State Bank of India PO Main Exam-2015
Solved Paper
Reasoning
Directions-(Q. 1-5) These questions are based on the following information.
‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’.
‘P = Q’ means ‘P is the sister of P’.
‘P £ Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
‘P ⋆ Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
1. What does the expression ‘P @ R = S © T £ V’ mean?
(A) V is the husband of P
(B) R is the son of V.
(C) R is the daughter of V.
(D) V is the wife of P.
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following indicates that ‘C’ is the paternal uncle of D’?
(A) C £ V # N @ L © D.
(B) C £ V £ N @ L © D
(C) D £ L £ N @ V © C.
(D) D £ M # V @ L © C.
(E) None of these
3. Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression?
‘L = M # N © P ⋆ Q’
(A) Q is the grandson of M.
(B) L is the uncle of N.
(C) N is the uncle of Q.
(D) Q is the niece of N.
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following can be correct conclusion drawn from the expression ‘Q £ N @ S © M = P’ ?
(A) S is the brother of P.
(B) N has two sons and two daughters.
(C) S is the sister of Q.
(D) P is the sister of Q.
(E) None of these
5. Which of the following indicates that ‘Q is the daughter of N’?
(A) Q⋆P#C@N@V
(B) N⋆P#C@Q@V
(C) M@N#R⋆Q
(D) M©Q = V#N
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 6-10) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
6. Statements:
All grapes are plums.
All plums are oranges.
Some oranges are apples.
Some apples are guavas.
Conclusions:
(I) Some oranges are grapes.
(II) Some guavas are oranges.
(III) Some apples are plums.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Only I and II follow.
(C) Only I and III follow.
(D) All I, II, III follow.
(E) None of these
7. Statements:
Some pets are dogs.
Some dogs are cats.
Some dogs are rats.
No rat is goat.
Conclusion:
(I) Some cats are rats.
(II) No cat is rat.
(III) No goat is dog.
(A) None follows.
(B) Only I follows.
(C) Only II follows.
(D) Only III follows.
(E) Only either I or II follows.
8. Statements:
Some roses are Jasmines.
Some Jasmines are Lilies.
All Lilies are Marigolds
All Marigolds are Sunflowers.
Conclusions:
(I) All Lilies are Sunflowers.
(II) Some Jasmines are Marigolds.
(III) Some Jasmines are Sunflowers.
(A) All follow.
(B) Only I follows.
(C) Only II and III follow.
(D) Only I and II follow.
(E) None of these
9. Statements:
Some flats are houses.
Some houses are bungalows.
No bungalow is hotel.
All hotels are restaurants.
Conclusions:
(I) No bungalow is restaurant.
(II) Some houses are hotels.
(III) Some restaurants are hotels.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Only III follows.
(C) Only II & III follow.
(D) None of follows.
(E) None of these
10. Statements:
Some lemons are chillies.
No chilly is brinjal.
All brinjals are sweets.
Some sweets are desserts.
Conclusions :
(I) No chilly is sweet.
(II) Some lemons are desserts.
(III) Some brinjals are desserts.
(A) Only I follows.
(B) Only II follows.
(C) Only IIII follows.
(D) None follows.
(E) None of these
Directions- (Q. 11-15) Given an input line a machine generates pass codes set by step following certain rules as illustrated below-
Input : talk seven 37 48 given 83 likely 62
Step I : 37 talk seven 48 given 83 likely 62
Step II : 37 talk 48 seven given 83 likely 62
Step III : 37 talk 48 seven 62 given 83 likely
Step IV : 37 talk 48 seven 62 likely given 83
Step V : 37 talk 48 seven 62 likely given 83
Step V is the last step for this input.
In the following questions some logic as illustrated above is to be used.
11. Step II for an input is “23 working 48 32 park blossom 26 garden.” What will be the fifth step?
(A) 23 working 26 park 48 32 blossom garden
(B) 23 working 26 park 32 48 blossom garden
(C) 23 working 26 32 park 48 blossom garden
(D) 23 working 26 48 park 32 blossom garden
(E) None of these
12. Second step of an input is “12 where 82 33 great wall 49 just”. Which step will be the last step?
(A) VI
(B) VII
(C) VIII
(D) IV
(E) None of these
13. What will be step III for the following input ?
Input : Phone computer 32 link 18 75 46 diary.
(A) 18 phone 46 link computer 75 32 diary
(B) 18 phone 32 link 46 computer 75 diary
(C) 18 phone 32 computer link 75 46 diary
(D) 18 phone 32 link computer 75 46 diary
(E) None of these
14. Step IV of an input is “22 united 37 trading killer 45 72 jogger”. What will be the input definitely?
(A) United 22 37 jogger 45 trading 72 killer
(B) United trading 22 37 jogger 45 72 killer
(C) United 22 trading jogger 37 killer 45 72
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
15. What will be the third step of an input whose first step is “17 45 follow rule examination 36 85 hut”?
(A) 17 rule 36 45 follow examination 85 hut
(B) 17 rule 36 45 follow 85 examination hut
(C) 17 rule 36 45 examination follow 85 hut
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 16-20) The questions are based on the following arrangement-
D 5 4 1 H ⋆ $ K E 3 L B @ A R M 1 6 F % J £ 2 7 C G 9
16. If all the digits are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourth to the left of seventh from the right end?
(A) B
(B) @
(C) L
(D) A
(E) None of these
17. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is either immediately followed or immediately preceded by an consonant but not both?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
18. If the position of ten elements from the right end is reversed which of the following will be fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right?
