State Bank of India PO Main Exam-2016
Reasoning and Computer Aptitude
Directions-(Q. 1 to 5) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘A $ B’ means ‘A’ is not smaller than ‘B’.
‘A # B’ means ‘A’ is not greater than ‘B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A’ is neither smaller than nor equal to ‘B’.
‘A © B’ means ‘A’ neither smaller than nor greater than ‘B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A’ is neither greater than nor equal to ‘B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and given your answer accordingly.
1. Statement : D @ K; K # F, F @ P,
Conclusion:
(I) P @ D
(II) K # P
(III) F $ D
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only II & III are true
(E) None is true
2. Statements: M @ J, J $ T, T © N
Conclusion:
(I) N # J
(II) T % N
(III) M @ N
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) None is true
(E) All are true
3. Statement : H % J, J © N, N @ R
Conclusion:
(I) R % J
(II) H @ J
(III) N @ H
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and III are true
(C) Only I is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) None is true
4. Statement : K # N, N $ T, T % J
Conclusion:
(I) J @ N
(II) K @ T
(III) T @ K
(A) None is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I and III are true
(E) None of these
5. Statement: M @ D, D © V, V $ W
Conclusion:
(I) W @ M
(II) M % V
(III) D $ W
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) Only III is true
(E) None of these
Directions-(6 to 10) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Ten persons are sitting in twelve seats in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1, A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing south, and in row 2, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and all of them are facing north. One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. All of them like a different colour i.e., Red, Green, Pink, Blue, Purple, White, Black, Grey, Violet and Yellow.
- S sits third to the Right of R and likes Blue Colour.
- Only two people sit between the vacant seat.
- Q does not like Purple and Pink colour.
- E is not an immediate neighbour of C.
- B likes Yellow colour. The one who likes Pink colour faces the one who likes Grey Colour.
- The one who likes Pink colour sits opposite to the one, who sits third right of the one, who sits opposite to S.
- C is not an immediate neighbour of D.
- T, who likes neither purple nor white colour, does not face vacant seat.
- Neither nor R sits at an extreme ends. D faces R.
- Vacant seats are not opposite to each other.
- Two persons sits between C and B, who sits third right of the one, who likes Black colour.
- The one who likes Violet colour faces the one, who likes Blue colour.
- The person who likes Red colour and Grey colour are adjacent to each other.
- Vacant seat of row – 1 is not an immediate neighbour of D.
- Q sits at one of the extreme ends.
- R does not like Red and Grey colour.
- Vacant seat of row – 1 does not face S also does not sit at any of the extreme ends.
6. Who sits second to right of the one, who faces vacant seat of Row – 2?
(A) S
(B) B
(C) T
(D) E
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following colour does T like?
(A) Yellow
(B) Green
(C) Pink
(D) Grey
(E) Red
8. E is related to vacant seat of row – 1 in the same way as T is related to P. So, following the same pattern vacant seat of row – 2 is related to which of the following?
(A) Q
(B) D
(C) R
(D) P
(E) None of these
9. Who sits diagonally opposite to the one, who likes white colour?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) T
(D) E
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following is true regarding P?
(A) P sits second to right of T.
(B) P is not immediate neighbour of S.
(C) P sits third to left of R.
(D) P sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.
(E) P faces vacant seat of row -1.
Directions-(Q. 11 to 15) In each questions below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.
Give Answer:
(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
11. Statement: The General Administration department has issued a circular to all the employees informing them that henceforth the employees can avail their lunch break at any of the half-hour slot between 1 : 00 p.m. to 2:30 p.m.
Assumptions:
(I) The employees many welcome the decision and avail lunch break at different time slots.
(II) There may not be any break in the work of the organization as the employees will have their lunch break at different time slots.
12. Statement: The state Government has decided to appoint four thousand primary school teachers during the next financial year.
Assumptions:
(I) There are enough schools in the state to accommodate four thousand additional primary school teachers.
(II) The eligible candidates may not be interested to apply as the Government may not finally appoint such a large number of primary school teachers.
13. Statement : The Government has decided against reduction of prices of petroleum products though there is a significant drop in the crude oil prices in the international market.
Assumptions:
(I) The prices of crude oil in the international market may again increase in the near future.
(II) The present price difference of petroleum products will help the government to withstand any possible price rise in future.
14. Statement: The school authority has decided to increase the number of students in each classroom to seventy from the next academic session to bridge the gap between income and expenditure to a larger extent.
Assumptions:
(I) The income generated by way of fees of the additional students will be sufficient enough to bridge the gap.
