UPSC NDA/NA Examination 2016 (I) Held on April 17, 2016
General Ability Test
Part-A
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Each item in this section consists of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.
1. Suddenly there was a bright flash, followed by a deafening
(a) dangerous
(b) terrifying
(c) mild
(d) very loud
2. He showed exemplary courage during the crisis.
(a) usual
(b) durable
(c) commendable
(d) some
3. When the new teachers entered the classroom, he found the pupils
(a) at rest
(b) idle
(c) quiet
(d) impatient
4. There is no dearth of talent in this country.
(a) scarcity
(b) availability
(c) plenty
(d) absence
5. The servants retired to their quarters.
(a) entered
(b) went away
(c) ran away
(d) mobilized
6. The navy gave tactical support to marines.
(a) sensitive
(b) strategic
(c) immediate
(d) expert
7. A genius tends to deviate from the routine way of thinking.
(a) dispute
(b) disagree
(c) distinguish
(d) differ
8. He was greatly debilitated by an attack of influenza.
(a) depressed
(b) weakened
(c) worried
(d) defeated
9. His efforts at helping the poor are
(a) welcome
(b) sincere
(c) good
(d) praiseworthy
10. His conduct brought him reproach from quarters.
(a) rebuke
(b) sympathy
(c) indifference
(d) remorse
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence, Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions. for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response against the corresponding letter (a),, (b) or (C). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
11. When he heard the rhetorical speech of the leader, he was carried along by his enthusiasm.
(a) carried aloft
(b) carried down
(c) carried away
(d) No improvement
12. After the heavy rains last week, the water in the lake raised another two feet.
(a) rose another two feet
(b) arisen another two feet
(c) would raise another two feet
(d) No improvement
13. One can live and work in a town without being aware of the daily march of the sun across the sky without never seeing the moon and stars.
(a) seldom
(b) hardly
(c) ever
(d) No improvement
14. Applications of those who are graduates will be considered.
(a) whom are graduates
(b) whose are graduates
(c) whom are only graduates
(d) No improvement
15. It is raining heavily all through this week.
(a) has rained
(b) rains
(c) rained
(d) No improvement
16. The sparrow took no notice about the bread.
(a) notice of
(b) notice from
(c) notice to
(d) No improvement
17. As the spoke about his achievements, his high claims amused us.
(a) big
(b) tall
(c) long
(d) No improvement
18. We ought to stand for what is right.
(a) stand at
(b) stand on
(c) stand up
(d) No improvement
19. He enjoys to tell stories to children.
(a) how to tell stories
(b) telling stories
(c) to narrate stories
(d) No improvement
20. In a few minutes time,, when the clock strikes six, I would be waiting here for an hour.
(a) shall be waiting on
(b) shall have been waiting
(c) shall wait
(d) No improvement
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-31) Each item in this section consist of an underlined word in given sentences. Each sentence is followed by four words. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
21. He handled the machine with deft
(a) delicate
(b) sturdy
(c) quick
(d) clumsy
22. I was deeply affected by his urbane
(a) rural
(b) rude
(c) irrational
(d) indifferent
23. His timidity proved costly.
(a) arrogance
(b) boldness
(c) skilfulness
(d) cunning
24. Arrangements were made to handle the mammoth gathering tactfully.
(a) significant
(b) small
(c) unruly
(d) noisy
25. He was engrossed in his work when I walked in.
(a) occupied
(b) inattentive
(c) engaged
(d) absent
26. These are the main points of the preceding
(a) following
(b) previous
(c) first
(d) last
27. He made a shrewd
(a) clever
(b) wild
(c) incorrect
(d) discriminating
28. He is suffering from a severe
(a) violent
(b) mild
(c) bad
(d) continuous
29. Cumulatively, the effect of these drugs quite bad
(a) Individually
(b) Obviously
(c) Claarly
(d) Collectively
30. He was conspicuous because of his colourful shirt.
(a) charming
(b) ugly
(c) small
(d) unnoticeable
31. He hates these continual arguments with friend.
(a) repeated
(b) irrational
(c) occasional
(d) regular
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-40) In this section, each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for t he blank space.