(A) %
(B) F
(C) C
(D) G
(E) None of these
19. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by another consonant?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) KL3
(B) F£J
(C) R61
(D) 1$⋆
(E) @MA
Directions-(Q. 21-25) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belonging to three families X, Y, Z, go for weekend outing in three different cars, I, II, III. Four out of eight members are females. Members of any one family travel in different cars. Each car has atleast one ale and one female members. Each family has atleast two members.
A belongs to family Y and he travels in Car III. D is wife of E and they travel in cars I and II respectively. H is the son of B who is wife of G and they belong to family Z. C is daughter of F who is wife of A. C travels in car II. G does not travel with F.
21. Which of the following group of person travel in car I?
(A) D, F, G
(B) D, E, G
(C) D, G, H
(D) D, F, H
(E) None of these
22. Which car has only two members travellig in it?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) II or III
(E) Cannot be determined
23. Which of the following members of families Y and Z travel in different cars?
(A) F, G
(B) C, G
(C) F, H
(D) C, F
(E) None of these
24. Which of the following group of persons is a group of all females?
(A) B, D, G
(B) A, B, C
(C) B, E, F
(D) D, E, F
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following members of families X and Y travel in the same car?
(A) C, F
(B) D, F
(C) C, D
(D) F, E
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 26-30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘Strong’ arguments and ‘Weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question, ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘Strong’ argument and which is a ‘Weak’ argument. Give answers-
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or argument II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I nor argument II is strong.
(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.
26. Should be Govt. stop providing subsidy on kerosene with immediate effect?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this will help Govt. reduce its huge fiscal deficit.
(II) No, the poor people will not be able to buy kerosene at market price for their daily needs.
27. Should the Govt. substantially increase the water tax to the farmers for the fields which are supplied with water for irrigation?
Arguments:
(I) No, the farmers are even otherwise hard pressed to meet their expenditure for cultivating their lands.
(II) Yes, the rich farmers make huge profits, as the water tax for irrigation is considerably lower.
28. Should all those who are arriving from other countries and are suffering from communicable disease be sent back to the countries which they came from?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to curb the spread of communicable diseases.
(II) No, this is just not advisable.
29. Should all those secondary schools from which less than fifty per cent students pass the SSC examination be closed down?
Arguments :
(I) No, instead these schools should be advised to take corrective measure to improve the pass percentage.
(II) Yes, this will deliver a strong message to all the secondary schools.
30. Should there be a total ban on giving new licenses to open liquor shop throughout the country?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this will help decrease in consumption of alcohol in future.
(II) No, the Govt. will earn additional taxes by way of this will increase the sale of liquor.
Directions-(Q. 31-36) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions-
Eight persons-P, Q, R, S, T, U V and W are sitting around a circular table with equal distance between each other, facing the centre, but not necessarily in same order. Each one of them belongs to a different profession viz., Manager, Engineer, Chef, Pilot, Lawyer, Doctor. Architect and teacher but not necessarily in the same order.
V sits second to right of the Manager. The Pilot and the Engineer are the immediate neighbours of V. R sits second to the right of T who is lawyer. T is an immediate neighbor of the Pilot. Only one person sits between W and U. S sits third to the left of T. P sits exactly between U and S. The Architect sits second to the left of P. The Chef and the Teacher are immediate neighbours of the Architect. W is not a teacher.
31. Who among the following is a doctor?
(A) R
(B) V
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) W
(E) P
32. Who sits exactly between R and the manager, when counted form the right of R?
(A) W
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S
(E) U
33. Which of the following statements is not true as per the given information?
(A) R is a Chef.
(B) P and V are immediate neighbours of S.
(C) All the given statements are true.
(D) Only three persons sit between U and W.
(E) S is an Engineer.
34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belongs to that group?
(A) SU
(B) RW
(C) TQ
(D) PU
(E) VS
35. Who sits second to the right of Q?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) Other than those given as options
(D) W
(E) U
36. If all the persons are made to sit in the alphabetical order in clock-wise direction starting from P, the position of how many of them will remain unchanged (excluding P)?
(A) Three
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Four
(E) None
Directions-(Q. 37-41) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
(1) Six plays are to be organized from Monday to Sunday. One play each day with one day when there is no play, ‘No play’ day is not Monday or Sunday.
(2) The plays are held in sets of 3 plays each in such a way that 3 plays are held without any break i.e., 3 plays are held in such a way, that there is no ‘No play’ day between them but immediately before this set it is ‘No play’ day.
(3) Play Z is held on 26th and Play X was held on 31st of the same month.
(4) All the plays were held in the same month.
(5) Play B was not held immediately after play A (but was held after A, not necessarily immediately) and play M was held immediately before Q.
37. Which play was organized on Monday?
(A) Z
(B) M
(C) Q
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
38. Which day was play Z organized?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
39. Which day was a ‘No Play’ day?
(A) 26th
(B) 28th
(C) 29th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
40. Which of the following is true?
(A) Play B is held immediately before play M
(B) Play Z is held after play B
(C) There was a gap after 2 plays and then 4 plays were organized
(D) First play was organized on the 25th
(E) Play B was held on Friday
41. Which day was play Q organized?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Saturday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Directions-(42-46) Each of the following questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it, You have decide whether the date provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer-
(A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the statements I and II are no sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the question.
42. Who is the tallest of A, B, C, D and E?
(I) B is shortest amongst the five people.
(II) C is taller than D.
43. How is ‘stand’ coded?
(I) ‘Cost of Pen’ is coded as ‘La ke ij’.
(II) ‘Pen stand’ is coded as ‘ke hu’.
44. How many marks did Sudhir score in Maths?
(I) Sudhir has scored 65% marks to overall.
(II) The difference between Sudhir’s marks in Math and English is 12 marks.
45. On which day of the week did Manasi take leave from her office?
(I) Manasi correctly remembers that she took leave before Friday but after Monday.
