.63 = ?
(1) 105.09
(2) 108.89
(3) 111.89
(4) 109.09
(5) None of these
75. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
76. The sum of the presents ages of Ram, Shyam and Vijay is 72 yr. Also, the sum of present ages of Ram and Shyam is 42 yr. What is the present age of Vijaya ?
(1) 30 yr
(2) 24 yr
(3) 18 yr
(4) 36 yr
(5) None of these
77. Sohan spends 23% of an amount of money on an insurance policy, 33% on food, 19% on children’s education and 16% on recreation. He deposits the remaining amount of Rs 504 in bank. How much total amount did he spend on food and insurance policy together ?
(1) Rs 3200
(2) Rs 3126
(3) Rs 3136
(4) Rs 3048
(5) None of these
78. What least number should be subtracted from 9889 to make it a perfect square ?
(1) 84
(2) 88
(3) 108
(4) 74
(5) None of these
79. If the total cost of four tube lights and three bulbs is Rs 260 and the ratio between the cost of a tube light and a bulb is 5 : 2 respectively, what is the total cost of one tube light and six bulbs ?
(1) Rs 210
(2) Rs 130
(3) Rs 180
(4) Rs 170
(5) None of these
80. The compound interest accrued on a sum of Rs 7500 in 2 yr is Rs 927. What would be the rate of interest per cent per annum ?
(1) 5.4%
(2) 8%
(3) 6%
(4) 8.4%
(5) 5%
81. Three-tenth of a number is equal to 36% of another number. If the sum of these two numbers is 88, then what is the value of the smaller number ?
(1) 38
(2) 40
(3) 48
(4) 34
(5) None of these
82. The difference between the circumferences of two circles is 132 cm and the radius of smaller circle is 14 cm. What is the radius of larger circle ?
(1) 14 cm
(2) 21 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 42 cm
(5) None of these
83. In a test, minimum passing percentage for reserved and unreserved category is 40% and 54% respectively. A candidate from unreserved category secured 300 marks and failed by 24 marks. What is the minimum passing marks of reserved category in that test ?
(1) 280
(2) 254
(3) 230
(4) 240
(5) None of these
84. Five-ninth of 62% of a number is equal to 2790. What is the number ?
(1) 8100
(2) 7200
(3) 6300
(4) 8500
(5) None of these
85. In how many different ways can be letters of word ‘POWERS’ be arranged ?
(1) 640
(2) 720
(3) 1440
(4) 360
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 86-88) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series ?
86. 9 73 105 121 129 (?) 135
(1) 13
(2) 131
(3) 133
(4) 134
(5) None of these
87. 7 14 25 38 55 74 (?)
(1) 97
(2) 99
(3) 107
(4) 113
(5) None of these
88. 23 33 46 62 81 103 (?)
(1) 126
(2) 130
(3) 133
(4) 128
(5) None of these
89. Out of the fractions 
which is the third lowest fraction ?
(1) 6/11
(2) 13/23
(3) 15/29
(4) 3/7
(5) 4/13
90. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3 respectively. Also its perimeter is 112 cm. What is the area of a rectangle ?
(1) 748 sq cm
(2) 768 sq cm
(3) 680 sq cm
(4) 840 sq cm
(5) None of these
91. If (9)2 is subtracted from a square of a number, the value so obtained is 544. What is the number ?
(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 32
(4) 27
(5) None of these
92. The ratio of angles of a triangle is 3 : 5 : 7. What is the difference between double the smallest angle and half of the largest angle ?
(1) 25
(2) 36
(3) 38
(4) 30
(5) None of these
93. The salary of an employee of a company increases every month by 4%. If his salary in August was Rs 6300, what will be his approximate salary in month of October of the same year ?
(1) Rs 6552
(2) Rs 6967
(3) Rs 6814
(4) Rs 6627
(5) Rs 6933
94. If a certain sum of money is distributed among 43 people, each one gets Rs 221 and Rs 8.3 is left. What is the total amount ?
(1) Rs 9480
(2) Rs 9586
(3) Rs 9408
(4) Rs 8648
(5) None of these
95. What will come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following equation ?
(1) 18
(2) 16
(3) 12
(4) 24
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-97) : What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
96. 