32. When the bus was at full speed, its brakes failed and an accident was ……….
(a) inevitable
(b) undeniable
(c) fatal
(d) miserable
33. To explain his design to his visitors, the architect ……….. a simple plan on the blackboard.
(a) built
(b) finalized
(c) sketched
(d) arranged
34. Though Bonsai, a well-known art form, originated in China, it was ………… by the Japanese.
(a) cultivated
(b) finished
(c) perfected
(d) enlarged
35. He is greatly admired for his ……….. behaviour.
(a) decrepit
(b) decadent
(c) decarative
(d) decorous
36. Would you mind …….. to the Principal how the trouble started?
(a) remarking
(b) saying
(c) explaining
(d) talking
37. Vaccination will make people immune ……………. certain diseases for a given period.
(a) against
(b) to
(c) with
(d) for
38. The two boys looked so alike that it was impossible to …………… between them.
(a) discriminate
(b) discern
(c) distinguish
(d) identify
39. The campers ………. their tents at the base of the mountain.
(a) installed
(b) dug
(c) pitched
(d) established
40. The enemy had captured him and his life was at stake, still he refused to ………. the state secrets.
(a) divulge
(b) divert
(c) indulge
(d) invert
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence in find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicated you response against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, you response should be indicated as (d).
41. She said that she was understanding his point of view very well. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42. All the houses having been washed away by the floods,
(a) (b)
the villagers sought shelter in the panchayat office. No error
(c) (d)
43. It is necessary for us to familiarize with and get used to the ways of the people
(a) (b)
among whom we live. No error
(c) (d)
44. The mother asked the child why did she cry out in her sleep. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
45. I asked him that why he was angry but he did not answer. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
46. I not taken ill, I would have sent you my research paper much earlier.
(a) (b) (c)
No error
(d)
47. The barn owl helps the farmer by destroying rats which could,
(a)
if left unchecked do a lot of damage to the crops. No error
(b) (c) (d)
48. He had gone home three weeks ago and was expected back yesterday,
(a) (b)
but he has not come yet. No error
(c) (d)
49. We must sympathise for others in their troubles. No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
50. The scientists in America are trying for long
(a) (b)
to discover the genes responsible for ageing. No error
(c) (d)
Part-B
51. Which one of the following oxides dissolve in water?
(a) CuO
(b) Al2O3
(c) Fe2O3
(d) Na2O
52. To prevent heart problems, blood of a normal healthy person should have
(1) low cholesterol level (2) high HDL level
(3) high VLDL level (4) high LDL level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Spruce and Cedar are tree varieties of
(a) equatorial forest
(b) temperate coniferous forest
(c) monsoon forest
(d) temperate deciduous forest
54. ‘Sal’ tree is a
(a) tropical evergreen tree
(b) tropical semi-evergreen tree
(c) dry deciduous tree
(d) moist deciduous tree
55. Matter around us can exist in three different states namely, solid, liquid and gas. Correct order of their compressibility is
(a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
(b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
(d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
56. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of
(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
(c) molecular mass
(d) molecular size
57. Consider the following circuit :
The equivalent resistant of the circuit will be
(a) 12 Ω
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
58. Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H2?
(a) Hg
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) Fe
59. Which of the following pairs of vector and disease is/are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) Only 2
60. Consider the following statements :
(1) All echinoderms are not marine.
(2) Sponges are exclusively marine.
(3) Insects are found in all kinds of habitats.