(II) Manasi’s friend correctly remembers that Manasi took leave before Saturday but after Thursday.
46. How many brothers does Mary have (Mary is a girl)?
(I) Mary has only one younger brother.
(II) Mary’s father has only one son.
Directions-(Q. 47-50) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
Nine people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in a building, not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one car each, and each car is of different colour, i.e., blue, grey, white, black, yellow, green, red, orange and pink not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the upper most floor is numbered 9.
H owns a black coloured car and stay on an even numbered floor. A stays on any even numbered floor below the floor on which H stays. The one who own an orange coloured car stays on the fourth floor. E stays on the second floor and owns the white coloured car. The one who owns a pink coloured car stays on the third floor. A does not own a green coloured car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people owning the red and the black coloured cars stay. C owns a grey coloured car. There are three floors between the floors on which C and G stay. D stays on a floor immediately above J’s floor. There is one floor between the floors on which F and G stay. F does not own the pink coloured car. The one who owns the car stays on the top-most floor. F does not stay on the ground floor.
47. How many floors are there between the floor on which J stays and the floor on which C stays?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) None
(D) Three
(E) More than three
48. On which of the following floors does G stay?
(A) 1st
(B) 6th
(C) 5th
(D) 7th
(E) None of these
49. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
(A) F
(B) G
(C) D
(D) C
(E) None of these
50. A owns a car of which of the following colours?
(A) Orange
(B) Pink
(C) Yellow
(D) Blue
(E) None of these
Data Interpretation and Analysis
Directions-(Q. 51-55) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below. Percentage net profit of two companies over the years.
51. If the total income in 2009 for company B was 140 crores. What was the total expenditure in that year?
(A) 100 crores
(B) 110 crores
(C) 98 crores
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
52. If the total expenditure of 2010 and 2011 together of company B was Rs 279 crores, what was the total income in these years?
(A) 121.5 crores
(B) 135 crores
(C) 140 crores
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
53. In how many of the given years the percentage of expenditure to the income of company A was less than fifty?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
54. If the total expenditure of company B in 2011 was Rs 200 crores, what was the total income?
(A) 160 crores
(B) 240 crores
(C) 260 crores
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
55. In which of the following years was the total income more the double the that expenditure in the years for company B?
(A) 2012
(B) 2010
(C) 2014
(D) 2009
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 56-60) Study the following information to answer the given questions-
56. In which of the following years was the amount of profit the maximum?
(A) 2009
(B) 2010
(C) 2011
(D) 2012
(E) None of these
57. Approximately what was the average expenditure of given years?
(A) Rs 110 lakhs
(B) Rs 130 lakhs
(C) Rs 120 lakhs
(D) Rs 140 laks
(E) Data inadequate
58. In which of the following years was the increase/decrease in per cent profit from the previous year the minimum?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) None of these
59. Approximately what was the expenditure in 2009-
(A) Rs 120 lakh
(B) Rs 140 lakh
(C) Rs 160 lakh
(D) Rs 180 lakh
(E) None of these
60. If the profit percentage in 2012 was 25, what would have been the expenditure in that year?
(A) Rs 130 lakh
(B) Rs 148 lakh
(C) Rs 152 lakh
(D) Rs 120 lakh
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 61-65) Study the following tables carefully and answer the questions given below. Number of cars [In thousands] of different Models and colours sold in two Metro Cities in a year.
61. The difference between the white-coloured cars sold in the two metros of which of the following models is the minimum?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) F
(E) None of these
62. The total number of blue coloured cars of model F and D sold in Metro H is exactly equal to the number of white-coloured cars of which model in metro M?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) C
(D) A
(E) None of these
63. What is the difference between the number of blue-colour cars of model ‘C’ sold in Metro M and number of red colour cars of model ‘F’ sold in Metro H?
(A) 8,000
(B) 10,000
(C) 12,000
(D) 15,000
(E) None of these
64. The total number of silver-coloured cars sold in Metro H is approximately what percentage of that in Metro M?
(A) 130
(B) 140
(C) 90
(D) 100
(E) 110
65. In Metro M the number of cars sold was maximum for which of the colour-model combinations?
(A) White-C
(B) Blue-B
(C) Silver-B
(D) White-D
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 66-70) Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions given below:
Percentage of Different Types of Employees in a company in two successive years.
Total No. of Employees in 2012 and 2013 is 42980 and 48640 respectively.
66. The number of A type employees in 2013 was approximately. What percentage of A type employees in 2012?
(A) 115
(B) 140
(C) 125
(D) 130
(E) 95
67. If there were 5000 D type employees in 2013, what would have been its approximate percentage in the company?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
(E) 10
68. Which of the following types of employees was there maximum change in the number from 2012 to 2013?
(A) B
(B) D
(C) C
(D) A
(E) None of these
69. Approximately; what was the difference in the number of B type employees between 2012 and 2013?
(A) 2285
(B) 2325
(C) 2085
(D) 2620
(E) 1825
70. The total number of which of the following pairs of types of employees in 2012 was approximately equal to A type employees in 2013?
(A) B and C
(B) A and C
(C) D and E
(D) C and D
(E) C and F
Directions-(Q. 71-75) Two equations I and II are given in each question. On the basis of these equations you have to decide the relation between x and y and give answer.
(A) If x > y
(B) If x ≥ y
(C) If x < y
(D) If x ≤ y
(E) If x = y or relationship cannot be established
71. 
72. (I) x3 – 468 = 1729
(II) y2 – 1733 +1564 = 0
73. 
74. (I) x2 + 11x + 30 = 0
(II) y2 + 7y + 12 = 0
75. (I) 9x – 15.45 = 54.55 + 4x
Directions-(Q. 76-80) Read carefully the following given bar chart and answer the given questions.