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 6
(4) 13
(5) 3
97. 3968 ÷ 28 × (6)2 + 410 = ?
(1) 5800
(2) 5500
(3) 5400
(4) 5600
(5) 6100
98. Three men or eight boys can do a piece of work in 17 days. How many days will two men and six boys together take to finish the same work ?
(1) 9 days
(2) 11 days
(3) 14 days
(4) 12 days
(5) None of these
99. The cost price of an item is two-third of its selling price. What is the gain/loss per cent on that item ?
(1) 45
(2) 50
(3) 35
(4) 54
(5) None of these
100. The ratio between the present ages of Dheeraj and Raman is 2 : 3 respectively. Four years ago, the ratio between their ages was 5 : 8 respectively. What will be Dheeraj’s age after 7 yr ?
(1) 29 yr
(2) 35 yr
(3) 31 yr
(4) 33 yr
(5) 41 yr
Test III
General Awareness
101. Which of the following schemes was launched to provide cooked food to school going children in India, so that they are motivated to come to school regularly ?
(1) Right to Education
(2) Food for Work Scheme
(3) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(4) Annapurna Scheme
(5) None of the above
102. As per the Union Budget 2009-10, the income upto which of the following limits is exempted from Income Tax for all categories of the people ?
(1) Rs 15000
(2) Rs 30000
(3) Rs 1 lakh
(4) Rs 240000
(5) Rs 5 lakh
103. The outlay for which of the following games to be held in New Delhi in 2010 has increased to Rs 3472 crore ?
(1) Olympics
(2) SAARC (Games)
(3) IPL Cricket
(4) Para Olympic Games
(5) Commonwealth Games
104. A special Summit of which of the following organizations was held in Pittsburgh, to workout a formula to maintain stability in economic growth in all the big countries ?
(1) G-8
(2) G-15
(3) G-20
(4) WTO
(5) NATO
105. How much percentage of the total time deposits of the Banks is locked as Statutory Liquidity Reserve (SLR) ?
(1) 10%
(2) 15%
(3) 20%
(4) 25%
(5) None of these
106. Which of the following terms is not associated with the phenomenon of Global Warming ?
(1) Ozone depletion
(2) CO2 emission
(3) Green house effect
(4) EI Nino effect
(5) Subprime crisis
107. What is the amount that has been given in the year 2009-10 (in addition to usual outlay) to improve the higher education in India ?
(1) Rs 500 crore
(2) Rs 750 crore
(3) Rs 1000 crore
(4) Rs 1500 crore
(5) Rs 2000 crore
108. As per the second quarterly review of the RBI’s Annual Policy, the Wholesale Price Index at the end of March 2010 is likely to stay at the level of
(1) 5%
(2) 5.5%
(3) 6%
(4) 6.5%
(5) 7%
109. Which of the following is a method of irrigation in India ?
(1) Canopy
(2) Grazing
(3) Contour farming
(4) Desalination
(5) Sprinkler
110. Right to Education Bill has been passed by the Parliament. .The bill was introduced to help which of the following groups of society ?
(1) College going teenagers
(2) Those who are interested in technical education
(3) Female students studying Sr. Secondary level
(4) Children upto the age of 14 yr
(5) All adults who could not get formal education
111. Which of the following is the currency of Dubai ?
(1) Taka
(2) Dinar
(3) Dollar
(4) Dirham
(5) None of these
112. Who amongst the following presented the Railway Budget 2009-10 in Parliament after general elections ?
(1) Shri Pranab Mukherjee
(2) Mrs. Mamta Banerjee
(3) Shri Lalu Prasad Yadav
(4) Shri Manmohan Singh
(5) None of the above
113. Most of the Thermal power stations in India still u se which of the following as one of their important inputs to generate power ?
(1) Sea water
(2) Coal
(3) Heavy water
(4) Natural gas
(5) None of these
114. As per the instructions given by the RBI, now all banks are required to provide which of the following in all its branches mandatorily ?
(1) Note sorting machines
(2) Special counters for senior citizens
(3) Special counters for women customers
(4) Service sector
(5) All of the above
115. Which of the following schemes was launched to promote exports of agricultural produce and their value added products in India ?