(4) Many primates are arboreal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) Only 3
61. Areas which are engines for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure and complemented by an attractive fiscal package are known as
(a) Export Processing Zones
(b) Duty Free Tariff Zones
(c) Special Economic Zones
(d) Technology Parks
62. Deserts, fertile plains and moderate mountains are the characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(a) South-Western border along sea
(b) Coromandel coast
(c) North-Eastern frontier
(d) North-Western India
63. A racing car accelerates on a straight line from rest to a speed of 50 m/s in 25 s. Assuming uniform acceleration of the throughout, the distance covered in this will be
(a) 625 m
(b) 1250 m
(c) 2500 m
(d) 50 m
64. A man weighing 70 kg is coming down in lift. If the cable of the lift breaks sudden the weight of the man would become
(a) 70 kg
(b) 35 kg
(c) 140 kg
(d) Zero
65. A given conductor carrying a current of I ampere, It produce an amount of heat equal to 2000 J. the current through the conductor is double the amount of heat produced will be
(a) 2000 J
(b) 4000 J
(c) 8000J
(d) 1000 J
66. Which of the following statements about DNA is/are correct?
(1) DNA is the hereditary material of all living organisms.
(2) All segments of DNA code for synthesis of proteins.
(3) Nuclear DNA is double helical with two nucleotide chains which run anti-parallel.
(4) DNA is also found in mitochondria.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Only 4
67. Which organization prepares the topographical maps of India?
(a) Geological Survey of India
(b) Archaeological Survey of India
(c) Survey of India
(d) National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organization
68. Which one of the following is not an international boundary line?
(a) Dresden Line
(b) Durand Line
(c) Maginot Line
(d) 38th Parallel
69. A lady is standing in front of a plane mirror at a distance of 1 m from it. She walks 60 cm toward the mirror. The distance of her image now from herself (ignoring the thickness of the mirror) is
(a) 40 cm
(b) 60 cm
(c) 80 cm
(d) 120 cm
70. The brightness of a star depends on its
(a) size and temperature
(b) size and distance from the earth
(c) size, temperature and mass
(d) size, temperature and distance from the earth
71. When a solid is heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Diffusion
72. Which one of the following is water gas?
(a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
(d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapur
73. Which of the following statements are correct?
(1) Males are haploid.
(2) Workers are sterile and diploid.
(3) Queen develops from diploid larvae that fed on royal jelly.
(4) Honey is collected/made by males.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1,2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
74. The ‘Amarkantak Hills’ is the source of which of the following rivers?
(1) Narmada (2) Mahanadi
(3) Tapti (4) Son
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
75. Which of the following statements in the context of northern hemisphere is/are correct?
(1) Vernal equinox occurs on March 21.
(2) Summer solstice occurs on December 22.
(3) Autumnal equinox occurs on September 23.
(4) Winter solstice occurs on June 21.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
76. A glass vessel is filled with water up to the brin and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is kept inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
(a) The water freezes to ice and the level of ice comes down
(b) The water in the glass vessel summer freezes to ice
(c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
(d) The water does not freeze at all
77. A simple circuit contains a 12 V battery and bulb having 24 ohm resistance. When turn on the switch, the ammeter connected to the circuit would read
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 5 A
78. Three resistors with magnitudes 2, 4, 8 ohm are connected in parallel equivalent resistance of the system would e
(a) less than 2 ohm
(b) more than 2 ohm but less than 4 ohm
(c) 4 ohm
(d) 14 ohm
79. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled A, B, C and D. A contains water, B contains solution of an alkali, C contains solutions of an acid, and D contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenolphthalein solution pink?
(a) Solution-A
(b) Solution-B
(c) Solution-C
(d) Solution-D
80. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
(1) Pesticide residues (2) Lead
(3) Metanil yellow (4) Mercury
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
81. In India, glacial terraces known as ‘Karewas’ are found in
(a) Sapt Kosi Valley
(b) Jhelum Valley
(c) Alakananda Valley
(d) Teesta Valley
82. Structurally, the Meghalaya region is a part of
(a) Shiwalik Range
(b) Deccan Plateau
(c) Greater Himalaya
(d) Aravalli Range
83. Two bodies A and B are moving with equal velocities. The ass of B is double that of A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Momentum of B will be double that of A
