Railway (RRC) Gorakhpur Group ‘D’ Examination Held on 16.11.2014 Question Paper With Answer Key

Railway (RRC) Gorakhpur Group ‘D’ Examination Held on 16.11.2014

 

1. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to the

(1)   force of friction

(2)   centrifugal force

(3)   force of cohesion

(4)   force of adhesion

Answer: (3)

2. Which of the following in the human body is popularly called the ‘Adam’s Apple’?

(1)   Liver

(2)   Thyroid

(3)   Thymus

(4)   Adrenal

Answer: (2)

3. In a DNA molecule, nucleosides contain

(1)   nitrogenous base + pentose sugar + phosphoric acid

(2)   nitrogenous base only

(3)   pentose sugar + phosphoric acid

(4)   nitrogenous base + pentose sugar

Answer: (1)

4. Match the following :

(a) Thypoid            (1) Bacteria

(b) Malaria              (2) Virus

(c) AIDS                 (3) Protozoa

(d) Ringworm                   (4) Worms

                               (5) Fungi

(1)   a – 1; b – 3; c – 2; d – 5

(2)   a – 3; b – 1; c – 2; d – 5

(3)   a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 4

(4)   a – 2; b – 3; c – 5; d – 2

Answer: (1)

5. The polarity of an unmarked horse show magnet can be determined by using

(1)   a magnetic compass

(2)   an electroscope

(3)   another unmarked bar magnet

(4)   a charged glass rod

Answer: (1)

6. How does common salt help in separating soap from the solution after saponification?

(1)   By increasing solubility of soap

(2)   By decreasing density of soap

(3)   By increasing density of soap

(4)   By decreasing solubility of soap

Answer: (4)

7. Vulcanization is a

(1)   Method to degrade polymers

(2)   Process connected with the making of voltaic cells

(3)   Process of hardening of rubber by heating it with sulphur

(4)   Science of studying volcanoes

Answer: (3)

8. X-ray region lies in between

(1)   Visible and ultra-violet region

(2)   Gamma rays and ultra-violet region

(3)   Short radio waves and ultraviolet region

(4)   Short radio wave and visible region

Answer: (2)

9. The half life period of radius is 1600 years. Its average life time will be

(1)   4800 years

(2)   2319 years

(3)   4217 years

(4)   3200 years

Answer: (2)

10. Match the following:

(a) BCG Vaccine              (1) Malaria

(b) BPL                            (2) Sore throat Vaccine

(c) Chloroquin                  (3) Tuberclosis

(d) Pennicillin                             (4) Rabies

(1)   a – 3; b – 4; c – 2; d – 1

(2)   a – 4; b – 3; c – 2; d – 1

(3)   a – 4; b – 3; c – 1; d – 2

(4)   a – 3; b – 4; c – 1; d – 2

Answer: (4)

11. Milk is an example of

(1)   Emulsion

(2)   Gel

(3)   Suspension

(4)   Pure solution

Answer: (1)

12. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Malarial parasite feeds on the blood of man.

Reason (R) : One of the parasite adaptations is loss of digestive system and hence depends on host for food.

Select the correct answer.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are false.

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (4)

13. Sugar in blood and urine is tested with

(1)   Brine solution

(2)   Hypo solution

(3)   Iodine solution

(4)   Benedict’s solution

Answer: (4)

14. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

(1)   Caustic soda – Calcium carbonate

(2)   Soda lime – Calcium carbonate

(3)   Washing soda – Calcium hydroxide

(4)   Baking soda – Sodium bicarbonate

Answer: (4)

15. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically

(1)   Above 20,000 kHz

(2)   Below 20 kHz

(3)   Below 2 kHz

(4)   Above 20 kHz

Answer: (4)

16. An example of buffer solution is

(1)   K2SO4 and H2SO4

(2)   NaOH and KOH

(3)   CH3COOH and CH3COONa

(4)   KOH and KCl

Answer: (3)

17. Transpiration in land plants largely occurs through

(1)   Roots

(2)   Stomata

(3)   Mesophyll

(4)   Xylem

Answer: (2)

18. Zn is required in plants as it activates

(1)   Amylases

(2)   Trypsin

(3)   Carboxylases

(4)   Chlorophy II

Answer: (4)

19. This tree is pollinated by bats :

(1)   Sunflower

(2)   Mustard

(3)   Zostera marina

(4)   Kigelia pinnata

Answer: (4)