76. What was the average production during 6 months?
(A) 26 thousand ton
(B) 27 thousand ton
(C) 28 thousand ton
(D) 25 thousand ton
(E) 30 thousand ton
77. In which was the production equal to the average production?
(A) March
(B) April
(C) June
(D) May
(E) None of these
78. In which month was the percentage increase in production maximum compared to that of the previous month?
(A) June
(B) April
(C) March
(D) February
(E) None of these
79. What was the production percentage for the month of May correspond with March?
(A) 60
(B) 74
(C) 55
(D) 65
(E) 70
80. In which month was the production percentage 114% against the average production of six month?
(A) May
(B) June
(C) April
(D) January
(E) February
Directions-(Q. 81-85) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow-
There are two trains, train A and train B. Both trains have four different types of coaches viz., General coaches sleeper, coaches, First Class coaches and A. C. coaches. In train A there are 700 passengers. Train B has thirty per cent more passengers than train A. Twenty per cent of the passengers of train A are in General coaches. One-fourth of the total number of passengers of train A are in A.C. coaches. Twenty three per cent of the passengers of train A are in Sleeper Class coaches. Remaining passengers of train A are in First Class coaches. Total number of passengers in A.C. coaches in both the trains together is 480. Thirty per cent of the number of passenger of train B is in Sleeper Class coaches. Ten per cent of the total passengers of train B are in First Class coaches. Remaining passengers of train B are in General Class coaches.
81. What is the respective ratio between the number of passengers in first class coaches of train A and number of passengers in sleeper class coaches of train B?
(A) 13 : 7
(B) 7 : 13
(C) 32 : 39
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
82. What was the total number of passengers in the General coaches of train A and the A.C. coaches of Train B together?
(A) 449
(B) 459
(C) 439
(D) 445
(E) None of these
83. What is the difference between the number of passengers in the A.C. coaches of train A and total number of passengers in sleeper class coaches and first class coaches together of train B?
(A) 199
(B) 178
(C) 187
(D) 179
(E) None of these
84. Total number of passengers in General Class coaches in both the trains together is approximately what percentage of total number of passengers in train B?
(A) 35
(B) 42
(C) 46
(D) 38
(E) 31
85. If cost of per ticket of first class coach ticket is Rs 450 what total amount will be generated from first class coaches of train A?
(A) Rs 1,00,080
(B) Rs 1,08,000
(C) Rs 1,00,800
(D) Rs 10,800
(E) None of these
Directions –(Q. 86-90) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and given answer-
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
86. What is the perimeter of a semi-circle?
(I) The radius of the semi-circle is equal to half the side of a square.
(II) The area of the square is 196 sq. cm.
87. What was the percentage profit/loss made/incurred by selling an article for Rs 24,000?
(I) The ratio between the selling price and the cost price of the article is 5 : 2 respectively.
(II) The difference between the cost price and the selling price is Rs 9,600.
88. What is the ratio between two numbers x any y?
(I) 40% of x is 20% of 50.
(II) 30% of y is 25% of 72.
89. What is the exact average of n, 35, 39, 42, p and w?
(I) n is 6 in more than w.
(II) w is four less than p.
90. What will be the difference between two-digit numbers?
(I) The square of the first number is 9 times the second number.
(II) The ratio between the first number and the second number is 3 : 4 respectively.
Directions-(Q. 91-93) Study the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A basket contains 4 red, 5 blue and 3 green marbles.
91. If two marbles are drawn at random, what is the probability that both are red?
(A) 3/7
(B) 1/2
(C) 2/11
(D) 1/6
(E) None of these
92. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?
(A) 7/12
(B) 37/44
(C) 5/12
(D) 7/44
(E) None of these
93. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either all are green or all are red?
(A) 7/44
(B) 7/12
(C) 5/12
(D) 4/44
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 94-95) In each question below, a number series is given in which one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
94. 4, 2.5, 3.5, 6.5, 15.5, 41.25, 126.75
(A) 2.5
(B) 3.5
(C) 6.5
(D) 15.5
(E) 41.25
95. 5, 7, 16, 57, 244, 1245, 7506
(A) 7
(B) 16
(C) 57
(D) 244
(E) 1245
Directions- (Q. 96-100) These questions are based on the circle graph below which shows the expenditure incurred in bringing out a book by a publisher.
96. If the author’s royalities amount to Rs 30,000 the binder’s charges amount to Rs.
(A) 6,000
(B) 10,500
(C) 12,000
(D) 15,000
(E) 18,000
97. What should be the central angle of the sector for Transportation charges?
(A) 4 degrees
(B) 8.4 degrees
(C) 12.4 degrees
(D) 14.4 degrees
(E) 15.4 degrees
98. If the advertisement charges amount to Rs 18,000. the total expenditure incurred in bringing out the books is Rs.
(A) 60,300
(B) 63,000
(C) 9,000
(D) 1,00,000
(E) 50,000
99. The miscellaneous expenditure amounts to Rs 2000 and 12500 copies of the book are published in all. What is the cost per copy at which the book must be priced if the publisher desires a profit of 5%?
(A) Rs 5
(B) Rs 7.50
(C) Rs 8
(D) Rs 8.40
(E) Rs 9.50
100. If the binder’s charges amount to Rs 6,000, then the expenses on the cost of paper would have been-
(A) Rs 5,000
(B) Rs 7,200
(C) Rs 10,000
(D) Rs 9,600
(E) Rs 8,500
English Language
Directions-(Q. 101-106) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases in the passage have been printed in bold type to help you to locate them easily while answering some of the questions.
