# AIIMS MBBS Entrance Examination Previous Year Question Paper 2010 With Answer Key

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

Physics

1. The dimensions of universal gas constant is

(a)  [ML2T2θ1]

(b)  [M2LT2θ]

(c)  [ML3T2θ1]

(d)  None of these

2. A metal plate 4 mm thick has a temperature difference of 32°C between its faces. It transmits 200 kcal/h through an area of 5 cm2.

Thermal conductivity of the material is

(a)  58.33 W/m-°C

(b)  33.58 W/m-°C

(c)  5 × 104 W/m-°C

(d)  None of these

3. A balloon rises from rest with a constant acceleration g/8. A stone is released from it when it has risen to height h. The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

4. A uniform cylinder has a radius R and length L. If the moment of inertia of this cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its circular face is equal to the moment of inertia of the same cylinder about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its length, then

(a)  L = R

(b)

(c)

(d)

5. If the value of g at the surface of the earth is 9.8 m/s2 then the value of g at a place 480 km above the surface of the earth will be (radius of the earth is 6400 km)

(a)  8.4 m/s2

(b)  9.8 m/s2

(c)  7.2 m/s2

(d)  4.2 m/s2

6. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given by  then mass of the gas in container is

(a)  11 g

(b)  22 g

(c)  33 g

(d)  44 g

7. Two simple pendulums first of bob mass M1 and length L1, second of bob mass M2 and length L2. M1 = M2 and L1 = 2L2. If the vibrational energies of both are same. Then which is correct?

(a)  Amplitude of B greater than A

(b)  Amplitude of B smaller than A

(c)  Amplitude will be same

(d)  None of the above

8. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)

(a)

(b)  2√2 s

(c)  2 s

(d)

9. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward acceleration g/4. Work done by the cord on the block is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  Mgd

10. A force F is applied on the wire of radius r and length L and change in the length of wire is l. If the same force F is applied on the wire of the same material and radius 2r and length 2L, then the change in length of the other wire is

(a)  l

(b)  2l

(c)  l/2

(d)  4l

11. When a copper voltmeter is connected with a battery of emf 12 V. 2 of copper is deposited in 30 min. If the same voltmeter is connected across a 6 V battery then the mass of copper deposited in 45 min would be

(a)  1 g

(b)  1.5 g

(c)  2 g

(d)  2.5 g

12. A network of four capacitors of capacities equal to C1 = C, C2= 2C, C3 = 3C and C­4 = 4C are connected to a battery as shown in the figure.

The ratio of the charges on C2 and C­4 is

(a)  22/3

(b)  3/22

(c)  7/4

(d)  4/7

13. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstien’s equation, the metal(s) which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a)  A only

(b)  A and B

(c)  All of these

(d)  None of these

14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck’s constant and that of the moment of inertia is the dimensions of

(a)  frequency

(b)  velocity

(c)  angular momentum

(d)  time

15. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(a)  increases the number of donors on the n-side

(b)  increases the electric field in the depletion zone

(c)  increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(d)  widens the depletion zone

16. If a vector  is perpendicular to the vector  , then the value of α is

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1/2

(d)  1

17. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, fraction o f heat energy supplied which increases the internal energy o f gas, is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/4

18. A body of mass m rises to a height h = R/5 from the earth’s surface where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy will be

(a)  mgh

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. A clock with a metal pendulum beating seconds keeps correct time at 0° If it loses 12.5 s a day at 25°C, the coefficient of linear expansion of metal pendulum is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

20. A fork A has frequency 2% more than the standard fork and B has a frequency 3% less than the frequency of same standard fork. The forks A and B when sounded together produced 6 beats/s. The frequency of fork A is

(a)  116.4 Hz

(b)  120 Hz

(c)  122.4 Hz

(d)  238.8 Hz

21. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The observer measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the observer after crossing him? The velocity of the sound in the medium is 350 m/s.

(a)  750 Hz

(b)  857 Hz

(c)  1143 Hz

(d)  1333 Hz

22. A ball of mass 1 g and charge 108 C moves from a point A. Where potential is 600 V to the point B where potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is 20 cm/s. The velocity of the ball at the point A will be

(a)  22.8 cm/s

(b)  228 cm/s

(c)  16.8 m/s

(d)  168 m/s

23. A charged oil drop of mass 2.5 × 10−7 kg is in space between the two plates, each of area 2 × 10−2 m2 of a parallel plate capacitor. When the upper plate has a charge of 5 × 10−7 C and the lower plate has an equal negative charge, the oil remains stationary. The charge of the oil drop is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  9 × 10−1 C

(b)  9 × 10−6 C

(c)  8.85 × 10−13 C

(d)  1.8 × 10−14 C

24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5 μF capacitor is

(a)

(b)  4 V

(c)  6 V

(d)  8 V

25. If two bulbs of wattages 25 and 100 W respectively each rated by 220 V are connected in series with the supply of 440 V, which bulb will fuse?