(1) Vishesh Krishi and Gramodyog Yojana
(2) Financial Inclusion Scheme
(3) Rastriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
(4) Van Upaj Yojana
(5) None of the above
116. The Yashpal Panel submitted its report to the HRD Ministry a few months back. This panel was set up to review and suggest improvement in which of the following ?
(1) Higher education
(2) Examination pattern in CBSE schools
(3) Basic education
(4) Pay scales of the faculty of IIMs and IITs
(5) Adult education
117. As per the target fixed under PM’s Employment Generation Programme how many employments are to be generated in Small and Medium sectors by the year 2011-12 ?
(1) 10 lakh
(2) 20 lakh
(3) 27 lakh
(4) 37 lakh
(5) 47 lakh
118. Which of the following organizations is not associated with the financial/banking sector in India ?
(1) NABARD
(2) BSE
(3) ISRO
(4) ECGC
(5) SEBI
119. The Government of India has decided to build a 84 km historic road in which of the following states, tracing the path once take by Emperor Akbar ?
(1) Delhi
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Bihar
(4) Gujarat
(5) Jammu & Kashmir
120. Under ‘One Village One Product’ scheme launched in North East states, plantation of which of the following is being promoted as an inaugural product of the scheme ?
(1) Lemon
(2) Banana
(3) Apple
(4) Orange
(5) None of these
121. Which of the following states cannot be called a silk producing state ?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Karnataka
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(4) West Bengal
(5) Himachal Pradesh
122. Which of the following central taxes has now been withdrawn ?
(1) Value Added Tax
(2) Commodity Transaction Tax
(3) Gift Tax
(4) Corporate Tax
(5) All of the above
123. Which of the following sectors has shown clear signs of revival in recent months and has grown at the rate of 5.8% dur3ing April-August 2009 ?
(1) Agriculture
(2) Energy sector
(3) Industry sector
(4) Service sector
(5) All of these
124. As per current guideline, what is the stake that foreign entities can hold (without prior permission) in the industrial units, manufacturing items reserved from the small and medium sectors in India ?
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 24%
(4) 33%
(5) None of these
125. World’s top leaders were assembled in Copenhagen in December 2009 for a meet on Climate change. Copenhagen is in which of the following countries ?
(1) USA
(2) France
(3) Denmark
(4) Germany
(5) Italy
126. Which of the following is India’s rank in Human Development Index 2009 ?
(1) 110
(2) 115
(3) 134
(4) 157
(5) None of these
127. Six non-member countries namely China, Japan, India, South Korea, Australia and New Zealand were specially invited to attend which of the following summits held in October 2009 in Thailand ?
(1) NATO
(2) SAARC
(3) BRIC
(4) G-8
(5) ASEAN
128. India has recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries of the Indian subcontinent ?
(1) Myanmar
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Pakistan
(4) Bhutan
(5) Nepal
129. Omar Abdullah the Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir, is form which of the following political parties ?
(1) Bhartiya Janata Party
(2) Samajawadi Party
(3) Communist Party of India
(4) Bahujan Samaj Party
(5) None of the above
130. As per the Mission Clean Ganga, no discharged sewage will be flown into the river by the year
(1) 2010
(2) 2012
(3) 2015
(4) 2020
(5) 2022
131. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Football ?
(1) Irani Cup
(2) Subroto Cup
(3) Agha Khan Cup
(4) Wimbledon Cup
(5) Rangaswami Cup
132. Which of the following terms is not used in the field of Banking & Finance ?
(1) Overdraft
(2) Base line
(3) RTGS
(4) GBC
(5) Retail
133. Which of the following is a book written by Vikram Seth ?
(1) The Other Side of Midnight
(2) The Blind Assassin
(3) A Rainbow Last Night
(4) The Golden Gate
(5) None of the above
134. Which of the following countries is at the top of the list of nations having maximum quantity of Gold with them ?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) Russia
(4) USA
(5) None of these
135. The Asia Pacific Wealth Report 2009 compiled by Capgemini was published recently. As per this report, which of the following countries of the Asia Pacific region is the wealthiest ?