20. The cells of this epithelium often bear microvilli

(1)   Columnar

(2)   Cubical

(3)   Ciliated

(4)   Squamous

Answer: (1)

21. Two spheres carrying charge q are hanging from same point of suspension with the help of suspension with the help of threads of length 1 m, in a space free from gravity. The distance between them will be

(1)   0.5 m

(2)   2 m

(3)   cannot be determined

(4)   0

Answer: (2)

22. Bacillus thuringiensis is an example of

(1)   Single cell protein

(2)   Biopesticide

(3)   Genetically modified food

(4)   Biofertilizer

Answer: (2)

23. Assertion (A) : The President can nominate two members to t he Rajya Sabha.

Reason (R) : The nomination is given to give representation to the specialists in the fields of art, literature, theatre etc.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (3)

24. Dog : Puppy : Lion: ?

(1)   Fawn

(2)   Cub

(3)   Colt

(4)   Lamb

Answer: (2)

25. Some words are given which are related in some way. The same relationship obtains among the words in one of the four alternatives given under it., Find the correct alternative.

Hunt : Pleasure : Panic

(1)   Game : Match : Win

(2)   Theft : Gain : Loss

(3)   Rain : Cloud : Flood

(4)   Death : Disease : Germs

Answer: (2)

26. The crop of a leguminous plant is grown between two cereal crops to compensate the soil for the loss of

(1)   S

(2)   P

(3)   H2O

(4)   N

Answer: (4)

Directions (27-30) : Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

27.

(1)   Chandragupta

(2)   Harshavardhana

(3)   Chanakya

(4)   Vikramaditya

Answer: (3)

28.

(1)   Pupa

(2)   Caterpillar

(3)   Nymph

(4)   Larva

Answer: (3)

29.

(1)   Schizophrenia

(2)   Agoraphobia

(3)   Alzheimer’s disease

(4)   Kleptomania

Answer: (3)

30.

(1)   Mosque

(2)   Church

(3)   Monastery

(4)   Cathedral

Answer: (3)

31. If L denotes ÷ M denotes ×, P denotes + and Q denotes −, then which of the following statements is true?

(1)   6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 = 173/13

(2)   11 M 34 L 17 Q 8 L 3 = 38/3

(3)   9 P 9 L 9 Q M 9 = −71

(4)   32 P 8 L 16 Q 4 = −3/2

Answer: (3)

32. Gorges : Canyons : Meanders

(1)   Tributaries

(2)   Deltas

(3)   Mountains

(4)   Moraines

Answer: (1)

33. If ‘orange’ is called ‘utter’, butter is called ‘soap’, soap is called ‘ink’, ‘ink’ is called ‘honey’ and ‘honey’ is called ‘orange’, which of the following is used for washing clothes?

(1)   Butter

(2)   Orange

(3)   Ink

(4)   Honey

Answer: (3)

34. Assertion (A) : Unpolished rice should be eaten.

Reason (R) : Polished rice lacks Vitamin B.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (4)

35. Which of the following statements of relationship of national income (Y), consumption (C) and investment (I) in the famous model of Keynes, is correct?

(1)   Y = C + I

(2)   Y = C × I

(3)   Y = C – I

(4)   Y = C ÷ I

Answer: (1)

36. If the words in the sentence, “She showed several sample snaps” are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which will be the middle word?

(1)   Sample

(2)   Several

(3)   She

(4)   Snaps

Answer: (3)

37. Who defined economics as the study of the relationship between unlimited wants and scarce resources?

(1)   Jan Timbergen

(2)   Lionel Robbins

(3)   Frederick Von Hayek

(4)   J. M. Keynes

Answer: (2)

38. Which of the following is not a programme under rural development?

(1)   RDCI

(2)   IRDP

(3)   TRYSEM

(4)   NREP

Answer: (1)

39. GATT headquarters is located at

(1)   Paris

(2)   Washington

(3)   Hague

(4)   Geneva

Answer: (4)

40. Which one of the following is not true for the Repo operations?

(1)   It increases availability of foreign exchange.

(2)   In a Repo operation object is to regulate credit flow.

(3)   In a Repo operation object is to control liquidity in the financial system.

(4)   It is conducted by Commercial Banks.

Answer: (1)

41. Removal of poverty was the foremost objective of which of the following Five-Year Plans?

(1)   Third

(2)   Fourth

(3)   Fifth

(4)   Second

Answer: (3)

42. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?