(a)  100 W bulb

(b)  25 W bulb

(c)  None of them

(d)  Both of them

26. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

(a)  independent of L

(b)  proportional to L2

(c)  inversely proportional to L

(d)  linearly proportional to L

27. A thin magnetic needle vibrates in the horizontal plane with a period of 4 s. The needle is cut into two halves by a plane normal to magnetic axis of the needle. Then the period of vibration of each half needle is approximately

(a)  4 s

(b)  2 s

(c)  8 s

(d)  1 s

28. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 0.02 m is suspended from it vertex such that it is hanging in a vertical plane between the pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a uniform field of 5 × 102 If a current of 0.1 A is passed through the coil, what is the couple acting?

(a)  5√3 × 107 N-m

(b)  5√3 × 1010 N-m

(c)

(d)  None of these

29. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm2 has a resistance of 100 Ω. If a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the plane of the coil changes at a rate of 1000 T/s, the current in the coil is

(a)  1.0 A

(b)  50 A

(c)  0.5 A

(d)  5.0 A

30. An AC ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. When a given direct current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 3A. When another alternating current passes through the circuit, the AC ammeter reads 4A.Then the reading of this ammeter, if DC and AC flow through the circuit simultaneously, is

(a)  3 A

(b)  4 A

(c)  7 A

(d)  5 A

31. A transmitter transmits at a wavelength of 300 m. A condenser of capacitance 2.4 μF is being used. The value of the inductance for the resonant circuit is approximately

(a)  104 H

(b)  106 H

(c)  108 H

(d)  1010 H

32. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged to a potential of 1 V. It is connected in parallel to an inductor of inductance 103 The maximum current that will flow in the circuit has the value

(a)

(b)  1 A

(c)  1 mA

(d)  1000 mA

33. The wave of wavelength 5900 Å emitted by any atom or molecule must have some finite total length which is known as coherence length. For sodium light, this length is 2.4 cm. The number of oscillations in this length will be

(a)  4.068 × 108

(b)  4.068 × 104

(c)  4.068 × 106

(d)  4.068 × 105

34. If a ray of light in a denser medium strikes a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i, the angles of reflection and refraction are respectively r and r’. If the reflected and refracted rays are at right angles to each other, the critical angle for the given pair of media is

(a)  sin1 (tan r’)

(b)  sin1(tan r)

(c)  tan1 (sin i)

(d)  cot1 (tan i)

35. In a photocell, with exciting wavelength λ, the faster electron has speed v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest electron will be

(a)  v(3/4)1/2

(b)  v(4/3)1/2

(c)  less than v(4/3)1/2

(d)  greater than v(4/3)1/2

36. Work function of nickel is 5.01 eV. When ultraviolet radiation of wavelength 2000 Å is incident on electrons are emitted. What will be the maximum velocity of emitted electrons?

(a)  3 × 108 m/s

(b)  6.46 × 105 m/s

(c)  10.36 × 105 m/s

(d)  8.54 × 106 m/s

37. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted per second by a 100 W lamp? (Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 105 cm)

(a)  1.4 × 1019

(b)  3 × 103

(c)  1.4 × 1019

(d)  3 × 104

38. A 1 kg stone at the end of 1 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle at constant speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string is 6 N, when the stone at (g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  top of the circle

(b)  bottom of the circle

(c)  half way down

(d)  None of the above

39. A 12 HP motor has to be operated 8 h/day. How much will it cost at the rate of 50 paise/kWh in 10 days?

(a)  Rs 350

(b)  Rs 358

(c)  Rs 375

(d)  Rs 397

40. In steel, the Young’s modulus and the strain at the breaking point are 2 × 1011 N/m2 and 0.15 respectively. The stress at the breaking point for steel is therefore

(a)  1.33 × 1011 N/m2

(b)  1.33 × 1012 N/m2

(c)  7.5 × 1013 N/m2

(d)  3 × 1010 N/m2

Directions for Q. No. 41 to 60 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) if both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) if both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) if Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) if Assertion and Reason are false.