(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) India
(4) Australia
(5) None of these
136. Now-a-days, the Election Commission of India users ‘EVM’ during the general election in the country. What is the full form of EVM ?
(1) Election Validation Machine
(2) Electronic Voting Machine
(3) Election Validation Management
(4) Early Voting Movement
(5) None of the above
137. As we all know, Government of India has established an Unique Identification Authority of India. The authority will launch its pilot project in the State of
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Jammu & Kashmir
(5) West Bengal
138. Which of the following countries is helping India in the construction of nuclear power stations across the country in a big way ?
(1) USA
(2) Germany
(3) Brazil
(4) Iran
(5) Argentina
139. Many times we hear about GM food. what is full form of the term GM ?
(1) Globally Marketed
(2) Genetically Modified
(3) Greenwich Method
(4) Grossly Mineralled
(5) None of the above
140. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Japan immediately prior to Yukio Hatoyama, who took over in September 2009 ?
(1) Taro Aso
(2) Shinzo Abe
(3) Yasuo Fukuda
(4) Junichiro Koizumi
(5) None of the above
141. Ramon Magsasay Award 2009 has been awarded to Deep Joshi for his contribution in the field of
(1) Rural Development
(2) Literature
(3) Social Service
(4) Music
(5) Sports
142. Rupesh Kumar and Sanave Thomas were the two persons who represented India at the
(1) Word Badminton Championship
(2) Third Asian Carrom Championship
(3) Asian Age Group Swimming Championship
(4) World Athletics Championship 2009
(5) New Zealand Grand Prix 2009
143. Government of India is planning to amend Article 243 (D) of the Indian Constitution. This article deals with which of the following areas ?
(1) Primary Education
(2) Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(3) Panchayati Raj System
(4) Reservation for Women in the Parliament
(5) None of the above
144. As per the new Foreign Trade Policy the annual growth of export should increase by which of the following levels by 2011 ?
(1) 10%
(2) 15%
(3) 12%
(4) 25%
(5) None of these
145. Late YS Rajasekhara Reddy who died in an air mishap was the Chief Minister of
(1) Karnataka
(2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Kerala
(5) None of these
146. The present National Health Policy was revised in which of the following years ?
(1) 2002
(2) 2003
(3) 2005
(4) 2007
(5) None of these
147. Indian Community Welfare Fund was established in many countries with which of the following budget for initial support ?
(1) Rs 200 lakh
(2) Rs 300 lakh
(3) Rs 480 lakh
(4) Rs 580 lakh
(5) None of these
148. The winner of the Bes Feature Film Award, winner film ‘Kanchivaram’ is a film made in
(1) Hindi
(2) Malayalam
(3) Tamil
(4) Kannada
(5) None of these
149. As per newspaper reports, ‘Mahindra Satyam secured big contract from MENA countries’. What is full form of MENA ?
(1) Middle East and North Africa
(2) Members of Egypt and Norwegian Association
(3) Member of Ecofriendly Nation’s Alliance
(4) Member of Ecological and Natural Agency
(5) None of the above
150. Who amongst the following ministers of the Government of India recently visited Bhutan ?
(1) Shri SM Krishna
(2) Ms. Mamata Banerjee
(3) Shri Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Shri P Chidambaram
(5) None of the above
Test IV
English Language
Directions (Q. 151-155) : In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3), and (4). One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5), ie, ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
151. RBI is unwilling to enforce these regulations as
(1) (2)
these will discourage investment.
(3) (4)
All correct
(5)
152. Many Indian firms have entry into partnership
(1) (2)
with foreign ones of late. All correct
(3) (4) (5)
153. This is a prime example of what the
(1) (2)
government can achieve if it is determine.
(3) (4)
All correct
(5)
154. They managed to accomplice this by coming
(1) (2) (3)
up with unique schemes. All correct
(4) (5)
155. In such circumstanses do not take unnecessary
(1) (2)
risks with your savings. All correct
(3) (4) (5)
Directions (Q. 156-170) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Rajendra was a landlord. he had made a lot of money by cheating and ill treating his labourers who worked in the fields. One day, a young man named Mani came to Rajendra, asking for work. Rajendra was pleasantly surprised. No one had ever wanted to work for him because of his reputation and here was someone walking right into his house ! Mani’s next few words surprised him even more. Mani said, “I will work for you for free. Only give me a place to sleep, two sets of clothes and two square meals a day.” Rajendra was beside himself with joy when he heard this and was about to agree, when Mani added, “I have only one condition: I will tell you the truth always, but one day in the year, I will lie.”