Motivations for ruralism in under-developed countries are understandably different from those in developed countries. There, it is a sheer physical necessity for the very act of man’s survival. In Third World countries, which are predominantly rural, the only lever that can lift human life above its present subhuman level, is Rural Development. Rural life in such countries has been stagnating for centuries on end. Nothing worthwhile has been done to ameliorate the conditions of the rural population which is only slightly different from the that of their quardruped counterparts. Ignorance, ill-health and poverty have become synonyms of rural life in the undeveloped and underdeveloped countries. But the worst tragedy is that the concerned human populations have taken this state of affairs for granted, as something unalterable, something for which there is no remedy. Every ray of hope has gone out of their lives. In such countries, Rural Development is the inevitable condition of any material or non-material advancement. As such, enlightened sections of all such countries have been taken ever growing interest in the question of Rural Development.
This was also part of the legacy of their freedom struggle. In countries like India it is well-known that attempts at Rural Development were an inseparable part of the Independence movement. Leaders like Gandhiji realized quite well that Real India lived in her stagnating villages. Cities, which were mostly the products of Western colonialism, were just artificial showpieces. Even there, there two worlds. The posh areas, where the affluent few, mostly the products and custodians of imperial interest lived, were little islands engulfed by the vast ocean of dirt, represented by the vast majority of people.
Cities were by no means unknown to India, but in ancient India, they were integral parts, organically related to the rest of the country and society. But modern cities are exotic centres of commercial and industrial exploitation. Cities in ancient India were the flowers of cultural and artistic excellence of the nation; modern cities are just parasites, preying on and debilitating the country.
Hence, Gandhiji started the ‘Go to Village Movement’, which alone, according to him, could bring freedom to India and sustain it. Rural Development and the pride of place in his strategy for the nation’s freedom. Thus, it had it’s origin in the freedom struggle.
101. Which of the following is the worst tragedy according to the author?
(A) The subhuman condition of the people
(B) Exploitation of the rural people by the city-dwellers
(C) Lack of realization of the importance of rural development
(D) The pessimism of the rural people about their own condition
(E) None of these
102. In which of the following aspects were the ancient Indian cities different from the modern ones?
(A) Growing population
(B) Wealth
(C) Trade and Commerce
(D) Oneness with the Society
(E) Posh localities
103. Rural Development was considered as a part of India’s freedom movement because-
(A) Gandhiji was against the Western Colonialism
(B) real India was then under the British rule
(C) the country comprised of mainly villages
(D) imperial interest lived only in villages
(E) it is always an inseparable part of any movement
104. The standard of living of human beings in the Third World countries is-
(A) not far better than that of animals.
(B) slightly inferior to that of animals.
(C) immune to any improvement.
(D) subhuman despite best efforts for improvement.
(E) improving very rapidly.
105. Which of the following is the ‘lever’ according to the passage?
(A) Upliftment of the rural masses.
(B) Enlightenment of certain sections of the society.
(C) Non-material advancement.
(D) Stagnation of rural life.
(E) III-health, ignorance and poverty.
106. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) Most of the Third World countries are undergoing fast urbanization.
(B) The rural folk are very optimistic about improvement in their condition.
(C) In the present context ignorance, poverty and ill health are inseparable parts of rural life.
(D) The posh localities in the modern cities have been occupied by the poor masses
(E) India’s struggle for freedom has been considered as a part of rural development.
Directions-(Q. 107-108) Pick out the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word/group of words printed in bold type as used in the context of the passage.
107. ENLIGHTENED
(A) clearly visible
(B) shining brightly
(C) fully awakened
(D) economically privileged
(E) socially acceptable
108. SECTIONS
(A) collection of thoughts
(B) combination of units
(C) bunch of units
(D) assembly of spectators
(E) groups of people
Directions-(109 and 110) Pick out the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed bold type as used in the context of the passage.
109. ENGULFED
(A) different
(B) detached
(C) devastated
(D) disfigured
(E) dislocated
110. AMELIORATE
(A) expedite
(B) worsen
(C) grow
(D) hasten
(E) lessen
Directions-(Q. 111-116) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/groups of words in the passage have been printed in bold type to enable you to locate them easily while answering some of the questions.
The hope cherished immediately after Second World War, that one world would emerge out of it. had receded. Instead, there arose two politico-military blocs at seemingly irreconcilable enmity with each other, headed by the USA and the USSR. The great danger was that these two blocs might clash, dragging the rest of the world into a nuclear war and total destruction.
There are some critics who think that Nehru’s concern for world peace was exaggerated. But they do not realize how close mankind was to a world war in the fifties on more than one occasion. For instance in 1950, du ring the Korean war, when General Mac-Arthur unauthorisedly crossed the 38th Parallel into North Korea and carried the war right up to the Chinese frontier, and China intervened and started mowing down American troops, there was a cry in the USA for preemptive use of the atom bomb against China. Then, prodded by Nehru, British Prime Minister Attlee flew to the USA to dissuade President Truman from taking any such disastrous step.
It might be argued that it would have been a good thing if China had been taught a lesson before it had developed the atom bomb. But at that time, China and the USSR were bound by a fraternal alliance and if China became the victim of an atomic attack, it would have been impossible for USSR to keep aloof. In other words, it would have meant the third world war and the destruction of civilization.
Apart from his concern for world peace, there were doubtless other factors which impelled Nehru to adopt a policy of non-alignment. Geographically India was to big, and historically too great, to be the hanger-on of any other state, however powerful. Economically it would have been foolish on the part of India, which had in view a gigantic policy of national reconstruction to put all the eggs in one basket. Philosophically India had, from time immemorial, extended its tolerance to rival sects, rival creeds and rival religions. ‘There was no cold war’, said Nehur, ‘In Ashok’s heart.’ Our policy of non-alignment was a factor which contributed to the alleviation of tensions between the rival blocs and the gradual demise of the cold war. It is a matter for satisfaction that one Great Power, at any rate the USSR, has, for the last so many years, understood, appreciated and even underwritten our policy of non-alignment.