41. Assertion Torque on the coil is the maximum, when coil is suspended in a radial magnetic field.

Reason The torque tends to rotate the coil on its own axis.

42. Assertion A transformer cannot work on DC supply.

Reason DC changes neither in magnitude nor in direction.

43. Assertion For an electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and AC source; its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.

Reason Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.

44. Assertion The specific charge for positive rays is a characteristic constant.

Reason The specific charge depends on charge and mass of positive ions present in positive rays.

45. Assertion The mass of β-particles when they are emitted is higher than the mass of electrons obtained by other means.

Reason β-particle and electron, both are similar particles.

46. Assertion NAND or NOR gates are called digital building blocks.

Reason The repeated use of NAND (or NOR) gates can produce all the basic or complicated gates.

47. Assertion There is a no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab.

Reason Dispersion of light is the phenomenon of splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours.

48. Assertion There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.

Reason Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

49. Assertion The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.

Reason Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of one particle.

50. Assertion A safe turn by a cyclist should neither be fast nor sharp.

Reason The bending angle from the vertical would decrease with increases in velocity.

51. Assertion A table cloth can be pulled from a table without dislodging the dishes.

Reason  To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

52. Assertion If a gas container in motion is suddenly stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.

Reason The kinetic energy of ordered mechanical motion is converted into the kinetic energy of random motion of gas molecules.

Reason The thermal radiations require no medium for propagation.

54. Assertion The percentage change in time period is 1.5% if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%.

Reason Time period is directly proportional to length of pendulum.

55. Assertion The fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe increases as the temperature is increased.

Reason As the temperature increases, the velocity of sound increases more rapidly than length of the pipe.

56. Assertion A paramagnetic sample displays greater magnetization (for the same magnetizing field) when cooled.

Reason The magnetization does not depend on temperature.

57. Assertion The quantity L/R possesses dimensions of time.

Reason To reduce the rate of increase of current through a solenoid should increase the time constant (L/R).

58. Assertion The threshold frequency of photoelectric effect supports the particle nature of sunlight.

Reason If frequency of incident light is less than the threshold frequency, electrons are not emitted from metal surface.

59. Assertion The average velocity of the object over an interval of time is either smaller than or equal to the average speed of the object over the same interval.

Reason Velocity is a vector quantity and speed is a scalar quantity.

60. Assertion Microwave propagation is better than the skywave propagation.

Reason Microwaves have frequencies 100 to 300 GHz, which have very good directional properties.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

CHEMISTRY

61. The pH of the mixture obtained when equal volumes of N/10 NaOH and N/20 HCl are mixed, is

(a)  1.6

(b)  12.4

(c)  13.4

(d)  10.8

62. Which of the following buffer solution turns invalid on addition of 10 mL of 1.0 M HCl?

(a)  100 mL having 0.15 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(b)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

(c)  100 mL having 0.2 M NH3 and 0.1 M NH4Cl each

(d)  100 mL having 0.05 M NH3 and NH4Cl each

63. Which element belongs to 4n series?

(a)  Pb207

(b)  Bi209

(c)  Pb208

(d)  Pb206

64. 037 g f an alcohol, R–OH was added to C2H5MgI and the gas evolved measured 11.2 cc at STP. The molecular mass of R–OH will be

(a)  47

(b)  79

(c)  77

(d)  74

65. If the photon of the wavelength 150 pm strikes an atom and one of its inner bound electrons is ejected out with a velocity of 1.5 × 107 ms1, what is the energy with which it is bound to the nucleus?

(a)  1.2 × 102 eV

(b)  2.15 × 103 eV

(c)  7.6 × 103 eV

(d)  8.12 × 103 eV

66. Consider the sequence of oxides : Na2O, SiO2, P4O Which factor decreases from Na2O to SiO2 and also from SiO2 to P4O10?