(II) The school will at the all the additional students in each class from the next academic session.
15. Statement: The Govt. has made an appeal to all the citizens to honestly pay income tax and file returns reflecting the true income level to help the Government to carry out development activities.
Assumptions:
(I) People may now start paying more taxes in response to the appeal.
(II) The total income tax collection may considerably increase in the near future.
Directions-(16 to 20) Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Seven persons namely P, Q, R, S, T, U, V not in the same order in a organization working as a AM (Assistant Manager); MG (Manager), DGM (Deputy General Manger), CGM (Chief General Manager), ED(Executive Director), CEO (Chief Executive Officer). And likes different cities namely Mumbai, Jaipur, Ranchi, Chandigarh, Agra, Patna, Bhopal not in same order.
Note : Position has been increasing order of their experience. CEO is most experienced person and Assistant Manager least experienced.
- R is junior to only two persons. S does not like Ranchi.
- Person who likes Chandigarh is junior to T but not a least junior.
- Person who likes Patna is senior to ED.
- Person who likes Ranchi senior to U but junior to T.
- T is junior to CGM but senior to V.
- U Junior to V and likes Agra.
- Q is senior to T but not a most senior.
- CGM does not like Bhopal.
- V is junior to P but not to S.
- CGM is senior to one who likes Jaipur.
16. Which of the following post is preferred by T?
(A) CEO
(B) GM
(C) AM
(D) ED
(E) DGM
17. How many person sit between R and CEO?
(A) Three
(B) Five
(C) Two
(D) One
(E) None of these
18. If Q related to GM in the same way as T related to MG. Which of the following is P related to, following the same pattern?
(A) CGM
(B) DGM
(C) AM
(D) CEO
(E) None of these
19. ED is going which of the following city?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Agra
(C) Ranchi
(D) Bhopal
(E) Patna
20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which are of the following does not belong to that group?
(A) CEO
(B) CGM
(C) DGM
(D) ED
(E) AM
Directions-(Q. 21 to 25) Study the given statements carefully and answer the questions attached with them.
21. Statement: The government is set to overhaul annual targets for public sector tenders, ending a focus on size that has long encouraged banks to inflate their loans and deposits at the year-end to hit growth objectives. Banking and government sources said that the new targets, to be discussed at meeting with top state bank officials, would focus on efficiency. With objectives set around return on assets, or return on equity and controlling bad debts.
Which of the following points can be inferred from the given information?
(A) Loans and deposits of the banks will go up.
(B) Some short term loans will be discouraged by the banks.
(C) Credit ratings of the banks will be boosted up.
(D) Financial stability of the banks will be lost.
(E) All can be inferred.
22. Statement: Google, which domains much of life on the internet, has been trying to expand beyond computers and telephones to living rooms, cars and bodies. It made its way a bit further into people’s homes when it agreed to pay $ 3.2 billion in cash for Nest Labs, which makes internet connected devices like thermostats and smoke alarms. But it has agreed that Nest’s privacy policies are going to be well respected for Google, gaining visibility into people’s habits beyond computers and phones-whether watching television using chrome cast, taking a walk wearing Google glass or managing their homes using Nest products will provide a fuller picture of users.
Which of the following arguments would most weaken Nest’s beliefs?
(A) Google products can easily be integrated into Nest
(B) Unlike many of Silicon Valley’s most popular companies that make software that costs very title to build, Nest is capital-intensive because it builds hardware.
(C) To follow the terms and condition, Google make some changes in Nest’s privacy policies
(D) The deal between two companies has not yet closed.
(E) None of these
23. Statement: By fixing a deadline of one year from the date of framing of charges for the completion of trivial involving the members of parliament and legislative assemblies, the supreme court has once again intervened effectively to give some credibility to the idea of cleaning the polity. It gave a jolt to the political class by striking down a provision that protected sitting legislators from immediate disqualification on conviction.
Which of the following can be concluded from the above statement?
(A) To implement guidelines, the government must set up more speedy trial courts, which will help them deliver justice in time.
(B) The steps taken by the apex court will help choose the best people from their constituency and make the Indian democratic system free from criminalization.
(C) This will help in reducing the scourge of criminalization of politics.
(D) The latest order will help address this problem by empowering the trial court to refuse routine adjournments.
(E) None of these
24. Statement: However, the market participants are eagerly waiting for a possible change in GDP growth forecast, inflation target for FY 17, along with the RBI’s commentary on foreign exchange reserves as around $ 30 billion of foreign currency non-resident bank deposits are maturing in September. In its April review, the RBI has slashed the repo rate, the rate at which banks borrow from the Central bank, by 0.25 per cent to 6.50 per cent, to a more than five-year low. Since January 2015, the RBI has cut its repo rate by 150 basis points or 1.5 per cent. Which of the following negates the above steps taken by the RBI?