(b) Momentum of A will be double that of B
(c) Momentum of B will be four times that of A
(d) Momentum of both A and B will be equal
84. During solar eclipse,
(a) the Earth comes in between the Sun and the Moon
(b) the Moon comes in between the Sun and the Earth
(c) the Moon comes exactly halfway between the Earth and the Sun
(d) the Sun comes in between the Earth and the Moon
85. The SI unit of acceleration is
(a) ms−1
(b) ms−2
(c) cms−2
(d) kms−2
86. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 14
87. Which one of the following is a reduction reaction ?
(a) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
(b) S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)
(c) 
(d) Mg(s) + S(s) → MgS(s)
88. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bisphenol A (BPA) which is endocrine distruptor and bad for human health?
(1) Steel utensils
(2) Plastic coffee mugs
(3) Aluminium utensils
(4) Water storage plastic bottles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
89. The Nagarjuna Saga Project is located on which one of the following rivers?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kavery
(d) Mahanadi
90. Consider the following statements :
(1) Rajmahal highlands consist of lava flow deposits.
(2) Bundelkhand gneiss belong to the oldest Achaean rocks of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
91. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of concave mirror of focal length 16 cm. If the object is shifted by 8 cm towards the focus, the nature of the image would be
(a) real and magnified
(b) virtual and magnified
(c) real and reduced
(d) virtual and reduced
92. A pencil is placed upright at a distance 10 cm from a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The nature of the image of the pencil will be
(a) real, inverted and magnified
(b) real, erect and magnified
(c) virtual, erect and reduced
(d) virtual, erect and magnified
93. Which one of the following is a conventional energy source?
(a) Tidal energy
(b) Geothermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Biomass energy
94. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?
(a) N2O
(b) N2O3
(c) NO2
(d) N2O5
95. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (sodium hydrogen carbonate)
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate (potassium hydrogen carbonate)
(d) Potassium carbonate
96. Which of the following statements relating to the Conptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?
(1) The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public Accounts.
(2) The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(3) The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
97. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
(1) A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election as the President of India.
(2) The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
(3) A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
98. Which one of the following nations adopted first democratic Constitution in September, 2015?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Singapore
99. Who among the following was defeated Novak Ojokovic in the final of the US Open Tennis Tournament Men’s Singles event (2015)?
(a) Tommy Robredo
(b) Fabio Fognini
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Pablo Cuevas
100. The citizens of India do not have which of the following Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India.
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose property
(c) Right to practice any profession
(d) Right to form cooperative societies
101. Which one among the following Acts for first time allowed Indians, at theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Charles Wood’s Education Desp, 1854
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861
102. Consider the following statements about Rashtrakuta kings:
(1) They were ardent patrons of Shaivism and did not support other forms of religion.
(2) They promoted only Sanskrit scholars and gave them large at grants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
103. After a ban on unscientific coal mining and transportation of coal in this region by the National Green Tribunal, many of those engaged in the activity have been switching to turmeric farming for their livelihood. The region referred above is
(a) Jaintia, Hills, Meghalaya
(b) Koriya, Chhattisgarh
(c) Angul, Odisha
(d) Bardhaman, West Bengal
104. Which of the following statements about the first act of the Revolt of 1857 is/are true?
(1) It occurred in Meerut when two sepoys stole a superior officer’s rifle.
(2) It began when the Rani of Janshi declared war on the British.
(3) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Meerut.
(4) It began when Mangal Pandey fired at a European officer in Barrackpore.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Only 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 4
(d) 1 and 4
105. Which of the following statements above Gandhiji’s Hind Swaraj written in 1909 is/are true?
(1) Hind Swaraj offers a civilization concept of the Indian nation.
(2) Hind Swaraj States that Parliament democracy was necessary for the amelioration of the sufferings Indians.