(a)  Covalent character

(b)  Melting point

(c)  pH when mixed with water

(d)  Solubility in aqueous alkali

67. The type of hybrid orbitals used by iodine atom in hypoiodous acid molecule are

(a)  sp3

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp

(d)  sp3d

68.  is of intense pink colour though Mn is in +7 oxidation state. It is due to

(a)  oxygen gives colour to it

(b)  charge transfer when Mn gives its electron to oxygen

(c)  charge transfer when oxygen gives its electron to Mn making it Mn(+VI)

(d)  presence of unpaired electrons

69. [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ + Cl → [CoCl3(NH3)3] + NH3

In the reaction only one isomer of complex product is obtained. The initial complex is

(a)  cis isomer

(b)  trans isomer

(c)  not having stereoisomers

(d)  either cis or trans

70. The Brownian motion is due to

(a)  temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase

(b)  attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles

(c)  impact of the molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

(d)  convectional currents

71. For a first-order reaction A → B the plot of log {[A]t/1M} versus t is linear with a

(a)  positive slope and zero intercept

(b)  positive slope and non zero intercept

(c)  negative slope and zero intercept

(d)  negative slope and non zero intercept

72. At a certain temperature, the first order rate constant, k1 is found to be smaller than the second order rate constant, k2. If the energy of activation, E1 of the first order reaction is greater than energy of activation, E2 of the second order reaction then with increase in temperature

(a)  k1 will increase faster than k2, but always will remain less than k2

(b)  k2 will increase faster than k1

(c)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes equal to k2

(d)  k1 will increase faster than k2 and becomes greater than k2

73. Highest electron affinity is shown by

(a)  O

(b)  F

(c)  Cl2

(d)  F2

74. An alkyl chloride (A) on reaction with magnesium in dry ether followed by treatment with ethanol gave 2-methylbutane. Give the possible structure of ‘A’

(a)  (CH3)2C(Cl)CH2CH3

(b)  (CH3)2CHCH2CH2Cl

(c)  CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2X

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

75. Which of the following reaction has zero activation energy?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

76. Structural formula of Lewisite is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

77. Which is optically inactive?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

78. The monomers of buna-S rubber are

(a)  vinyl chloride and sulphur

79. Passing H2S gas through nitric acid produces

(a)  rhombic sulphur

(b)  colloidal sulphur

(c)  amorphous sulphur

(d)  plastic sulphur

80. Which of the following aldehyde contains α-C atom but does not have any α-H atom?

(a)  Propionaldehyde

(b)  Benzaldehyde

(c)  Isobutyraldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

81.

The final predominant product is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

82. Which of the following reaction is an example of calcination process?

(a)  2Ag + 2HCl + [O] → 2AgCl + H2O

(b)  2Zn + O12 → 2ZnO

(c)  2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2

(d)  MgCO3 → MgO + CO2

83. The following equilibria are given

The equilibrium constant for the reaction,

in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will be

(a)  K1K2K3

(b)

(c)

(d)

84. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a monatomic gas having molar mass M is Urms. The reaction between the average kinetic energy (E) of the gas and U­rms is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

85. C is

(a)  Ph–N+ ≡ NBF­4

(b)

(c)

(d)  Ph–F

86. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the glycoidic carbon (ie, C1 in aldose and C2 in ketoses) are called

(a)  anomers

(b)  epimers

(c)  diastereomers

(d)  enantiomers

87. The correct order of increasing covalent character is

(a)  LiCl, NaCl, BeCl2

(b)  BeCl2, NaCl, LiCl

(c)  NaCl, LiCl, BeCl2

(d)  BeCl2, LiCl, NaCl

88. The equivalent weight of H3PO2, when it disproportionate into PH3 and H3PO3 is

(a)  82

(b)  61.5

(c)  41

(d)  20.5

89. Catalyst used in dimerisation of acetylene to prepare chloropropene is

(a)  HgSO4 + H2SO4

(b)  Cu2Cl2

(c)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH

(d)  Cu2Cl2 + NH4Cl

90. The limiting radius ratio of the complex [Ni(CN)4]2 is

(a)  0.225 – 0.414

(b)  0.414 – 0.732

(c)  0.155 – 0.225

(d)  None of these

91. In a homonuclear molecule, which of the following sets of orbitals is degenerate?

(a)  σ1s and σ2s

(b)  π2px and π2py

(c)  π2px and σ2pz

(d)  σ2px and σ*2pz

92. If the concentration of CrO421 ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate is 2 × 104 M, the solubility product of silver chromate would be