(1)   State Chief Ministers

(2)   Members of the Planning Commission

(3)   President of India

(4)   Prime Minister

Answer: (3)

43. Excise Duties are taxes on

(1)   export of commodities

(2)   production of commodities

(3)   import of commodities

(4)   sale of commodities

Answer: (2)

44. The Indian Financial year beings on which of the following dates?

(1)   April 1

(2)   July 1

(3)   None of these

(4)   January 1

Answer: (1)

45. Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj institutions were set up to decentralize planning to village level.

Reason (R) : Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their development needs.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

46. Human Development Index is an indicator of

(1)   Country position in Regional Spectrum

(2)   Country position in Global Spectrum

(3)   None of these

(4)   Country position in Local Spectrum

Answer: (2)

47. When was the Reserve Bank of India taken over by the Government?

(1)   1948

(2)   1952

(3)   1956

(4)   1945

Answer: (1)

48. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(1)   Jamnagar : Maharashtra

(2)   Numaligarh: Gujarat

(3)   Panagudi : Tamil Nadu

(4)   Haldia : Orissa

Answer: (3)

49. What is meant by ‘willy-willy’?

(1)   An earthquake

(2)   A very high tide

(3)   A tropical cyclone near India

(4)   Tropical cyclone near Australia

Answer: (4)

50. Match the following :

(a) Ursa Major        (1) Star

(b) Sirius                 (2) Constellation

(c) Milky Way        (3) Satellite

(d) Titan                 (4) Galaxy

                               (5) Planet

(1)   a – 1; b – 2; c – 4; d – 3

(2)   a – 2; b – 1; c – 4; d – 3

(3)   a – 2; b – 4; c – 1; d – 3

(4)   a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 4

Answer: (2)

51. Which of the following is a Great Circle?

(1)   The Equator

(2)   The Tropic of Capricorn

(3)   The Arctic Circle

(4)   The Tropic of Cancer

Answer: (1)

52. The largest desert of the world is an

(1)   Saudi Arabia

(2)   North Africa

(3)   Israel

(4)   Iraq

Answer: (2)

53. Mauna Loa is an example of

(1)   extinct volcano

(2)   plateau in a volcanic region

(3)   dormant volcano

(4)   active volcano

Answer: (4)

54. Which of the following I s a warm ocean current?

(1)   Peruvian

(2)   Labrador

(3)   None of these

(4)   Kuroshio

Answer: (4)

55. Assertion (A) : The State of Jammu and Kashmir has a special status.

Reason (R) : It was accorded by the Indian Independence Act, 1947.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and ()R are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (2)

56. The famous Indo Greek king who embraced Buddhism was

(1)   Menander

(2)   Democritus

(3)   Alexander

(4)   Strato-I

Answer: (1)

57. Which one of the following pairs is correct matched?

Metamorphic Rocks        Derived from

(1)   Slate                –        Granite

(2)   Gneiss             –        Basalt

(3)   Quartzite                   –        Sandstone

(4)   Schist              –        Dolomite

Answer: (3)

58. Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at

(1)   Surat

(2)   Raigarh

(3)   Singhagarh

(4)   Poona

Answer: (2)

59. Match the following :

(a) Mughal empire founded in North India

(b) Battle of Plassey

(c) Arrival of Ibn Battuta

(d) Razia Sultan’s accession to Delhi throne

(1) 1526

(2) 1757

(3) 1331

(4) 1236

(5) 1287

(1)   a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 4

(2)   a – 1; b – 2; c – 3; d – 5

(3)   a – 2; b – 3; c – 1; d – 4

(4)   a – 4; b – 5; c – 2; d – 1

Answer: (1)

60. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(1)   Give me blood and I will give you freedom – J. L. Nehru

(2)   Karenge ya Marenge. – S. C. Bose

(3)   A new start rises, the start of freedom in the East – Mahatma Gandhi

(4)   Swaraj is my birth right and I shall have it – B. G. Tilak

Answer: (4)

61. Consider the following four saints :

(1) Kabir

(2) Nanak

(3) Chaitanya

(4) Tulsidas

What is the correct chronological order in which they flourished?