(A) The Consumer Price Index (CPI), which is closely watched by the RBI in order to set interest rate policy. Jumped to 5.39 per cent in April Vs 4.83 per cent in March.
(B) Global crude prices hitting a 12 year low of below $ 27 dollars a barrel in January 2016 made a strong case for rate cuts for RBI.
(C) Loans and EMI will become cheaper for retail loans.
(D) Rupee will strengthen against other currencies.
(E) None of these
25. Statement: This year, all the stores and malls of city Y have decided to restrict their timings from 7 am to 12 midnight during the shopping festival celebrated in the city for a week each year. Before this year the stores and malls would be open throughout the night. As a result of this decision the total revenue generated this year has reduced by around 20% as compared to last year.
Which of the following may be a reason for this decision by the owners of stores and malls of city Y?
(A) Although more number of people was seen in the malls and stores throughout the night during the shopping festival, the total number of sales in the morning and night were almost equal.
(B) A few residents have complained in the past that the festival has created nuisance due to over crowding on the high-ways.
(C) Last year, during the shopping festival, a number of criminal activities had taken place in the vicinity of the stores and malls post midnight despite tight security, thus scaring many tourists away.
(D) As the shopping festival is held towards the end of the month, people might not be willing to spend in the same.
(E) The shopping festival celebrated last year did not attract as many people as it did the years the stores and malls were open throughout the night.
Directions-(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully and answers the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular role in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two-digit numbers).
Input: Take 48 19 real all 96 78 34 west jug home 26 54 burn.
Step I: 19 take 48 real 96 78 34 west jug home 26 54 burn all.
Step II: 26 19 take 48 real 96 78 34 west jug home 54 all burn.
Step III: 34 26 19 take 48 real 96 78 west jug 54 all burn home.
Step IV: 48 34 26 19 take real 96 78 west 54 all burn home jug.
Step V: 54 48 34 26 19 take 96 78 west all burn home jug real.
Step VI: 78 54 48 34 26 19 96 west all burn home jug real take.
Step VII: 96 78 54 48 34 26 19 all burn home jug real take west.
And step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input: 86 who sum 16 32 now bear in foot 55 25 vore 68 94 (All the numbers are two-digit numbers)
26. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘foot’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
(E) Seven
27. Which step number is the following output?
32 25 16 86 who sum non 55 vore 94 68 foot bear int
(A) Step V
(B) Step VI
(C) Step IV
(D) Step III
(E) There is not such step
28. Which of the following represents the positions of ‘who’ in the fourth step?
(A) Eighth from the left
(B) Fifth from the right
(C) Sixth from the left
(D) Fifth from the left
(E) Seventh from the left
29. Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in step V?
(A) 16
(B) 94
(C) foot
(D) bear
(E) who
30. Which step number in the following output?
55 32 25 16 86 who sun vore 68 94 bear foot int non
(A) Step III
(B) Step IV
(C) Step V
(D) Step VI
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 31 to 35) Study the following information to answer the given question.
In a certain code ‘best way 18 win’ is written as ‘ad mi ja no’, the way to hell’ is written as ‘ku ja ig ad’. ‘win of the day’ is written as ‘be ku zo mi’ and ‘To sell of night is written as’, ‘be li ya ja’.
31. What is the code for ‘best’?
(A) ja
(B) ad
(C) mi
(D) no
(E) Cannot be determined
32. Which of the following represents ‘of the way’?
(A) me be no
(B) ku be ya
(C) mi ku be
(D) ku be nd
(E) be mi ad
33. What is the code for ‘sell’?
(A) li
(B) ya
(C) be
(D) ja
(E) Cannot be determined
34. Which of the following may represent ‘will is way’?
(A) ad re ig
(B) ig li re
(C) ig py ya
(D) ig ad no
(E) re ad be
35. ‘me’ is the code for-
(A) of
(B) way
(C) win
(D) to
(E) Cannot be determined
Directions-(Q. 36 to 40) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
36. Six persons namely A, B, C, D E and F tech one subject each, one after another viz., Reasoning, Quant, Banking, Computer, General Awareness and English but not necessarily in the same order. Quant is not taught before Banking nor it is the last subject taught. Which subject is taught just after English?
(I) The first subject to each is English which is not be taught by either C or E, A, C and E are not available to teach the last subject.