(3) Hind Swaraj argues that industrial capitalism was responsible for the immorality of society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Only 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 1
106. Division of labour often involves
(1) specialized economic activity
(2) highly distinct productive roles
(3) involving everyone in many of the san activities
(4) individuals engage in only a sing activity and are dependent on others meet their various needs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 3
(d) 2 and 4
107. Who among the following is/was associated with ‘Maharashtra Andhashraddha Nirmoolan Samiti’?
(a) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
(b) Narendra Dabholkar
(c) GD Agrawal
(d) Kailash Satyarthi
108. Consider the following statements :
(1) Warren Hastings set-up the Calcutta Madrassa for the study and teaching of Muslim law related subjects.
(2) Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
109. Consider the following statements about Sufism in India :
(1) Pilgrimage called ziyarat to tombs of Sufi saints is an important feature.
(2) The most influential group of Sufis in India were the Chishtis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
110. Which of the following thinkers movements influenced the development Gandhiji’s political ideas?
(1) Henry David Thoreau
(2) John Ruskin
(3) John Milton
(4) Jainism
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
111. Consider the following statements :
(1) The Arthashstra is the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origin of the State.
(2) The main concerns of the Arthashastra are theoretical issues like the origin of the State.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
112. Which of the following is/are not FDI policy change(s) after 2010?
(1) Permission of 100% FDI in automotive sector.
(2) Permitting foreign airlines to make FDI up to 49%.
(3) Permission of up to 51% FDI under the government approval route in multi-brand retailing, subject to specified conditions.
(4) Amendment of policy on FDI in single-brand product retail trading for aligning with global practices
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
113. Which of the following is/are the component/components of the Integrated Power Development Scheme launched by the Government of India recently?
(1) Strengthening of sub-transmission and distribution networks in the urban areas.
(2) Metering of distribution transformers/ feeders/ consumers in the rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
114. Which of the following statements about Brahmo Samaj is/are correct?
(1) The Brahmo Marriage Act of 1872 allowed inter-caste and widow re-marriage only if the contracting parties declared themselves to be non-Hindus.
(2) Keshub Chandra Sen arranged the marriage of his minor daughter with the Maharashtra of Burdwan.
(3) Keshub Chandra Sen’s followers broke away to form the Naba Brahmo Samaj.
(4) The Brahmo Samaj grew from a small elite group to a mass movement in the 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
115. Which of the following statements about the aims of the United Nations is/are true?
(1) To foster a mutual appreciation of each others culture and literature among nations.
(2) To achieve international co-operation in solving problems of an economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian character.
(3) To foster relations between scholars and academics in different countries.
(4) To organize international countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) Only 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) The following five items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below
Code
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
116. Statements
(I) Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
(II) The grade of petroleum depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons.
117. Statements
(I) There is high salinity in Red Sea.
(II) Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.
118. Statements
(I) Volcanic eruption is accompanied by earthquakes.
(II) Volcanoes erupt water vapours and dust particles in the atmosphere.
119. Statements
(I) Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics.
(II) The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile.
120. Statements
(I) India has wide variation in population density.
(II) Factors like agricultural productivity and history of settlements have greatly influenced the population density pattern in India.
121. A container is first filled with water and then the entire water is replaced by mercury. Mercury has density of 13.6 × 103 kg/m3. If X is the weight of the water and Y is the weight of the mercury, then
(a) X = Y
(b) X = 13.6Y
(c) Y = 13.6X
(d) None of these
122. Density of water is
(a) maximum at 0℃
(b) minimum at 0℃
(c) maximum at 4℃
(d) minimum at −4℃
123. The phosphorus used in the manufacturer of safety matches is
(a) red phosphorus
(b) black phosphorus
(c) white phosphorus
(d) scarlet phosphorus
124. Which one of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Ripening of fruits
(b) Curdling of milk
(c) Freezing of water
(d) Digestion of food
125. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
(1) nitrogen oxides (NOx)
(2) carbon monoxide (CO)
(3) carbon dioxide (CO2)
(4) benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human being even at very low level?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
126. Arrange the following centres of AIIMS from East of West :
(1) Rishikesh (2) New Delhi
(3) Patna (4) Bhubaneswar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 4-1-3-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
127. Suppose the force of gravitation between two bodies of equal masses is F. If each mass is doubled keeping the distance of separation between them unchanged, the force would become
(a) F
(b) 2F
(c) 4F
(d) 