Rajendra, who lied happily everyday of the year, agreed to this odd condition. So, Mani began working for him. He was a wonderful worker- hard-working and trustworthy. he was very honest and soon became Rajendra’s right-hand man. Because of Mani’s hard work, Rajendra had an excellent harvest. He and his wife, Manda, decided to have a big feast to celebrate. They invited all their relatives and friends, from the village and outside as well. Everyone was looking forward to the delicious feast being planned. On the morning of the feast, Rajendra decided he would also give away some gifts to his relatives, just to show off. So, he set off for the market in his cart.
As soon as, he was out of sight, Mani went running to Manda. He wept loudly and beat his chest. Then, he fell on the floor, sobbing and announced, “The master is dead! The cart overturned on the road. Out master has been flattened like a chapatti!” As soon as, Rajendra’s wife and relatives heard this, they started wailing. Mani rushed out, saying he would bring back the body, while everyone started preparing for the last rites. Mani now went running to his master and said, “Master! Your wife is dead A cobra bit her and she fell to the ground, as blue as the spring sky.” Rajendra was stunned. What! His beloved Manda, his partner in all his schemes, was dead ! He hurried home shouting her name.
Manda too was weeping loudly, sitting in the courtyard. When she saw her husband run in, she stopped mid-wail and Rajendra too stood open mouthed. Then, they fell into each other’s arms, unable to believe their eyes.
As one, they turned to Mani. “What is the meaning of this, Mani ?” his master angrily demanded. Mani smiled. “Remember my condition, that I would lie once in the year ? Well, I chose today. You see what lies can do ? Now, think what happens to the people whom you lie to everyday of the year!” Saying this, he walked out, leaving behind a stunned and ashamed landlord.
156. Why did Mani want to work for Rajendra ?
(1) Rajendra offered him food, clothing and shelter
(2) To learn from Rajendra who was a successful businessman
(3) To earn his trust so he could take over the business one day
(4) He wanted to show Rajendra the error of his ways
(5) Rajendra did not mind his bad habit of telling lies
157. Why did Rajendra shout at Mani one day ?
(A) Mani had lied to Rajendra and his wife causing them to fight.
(B) The feast had to be cancelled because of Mani and Rajendra suffered huge losses.
(C) He had embarrassed his wife and him in front of their friends and relatives.