(a)  32 × 1012

(b)  8 × 1012

(c)  16 × 1012

(d)  8 × 108

93. If ethanol dissolves in water then which of the following would happen?

(a)  Absorption of heat and contraction of volume

(b)  Liberation of heat and contraction of volume

(c)  Absorption of heat and increase in volume

(d)  Liberation of heat and increase in volume

94. The pH of 0.5 L of 1.0 M NaCl after the electrolysis for 965 s using 5.0 A current, is

(a)  1.0

(b)  12.7

(c)  13.0

(d)  1.30

95. The potential of hydrogen electrode having a solution of pH = 4 at 25°C is

(a)  −0.177 V

(b)  −0.236 V

(c)  +0.177 V

(d)  +0.236 V

96. The electronic configuration of actinides cannot be assigned with degree of certainty because of

(a)  small energy difference between 5f and 6d levels

(b)  overlapping of inner orbitals

(c)  free movement of electrons over all the orbitals

(d)  All of the above

97. The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is

(a)  4-iodobutane

(b)  2-iodobutane

(c)  1-iodo-3-methyl propane

(d)  2-iodo-2-methyl propane

98. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A) trifluoroacetic acid (B), benzoic acid (C) and formic acid (D) is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  A > C > B > D

(c)  B > A > D > C

(d)  B > A > C > D

99. The correct order of basic strength of CH3NH2(I), (CH3)2NH(II), (CH3)3N(III), C6H5CH2NH2(IV) in gaseous phase is

(a)  IV < III < II < I

(b)  IV < III < I < II

(c)  I < II < III < IV

(d)  IV <  I < II < III

100. Secondary structure of proteins refers to

(a)  mainly denatured proteins and structure of prosthetic group

(b)  three dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant from each other in the polypeptide chain

(c)  linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain

(d)  regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain

Directions for Q. No. 101 to 120 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

101. Assertion One molar aqueous solution has always higher concentration than one molal.

Reason The molality of a solution depends upon the density of the solution whereas molarity does not.

102. Assertion The heat adsorbed during isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero.

Reason The volume occupied by the molecule is zero.

103. Assertion If edge length of unit cell of LiCl, having NaCl type structure, is 5.14Å, the ionic radius of Cl ion is 1.82 Å.

Reason Anion-anion contact is retained in LiCl structure because anions constitute the lattice.

104. Assertion HOF bond angle is higher than HOCl bond angle in HOX.

Reason Oxygen is more electronegative than halogens.

105. Assertion Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives ethylene.

Reason Calcium carbide contains C4anions.

106. Assertion Bithional is added to soap for its beautification and solidification.

Reason Bithional is a sulpha drug.

107. Assertion Only principal quantum number determines the energy of an electron in an orbital in Na atom.

Reason For one electron system, the expression of energy is quite different as that obtained in Bohr’s theory.

108. Assertion The HF2 ions exists in the solid state and also in liquid state but not in aqueous solution.

Reason The magnitude of hydrogen bonds in between HF–HF molecule is weaker than that in between HF and H2O molecules.

109. Assertion Chlorine when solidifies does not have zero entropy even at absolute zero.

Reason Chlorine is a pungent smelling gas and it is difficult to solidify it.

110. Assertion Noble gases have positive electron affinity.

Reason Noble gases have stable closed shell electronic configuration.

111. Assertion Al and Ga have nearly same atomic radii.

Reason Al and Ga show diagonal relationship.

112. Assertion Oxidation stat of Fe in Fe(CO)5 is zero.

Reason EAN of Fe in this complex is 36.

113. Assertion CO and NO both combine with haemoglobin.

Reason NO has more affinity than CO towards haemoglobin.

114. Assertion Vulcanisation increases the hardness of natural rubber.

Reason Vulcanisation introduces the polysulphide bridges at reactive sites.

115. Assertion The oxidation of ketone by perbenzoic acid gives esters.

Reason Perbenzoic acid oxidizes  because of the release of nascent oxygen on dissociation.

116. Assertion N3 is a weaker base than NH2.

Reason The lone pair of electrons on N atom in N3 is in a sp2-orbital while in NH2 it is in an sp3-orbital.

117. Assertion SN1 reaction is basically a solvolysis reaction.

Reason Polar protic solvents help the substrate to ionize and by the way get involved in SN1 reaction.

118. Assertion In the E2 elimination, β-H and leaving group should be antiperiplanar.

Reason In the E2 elimination, base always abstracts unhindered β-H.

119. Assertion 2-2-dimethyl propanal give Cannizaro reaction with concentrated NaOH.

Reason Cannizaro is a disproportionation reaction.