(1)   2, 3, 4, 1

(2)   3, 1, 2, 4

(3)   3, 2, 4, 1

(4)   1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (4)

62. The founder of the Pala dynasty of Bengal was

(1)   Devapala

(2)   Gopala

(3)   Dharmapala

(4)   Mahipala

Answer: (2)

63. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was

(1)   Chandragupta-I

(2)   Samudragupta

(3)   Ghatotkacha

(4)   Srigupta

Answer: (1)

64. Who among the following Europeans was fist to come to India to establish trade relations with their country?

(1)   British

(2)   Portuguese

(3)   French

(4)   Dutch

Answer: (2)

65. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?

(1)   Freedoms of movement, residence and profession

(2)   Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex

(3)   Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law

(4)   Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

Answer: (3)

66. The write of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court against

(1)   administrative and judicial authorities

(2)   administrative authorities and private individuals

(3)   administrative authorities and government

(4)   judicial or quasi judicial authorities

Answer: (4)

67. Who among the following decides whether particular bill is a Money Bill or not?

(1)   Speaker of Lok Sabha

(2)   Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(3)   Finance Minister

(4)   President

Answer: (1)

68. Which one of the following universities was not established by Lord Dalhousie?

(1)   Madras

(2)   Delhi

(3)   Calcutta

(4)   Bombay

Answer: (2)

69. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territory may be established by

(1)   Parliament by law

(2)   Governor of the State

(3)   Chief Justice of India

(4)   President

Answer: (1)

70. Which Article of Indian Constitution empowers the President to call for information from the Government

(1)   75

(2)   76

(3)   77

(4)   78

Answer: (4)

71. In pursuance of the directions of the Supreme Court in the Mandal Commission case, the Parliament enacted the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. Which one of the following is not a function of the NCBC?

(1)   To hear complaints of under-inclusion of any backward class

(2)   To hear complaints of over-inclusion of any backward class

(3)   To identify the creamy layer among the backward

(4)   To examine requests for inclusion of a class of citizens as a backward class

Answer: (3)

72. On which of the following issues can a governor make recommendation to the President ?

(1) Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers

(2) Removal of the Judges of the High Court

(3) Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

(4) Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional Machinery in the State

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(1)   2, 3 and 4

(2)   1, 3 and 4

(3)   1, 2 and 4

(4)   1, 2 and 3

Answer: (2)

73. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government?

(1)   State Government are agents of the Central Government.

(2)   Both Central and State Governments derive powers from the Constitution.

(3)   Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.

(4)   The government has two distinct levels State Government and Central Government.

Answer: (3)

74. Who replaced Virat Kohli as the number one batsman in the ICC ODI batsman ranking released 21st June, 2014?

(1)   Kumara Sangakara

(2)   Michael Clarke

(3)   A B de Villiers

(4)   Shikhar Dhawan

Answer: (3)

75. Who was chosen for the prestigious Jnanpith Award for 2013 on 20th June, 2014?

(1)   Kedarnath Singh

(2)   Pratibha Ray

(3)   Satya Vrat Shastri

(4)   Ravuri Bharadhwaja

Answer: (1)

76. Who was appointed as Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of Infosys on 11th June, 2014?

(1)   S. D. Shibulal

(2)   B. G. Srinivas

(3)   Vishal Sikka

(4)   N. R. Narayana Murthy

Answer: (3)

77. Who has topped the Forbes annual list of Most Powerful Women 2014 in the world?

(1)   Hillary Clinton

(2)   Angela Merkel

(3)   Christine Lagarde

(4)   Melinda Gates

Answer: (2)

78. Who was unanimously elected as Speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha on 6th June, 2014?

(1)   Manohar Joshi

(2)   Meira Kumar

(3)   Kamal Nath

(4)   Sumitra Mahajan

Answer: (4)

79. National Science Day is observed on

(1)   27th February

(2)   28th February

(3)   1st March

(4)   26th February

Answer: (2)

80. Who won the Sahitya Akademi Award-2013?

(1)   Gulzar

(2)   Salman Rushdie

(3)   None of these

(4)   Javed Akhtar

Answer: (4)

81. Name the city which on 7th April, 2014 received its first passenger train.

(1)   Dispur, the capital of Assam

(2)   Aizawl, the capital of Mizoram

(3)   Agartala, the capital of Tripura

(4)   Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (4)

82. How many nations are participated in XX Common wealth Games?

(1)   61

(2)   51

(3)   41

(4)   71

Answer: (4)

83. Assertion (A) : A particle moving in a uniform circular motion has uniform velocity.

Reason (R) : The particle also has a uniform speed.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (1)

84. A field in the shape of a rhombus has the distances between pairs of opposite vertices as 14 m and 48 m. What is the cost of fencing the field At Rs 20 per meter (in rupees)?