(1) None
(2) Only A
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C
(5) All A, B and C
158. What was Rajendr’s immediate reaction on hearing the news of his wife’s ‘death’ ?
(1) He panicked because his wife was responsible for them being rich
(2) He ran home at once because he doubted Mani’s honesty
(3) He was very upset and rushed home at once
(4) He wanted to make funeral arrangements
(5) He went home to inform everyone that the feast was cancelled
159. Why did Rajendra go out on the day of the feast ?
(1) He wanted to share his good fortune with his relatives
(2) He took gifts for his relatives who were not as well off as he was
(3) He wanted to boast about his prosperity to h is relatives
(4) To purchase groceries required for the feast from the market
(5) He wanted to personally invite his relatives who lived outside the village
160. Why did Mani work very hard for Rajendra ?
(1) He took pride in his work and wanted to ensure a good harvest
(2) He was grateful to Rajendra for giving him a job
(3) He knew Rajendra would share the profit with his right hand man
(4) He considered himself as part of Rajendra’s family
(5) None of the above
161. Why did Rajendra accept Mani’s condition ?
(1) He did not value honesty
(2) He had no intention of letting Mani fulfill it
(3) He was an expert at detecting when people lied
(4) He knew how difficult it was to stop lying
(5) He predicted that Mani would be an excellent worker
162. Why did Mani lie to Manda ?
(1) Out of revenge for not being invited to the feast
(2) To find out whether Rajendra’s relatives cared about him or his wealth
(3) To help her realize how much Rajendra meant to her
(4) To delay the start of the feast as his master had not yet arrived
(5) None of the above
163. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Rajendra was ashamed only because Mani had managed to trick him
(2) Mani had many friends who were cheated by Rajendra
(3) Rajendra was a miser because despite being wealthy he travelled by cart
(4) Mani was clever and a good actor
(5) Manda was an excellent cook and had prepared a delicious feast
164. Which of the following can be said about Manda ?
A. She trusted Mani more than Rajendra.
B. She h ad a good relationship with her husband’s relatives
C. She was dishonest.
(1) None
(2) Only C
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and C
(5) All A, B and C
165. What opinion did Rajendr’s workers have of him ?
(1) He was generous for paying them and providing for their basic needs
(2) He was a cheat and he exploited them
(3) He was a weak man who listened only to his wife
(4) He was unfair to his workers and paid each a different salary
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. 166-168) Choose the word or group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
166. pleasantly
(1) extremely
(2) delightfully
(3) charming
(4) friendly
(5) coolly
167. right
(1) suitable
(2) legally
(3) accurately
(4) straight
(5) immediately
168. wailing
(1) crying
(2) complaining
(3) shouting
(4) tears
(5) grumbling
Directions (Q. 169-170) : Choose the word of group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
169. celebrate
(1) insult
(2) reject
(3) dishonour
(4) mourn
(5) infamous
170. planned
(1) organised
(2) deliberate
(3) cancelled
(4) informal
(5) automatic
Directions (Q. 171-175) : Rearrange the following six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. Being generous by nature, the king offered them a meal and treated them kindly.
B. In appreciation the king ordered a stew to be prepared for the feast in honour of the farmer.
C. The king welcomed them too and placed before each a bowl of water saying, “This is the stew of the stew of the hare !”
D. A few days later, a few people came to the court claiming to be neighbours of the farmers.
E. A poor farmer presented a fine hare to the king.
F. Not long afterwards a large number of people appeared at the palace and introduced themselves as neighbours of the neighbours of the farmer.
171. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
172. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
173. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
174. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
175. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. 176-180) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
176. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors.
(1) what impact
(2) that the impact
(3) how much impacts
(4) what are the impacts of
(5) No correction required
177. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities to have more good transportation systems.
(1) have a good
(2) not have good
(3) not have much good
(4) not having better
(5) No correction required
178. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan.
(1) difference in rate of interests
(2) differently what rate of interest
(3) different rates of interest
(4) the different rate of interest
(5) No correction required
179. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(1) we should take every
(2) we have taken no
(3) us to take any
(4) we take some
(5) No correction required
180. Kindly as his advice regarding the various health insurance polices presently available.
(1) him to advise that
(2) regarding this advice
(3) that the should advise
(4) about his advice
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 181-190) : Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
181. The scheme has been (1) / implemented only in these (2) / part of the country and the (3) / Prime Minister will visit it shortly. (4) / No error (5)
182. The company has (1) / decided to sell half (2) / of it shares (3) / to a Chinese firm. (4) / No error (5)
183. Rajiv has won a prize of (1) / two million dollars which (2) / has to be shared (3) / with all his team members. (4) / No error (5)
184. We have an account (1) / with this bank and (2) / find the staff much (3) / helpful and knowledgeable. (4) / No error (5)
185. By opening so many (1) / branches in such a (2) / short time, they have (3) / used the wrong strategy. (4) / No error (5)
186. I do not understand (1) / about how the payment (2) / was made without (3) /the manager’s permission. (4) / No error (5)
187. We have been (1) / telling them to (2) / drive carefully but (3) / they are never listening. (4) / No error (5)
188. During the interview (1) / with the General Manager (2) / I asked her what challenges (3) / she was faced. (4) / No error (5)
189. There is all sorts (1) / of regulations that have (2) / to be met before (3) / we get a license. (4) / No error (5)
190. Today we are closer (1) / to reaching an agreement (2) / than we were (3) / a few months ago. (4) / No error (5)
Directions (Q. 191-200) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
For as long as I can remember I have thought of myself as a teacher and I still do even today. But in 1965 I decided to (191) my hand at business. So, I (192) my father to allow me to (193) up a printing and packaging plant. I (194) the project proposal and applied for a (195). Once it was approved I went (196) the challenges of employing the right (197). My project was successful and I (198) an attractive profit. Becoming a rich businessman (199) never my dream. It was just a (200) of proving to myself and my family that I could be a success in business. This experience also gave me a lot of self confidence.