120. Assertion A primary amine has higher boiling point than any tertiary amine.

Reason  A tertiary amine has greater number of N–H bonds for H-bonding.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

BIOLOGY

121. Appearance of dark-coloured pepper moths among the light-coloured ones as a result of increased industrial pollution is an example of

(a)  disruptive selection

(b)  stabilizing selection

(c)  directional selection

(d)  None of the above

122. A fruit developed from a condensed inflorescence is

(a)  simple fruit

(b)  aggregate fruit

(c)  composite fruit

(d)  etaerio

123. The ratio of osmotic pressure exerted by 1 M sucrose and 1 M NaCl solution will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0.1

(d)  0.5

124. The main function of the white blood cell in the human intestine system is to

(a)  combat and destroy antigenic particles

(b)  produce antigens to combat antibodies

(c)  carry oxygen around the body

(d)  transport antigens to B memory cells in the lymph nodes

125. Which one of the following is the best stage to observe the shape, size and number of chromosomes in a cell?

(a)  Interphase

(b)  Prophase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

126. In the blood of an adult man the total content of haemoglobin is roughly

(a)  several hundred grams

(b)  tens to gram (10-100 g)

(c)  several grams

(d)  several hundred milligram

127. Sinking of zooplankton during the day and rising to the surface at night is an example o f

(a)  circinal rhythm

(c)  tidal rhythm

(d)  None of these

128. Centre of DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD) is located at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Chennai

(c)  Kolkata

129. The function of nitrogen fixation in Anabaena (Cyanobacterium) is performed by

(a)  thylakoid

(b)  heterocyst

(c)  phycocyanin

(d)  phycoerythrin

130. In a bacterium, the amount of adenine was found to be 18 per cent. Suggest the cytosine base composition from the following

(a)  64%

(b)  36%

(c)  32%

(d)  18%

131. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for cloning gene in coli is a/an

(a)  original bacterial plasmid

(b)  modified bacterial plasmid

(c)  viral genome

(d)  transposon

132. Holandric genes are located

(a)  both in X and Y-chromosome

(b)  only in Y-chromosome

(c)  only in X-chromosome

(d)  only in autosomes

133. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1

(c)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1

134. In which of the following combinations, the compounds in ascending order based on their molecular weights are arranged?

(a)  DNA, RNA, AMP, ADP, ATP

(b)  DNA, RNA, ATP, ADP, AMP

(c)  AMP, ADP, ATP, RNA, DNA

(d)  AMP, ATP, ADP, DNA, RNA

135. The floral formula  represents

(a)  Solanum nigrum

(b)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(c)  Citrus aurantum

(d)  Brassica campestris

136. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1; D – 4

(c)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1; D – 4

(d)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

137. Elaters are absent in

(a)  Funaria

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Pellia

(d)  Porella

138. The pollination of two flowers on different plants is known as

(a)  xenogamy

(b)  geitonogamy

(c)  cleistogamy

(d)  dichogamy

139. The callus is defined as

(a)  decaying cells

(b)  differentiated cells

(c)  sterile mass cells

(d)  undifferentiated mass of cells

140. Calcium dependent kinases can control

(a)  cell cycle activities

(b)  DNA replication

(c)  cell surface receptors

(d)  membrane structure

141. Which of the following serve as the anchoring junctions between the cells?

(a)  Tight junctions

(b)  Gap junctions

(c)  Desmosomes

(d)  Nexuses

142. Blood cells that increase in number during allergic conditions like asthma are

(a)  neutrophils

(b)  basophils

(c)  eosinophils

(d)  lymphocytes

143. The cornea is a very important component of the human eye. The main function of the cornea is to

(a)  bend the light before it reaches the lens

(b)  provide structural support to the eye

(c)  contain a concentrated amount of cone cells in the correct orientation

(d)  change the shape of the lens to enable the image to be focused on the retina

144. Acoelomate, triploblastic, body with bilateral symmetry is characteristic of

(a)  flatworm

(b)  roundworm

(c)  segmented worm

(d)  mollusc

145. Match the columns.

(a)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 4; D – 2

(b)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 4

(c)  A – 1; B – 3; C – 4; D – 2

(d)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

146. In a stable ecosystem, which of the following limits the number of trophic levels?

(a)  Biomass

(b)  The number of nutrients

(c)  Availability of nutrients

(d)  Presence of contaminants that increase in concentration along the food chain

147. Oxygen content reduction makes the glycolyse (glycogenesis) intensity increased due to

(a)  increase of ADP concentration in cell

(b)  increase of NAD+ concentration in cell

(c)  increase of ATP concentration in cell

(d)  increase of concentration of peroxides and free radicals

148. If a segment of an mRNA molecule has the sequence 5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′, which of the following could have been the template DNA molecule?