128. A body has a free fall from a height of 20 m. After falling through a distance of 5 m, then body would
(a) lose one-fourth of its total energy
(b) lose one-fourth of its potential energy
(c) gain one-fourth of its potential energy
(d) gain three-fourth of its total energy
129. Soap is the sodium or potassium salt of
(a) stearic acid
(b) oleic acid
(c) palmitic acid
(d) All of these
130. Mass of a particular amount of substance
(1) is the amount of matter present in it
(2) does not vary from place to place
(3) changes with change in gravitational force
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
131. Which of the following carbon compounds will not give a sooty flame?
(a) Benzene
(b) Hexane
(c) Naphthalene
(d) Anthracene
132. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
(a) A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4
(b) A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4
(c) A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2
(d) A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
133. In Thar region, the shifting sand dunes are locally known as
(a) Dhrian
(b) Daurs
(c) Dhoros
(d) Dhaya
134. The impulse on a particle due to a force acting on it during a given time interval is equal to the change in its
(a) force
(b) momentum
(c) work done
(d) energy
135. Which one of the following statements with regarding to expansion of materials due to heating is not correct?
(a) As ice melts, it expands uniformly up to 4℃
(b) Mercury thermometer works using the principle of expansion due to heating.
(c) Small gap is kept between two rails to allow for expansion due to heating.
(d) The length of metallic wire increase when its temperature is increased.
136. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
(d) Only 2
137. Which one of the following is not a form of stored energy?
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Electrical energy
(d) Chemical energy
138. The motion of a car along a straight path is shown by the following figure
The car starts from O and reaches at A, B and C at different instants of time. During its motion from O to C and back to B, the distance covered and the magnitude of the displacement are, respectively
(a) 25 km and 60 km
(b) 95 km and 35 km
(c) 60 km and 25 km
(d) 85 km and 35 km
139. Jelep La pass is located in
(a) Punjab Himalaya
(b) Sikkim Himalaya
(c) Kumaon Himalaya
(d) Kashmir Himalaya
140. What is the number of mole(s) of H2(g) required to saturate one mole of benzene?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
141. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the Constitution of India and its content is not correctly matched?
142. Consider the following statements :
(1) The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority.
(2) Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article-370 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
143. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice-President of India
(d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
144. Who among the following is the founder of the ‘Bachpan Bachao Andolan’?
(a) Shantha Sinha
(b) Kailash Satyarthi
(c) Aruna Roy
(d) Anil Agarwal
145. Which of the following are the features of Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana?
(1) Ensuring financial inclusion of the poor.
(2) Enhancing financial literacy.
(3) Provision for accidental insurance to account holders.
(4) Allowing bank accounts with zero balance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All of these
146. The Election Commission recognises a political party as a national party if
(1) it secures at least 6% of the total valid votes polled in four or more states in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the State Legislative Assemblies.
(2) it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha from any State or States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
147. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Nehru-Mahalanobis model of development strategy?
(a) Development of capital goods industries.
(b) Major involvement of the State in the economy.
(c) Industrial deregulation and disinvestment in the public sector.
(d) Enhancing the scope and importance of the public sector.
148. Which of the following best explains the stated broad vision and aspirations of the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17)?
(a) Faster, sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.
(b) Modernization of Industries and Strengthening Infrastructure.
(c) Enhancing Agricultural and Rural Incomes.
(d) Checking Inflation and Strengthening non-economic variables like Nutritional Requirements, Health and Family Planning.
149. Nabhah Sprsam Diptam is the motto of
(a) Central Industrial Security Force
(b) Indian Air Force
(c) ISRO
(d) Indian Navy
150. Consider the following statements :
(1) The Amendment procedure has been provided in Article-368 of the Constitution of India.
(2) The consent of the States is mandatory for all Amendments to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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