111. ‘In other words, It would have meant ‘the third world war and the destruction of civilization’. What does the word ‘it’ mean?
(A) Attack of US troops on China
(B) China-USSR bond
(C) USSR’s neutrality
(D) China’s attack on the US troops
(E) The USSR’s plunging into the war
112. What made China intervene in Korean War?
(A) America’s invasion of Korea
(B) Arrival of American troops upt Chinese border
(C) Gen. MacArthur’s unathorised participation in the war
(D) USA’s threat of using atom bomb against China
(E) None of these
113. Read the following statements and decide in the context of the passage which of them is/are True.
Statement I : Adopting non alignment policy by India was consistent with its historical heritage.
Statement II : Adopting the policy of non-alignment by India was foolish economically.
(A) Only statement I is true.
(B) Only statement II is true.
(C) Both the statements are true.
(D) Both the statements are false.
(E) Data are inadequate to decide.
114. About Nehru’s concern for world peace, the author of the passage has-
(A) defended the critics
(B) taken a neutral stand
(C) strongly justified it
(D) termed it as exaggerated
(E) blamed him for not being realistic
115. Immediately after the World War II there was a feeling that-
(A) there will be two superpower emerging out of it
(B) the optimism cherished during the war will be receded
(C) the world be dragged into a third word war
(D) all countries will stay peacefully with each other
(E) a clash would be imminent between the two superpowers
116. Which of the following is the result of India’s adopting non-alignment policy?
(A) Tolerance to rival creeds, sects and religions
(B) Eradication of cold war started by Ashoka
(C) USSR’S realizing the importance of our country
(D) Lessening the tension between rival blocs
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 117-118) Pick out the word that is most OPPOSITE of the word printed in bold type as used in the context of the passage.
117. ALLEVIATION
(A) lessening
(B) magnification
(C) intensity
(D) aggravation
(E) exaggeration
118. RECEDED
(A) bloomed
(B) advanced
(C) increased
(D) diminished
(E) rebuilt
Directions-(Q. 119-120) Pick out the word/group of words that is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold types as used in the context of the passage.
119. IRRECONCILABLE
(A) rigid
(B) adamant
(C) uncompromising
(D) firm
(E) powerful
120. CRY
(A) pathetic mourning
(B) angry shouts
(C) painful weeping
(D) disheartening appeal
(E) emphatic demand
Directions-(Q. 121-125) Read each sentence to find out whether there is error in it. The error, if any, will be in part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’.
121. After finishing (A)/ his break fast quickly (B)/ he rushed to the station (C)/ to receive his aged parents. (D)/ No error (E)
122. Hardly had I (A)/ reached the station (B)/ when I was hit on a (C)/ very thick metal rod. (D)/ No error (E)
123. He could gain success (A)/ only after toiling (B)/ very hardly over (C)/ a long period of time. (D)/ No error (E)
124. Journey by car is (A)/ as quicker perhaps quicker (B)/ than by train (C)/ in this particular area. (D)/ No error (E)
125. Being so unreasonable anxious (A)/ over such trivial matters (B)/ is a sign of (C)/ lack of maturity. (D)/ No error (E)
Directions-(Q. 126-130) Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.
126. He was initially ………. at the suggestion but was soon ……….. it himself.
(A) frowning, rejecting
(B) thrilled, propagating
(C) shoked, advocating
(D) impressed, negative
(E) suspicious, trusting
127. The Minister felt that the …… made by the committee was …… even though similar schemes had worked earlier.
(A) elections, acceptable
(B) choice, profitable
(C) decision, gainful
(D) recommendation, infeasible
(E) acceptance, approved
128. Naheesa was not ……… by the criticism and paid no ……… even when her best friend talked against her.
(A) threatened, warning
(B) troubled, mind
(C) deterred, heed
(D) bothered, attention
(E) shaken, indication
129. The activities of the association have ……….. from the objectives set for it in the initial years.
(A) emerged, total
(B) deviated, original
(C) grown, simple
(D) details, grand
(E) increased, perverse
130. The …….. imposed for non-payment was too ……….. for it to bring in improvement in collection.
(A) penalty, low
(B) fine, severe
(C) punishment, harsh
(D) tull, simple
(E) damage, cruel
Directions-(Q. 131-135) Rearrange the given the six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given question.
(1) Indeed, despite being the world’s largest country, fewer than 200 million phones were being sold every year.
(2) With smartphone sales totaling 59% of the market and overall mobile phone sales boosted to 307 million, the Chinese smartphone market has seen a growth in sales of 108% in 2014.
(3) Unsurprisingly, the key driver of change was price with numerous elements combining to drive down the cost of both producing and bying smartphones.
(4) But what factors are behind this vast and sudden uptake of smartphones?
(5) In 2010, smartphones accounted for just 9% of all mobile phones in China.
(6) More forward to 2014 and there has been a seismic shift in the market.
131. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
132. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 5
133. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 5
134. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 5
135. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 6
Directions-(Q. 136-140) Which of the phrase given against the sentence should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No Correction Required’ as the answer.
136. In a bid to stimulate demand during the lean travel season that has now set in, most Indian airlines have slashed fares by up to half.
(A) In bidding
(B) for a bid
(C) At bidding
(D) Bidding
(E) No correction required
137. The unhurried tone of his voice is reflecting the philosophical nature of the dialogues he wrote for the four films he had made.