191.
(1) attempt
(2) try
(3) give
(4) show
(5) use
192.
(1) permitted
(2) appealed
(3) offered
(4) persuaded
(5) prevailed
193.
(1) built
(2) raise
(3) stand
(4) begin
(5) set
194.
(1) extended
(2) prepared
(3) thought
(4) formulate
(5) draft
195.
(1) loan
(2) post
(3) leave
(4) job
(5) relief
196.
(1) through
(2) ahead
(3) for
(4) away
(5) under
197.
(1) equipment
(2) knowledge
(3) behaviour
(4) role
(5) people
198.
(1) gain
(2) benefitted
(3) obtain
(4) reap
(5) made
199.
(1) fulfilled
(2) pursued
(3) was
(4) had
(5) stayed
200.
(1) state
(2) certificate
(3) way
(4) proof
(5) direction
Test V
Computer Knowledge
201. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a (n)
(1) algorithm
(2) hardware program
(3) software bug
(4) firmware program
(5) None of the above
202. WWW means
(1) World Wide Wonder
(2) World Wide Wizard
(3) World Wide Web
(4) Wide World Web
(5) None of the above
203. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s
(1) features
(2) format
(3) pagination
(4) grid
(5) None of these
204. Compilers and translators are one form of
(1) ROM
(2) RAM
(3) Hard disk
(4) Software
(5) None of these
205. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is
(1) copy and paste
(2) copy, cut and paste
(3) cut, copy and paste
(4) cut and paste
(5) None of these
206. Which of the following is not true about RAM ?
(1) RAM is a temporary storage area
(2) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(3) RAM is volatile
(4) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
(5) None of the above
207. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit ?
(1) Read instructions
(2) Execute instructions
(3) Interpret instructions
(4) Direct operations
(5) None of the above
208. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?
(1) Floppy disk
(2) Magnetic disk
(3) Magnetic tape
(4) Optical disk
(5) None of these
209. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as
(1) hardware
(2) networked software
(3) shareware
(4) applications
(5) None of the above
210. = SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a
(1) function
(2) formula
(3) cell address
(4) value
(5) None of these
211. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)
(1) operating system
(2) database
(3) database program
(4) data warehouse
(5) None of the above
212. Data representation is based on the ………. number system, which uses two numbers to represent all data.
(1) binary
(2) biometric
(3) bicentennial
(4) byte
(5) None of these
213. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called
(1) cache
(2) instruction set
(3) source code
(4) word size
(5) None of the above
214. The main directory of a disk is called the directory.
(1) root
(2) sub
(3) folder
(4) network
(5) None of these
215. A …….. shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.
(1) network
(2) protocol
(3) hyperlink
(4) transmitter
(5) None of these
216. The most common input devices include
(1) monitor and keyboard
(2) monitor and mouse
(3) mouse and keyboard
(4) printer and mouse
(5) None of the above
217. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?
(1) They are the same just two different terms used by different manufactures.
(2) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(3) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from
(4) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
(5) None of the above
218. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often called a(n) ……. file.
(1) data
(2) information
(3) executable
(4) application
(5) None of these
219. A …….. is a professionally designed “empty” document that can be adapted to the user’s needs.
(1) file
(2) guide
(3) template
(4) user guide file
(5) None of these
220. ………… are often delivered to a PC through an email attachment and are often designed to do harm.
(1) viruses
(2) spam
(3) portals
(4) email messages
(5) None of these
221. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as
(1) moving
(2) dragging
(3) dropping
(4) highlighting
(5) None of these
222. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called ?
(1) Column
(2) Value
(3) Address
(4) Cell
(5) None of these
223. ……… processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and processes them together in one large set.