(a)  5′ GCUAGCCAUG 3′

(b)  5′ GUACCGAUCG 3′

(c)  5′ CATGGCTAGC 3′

(d)  5′ CGATCGGTAC 3′

149. Hardy-Weinberg’s principle of ‘zero evolution’ is based on

(a)  genetic equilibrium

(b)  random mating

(c)  no migrations

(d)  All of the above

150. What does the term ‘reproductive isolation’ refers to?

(a)  An individual is unable to fertilize itself

(b)  Genes are not exchanged between two populations

(c)  Individuals from two populations never mate

(d)  Individuals from two populations never produce offsprings

151. Below are listed some pairs of character. The homologous pair is

(a)  forelimbs of dog and camel

(b)  insect wing and bat wing

(c)  feathers of birds and fins of fish

(d)  lens of vertebrate and arthropod

152. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in

(a)  presence of oxygen

(b)  low CO2 concentration

(c)  high CO2 concentration

(d)  absence of CO2

153. If Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?

(a)  Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct. These organs help in struggle for survival

(b)  Size of organs increase with ageing

(c)  Development of organs is due to will power

(d)  There should be some physical basis of inheritance

154. LSD is

(a)  hallucinogenic

(b)  sedative

(c)  stimulant

(d)  tranquilizer

155. Monoclonal antibodies are

(a)  obtained from a cell and act on one antigen

(b)  obtained from a group of cells and act on more than one antigens

(c)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on single antigen

(d)  obtained from a group of same type of cells and act on more than one antigens

156. Which of these is most infectious disease?

(a)  Hepatitis-B

(b)  AIDS

(c)  Cough and cold

(d)  Malaria

157. Microtubules are absent in

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  flagella

(c)  spindle fibres

(d)  centriole

158. Plant decomposers are

(a)  Monera and Fungi

(b)  Fungi and Plantae

(c)  Protista and Animalia

(d)  Animalia and Monera

159. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with

(a)  oat

(b)  barley

(c)  maize

(d)  rye

160. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

(a)  extinction of these species from other regions

(b)  continental separation

(c)  absence of terrestrial route to these places

(d)  retrogressive evolution

Directions for Q. No. 161 to 180 : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements mark the correct answer as :

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion

(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

161. Assertion Glycine, and amino acid, comes under the category of non-essential amino acids.

Reason The fact behind it is that glycine cannot be synthesized in the body.

162. Assertion The rate of decomposition o f detritus is reduced in the regions of high altitude.

Reason It happens due to immobilization of nutrients.

163. Assertion Green-house effect is due to thick layer of carbon dioxide.

Reason The glass panels of a green-house allowing the sunlight to filter through but preventing the h eat from being re-radiated in outer space.

164. Assertion Mammals, living in deserts contain more concentrated urine.

Reason  They contain very long loop of Henle in their nephrons.

165. Assertion The functional unit of excretory organs of lobsters is nephron.

Reason The filtration of blood occur in the Malpighian body (the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule).

166. Assertion Open circulatory system is found in most arthropods.

Reason Arthropods contain haemolymph which directly bathes internal tissues and organs.

167. Assertion Granulocytes are white blood cells.

Reason They contain lobed nuclei and tiny granules.

168. Assertion Bacteria, Protista do not have circulatory system.

Reason These organisms live in moist and watery environment.

169. Assertion Glycolysis begins in cytoplasm and yields two molecule of pyruvate.

Reason During glycolysis, four ATP molecules are produced and net yield is only two ATP molecules.

170. Assertion Mechanical tissues are absent or less developed in the floating and submerged parts of hydrophytic plants.

Reason Generally, elongated and loosely arranged spongy cells are found in the  body of submerged hydrophytic plants.

171. Assertion Inhibition of death of one organism by another through the production of some b-products is known as antibiosis.

Reason Antibiosis is a type of negative interaction.

172. Assertion Holoblastic cleavage with almost equal-sized blastomeres is a characteristic of placental animals.

Reason Eggs of most mammals, including humans are of centrolecithal type.

173. Assertion Only a single functional female gamete is formed from each primary oocyte cell.

Reason Meiosis in each primary oocyte gives rise to only one cell which functions as ovum.

174. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.

Reason  Cyanide combines with the copper of cytochrome oxidase and prevents oxygen combining with it.

175. Assertion Urea is a less toxic excretory substance comparatively to uric acid.

Reason  Birds and insect are uricotelic animals.

176. Assertion Conducting tissues, especially xylem show greatest reduction in submerged hydrophytes.

Reason Hydrophytes live in water so no need of tissues.

177. Assertion Fructose-1, 6 diphosphate is converted into glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate.

Reason Conversion of fructose-1, 6 diphosphate into 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone-3-phosphate is facilitated by the enzyme aldolase.

178. Assertion Process of maintain a constant internal environment is known as homeostasis.

Reason Kidneys are excretory and homeostatic organs.

179. Assertion Organochlorine pesticides are organic compounds that have been chlorinated.

Reason Fenitrothion is one of the organochlorine pesticides.

180. Assertion Thick layers of muscles are present in the wall alimentary canal.

Reason These muscles help in the mixing of food materials with the enzymes coming from different glands in the alimentary canal.

AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam-2010

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

181. Which of the following professor received the Physics Noble Prize for 2009 for his ‘ground breaking achievements concerning the transmission of light in fibres optical communication?

(b)  Charles Kuen Kao

(c)  Walter Gerlach

(d)  John Tyndall

182. The Indian music composer, who got double Gramy Awards in Los Angeles on Feb 1, 2010, is

(a)  Ravi Shankar

(b)  Anu Malik

(c)  AR Rahman

183. India on Jan 11, successfully test fired the missile ‘ Astra’ from its Integrated Test Range at Balasore. This missile works from

(a)  air to earth

(b)  earth to air

(c)  sea to air

(d)  air to air

184. On which day is annual ‘Pravasi Bharatiya Divas’ celebrated to commemorate the day when Mahatma Gandhi returned from South Africa in 1915?

(a)  Jan 7

(b)  Jan 8

(c)  Jan 9

(d)  Jan 10

185. ‘Aavatar’ has become the highest grossing movie of all time, surpassing the record made by ‘Titanic’. Who has directed both ‘Avatar’ and ‘Titanic’?

(a)  Steven Spielberg

(b)  Danny Boyle

(c)  Roger Avary

(d)  James Cameron

186. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the

(a)  International Year of Youth

(b)  International Year of Renewable Energy

(c)  International Year of Eco-Tourism

(d)  International Year of Bio-degradable Material

187. Which of these cricketers hold the record to play international cricket for the longest time?

(a)  Sachin Tendulkar

(b)  Garry Sobers

(c)  Colin Cowdrey

(d)  Wilfred Rhodes

188. Who has been conferred the 2009 GD Birl Award for Scientific Research?

(a)  Anil Kakodkar

(b)  Mahindra Agrawal

(c)  Rajeev Motwani

(d)  Vainu Bappu

189. Asia’s biggest Solar Power Plant has been recently unveiled at

(a)  Japan

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Malaysia

(d)  Taiwan

190. Kaiane Aldorino has been named winner of the 2009 Miss World Pageant, recently held in Johannesburg. She belongs to

(a)  South Africa

(b)  Venezuela

(c)  Gibraltar

(d)  Columbia

191. Recently, which country suffered an earthquake which decimated its capital, killing millions of people?

(a)  Sumatra

(b)  Haiti

(c)  Japan

(d)  Sri Lanka

192. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) has been named after which famous national leader?

(a)  Mahatma Gandhi

(b)  Rajeev Gandhi

(c)  Indira Gandhi

(d)  Jawahar Lal Nehru

193. Who has won the National Snooker Championship, 2009?

(a)  Geet Sethi

(b)  Sourav Kothari

(d)  Ashok Shandilya

194. Who has recently written the book ‘Idea of Justice’?

(a)  Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(b)  Amartya Sen

(c)  Omkar Goswami

(d)  C Rangarajan

195. On which date, is Hindi Day Celebrated?

(a)  Sep 5

(b)  Sep 10

(c)  Sep 14

(d)  Sep 20

196. ‘Mukhya Mantri Kanyadan Yojana’ is a scheme of which state given below?

(a)  Haryana

(b)  Gujarat

197. The first woman battalion to the deployed along the international border belongs to

(a)  ITBP

(b)  BSF

(c)  Coast Guards

(d)  Assam Rifles

198. Who among the following is the most powerful woman of the world as per a recent list of Forbes?

(a)  Angela Markel

(b)  Cristina Fernandez

(c)  Christine Lagarde

(d)  Sonia Gandhi

199. ‘KONKAN’ is an annual exercise between the India and which of the following Navies?

(a)  France

(b)  UK

(c)  US

(d)  Israel

200. What is the proposed venue of the 16th NAM Summit in 2012?

(a)  Cuba

(b)  Iran

(c)  Indonesia

(d)  India