(A) reflecting
(B) reflect
(C) reflected
(D) was reflected
(E) No correction required
138. How can one begin towards addressing these challenging facts?
(A) addressing
(B) being to address
(C) beginning addressing
(D) begin at address
(E) No correction required
139. In a candid conversation he talks about his journey as a writer and why he prefers for write for characters and not for himself.
(A) prefers
(B) prefers to
(C) is preferring at
(D) preferred
(E) No correction required
140. Whether it is familial and societal expectations inflexible organization or the sheer lack of suitable employment, it has become extremely challenging for women to remain in the workforce.
(A) sheered lack for
(B) sheering lack of
(C) sheer lacking in
(D) sneer lack in
(E) No correction required
Directions-(Q. 141-150) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
Although John Wisdom’s writing in philosophy show clearly the influence of Wittgenstein, they nevertheless also display at 141 originality. Despite the 142 and difficulty of his style, a careful reading of Wisdom is seldom 143. He is a unique kind of genius in philosophy.
This essay is an excellent example of Wisdom’s repeated attempts to 144 the ultimate bases of philosophical perplexity. A great deal of the time Wisdom is 145 interested in finding out why metaphysicians feel 146 to utter such strange sentences. (e.g., “Time is unreal”, there are no material things”, etc.) According to Wisdom, such sentences are both false (and perhaps meaningless) and yet 147. Even more than Wittgenstein, Wisdom has stressed the ‘therapeutic’ conception of philosophy, a view that comes out clearly in this essay where he emphasizes the analogy between philosophical and neurotic distress 148 them with other kinds of problems.
The reader who is interested in gaining of fuller 149 with Wisdom’s thought is referred to his famous article “Gods in Philosophy and Psycho-analysis”. Other minds is Wisdom’s most 150 discussion of a single topic and in many ways his finest work.
141.
(A) concise
(B) virtual
(C) marked
(D) limited
(E) relative
142.
(A) individuality
(B) novelty
(C) originality
(D) complexity
(E) creativity
143.
(A) unprofitable
(B) useful
(C) advantageous
(D) unreliable
(E) durable
144.
(A) jettison
(B) delimit
(C) augment
(D) fortify
(E) explore
145.
(A) admirably
(B) primarily
(C) inadvertently
(D) reluctantly
(E) happily
146.
(A) depressed
(B) confined
(C) alluded
(D) compelled
(E) adapted
147.
(A) illuminating
(B) damaging
(C) confusing
(D) critical
(E) unreliable
148.
(A) compelling
(B) associating
(C) contrasting
(D) describing
(E) advocating
149.
(A) comparison
(B) analysis
(C) agreement
(D) elaboration
(E) acquaintance
150.
(A) projected
(B) sustained
(C) prolonged
(D) prolific
(E) attributed
General Awareness, Marketing and Computer
151. What is the Premium of Prime Minister Suraksha Bima Yojana?
(A) Rs 150
(B) Rs 12
(C) Rs 15
(D) Rs 120
(E) None of these
152. Recently “Irwin Allan Rose” passed away. He was a ……….
(A) American Scientist
(B) Australian Doctor
(C) Russian Scientist
(D) Australian Cricketer
(E) American biologist
153. India born Rajiv Suri as the CEO of which Mobile Company?
(A) Samsung
(B) Micromax
(C) Motorola
(D) Nokia
(E) None of these
154. Who won the best actor award for the movie ‘Shahid’ in the 61st National Film Awards?
(A) Saurabh Shukla
(B) Rupankar Bagchi
(C) Raj Kumar
(D) Bela Shende
(E) Anupam Kher
155. Which Indian IT company ranks 57th in US Brand Suvery-
(A) TCS
(B) Infosys
(C) IBM
(D) Tech Mahindra
(E) Wipro
156. …………. has unveiled the world’s first facial recognition ATM.
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) Brazil
(E) Australia
157. Who is the author of the controversial book ‘The Accidental Prime Minister’?
(A) Amish Tripathi
(B) Sanjay Baru
(C) Preeti Shenoy
(D) Prannoy Roy
(E) Preetish Nandi
158. As a separate Division-The International Sports Division (ISD) under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (GOI), was created on October 25, …………….. for holding Commonwealth Games, 2010.
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2008
(E) None of these
159. When is International Peace day celebrated.
(A) March 21
(B) March 26
(C) September 26
(D) June 29
(E) September 21
160. P. M. Narendra Modi launched which bank in China?
(A) Union Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Axis Bank
(E) IndusInd Bank
161. Which State Government has decided 16 Mandatory Global Positioning System (GPS) in all public transport vehicals from June 2015?
(A) Goa
(B) Delhi
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
(E) Haryana
162. How much amount allocated by government on ‘Ayush’ Mission?
(A) Rs 10,000 crore
(B) Rs 5,000 crore
(C) Rs 2,000 crore
(D) Rs 1,000 crore
(E) Rs 500 crore
163. Volkswagen Group and its subsidiaries, is a ……….. multinational automotive manufacturing company.
(A) Indian
(B) Japanese
(C) German
(D) Chinese
(E) Russian
164. Which country agreed to lend Rs 1165 crore for Odisha transmission system improvement project?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Russia
(D) U.A.E.
(E) U.S.A.
165. The merger process between FMC and ………. will be completed by September.
(A) SEBI
(B) NHB
(C) SIDBI
(D) NABARD
(E) None of these
166. Who is the CEAT cricketer of the year 2015 (Indian) ?
(A) Ajinkya Rahane
(B) Deepak Hooda
(C) Vinay Kumar
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these
167. Arun Jaitely started Paper I Line in which city?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Hoshangabad
(E) Bengaluru
168. The maturity period of the Kisan Vikas Patra, which have been reintroduced in 2014 is-
(A) 50 months
(B) 60 months
(C) 100 months
(D) 120 months
(E) 180 months
169. Who reviewed and revilalized. Public Private Partnership (PPP) model of infrastructure development?
(A) Vijay Kelkar
(B) Rajeev Mehrishi
(C) Raghuram Rajan
(D) Dinesh Gupta
(E) Ratan Watal
170. LIC (Life Insurance Corporation) gets clearance to do business in which country?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Bangladesh
(E) Afghanistan
171. What is the maximum amount of ‘Atal Pension Yojana’.
(A) Rs 20,000
(B) Rs 10,000
(C) Rs 8,000
(D) Rs 5,000
(E) None of these
172. Who was been appointed as coach of the India A and Under-19 cricket team?
(A) Duncan Fletcher
(B) Ravi Shastri
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Gray Kirsten
(E) None of these
173. Which of the following is not a part of money market?
(A) Commercial Bill Market
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Mutual Funds
(D) Treasury Bill
(E) Commercial Bill
174. Division of market according to age and gender is called-
(A) Demographic Segmentation
(B) Geographic Segmentation
(C) Behavioural Segmentation
(D) Psychographical Segmentation
(E) Occasional Segmentation
175. Marketing mix comprise-
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Promotion
(D) Place
(E) All of these
176. Which of the following is a Parameter for determining competitive position of company’s products?
(A) Historial profit margin
(B) Market growth rate
(C) Market share rate
(D) Overall market size
(E) Number of brands in portfolio
177. …………… is considered as debit market securities.
(A) Fixed deposit of bank
(B) Certificate of deposit
(C) Shares stock
(D) Preference stock
(E) Mortgage lone
178. Dividing the market into segments and charging the same price for every one in a segment is known as-
(A) Steaming pricing
(B) Cost based pricing
(C) Personal pricing
(D) Group pricing
(E) Individual pricing
179. When backed by an ability to pay, want for specific product becomes-
(A) need
(B) satisfaction
(C) demand
(D) esteem
(E) None of these
180. Which is not a part of 7P’s of marketing?
(A) Price
(B) Policy
(C) Product
(D) Process
(E) People
181. The term ‘Benchmark’ means-
(A) product line up on a bench
(B) set standards
(C) salesman sitting on a bench
(D) marks on a bench
(E) put product on a bench
182. Effective marketing style requires-
(A) Proper planning
(B) Good debating skills
(C) Arrogant staff
(D) Ignorant customer
(E) Knowledge of many languages
183. Market share can be increased by increasing-
(A) raw material cost
(B) the staff strength
(C) the sales
(D) the sales staff
(E) competition
184. …………. is the standard input device for most computers.
(A) Scanner
(B) Keyboard
(C) Microphone
(D) Speaker
(E) Joystick
185. What is the command to switch full screen in most internet browsers?
(A) Ctrl + Alt + F
(B) Ctrl + Alt + F1
(C) Ctrl + F
(D) F11
(E) Ctrl + F2
186. …………… includes boot firmware and power management-
(A) CD-ROM
(B) Internal Buses
(C) Chip Set
(D) RAM
(E) BIOS
187. Copy Command is saved in-
(A) Clipboard
(B) Paste
(C) Desktop
(D) Floppy disk
(E) None of these
188. What is an on-screen display listing of available options or functions on a computer?
(A) Document
(B) View
(C) Tool
(D) Format
(E) Menu
189. What is the full form of ‘MAN’?
(A) Metropolitan Area Network
(B) Magic Area Node
(C) Metropolitan Area Node
(D) Male Area Network
(E) Male Area Network
190. MICR is a/an ………. device.
(A) storage
(B) networking
(C) input
(D) output
(E) None of these
191. What is the minimum and maximum font size in MS Word.
(A) 6-84
(B) 6-72
(C) 8-50
(D) 6-50
(E) 8-72
192. In MS Excel which of the following formula denotes the addition of cell content in A1 & A2 _
(A) Sum (A1, A2)
(B) Add (A1, A2)
(C) A1 + A2
(D) A1 and A2
(E) None of these
193. A collection of various programs that helps to control your computer is called-
(A) System Software
(B) Application Software
(C) Realtime Software
(D) Microsoft Office
(E) None of these
194. The Union Budget 2015-16 announced additional surcharge for the super rich with income of over Rs 1 crore. At what rate will this surcharge be charged?
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 3%
(D) 4%
(E) 6%
195. Which of the following firm has highest revenue?
(A) Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)
(B) Bharat Petroleum
(C) Reliance Industries
(D) State Bank of India
(E) Punjab National Bank
196. During Q1 of 2013-14, India’s Current Account Deficit (CAD) was 4.8% of GDP. During Q1 of 2014-15, it became-
(A) 4.7% of GDP
(B) 3.3% of GDP
(C) 2.1% of GDP
(D) 1.7% of GDP
(E) None of these
197. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking/Finance?
(A) Public Debt
(B) Plasma
(C) Joint Venture
(D) Net demand and time Liability
(E) Treasury Bill
198. The economy is which there is a mixture of Public sector and Private sector both, is called-
(A) Closed economy
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Open economy
(D) Free trade economy
(E) Public economy
199. SME means-
(A) Selling and Marketing Employees
(B) Sales and Merge of Entities
(C) Small and Micro Entities
(D) Small and Medium Enterprises
(E) Sale Performance Measurement Enterprises
200. Value Added Service (VAS) means-
(A) Substituted Products
(B) Highly Valuable Products
(C) Old Products
(D) At Par Service
(E) Extra service in addition to existing ones
State Bank of India PO Preliminary answer key
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