(II) Reasoning is taught by B just after Banking and just before computer which is taught by D.
(A) If both the statement I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the question
(C) If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question
(D) If statements I is sufficient to answer the question but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question
(E) If statement II b y itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
37. Eight friends Sunil, Ravi, Jayant, Kapil, Naren, Shivam, Paresh and Lakshya are seated in a straight line facing north, but not necessarily in the same order.
Ravi sits second to right of Shivam, Shivam sits at one of the extreme ends of the line, then what is the position of Kapil?
(I) Paresh is not an immediate neighbour of Naren and Jayant sit third to the left of Kapil.
(II) Only two persons sit between Kapil and Sunil.
(A) If both the statement I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If statement I is sufficient to answer the question but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If both the statements I and II is sufficient to answer the question.
38. Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle, but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them are facing outside and four of them are facing the centre. E faces outside. Both the immediate neighbours of E face the centre. H sits second to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E. How many people are seated between A and C (Counting clockwise from A)?
(I) G sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H and D is not an immediate neighbour B.
(II) F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate neighbour of G.
(A) If both the statements I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If statement either I or II sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If statement I is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
39. Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five person each in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In the first row, P, Q, R, S and T are seated and all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row; A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Who amongst the following are sitting exactly in the middle of the rows?
(I) D sits third to the left of A. P faces an immediate neighbour of D. R sits second to the right of P and E sits immediate right of D.
(II) Only one person sits between Q and S. B and E are immediate neighbours.
(A) If statement either I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If both the statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.
(D) If statement I is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If both the statement I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question.
40. Six students P, Q, R, S, T and U are the top six ranker’s of the class. No two persons got the same rank. The student who got the highest marks is given rank 1 and the student who got the least marks is given rank 6. Who got the 6th rank?
(I) Q got less marks than both R and U. P got more marks than T but less than S.
(II) Q got the second least rank and V got the second highest rank, R got less marks than P.
(A) If both the statements I and II taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If both the statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If statement I is sufficient to answer the question, but statement II by itself is not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
41. A taxi driver commended his journey from a point and drove 10 km towards North and turned to his left and drove another 5 km. After waiting to meet one of his friends he turned to his right and continued to drive another 10 km. He has covered a distance of 25 km so far but in which direction way he now be going?
(A) East
(B) South
(C) North
(D) North-East
(E) West
42. Sarojis mother-in-law of Vani who is sister-in-law of Deepak. Rajesh is father of Ramesh, the only brother of Deepak. How is Saroj related to Deepak?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Wife
(D) Mother-in-law
(E) Aunt
Directions-(43 to 45) Following questions are based on the information given below:
(1) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
(2) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(3) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(4) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
43. Which of the following represents ‘R is niece of M’?
(A) M ÷ K × T – R
(B) M – J + R – N
(C) R – M × T ÷ W
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
44. In the expression B + D × M ÷ N, how is M related to B?
(A) Granddaughter
(B) Son
(C) Grandson
(D) Granddaughter or Grandson
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following represents ‘J is son of F’?
(A) J ÷ R – T × F
(B) J + R – T × F
(C) J ÷ M – N × F
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
English Language
Directions-(Q.1 to 5) In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent (coherent means logically complete and sound).
1. …………… Business is instead moving to digital-native insurers, many of which are offering low premiums to those willing to collect and share their data. Yet the biggest winners could be tech companies rather than the firms that now dominate the industry. Insurance is increasingly reliant on the use of technology to change behaviour; firms act as helicopter parents to policy holders, warning of impending harm-slow down; reduce your sugar intake; call the plumber-the better to reduce unnecessary payouts. Yet this sort of relationship relies on trust, and the Goggles and Apples of the world, on which consumers rely day-by-day and hour-by-hour, may be best placed to win this business.
(A) The growing mountain of personal data available to individuals and, crucially, to firms is giving those with the necessary processing power the ability to distinguish between low-risk and high-risk individuals.
(B) Cheap sensors and the tsunami of data they generate can improve our lives; black boxes in cars can tell us how to drive more carefully and wearable devices will nudge us toward healthier lifestyles.
(C) The better behaviour resulting from smart devices is just one threat to the insurance industry. Conventional risk pools (for home or car insurance, for example) are shrinking as preventable accidents decline, leaving the slow-footed giants of the industry at risk.
(D) The uncertainty that underpins the need for insurance is now shrinking thanks to better insights into individuals risks.