(1)   Rs 2,000

(2)   Rs 2,500

(3)   Rs 1,800

(4)   Rs 1,500

Answer: (1)

85. Who is awarded for best performance in a negative role in 15th IIFA Awards?

(1)   Anupam Kher (Special 26)

(2)   Boman Irani (Don2)

(3)   None of these

(4)   Rishi Kapoor (D-Day)

Answer: (4)

86. A die is rolled until it shows up a four. What is the probability of the sixth trial being the final trial?

(1)   57/67

(2)   59/69

(3)   None

(4)   55/56

Answer: (4)

87. The first Republic day of India was celebrated on 26th January, 1950. It was

(1)   Tuesday

(2)   Thursday

(3)   Friday

(4)   Monday

Answer: (2)

88. Bricks are worth Rs 750 per 1000 and their length, breadth and height 25 cm, 12.5 cm and 7.5 cm respectively. The cost of bricks required to build a wall 200 m long, 1.8 m high and 37.5 cm thick, is

(1)   Rs 43,200

(2)   Rs 40,7500

(3)   Rs 41,860

(4)   Rs 42,600

Answer: (1)

89. The cost of cultivating a square field at the rate of Rs 160 per hectare is Rs 1,440. The cost of putting a fence around it at 75 paise per meter is

(1)   Rs 1,800

(2)   Rs 360

(3)   Rs 810

(4)   Rs 900

Answer: (4)

90. The salary earned by a man for three months is in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 5. If the deference between the product of salaries of the first two months to that of the last two months (when taken in rupees) is 4,80,00,000 then find the salary of the man for the second month.

(1)   Rs 8,000

(2)   Rs 8,500

(3)   Rs 7,800

(4)   Rs 7,500

Answer: (1)

91. A grocer claims to sell sugar at cost price, but has a concealed weight of 100 gram in the pan in which he keeps sugar. By mistake his son weights by keeping the weight in this pan and sugar in the other. On sale of 1 kg of sugar, he will lose

(1) 

(2)   10%

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (2)

92. A third of Vinod’s marks in Mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in Social Studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in Social Studies?

(1)   60

(2)   80

(3)   90

(4)   40

Answer: (1)

93. An increase of Rs 60 in the monthly salary of Madan made it 50% of the monthly salary of Kamal. What is Madan’s present monthly salary?

(1)   Rs 240

(2)   Rs 300

(3)   Data inadequate

(4)   Rs 180

Answer: (3)

94. A sum of Rs 550 was taken as a loan. This is to be repaid in two equal annual installments. If the rate of interest be 20% compounded annually, then the value of each installment?

(1)   Rs 396

(2)   Rs 360

(3)   Rs 350

(4)   Rs 421

Answer: (2)

95. After five years the age of a father will be thrice the age of his son, whereas five years ago, he was seven times as old as his son was. What is the father’s present age?

(1)   40 years

(2)   45 years

(3)   50 years

(4)   35 years

Answer: (1)

96. The simplification of  yields the result

(1)   7/9

(2)   9/7

(3)   13/7

(4)   2/7

Answer: (2)

97. A is a working and B, a sleeping partner in a business. A puts in Rs 12,000 and B Rs 20,000. A receives 10% of the profits for managing, the rest being divided in proportion to their capitals. Out of the total profit of Rs 9,600 the money received by A is

(1)   Rs 4,200

(2)   Rs 3,600

(3)   Rs 4,500

(4)   Rs 3,240

Answer: (1)

98. Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution closely follows the British Parliamentary Mode.

Reason (R) : In India, the Upper House of the Parliament has judicial powers.

(1)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2)   (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3)   (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (2)

99. The failure of light to travel strictly in a straight line is known as

(1)   polarization

(2)   refraction

(3)   diffraction

(4)   dispersion

Answer: (2)

100. The distances between two stations A and B is 220 km. A train leaves A towards B at an average speed of 80 km/hr. After half an hour, another train leaves B towards A at an average speed of 100 km/hr. The distance of the point where the two trains meet, from A is

(1)   130 km

(2)   140 km

(3)   150 km

(4)   120 km

Answer: (4)

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