(1) Batch
(2) Online
(3) Real-time
(4) Group
(5) None of these
224. A ……….. is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.
(1) spreadsheet
(2) presentation
(3) database
(4) web page
(5) None of the above
225. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called ?
(1) A folder
(2) A directory
(3) A mailbox
(4) The hard disk
(5) None of these
226. A group of 8 bits is known as a
(1) byte
(2) kilobyte
(3) binary digit
(4) megabit
(5) None of these
227. A desktop computer is also known as a
(1) palm pilot
(2) PC
(3) laptop
(4) mainframe
(5) None of these
228. The hardware device commonly referred to as the “brain” of the computer is the
(1) RAM chip
(2) data input
(3) CPU
(4) secondary storage
(5) None of these
229. If a user needs information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored
(1) on a CD
(2) in secondary storage
(3) in the CPU
(4) in RAM
(5) None of the above
230. The ……. primarily take(s) care of the behind-the-scenes details and manage(s) the hardware
(1) operating system
(2) application software
(3) peripheral devices
(4) hard disk
(5) None of the above
231. Documents converted to ……….. can be published to the Web.
(1) a doc file
(2) http
(3) machine language
(4) HTML
(5) None of the above
232. In a spreadsheet, a ………… is a number you will use in a calculation.
(1) label
(2) cell
(3) field
(4) value
(5) None of these
233. To what temporary area can you store text and other data nad later paste them to another location ?
(1) The clipboard
(2) ROM
(3) CD-ROM
(4) The hard disk
(5) None of these
234. When both the sides margin are straight and even, then document is in
(1) justification is full
(2) alignment is full
(3) justification is left
(4) justification is right
(5) None of the above
235. As you draw document, graph and picture, the computer h olds this data in
(1) restore file
(2) back up drive
(3) clip-board
(4) memory
(5) None of these
236. ……… view shows, how the page content with margin, header and footer will show ?
(1) Draft
(2) Full Screen Reading
(3) Outline
(4) Page Layout
(5) None of the above
237. In hierarchical structure of folders, these contain other folders called
(1) mini folder
(2) teared folder
(3) sub folders
(4) object
(5) None of these
238. In Excel, table row contains ………. with typical label.
(1) alphabets
(2) numbers
(3) names
(4) formulas
(5) None of these
239. In present, all typical computers programming languages are used except
(1) C ++
(2) Java
(3) Visual Basic, NET
(4) Mechanic language
(5) None of these
240. It is easy to change the name of a file by using process of
(1) transfarming
(2) crysting
(3) renaming
(4) retaking
(5) None of these
241. …….. helps in capturing the row data and entering it in computer.
(1) CPU
(2) Integrated Circuit (IC)
(3) Input Device
(4) Motherboard
(5) None of the above
242. In removable media all are included except
(1) CD-ROM
(2) Diskette
(3) DVD
(4) hard disk drive
(5) None of these
243. …….. available the commands for software write which translates the instructions step by step and executed by process or by which some goal is achieved or some problems may be solved.
(1) Software pitch (screw)
(2) AI language
(3) Presentation language
(4) Programming language
(5) None of the above
244. By using ………… text is entered and edited to the efficiently.
(1) spread sheet
(2) typewriter
(3) word processing programme
(4) desktop programme
(5) None of the above
245. By using slide ……… in presentation all features of fonts of all slides may be changed.
(1) theme
(2) icon
(3) master
(4) style
(5) None of these
246. In one time, many programmes may be opened but activated only
(1) four
(2) three
(3) two
(4) one
(5) None of these
247. If you open a menu and do not select any option, then click menu title again or to close the menu, press the ………. key.
(1) shift
(2) tab
(3) escape
(4) F1
(5) None of these
248. In word, programme, components are ………., title bar, ribbon, status bar, views and document workspace.
(1) Window
(2) Browser
(3) Explorer
(4) Website
(5) None of these
249. In which form, words are showed on page. What term is used for this ?
(1) Text formatting
(2) Character formatting
(3) Point sized
(4) Type face
(5) None of the above
250. If you want, a slide after a fix time go ahead automatically, for the transition of this slide group in animation tab click on ……… check box
(1) transition
(2) automatically after
(3) transition after
(4) automatic timer
(5) None of these
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: