State Bank of India PO Exam-2014
Solved Paper
Test-I
Reasoning
Directions-(Q. 1-4) Study the following information and answer the question given below-
J, K, L, M, N, O, P and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them was born in a different year – 1971, 1975, 1979, 1980, 1981, 1984, 1985 and 1990, not necessarily in the same order.
M is sitting second to the right of K. L is sitting third to the right of J. L and J were born before 1980. Only the one born in 1984 is sitting exactly between J and K. N who is the eldest is not an immediate neighbor of J and M. R is older than only M. R is sitting second to the right of P. P is not an immediate neighbor of N. J is younger than L. K was born before O.
1. Who is the second eldest in the group?
(A) J
(B) L
(C) K
(D) P
(E) None of above
2. Who is sitting third to the right of O?
(A) The one born in 1979
(B) The one born in 1980
(C) The one born in 1985
(D) The one born in 1984
(E) None of these
3. In which year was R born?
(A) 1979
(B) 1975
(C) 1980
(D) 1985
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding K?
(A) K is sitting fourth to the right of R
(B) The one who was born in 1975 is to the immediate left of K
(C) K is younger than R
(D) There are four people sitting between N and K
(E) None is rrue
Direction-(Q. 5-10) In each of the questions below, three statements, are given followed by conclusions/group of conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume all the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given two conclusions logically follows from the information given in the statements.
Give Answer
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
For Q. 5 and 6
Statements : All pens are books.
Some books are pages.
All pages are papers.
5. Conclusion : No paper is a pen. II. At least some pages are pens.
6. Conclusions : All books are papers. II. Some books are papers.
For Q. 7and 8
Statements : Some Ds are Gs.
All Gs are Ks.
All Ks are Ls.
7. Conclusions: At least some Ds are Ls. II. All Gs are Ls.
8. Conclusion : At least some Ks are Ds. II. All Ds are Ls.
For Q. 9 and 10
Statements : Some files are folders.
All folders are pockets.
No pockets is a bag.
9. Conclusion : All pockets are files. II. All files are bags.
10. Conclusions : At least some bags are folders. II. All folders are files.
Directions-(Q. 11-14) Following are steps of an input. Rearrange them and answer the questions-
Input
(a) metal offer arrange blue kite
(b) arrange blue kite metal offer
(c) kite metal offer arrange blue
(d) offer arrange blue kite metal
(e) blue kite metal offer arrange
11. Which of the following is step III?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
12. Which of the following is first from the right end of step II?
(A) arrange
(B) kite
(C) metal
(D) blue
(E) None of above
13. Which of the following is step V?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
14. Which of the following is step IV?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Directions-(Q. 15 and 16) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?
15.
(A) Stem
(B) Branch
(C) Leaf
(D) Web
(E) Fruit
16.
(A) Clone
(B) Replica
(C) Duplicate
(D) Copy
(E) Fake
Directions-(Q. 17-21) Study the following information and answer the questions that follow-
In a certain code language, ‘hope to see you’ is coded as ‘re so na di’. ‘please come to see the party’ is coded as ‘fi gen a di ke zo’, ‘hope to come’ is coded as ‘di so ge’ and ‘see you the party’ is coded as ‘re fi zo na’.
17. How is ‘please’ coded in the given code language?
(A) di
(B) ke
(C) fi
(D) na
(E) None of above
18. What does the code ‘so’ stand for in the given code language?
(A) hope
(B) come
(C) see
(D) to
(E) None of these
19. How is ‘party’ coded in the given code language?
(A) Either ‘re’ or ‘fi’
(B) Either ‘zo’ or ‘na’
(C) Either ‘zo’ or ‘fi’
(D) Either ‘zo’ or ‘ge’
(E) Either ‘ke’ or ‘fi’
20. How will ‘please see you’ be coded in the given code language?
(A) re na ke
(B) so re na
(C) zo re na
(D) na di ke
(E) ke re ge
21. Which one of the following will be coded as ‘so di re’ in the given code language?
(A) you see hope
(B) hope you please
(C) hope you come
(D) the hope to
(E) you hope to
Directions-(Q. 22-25) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer
(A) If only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow
22. Statement : A ≥ B = C; B < D ≤ E
Conclusions : I. D > A II. E > C
23. Statement : L > U ≥ K; Z < U < R
(I) L > Z
(II) K < R
24. Statement : Y < J = P ≥ R > I
Conclusions : I. J > I
(II) Y < R
25. Statement : V ≥ K > M = N; M > S; T < K
Conclusions : I. T < N
- V = S
Directions- (Q. 26-30) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
Read both the statements and-
Give Answer
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the questions
26. How is J related to K ?
(I) J’s father P is the brother of N. N is K’s wife.
(II) J is the son of P. P is the brother of N. N is K’s wife.
27. On which floor of the building does G stay.
(The building has five floors 1, 2, 3, 4, 5) ?
(I) Only the even numbered floors are occupied and G does not stay on the second floor.
(II) G does not stay on an odd numbered floor.
28. How many days did Raju take to complete his assignment?
(I) Mohit correctly remembers that Raju took more than 3 days but less than 9 days to complete his assignment.
(II) Mina correctly remembers that Raju took more than 7 days but less than 11 days to complete his assignment.
29. How is the word ‘GATES’ coded in the code language?
(I) ‘BRICK’ is coded as ‘JDJSC’ and ‘PIN’ is coded as ‘OJQ’.
(II) ‘WATER’ is coded as ‘SFUBX’ and ‘DISH’ is coded as ‘ITJE’.
30. Among A, B, C, D which school has the highest number of students?
(I) School A has lesser students than school D.
(II) School C has lesser students than school D.
Directions-(Q. 31-35) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give Answer
(A) If only conclusion I is true
(B) If only conclusion II is true
(C) If only conclusion I or II is true
(D) If only conclusion I nor II is true
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true
31. Statement : T < P ≤ U; L > U ≤ K; P ≥ R
Conclusions : I. K ≥ R II. L > R
32. Statement : H = I ≤ R; M ≥ R < S
Conclusions : I. M = I II. M > I
33. Statement : D > H ≥ N; S > I ≤ H
Conclusions : I. N ≤ S II. I < D
34. Statements : P ≤ O < I; P > Y > W
Conclusions : I. Y ≤ I II. O > W
35. Statement : A ≥ B > C ≥ F; Z < C ≤ D < E
Conclusions : (I) A > Z II. F < E
Directions- (Q. 36-40) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
Six people- C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. D is standing second to the right of F. C is standing fourth to the left of H and H is not standing on the extreme end of the line. E is standing second to the right of D.
36. What is the position of G with respect to E?
(A) Immediate left
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the left
(D) Third to the right
(E) None of above
37. Which of the following pairs represents the people standing at the extreme ends of the line?
(A) FH
(B) CE
(C) DE
(D) CH
(E) None of above
38. Who is standing second to the right of C?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) G
(D) E
(E) None of above
39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(A) CG
(B) GE
(C) GH
(D) DE
(E) FD
40. If all the people are asked to stand in an alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) None
(E) None of above
Directions-(Q. 41-45) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action lettered (a), (b) and (c). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to Assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
41. Statement :
There has been a continuous increase in the number of dropout of student of Govt. run primary schools in the state.
Courses of action:
(a) Govt. should immediately set up a committee to review the situation and suggest measures to reverse the trend.
(b) Govt. should conduct orientation programmes for parents of the students emphasizing on the need for educating their children.
(c) Govt. should close down such state run primary schools where dropout rates are more than fifty per cent.
(A) Only (a) follows
(B) Only (b) follows
(C) Only (c) follows
(D) Only (a) and (b) follow
(E) None of above
42. Statement : Every year during monsoon condition, most of the roads in the city deteriorates causing immense problem to the commuters.
Courses of action :
(a) The civic body should include a heavy Penalty clause while awarding future contracts for road repairs.
(b) The civic officials in charge of maintenance of city roads should be asked to explain why the condition of the roads worsens every year.
(c) General public should avoid taking their vehicles out during monsoon.
(A) Only (a) follows
(B) Only (b) follows
(C) Only (a) and (b) follow
(D) Only (b) and (c) follow
(E) None of above
43. Statement : During the past few days more and more number of indoor patients of the local Govt. hospital are diagnosed to be suffering from malaria.
Course of action:
(a) All such patients who are suffering from malaria should immediately be discharged from the hospital.
(b) The hospital authority should immediately put a ban on admitting new patients into the hospital.
(c) All such patients who are suffering from malaria should be kept in an isolated ward.
(A) Only (a) follows
(B) Only (b) follows
(C) Only (c) follows
(D) None follows
(E) All follows
44. Statement : Many public sector undertakings have been making losses for the past few years and the situation is equally bad in the current year.
Course of action:
(a) These loss making public sector companies should immediately be closed down.
(b) The Govt. should scout for potential buyers in the private sector to sell these companies to get back part of the investments made by the Govt.
(c) All the employees of these companies should be retrenched with adequate compensation and the fixed assets may be put up for sale.
(A) None follows
(B) Only (a) and (b) follow
(C) Only (b) and (c) follow
(D) All (a), (b) and (c) follow
(E) None of these
45. Statement : Many shops in the local market have extended their shops and occupied most part of the footpath in front of their shops.
Course of action:
(a) The civic authority should immediately activate a task force to clear all the footpath encroached b the shop owners.
(b) The civic authority should charge hefty penalty to the shop owners for occupying footpath.
(c) The civic authority should set up a monitoring system so that such encroachments do not recur in future.
(A) None follows
(B) Only (a) and (b) follow
(C) Only (b) and (c) follow
(D) All (a), (b) and (c) follow
(E) None of these
46. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P > F’ be definitely false?
(A) F = B > P ≤ M
(B) P > B ≥ M = F
(C) P ≥ B < F ≤ M
(D) B < P ≤ M < F
(E) None of above
Directions- (Q. 47 and 48) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow-
If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.
47. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of
J : ‘L > V < J + P’ ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(A) LP
(B) SP
(C) SK
(D) SF
(E) Cannot be determined
48. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression : ‘F × R < S ? M’
(A) >
(B) <
(C) +
(D) ×
(E) Cannot be determined
49. In which of the following expressions will the expression P < M be definitely true?
(A) M < R > P ≥ S
(B) M ≥ S = P < F
(C) Q < M < F = P
(D) P = A < R < M
(E) None of above
50. In a class of 42 children, Joseph’s rank is sixteenth from the top. Kevin is seven ranks below Joseph. What is Kevin’s rank from the bottom?
(A) 22nd
(B) 20th
(C) 19th
(D) 23rd
(E) 25th
Test-II
Data Analysis & Interpretation
Directions-(Q. 51-56) Study the following graph carefully to answer the given question-
51. If the number of students with Mechanical specialization in each institute increased by 20% and the number of students with Electronics specialization in each institute deceased by 15% from 2012 to 2013, total number of students with Mechanical from all the institutes in 2013 is approximately, what per cent of the total number of students with Electronics specialization from all the institutes in 2013?
(A) 122
(B) 116
(C) 162
(D) 132
(E) 178
52. What is the ratio between total number of students in institutes R and V respectively?
(A) 39 : 43
(B) 39 : 44
(C) 37 : 44
(D) 39 : 45
(E) 38 : 43
53. What is the difference between total number of students with IT specialization from all the institutes and the total number of students with Mechanical specialization from all the institutes together?
(A) 260
(B) 240
(C) 280
(D) 220
(E) 250
54. If the number of students in institutes P, Q and R with IT specialization increased by 15%, 22% and 10% respectively from 2012 to 2013, what was the total number of students with IT specialization in the three institutes together in 2013?
(A) 1028
(B) 1056
(C) 1043
(D) 1142
(E) 1145
55. If out of the total number of students for all three specialization together in institute Q number of students having liking for Music, Painting and Cricket are in the ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 respectively, then what is the number of students liking Music from this institute?
(A) 250
(B) 300
(C) 350
(D) 360
(E) 280
56. In institutes P, T and U the percentage of girls out of total number of students with Electronics specialization is respective institute is 50%, 55% and 48% respectively, what is the total number boys in these three institutes with Electronics specialization?
(A) 340
(B) 386
(C) 356
(D) 360
(E) 314
Directions-(Q. 57-62) Study the table and answer the given question-
57. Which of the given statements is/are true?
(a) Total advertisement revenue generated from online version by magazine T in all the given months together is exactly 44% less than the total advertisement revenue generated from printed version by the same magazine in all the given months together.
(b) The difference between advertisement revenue generated (from both online and printed version) by all the given magazines in January and advertisement revenue generated (from both online and printed version) by all the given magazines in June is Rs 62,000.
(c) Only for one magazine advertisement revenue generated from printed version displayed a constant increase from previous months during the given 6 months period.
(A) Only (b) and (c)
(B) Only (a) and (b)
(C) Only (a)
(D) Only (b)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
58. Total advertisement revenue generated from online version by Magazine U in all the given months together is by what per cent more than the total advertisement revenue generated from printed version by the same magazine in all the given months together?
(A) 25
(B) 27.5
(C) 35
(D) 30
(E) 32.5
59. In case of Magazine R, between which two given months was there approximately 15% rise in advertisement revenues generated (from both printed and online version together)?
(A) January-February
(B) February-March
(C) May-June
(D) March-April
(E) April-May
60. The respective ratio of advertisement revenue generated from printed version by Magazine P to advertisement revenue generated from online version by the same magazine in July is same as the respective ratio of advertisement revenue generated from printed version by Magazine Q to advertisement revenue generated from online version by the same magazine in March. If the advertisement revenue generated from online version by Magazine P in July was Rs 1,08,000, what was the advertisement revenue generated from printed version by the same magazine in July?
(A) Rs 1,87,000
(B) Rs 1,53,000
(C) Rs 1,36,000
(D) Rs 1,70,000
(E) Rs 1,19,000
61. What is the respective ratio between total advertisement revenue generated from online version of all the given magazines together in February and total advertisement revenue generated from printed version of all the given magazines together in May?
(A) 33 : 28
(B) 39 : 28
(C) 27 : 16
(D) 33 : 20
(E) 27 : 22
62. Total advertisement revenue generated from printed version by Magazine P in January and April together is what per cent less than the total advertisement revenues generated from online version by Magazine S in February and June together?
(A) 22
(B) 14
(C) 27
(D) 19
(E) 17
63. If the number of male Post-graduate employees in Country H is 1800, what per cent of female employees in that particular country is Post-graduate?
(A) 76
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 64
(E) 68
64. In which of the given countries is percentage of women employees to number of employees (both male and female) in that country the second lowest?
(A) G
(B) B
(C) E
(D) H
(E) D
65. What is the respective ratio between total number of male employees in countries B and H together and total number of female employees in countries C and D together?
(A) 63 : 52
(B) 51 : 38
(C) 77 : 64
(D) 69 : 44
(E) 57 : 40
66. What is the difference between average number of Post-graduate employees in countries A, B and D together and average number of Post-graduate employees in countries F, G and H together?
(A) 282
(B) 276
(C) 316
(D) 342
(E) 294
67. Which of the given countries has the highest number of average employees per office?
(A) F
(B) H
(C) B
(D) C
(E) D
Directions-(Q. 68-72) Study the following graph carefully to answer the question-
68. Total number of students playing Carrom and Hockey together from school P is what per cent of the total number of students playing these two games together from school R?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 72
(D) 
(E) 
69. If the number of students playing each game in school S is increased by 15% and the number of students playing each game in school Q is decreased by 5% what will be the difference between number of students in schools S and Q?
(A) 54
(B) 218
(C) 356
(D) 224
(E) 205
70. If out of the students playing Cricket from schools Q, S and T 40%, 35% and 45% respectively got selected for state level competition, what was the total number of students got selected for State level competition from these three schools together?
(A) 346
(B) 241
(C) 292
(D) 283
(E) 268
71. Total number of students playing Hockey from all schools together is approximately what per cent of the total number of students playing Cricket from all school together?
(A) 84
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 78
(E) 70
72. From school P, out of the studnts playing Carrom, 40% got selected for State level competition, out of which 25% further got selected for National level competition. From school T, out of the students playing Carrom, 45% got selected for State level competition, out of which two-third further got selected for National level competition. What is the total number of students playing carom from these two schools who got selected for National level competition?
(A) 106
(B) 98
(C) 112
(D) 108
(E) 96
Directions-(Q. 73-78) Study the following table carefully and answer the question-
73. Urban population of Maharashtra and Orissa together is what per cent of the total population of these two states ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal?
(A) 32.49
(B) 35.59
(C) 38.55
(D) 32.85
(E) 36.57
74. Approximately, by what per cent is the urban population of Maharashtra less than its rural population?
(A) 33
(B) 39
(C) 49
(D) 45
(E) 34
75. What per cent of the total population of West Bengal, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh together is illiterate ? (rounded off to nearest integer)
(A) 28
(B) 34
(C) 29
(D) 33
(E) 31
76. What is the difference between number of graduates from Madhya Pradesh and Uttaranchal?
(A) 3,66,340
(B) 3,49,185
(C) 2,88,185
(D) 3,82,340
(E) 3,55,840
77. What is the total number of graduates from Orissa, West Bengal and Maharashtra together?
(A) 15,09,695
(B) 15,29,559
(C) 16,43,780
(D) 16,19,455
(E) 16,29,095
78. What is the ratio between total female population of Tamil Nadu and Jharkhand together and the total male population of these two states together respectively?
(A) 697 : 798
(B) 715 : 797
(C) 708 : 797
(D) 698 : 797
(E) 696 : 797
Directions-(Q. 79-85) Study type following information carefully to answer the question-
In Medical College there are 1600 students studying Dentistry and Homeopathy. Each student from each course knows one or more languages out of English, Hindi and Bangla 45% of the students study Dentistry and remaining students study Homeopathy.
Out of the students studying Dentistry boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 3 respectively.
Out of the boys studying Dentistry, 16% know only English, 10% know only Hindi and 4% know only Bangla, 24% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as Bangla, 14% know Hindi as well as Bangla Remaining boys know all three languages.
Out of the girls studying Dentistry, 20% know only English, 10% know only Hindi and 10% know only Bangla 20% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as Bangla, 10% know Hindi as well as Bangla. Remaining girls know all three languages.
Out of the students studying Homeopathy boys and girls are in the ratio of 4 : 7 respectively.
Out of the boys studying Homeopathy, 20% know only English, 15% know only Hindi and 5% know only Bangla, 15% know English as well as Hindi, 25% know English as well as Bangla, 10% know Hindi as well as Bangla. Remaining boys know all three languages.
Out of the girls studying Homeopathy, 15% know only English, 15% know only Hindi and 5% know only Bangla, 20% know English as well as Hindi, 20% know English as well as Bangla 15% know Hindi as well as Bangla. Remaining girls know all three languages.
79. How many students studying Dentistry know only either English or Hindi?
(A) 166
(B) 162
(C) 308
(D) 198
(E) 248
80. Total how many students in the college know all three languages?
(A) 108
(B) 132
(C) 169
(D) 137
(E) 142
81. What per cent of the total number of girls in the college know Bangla?
(A) 45
(B) 40
(C) 48
(D) 42
(E) 50
82. How many students studying Homeopathy, do not know English?
(A) 292
(B) 232
(C) 228
(D) 298
(E) 207
83. Out of the students studying Homeopathy what is the ratio between number of boys knowing English and the number of girls knowing Hindi respectively?
(A) 3 : 5
(B) 2 : 3
(C) 9 : 11
(D) 9 : 13
(E) 1 : 3
84. Out of the total number of students studying Dentistry, what per cent knows at least two languages?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
85. What per cent of the total number of girls in the college do not know Hindi? (rounded off to nearest integer)
(A) 38
(B) 46
(C) 48
(D) 36
(E) 43
Directions-(Q. 86-93) Refer to the pie chart and answer the given question-
86. Total number of luxury watches sold by stores C and H together is by what per cent less than total number of watches (sport watches and luxury watches) sold by stores F and H together?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
87. Number of watches (sport watches and luxury watches) sold by store D is by what per cent more than total number of sport watches sold by stores C, F and G together?
(A) 22.5
(B) 25
(C) 27.5
(D) 35
(E) 30
88. What is the respective ratio between total number of sport watches sold by stores A and B together and total number of watches (sport and luxury) sold by stores C and F together?
(A) 64 : 77
(B) 48 : 61
(C) 56 : 77
(D) 64 : 81
(E) 48 : 73
89. What is the average number of luxury watches sold by stores A, D, E, F and H together?
(A) 3152
(B) 3296
(C) 3548
(D) 3186
(E) 3428
90. If the number of watches sold by stores A, D and E increased by 10%, 35% and 15% respectively from 2004 to 2005 what was the total number of luxury watches sold by these three stores in 2005?
(A) 16172
(B) 14966
(C) 15848
(D) 15964
(E) 16392
91. What is the central angle corresponding to the number of watches (sport watches and luxury watches) sold by store B?
(A) 39.6°
(B) 36.6°
(C) 44.2°
(D) 42.2°
(E) 45.4°
92. Total number of sport watches sold by stores E and F together is what per cent of the number of watches (sport watches and luxury watches) sold by store E?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
93. What is the difference between average number of sport watches sold by stores B, C, G and H together and average number of luxury watches sold by the same stores together?
(A) 1100
(B) 1200
(C) 900
(D) 800
(E) 1300
Directions-(Q. 94-100) Refer to the graphs and answer the given question:
94. Scheme M offers Simple Interest at a certain rate of Interest (p.c.p.a.). If the difference between the interest caused by gautam and Rudra from scheme M after 4 years is Rs 44365.20 what is the rate of interest (p.c.p.a)?
(A) 17.5
(B) 18
(C) 16.5
(D) 20
(E) 15
95. What is respective ratio between total amount invested by Gautam in schemes O and Q together total amount invested by Rudra in the same schemes together?
(A) 31 : 44
(B) 31 : 42
(C) 27 : 44
(D) 35 : 48
(E) 29 : 38
96. If scheme P offers compound interest (compounded half yearly) @ 16 p.c.p.a. what would be sum of interest caused by Gautam and Rudra from scheme P after one year.
(A) Rs 10,244
(B) Rs 10,464
(C) Rs 9,872
(D) Rs 9,984
(E) Rs 9,442
97. If scheme O offers compound interest (compounded annually) @ 12 p.c.p.a. what is the difference between interest earned by Gautam and Rudra from scheme O after 2 years?
(A) Rs 1628.16
(B) Rs 1584.38
(C) Rs 1672.74
(D) Rs 1536.58
(E) Rs 1722.96
98. What is the average amount invested by Gautam in schemes M, N, O, P and Q together?
(A) Rs 29,248
(B) Rs 30,562
(C) Rs 31,126
(D) Rs 29,688
(E) Rs 28,848
99. Rudra invested in scheme R for 4 If scheme R offers simple interest @ 7 p.c.p.a. for the 1st two years and then compound interest @ 10 p.c.p.a. (compounded annually) for the 3rd and 4th year what will be the interest carried by Rudra after 4 years?
(A) 13548
(B) 12096
(C) 12242
(D) 12364
(E) 11886
100. If amount Invested by Gautam in scheme S is equal to the amount invested by him in scheme N. The rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) of scheme S and N are same. The only difference in scheme S offers compound interest ( compounded annually) whereas the scheme N offers simple interest. If the difference between the interest caused by Gautam from both the schemes after 2 years is Rs 349.92 what is the rate of interest?
(A) 9
(B) 5
(C) 13
(D) 11
(E) 7
Test-III
General Awareness, Marketing & Computer
101. A ‘Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account’ facility is available-
(A) to all individuals irrespective of their background
(B) all individuals from below poverty line families only
(C) only to individuals from the SC/ST only
(D) only to individuals from the minority communities only
(E) only to individuals from weaker sections of the society
102. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
(A) Monitor
(B) Scanner
(C) Printer
(D) CD
(E) Speaker
103. The Reserve Bank of India has been critical of home loan products with comparatively low interest rates in the initial years, but higher in the subsequent years which are popularly known as the-
(A) Teaser Rates
(B) Cheater Rates
(C) Twister Rates
(D) Cheaper Rates
(E) Trickster Rates
104. Relationship marketing is also known as-
(A) Loyalty marketing
(B) Experiential marketing
(C) Value marketing
(D) Promotional Marketing
(E) Brand marketing
105. PCs are considered fourth-generation and contain-
(A) information
(B) data
(C) vacuum tubes
(D) microprocessors
(E) transistors
106. Which of the following is not an aggressiveness strategy?
(A) All the given options are aggressiveness strategies
(B) Building
(C) Harvesting
(D) Holding
(E) Intensification
107. Which of the following nations is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Nepal
(B) Mauritius
(C) Bhutan
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Maldives
108. Market price is also known as-
(A) List price
(B) Value price
(C) Effective price
(D) Retail price
(E) Wholesaler price
109. The phenomenon, when a customer dislikes a product and talks against the product-
(A) Misinformation
(B) Unfavourable environment
(C) Propaganda
(D) Bad impression
(E) Bad mouth
110. The RBI policy rate which is purely an indicative rate used by the Reserve Bank of India to signal long-term outlook on interest rates is-
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) Call Money Rate
(D) Notice Money Rate
(E) Reverse Repo Rate
111. The amount specified as the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is held in cash and cash equivalents and is stored in bank vaults or parked with-
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(B) Government of India (GOI)
(C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(D) State Bank of India (SBI)
(E) Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
112. As consumer banking frauds are on the rise, a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) group has suggested the use of PKI in order to payment system in the country. The abbreviation ‘PKI’ stands for-
(A) Public Key Infrastructure
(B) Personal Key Infrastructure
(C) Private Key Infrastructure
(D) Permanent Key Infrastructure
(E) Proprietary Key Infrastructure
113. The Reserve Bank of India recently issued guidelines allowing minors over 10 years of age to operate bank accounts independently with a view to_
(A) Promote Financial Inclusion
(B) Increase low cost deposits of banks
(C) Improve CASA percentage of banks
(D) Mobilize Savings Bank Deposits of banks
(E) To put ATMs and other infrastructure to optimum use
114. Java is referred to as a(an)
(A) high-level language
(B) complex language
(C) hardware device driver
(D) low-level language
(E) programming mid-level language
115. Kepler 78b is the name off-
(A) an American nuclear missile
(B) a Russian armored vehicle
(C) a precision measuring instrument
(D) a Spanish Sea Vessel
(E) an earth-sized planet far beyond our Solar system
116. The Depositor Education and Awareness Fund (DEAF) has been set up with-
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Indian Banks Association
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Government of India
117. The operating system is the most common type of ………. software.
(A) application
(B) antivirus
(C) communication
(D) system software
(E) word-processing software
118. Hindustan Motors, India’s oldest car maker, recently shut down its factory at Uttarpara in West Bengal and suspended the production of the iconic-
(A) Utility Vehicle Pushpak
(B) Ambassador Car
(C) Bedford Truck
(D) Contessa Car
(E) Morris Oxford Car
119. In Trade Finance, a financial transaction involving the purchase of receivables from exporters by a third party who takes all the risks associated with the receivables is known as-
(A) Forfeiting
(B) Securitisation
(C) Negotiation
(D) Factoring
(E) Assignment
120. Which is not a storage device?
(A) Floppy disk
(B) Printer
(C) DVD
(D) Hard disk
(E) CD
121. ………. is a written description of a computer program’s functions.
(A) Explanatory instructions
(B) Graphical user interface
(C) Plug and play
(D) README files
(E) Documentation
122. The term ‘pre-shipment finance’ relates to-
(A) Export Credit
(B) Farm Credit
(C) Consumer Credit
(D) Investment Credit
(E) Industrial Credit
123. The Government of India has undertaken a programme of recapitalization of Public Sector Banks to help them enhance business growth and ………..
(A) Capital Adequacy Norms
(B) Ratio of Non Performing Assets
(C) Per Employee Business Ratio
(D) CASA Ratio
(E) Credit to Deposit Ratio
124. Which of the following key is used to delete characters to the left of the cursor?
(A) Alt = Delete
(B) Shift
(C) Esc
(D) Delete
(E) Backspace
125. Senior Supreme Court advocate Mr. Mukul Rohatgi has recently been appointed as the new-
(A) Principal Secretary to the PM
(B) Director of Public Prosecutions
(C) Advocate General of India
(D) Solicitor General of India
(E) Attorney-General of India
126. Products that are usually purchased due to adversity and high promotional back up rather than desire are called-
(A) Regular goods
(B) Unsought goods
(C) Preferred goods
(D) Sought goods
(E) Unique goods
127. The amount of memory (RAM or ROM) is measured in-
(A) Bytes
(B) Bits
(C) Mega Bytes
(D) Mega Bits
(E) Hertz
128. Who amongst the following has recently been sworn in as the first female judge at Pakistan’s National Sharia Cout, which hears cases under the Islamic legislation?
(A) Ashraf Jilani
(B) Ashraf Jabber
(C) Ashraf Jana
(D) Ashraf Jahangir
(E) Ashraff Jehan
129. The Canadian Government has announced the suspension of funding to the Commonwealth Secretariat for two years over the issue of human rights abuse by-
(A) United Kingdom
(B) New Zealand
(C) South Africa
(D) Australia
(E) Sri Lanka
130. Nobel laureate and recipient of the US Presidential Medal and also the US congressional medal Mr. Muhammad Yunus is well known for his contribution to Bangladesh’s–
(A) Consumer Credit Sector
(B) Agro Credit Sector
(C) Housing Finance Sector
(D) Micro-Credit Sector
(E) Retail Credit Sector
131. Which of the following is not a technique of measuring customer satisfaction and monitoring customer’s complaint?
(A) Exit interviews
(B) Web information hotlines
(C) Business analysis
(D) Customer complaints database
(E) Telephone information hotlines
132. Who amongst the following has been named as the goodwill ambassador for the 35th National Games to be held in Kerala in early 2015?
(A) S. Sreesanth
(B) Sachin Tendulkar
(C) Mary Kom
(D) P. T. Usha
(E) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
133. The official football of the Brazil 2014 FIFA World Cup is named as ‘Brazuca’ which means-
(A) The spirit of sportsmanship
(B) The spirit of the game is in playing
(C) The Brazilian way of life
(D) May the best team win
(E) We play to win
134. Underpriced products sell very well, but they produce less revenue than they would have if prices were raised to the-
(A) variable level
(B) demand curve level
(C) Price-floor level
(D) perceived value level
(E) value-based level
135. A customer requirement about any product in which he/she needs to avail core features in that product is called-
(A) Read need
(B) No need
(C) Stated need
(D) Unstated need
(E) Delighted need
136. Which of the following is mode for creating charge of Life Insurance Policies?
(A) Pledge
(B) Lien
(C) Assignment
(D) Hypothecation
(E) Equitable Mortgage
137. Bankers generally do not allow opening of accounts in the name of-
(A) Executors and Trustees
(B) Persons of unsound mind
(C) Illiterate Persons
(D) Pardanshin ladies
(E) Visually Impaired Persons
138. The hard drive is normally located-
(A) next to the printer
(B) plugged into the back of the computer
(C) underneath the monitor
(D) on top of the CD-ROM
(E) inside the system base unit
139. The winner of the 51st Femina Miss India 2014 pageant is-
(A) Jhatalekha Malhotra
(B) Navneet Kaur Dhillon
(C) Koyal Rana
(D) Gail Nicole Da Silva
(E) Megan Young
140. Virtual memory allocates hard disk space to supplement the immediate, functional memory capacity of what?
(A) ROM
(B) EPROM
(C) The registers
(D) Extended memory
(E) RAM
141. 3/10 net 30 is an example of which of the following?
(A) Cash discount
(B) Quantity discount
(C) Seasonal discount
(D) Bulk discount
(E) Trade discount
142. Which of the following refers to restarting the system when it is already powered on?
(A) A strong boot
(B) Hibernation
(C) A cold boot
(D) Standby mode
(E) A warm boot
143. ……… is having more memory addresses than are physically available.
(A) Virtual memory
(B) System software
(C) Applications software
(D) RAM
(E) Vertical Memory
144. Which of the following refers to dangerous programs that can be ‘caught’ by opening e-mail attachments and downloading software from the internet?
(A) Utility
(B) Virus
(C) Honeypot
(D) Spam
(E) App
145. Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note Commercial Paper can be issued in denominations of-
(A) Rs 1 lac or multiples thereof
(B) Rs 2 lac or multiples thereof
(C) Rs 3 lac or multiples thereof
(D) Rs 5 lac or multiples thereof
(E) Rs 10 lac or multiples thereof
146. A company is providing warehousing facility to its channel members. The company is using which of the following?
(A) Seasonal discount
(B) Cash discount
(C) Quantity discount
(D) Trade discount
(E) Quality discount
147. Aggressive pricing is associated with which of the following stage of product life cycle?
(A) Not Associated
(B) Introduction
(C) Growth
(D) Maturity
(E) Decline
148. The United Nations (U.N.) and the International Olympic Committee (IOC) have recently signed a historic agreement to use the power of sports to promote-
(A) Literacy and Awareness
(B) Peace and economic development
(C) World amity and friendship
(D) Peaceful use of nuclear technology
(E) World trade and commerce
149. Which of the following is not an objective of discounts?
(A) All the given options are objectives of discounts
(B) Reward competitors
(C) Reward valuable customers
(D) Move out-of-date stock
(E) Increase short-term sales
150. The abbreviation ASBA stands for-
(A) Applications Supported by Blocked Account
(B) Applications Supported by Bank Account
(C) Applications Sustained by Blocked Amount
(D) Applications Services by Blocked Account
(E) Applications Supported by Blocked Amount
Test-IV
English Language
Directions-(Q. 151-1600 Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
On attending a conference, which focused on the role of the services sector in Indian economy I was amazed. The conference gave a very interesting perspective on the roe of the service sector in the growth of the Indian economy in relation to growth rates in agriculture and industry. The current situation in India is that the growth rate of services has overtaken both agriculture and industry and is now contributing to more than fifty per cent of GDP. The services sector has the highest growth rate and is the least volatile sector. Growth is particularly marked in public services. IT and financial services. In some areas the growth rate of the services sector is forty to fifty per cent due to increased use of mobile technologies. India therefore has a services-oriented economy. It hasn’t followed traditional growth models as in China. However, in the process of doing so it has skipped the manufacturing stage and has jumped straight from the agricultural stage to service stage which is also the main reason for the expansion of the service sector. In fact the situation now is such that the growth in the service sector can and will support the growth in the agricultural and industrial sectors. However, the only setback for Indian economy. Is the lack of growth in the manufacturing sector, which causes dependence on other countries which is not so desirable in terms of job creation and increased prosperity.
Population is also a major concern of the Indian economy. As the population of India grows so also does the number of dependents in the population in both the lower and higher age groups. In such a scenario of increasing population, especially in an economy which is still recovering from crisis growth becomes difficult. For such an economy to grow it has to invest. Currently the public sector invests more than it saves. The household sector saves in surplus, but it is not increasing so it cannot continue to support private and public sectors. There is a massive need to spend on agriculture and infrastructure development of the country. Apart from that health and education should also be the priority of the government, particularly the education of women in order to reduce the birth rate.
However, all said and done we cannot deny the fact that growing population of the country can also benefit the economy if considered as a rescind used efficiency. In fact, it is said that in the next two decades a growth window in India is open, which may not come again because the working population to total population ratio rises up to mid 2030’s only. It is important for India to maximize its economic growth in this period for doing so, it will be important for India to absorb the growing labour force. This would and can that most people in the country would be employed (with a steady income), the number of dependents in the population would reduce and with effect the economy would prosper. Absorbing the labour force is also very important if the service sector is to play key role in the growth of Indian economy.
Today to address the issue of poverty in India, there is a need to change the bad sectors to good sectors and in turn to move people from unemployment to employment. Only the service sector can help in doing so and thus can have major impact on poverty. Although the service intensive sectors such as hotels, restaurants, IT are blooming with the growth in human skills there are geographical labour unions and human skills restaurants on labour movement. The key question here, I suppose that-can service sectors lead the economy? For example, services as IT be taken to rural areas? Experts in the conference have suggested that it seems that services could lead the economy, however, there are certain prerequisites for the same. In other words, there needs to be greater equality between the states and a better gender balance. There is also the need for additional fiscal capacity tax reform to fund education, reduction in government debt and revenue account must be kept in balance. Progress is good but still the initial conditions for growth have not yet been achieved.
151. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Volatile
(A) Erratic
(B) Impatient
(C) Stable
(D) Solid
(E) Strained
152. According to the passage, which of the following is/are true about the impact of increasing population on Indian economy?
(a) If India attempts to absorb all the labour force, it will impact the growth of service sector negatively and in turn hamper the economic growth of the country.
(b) As the population of the country increases, the number of dependants in the country also increase which in turn increases the pressure on the economy.
(c) An increasing population can never lead the economy of the country towards prosperity in fact it can only put strain on the economy of a country.
(A) All (a), (b) and (c)
(B) Only (c)
(C) Both (b) and (c)
(D) Both (a) and (c)
(E) Only (b)
153. According to the passage, which of the following can be said about the agriculture and industry sectors in India?
(a) Looking at the growth of the service sector in India it can be safely said that the service sector will soon be in a position to support both agriculture and industry sector.
(b) The agriculture and the industrial sector of the country have reached their threshold and there would be no use of further investment in these sectors.
(c) Currently the agriculture and industry sectors contribute lesser as compared to service sector to the GDP of the country.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (c)
(C) Both (a) and (c)
(D) Both (b) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
154. What does the author mean by the statement, “…a ‘growth window’ for India will open”?
(A) In the coming years the Indian economy will grow as the service sector of the country would be booming due to the focus of the government in that sector.
(B) In the next two decades Indian economy will have an opportunity to grow as the working population of India will be high as compared to the dependent population.
(C) There would be only a small period of time in which the economy of India has to grow and if it fails to do so it will never be able to recover from the economic downfall.
(D) Only upto the next two decades would Indian people be interested in finding jobs in the country beyond which they would search for jobs abroad thus hampering the growth of Indian economy.
(E) The growth of Indian economy is like a small window and in order to substantiate the growth it is important to increase the size of the window by improving trade relations with other countries.
155. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Prerequisites
(A) Requirements
(B) Instincts
(C) Acknowledgements
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Problems
156. What does the author mean by the statement, “to change the bad sectors to good sectors.”?
(A) In order to deal with the problem of poverty it is important to distinguish between good and bad sectors and encourage people to start searching for jobs in the good sectors.
(B) The government should make efforts to improve the sectors that are not functioning well in order create greater
(C) Poverty alleviation is possible only if the government understands the importance of good sectors and provides it with necessary opportunities.
(D) The bad sectors of the country should be identified and such jobs should be outsourced to other underprivileged countries in order to eradicate poverty from those countries.
(E) People should be educated to ensure that they work only in the good sectors and in turn in the issue of poverty in the country is resolved.
157. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Perspective
(A) Viewpoint
(B) Prospect
(C) Attitude
(D) Agreement
(E) Proportion
158. Which of the following is True as per the passage?
(A) India has not followed the conventional model of growth and has moved directly from the agriculture sector to the service sector.
(B) The service sector of the country is yet to make a mark on the IT and financial sectors of the country.
(C) With availability of labour and growth in human skills, the service sector of Indian economy is booming limitlessly as there is not restriction on movement of labour.
(D) India has become self reliant and does not have to depend on other countries because of the development in the manufacturing sector.
(E) All the given statements are true.
159. According to the author, which of following can be said about the growth of service sector in India?
(A) India is essentially an agrarian economy and is not yet ready to shift focus from agriculture sector to service sector.
(B) The expansion of service sector in India was see mainly because of the growth in the agricultural sector.
(C) Indian economy cannot run only on the basis of service sector i.e. without further development in the agriculture and the industrial sector.
(D) The growth of service sector in India is facilitate by the improvement in technology.
(E) It will take the service sector at least around two decades before it can over take the agriculture and industry sector.
160. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
Massive
(A) Prominent
(B) Proactive
(C) Short
(D) Little
(E) Vast
Directions-(Q. 161-170) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions-
We should never confuse education with training or the ‘tools’ that educators use. Education is no more a computer or an online class than it is a chalkboard-those are simply tools. Additionally, precious few new and relevant findings have been added to our insights into the learning process; much of what many proclaim to be insightful turns out to be faddish and misguided. What we need for learning to occur are well-prepared and motivated teachers, students who are willing and able to learn and a social system that values educational attainment. Many might take exception to these assertions, raising a host of ancillary social, economic, nutritional and sociological issues. However, decades of data from failed public experiments aimed at mitigating these problems argue to the contrary.
What are we to do ? Create a wave of educational entrepreneurship ? Despite all of the hype and media attention, no one currently knows the best way forward. We must incentivize educationalists, technologists and classroom teachers to experiment and innovate. Such partnerships should freely explore alternatives as we seek to define the blended face-to-face and online classrooms of the future. Some approaches will fall, but that is part of the change process. There will be no onesize-fits-all experience, success will vary by discipline and educational objectives. Unless everyone involved in this process is inspired to take risks we will not enjoy the full potential these new approaches represent. Also, we should not forget the extent to which those who most benefit from the current system will attempt to hijack this change process for their own purposes.
With these issues in mind consider the following vision of the change process to the classroom of tomorrow-a vision that leverages technology to create a more personalized learning experience. With the onset of this vision the professor-student relationship will change. What is not likely to survive is the large class in which everyone progresses at the same pace. That paradigm will be replaced by a more customized and collaborative learning process. The reality of a technology-enabled personalized learning environment is still evolving. What seems clear is that at its heart is a more collaborative and student-mapped and paced process. The function of the professor, aided by educationalists, will also change. Student-professor collaboration will then determine both what content can be assigned to practice methods and how the student demonstrates mastery of that content. In such cases, timing issues will most likely be left entirely in the student’s hands, while technology specialists recommend the best hardware and software solutions. Critical thinking or application ideas will involve more specialized face-to-face and interactive online approaches geared to the real-time needs and progress the student is making. This, the professor, with the student’s help, will vigilantly mix and blend the learning ingredients to produce a new learning environment. How this process plays out in reality will be the result of educational entrepreneurship, but it will surely entail both successes and some failures.
The administration and accreditation of education will also have to change. As more education occurs outside the bricks and mortar framework and is more centred on the student-professor interaction, the role of all nonteaching staff will need to be reassessed. As students and faculty increase their use of technology to personalize their formal and informal learning, educational technologists must be on hand to facilitate the effective use of that technology. Also, the current hierarchical and standardized outcomes formulas for administration and accreditation of colleges and universities are no longer tenable. Realistically, they are an impediment to the change needed.
Finally, we must address one of the most serious challenges facing online education – cheating. Simply put cheating is rampant and we are turning a blind eye to the problem. Cheating threatens the integrity of the educational process and the value-added of the degree. Solutions must be found and implemented or all changes will be for naught.
161. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Entail
(A) Limit
(B) Occasion
(C) Involve
(D) Subject
(E) End
162. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the passage?
(A) Educating through Technology – What the Future can be
(B) Teachers – An Obsolete Future
(C) The Hype Around Technology aided Education
(D) Limitations of Technology
(E) Evolution of Technology – The Way Forward for Tech Giants
163. Which of the following is true according to the author?
(a) The way the colleges are granted certification will have to change to accommodate the changes in imparting education through technology.
(b) With the onset of technology enabled education, the school/college premises or building will lose its importance slightly.
(c) With the onset of the desired level of technology enabled education, learning will become a joint effort of students as well as teachers.
(A) Only (a)
(B) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (c)
(E) Only (a) and (b)
164. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Mitigating
(A) Aggravating
(B) Irritating
(C) Annoying
(D) Frustrating
(E) Infuriating
165. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage?
Personalize
(A) Customize
(B) Cause
(C) Sentence
(D) Own
(E) Preside
166. According to the author, which of the following changes word occur with the onset of the desired level of technology aided education?
(a) The pace of learning for each student will be different.
(b) The decision of how much time a student needs to learn will be left to the student’s disposal.
(c) The roe of the teacher will change and become one of being the provider of tailored learning content to the student.
(A) Only (c)
(B) Only (b) and (c)
(C) Only (a)
(D) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a) and (c)
167. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning as the word given in bold as sued in the passage?
Impediment
(A) Freedom
(B) Advantage
(C) Extravagance
(D) Luxury
(E) Autonomy
168. What does the author mean when he uses the words ‘will be for naught’?
(A) Will be in trouble
(B) Will face complications
(C) Will not be allowed
(D) Will come together
(E) Will amount to nothing
169. According to the author , which of the following is not True about cheating?
(A) It is one of the gravest problems faced in education
(B) It undermines the value of the credential obtained through education
(C) Not much is being done to curtail it at present
(D) It is quite prevalent at present
(E) All the given options are true
170. According to the author, which of the following should be done to effectively integrate technology into education?
(A) Risk taking should be kept to a bare mitigate adverse effects.
(B) Innovation amongst stake-holders of education and technology should be encouraged.
(C) We should be alert about people who may not allow certain changes for their own benefits.
(A) Only (a) and (c)
(B) Only (c)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (a)
(E) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
Directions-(Q. 171-175) In this questions four words are given of which two are most nearly same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate your answer by marking the option which represents the correct letter combination.
171. (a) Tormented (b) Agonised
(c) Aroused (d) Removed
(A) a – c
(B) a – b
(C) a – d
(D) c – d
(E) b – c
172. (a) Striking (b) Unimpressive
(c) Striving (d) Unwilling
(A) a – c
(B) b – d
(C) a – b
(D) c – d
(E) b – c
173. (a) Patent (b) Stylish
(c) Wasted (d) Fashionable
(A) a – c
(B) c – d
(C) a – d
(D) b – d
(E) b – c
174. (a) Disclose (b) Withstand
(c) Withhold (d) Decide
(A) a – c
(B) b – c
(C) a – d
(D) c – d
(E) b – d
175. (a) Fathomed (b) Devastated
(c) Ruined (d) Abrupt
(A) b – d
(B) b – c
(C) c – d
(D) a – c
(E) a – d
Directions-(Q. 176-180) The sentence has two blanks. Each blank indicates that something has been omitted. Choose the words that bet fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
176. As per the present definition, the factory inspector ….. all factories located in an area to …. a day other than Sunday as the weekly holiday.
(A) permits, attend
(B) allows, observe
(C) assures, believe
(D) admits, accept
(E) grants, adhere
177. The family members of the victim said that the victim was being … into…. her complaint.
(A) protected, accepting
(B) disturbed, locating
(C) allowed, maintaining
(D) forced, preparing
(E) threatened, withdrawing
178. The new management is pro-cleanliness and will ….. all the employees who spit or smoke in the office …….
(A) penalize, hours
(B) punish, environment
(C) warn, surrounding
(D) fine, premises
(E) pardon, area
179. Sixty-six years after India attained independence, the government has finally ….. to change the measure to estimate the output of a steam engine – horsepower that is being ……. since the British Raj.
(A) thought, operated
(B) decided, used
(C) planned, provided
(D) caused, handled
(E) reasoned, postponed
180. With women participation ……. sharply in the labour force over the past decade, there is a need to improve ………. for them.
(A) dipping, opportunities
(B) reducing, ways
(C) withdrawing, convenience
(D) stressing, circumstances
(E) steeping, excuses
Directions-(Q. 181-185) Rearrange the given six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) (5) and (6) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given question.
(1) But it is normal for rates to vary somewhat.
(2) The rate at which these actions emerge is sometimes a worry for parents.
(3) As a child grows, his or her nervous system becomes more mature.
(4) Having said that variation is normal, nearly all children begin to exhibit certain motor skills at a fairly consistent rate unless some type of disability is present.
(5) As this happens, the child becomes more and more capable of performing increasingly complex actions.
(6) Hence, the frequently fret about whether or not their children are developing these skills at a normal rate
181. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
182. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
183. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
184. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 5
185. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6
(E) 5
Directions-(Q. 186-190) Read this sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation if any).
186. Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by traders. / the minister said that / he was committed / to easing this supply side bottle-neck.
(A) Attributing rise in inflation partly for withholding of food stocks by traders
(B) the minister said that
(C) he was committed
(D) to easing this supply side bottleneck
(E) No error
187. India’s largest utility vehicle and tractor maker / is again in the race to acquire / for stake in Swedish company / which is a premium car maker.
(A) India’s largest utility vehicle and tractor maker
(B) is again in the rate to acquire
(C) for stake in Swedish company
(D) which is a premium car maker
(E) No error
188. With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil / due to high duties, / a government appointed panel has recommended / slashing excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel.
(A) With sale of branded or premium petrol becoming almost nil
(B) due to high duties
(C) a government appointed panel has recommended
(D) slashing excise duty to make them at par with regular fuel
(E) No error
189. Keeping in mind / that power cuts are on different days in different areas / the change in the factory law would enable individual factories within an area / to determining their own weekly holidays.
(A) Keeping in mind
(B) that power cuts are on different days in different areas
(C) the change in the factory law would enable individual factories within an area
(D) to determining their own weekly holidays
(E) No error
190. Police officers have refused on identify the bystander,/ who is the only eyewitness to the crime, / but have said that the investigating team would explore / if he could be a witness in the case.
(A) Police officers have refused on identify the bystander
(B) who is the only eyewitness to the crime
(C) but have said that the investigating team would explore
(D) if he could be a witness in the case
(E) No error
Directions-(Q. 191-200) In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Generally a disaster …(191)… in significant loss in social, psychological and economic aspects. It not only …(192)… to structural damages, but also leaves families torn part, children orphaned, livelihoods destroyed and communities traumatized.
Non-structural factors such as lack of responsiveness of government officials and ineffective leadership are mainly …(193)… for any disaster mismanagement. Indi is …(194)… to a variety of natural and man-made disasters. Strong and effective emergency management has been a felt …(195)… in all corners of the word. Effective policies play a …(196)… role in mitigating the impact of disasters and reducing likely losses of life and property.
Economic resources are important for any disaster management. Yet, it has been …(197)… that economic resources did not necessarily translate into greater investment in this domain, as there is no …(198)… of issues that demand governments attention and resources. Disaster management has …(199)… acquired importance in the agenda of governance, unless there is a major natural or manmade disaster. The major shortcomings observed in Indian disaster management along with their probable solutions need to be discussed on an …(200)… basis.
191.
(A) prepares
(B) results
(C) affects
(D) entails
(E) promotes
192.
(A) causes
(B) creates
(C) results
(D) imparts
(E) leads
193.
(A) reasons
(B) responsible
(C) accounts
(D) amounts
(E) factors
194.
(A) subjected
(B) susceptibility
(C) available
(D) vulnerable
(E) centre
195.
(A) relation
(B) abstract
(C) evolution
(D) creation
(E) need
196.
(A) enormous
(B) tough
(C) vital
(D) single
(E) important
197.
(A) recognized
(B) routed
(C) placed
(D) collected
(E) seeing
198.
(A) much
(B) amount
(C) collection
(D) dearth
(E) failure
199.
(A) seldom
(B) forever
(C) great
(D) much
(E) always
200.
(A) Important
(B) understanding
(C) urgent
(D) priority
(E) upright
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