(E) The data has enabled insurance companies to gauge the situation and plan accordingly
2. By calling for exempting unionized businesses from the minimum wage, unions are creating more incentives for employers to favour unionized workers over the non-unionized sort. Such exemptions strengthen their power………Once employers are obliged to pay the same minimum wage to both unionized and non-unionized labour, workers often see less reason to pay the dues to join a union.
(A) High rates of unionization make minimum-wage rules unnecessary as collaborative wage setting achieves the flexibility goals of a low minimum wage and the fairness goals of a high one.
(B) Workers who have no real alternative to employment in the unregulated shadows of the labour market are even more vulnerable to exploitation and abuse than workers with the legal right to take low wages.
(C) The labour ethos of worker solidarity seems hollow if non-union workers are under price of by union workers and left unemployed or scrambling for unauthorized work.
(D) This is useful because for all the effort unions throw at raising the minimum wage, laws for better pay have an awkward habit of undermining union clout.
(E) Unions have been demanding democratic values in the work culture but on the contrary they have been practicing dictatorial ways.
3. The premise that the choice of major amounts to choosing a career path rests on the faulty notion that the major is important for its content, and that the acquisition of that content is valuable to employers. But information is fairly easy to acquire and what is acquired in 2015 will be obsolete by 2020. What employers want are basic but difficult-to-acquire skills…. They are about a potential employee’s abilities : writing, researching, quantitative, and analytical skills. A vocational approach to education eviscerates precisely the qualities that are most valuable about it: intellectual curiosity, creativity and critical thinking.
(A) As students flock to the two or three majors they see as good investments, professors who teach in those majors are overburdened, and the majors themselves become more formulaic and less individualized.
(B) Often is the art, historians and anthropology majors, for example, who, having marshaled the abilities of perspective, breadth, creativity and analysis, have moved a company or project or vision forward.
(C) Furthermore, the link between education and earnings is notoriously fraught, with cause and effect often difficult to disentangle.
(D) Ideas such as education is necessary to be successful in corporate life are unacceptable because education isn’t that much relevant into day’s society.
(E) When they ask students about their majors, it is usually not because they want to assess the applicants mastery of the content, but rather because they want to know if the students can talk about what they learned.
4. What happens to our brains as we age is of crucial importance not just to science but to public policy ………. However, this demographic time bomb would be much less threatening if the elderly were looked upon as intelligent if the elderly were looked upon as intelligent contributors to society rather than as dependants in long-term decline. It is time we rethink what we mean by the aging mind before our false assumptions result in decisions and policies that marginalize the old or waste precious public resources to re-mediate problems that do not exist.
(A) The idea that we get dumber as we grow older is just a myth, according to brain research that will encourage anyone old enough to known better.
(B) By 2030, for example, 72 million people in the US will be over 65, double the figure in 2000 and their average life expectancy will likely have edged above 20 years.
(C) Many of the assumptions scientists currently make about ‘cognitive decline’ are seriously flawed and, for the most part, formally invalid.
(D) Using computer models to simulate young and old brains, Ramscar and his colleagues found they could account for the decline in test scores simply by factoring in experience.
(E) The reason it becomes harder to recall an acquaintance’s name as you grow older is that there are so many more of them.
5. The expenditure of time, money and sparse judicial and prosecutorial resources is often justified by claims of a powerful deterrent message embodied in the ultimate punishment the death penalty ………… In 2010, the average time between sentencing and execution in the United States averaged nearly 15 years. A much more effective deterrent would be a sentence of life imprisonment imposed close in time to the crime.
(A) A single federal death penalty case in Philadelphia was found to cost upwards of $ 10 million-eight times higher that the cost of trying a death eligible case where prosecutors seek only life imprisonment.
(B) The ethics of the issue aside, it is questionable whether seeking the death penalty is ever worth the time and resources that it takes to sentence someone to death.
(C) Apart from delaying justice, the death penalty diverts resources that could be used to help the victim’s families heal.
(D) But studies repeatedly suggest that there is no meaningful deterrent effect associated with the death penalty and further, any deterrent impact is no doubt greatly diluted by the amount of time that inevitably passes between the time of the conduct and the punishment
(E) While some victims and their families supported and some opposed the decision, any expectation that Tsarnaey will be put to death might be misplaced.
6. Five statements are given below, labelled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among the these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
(A) Dinets first observed the behaviour in 2007 when he spotted crocodiles lying in shallow water along the edge of a pond in India with small sticks or twigs positioned across their snouts.
(B) The behaviour potentially fooled nest building birds wading in the water for sticks into thinking the sticks were floating on the water.
(C) The crocodiles remained still for hours and if a bird neared the stick, they would lunge.
(D) Crocodiles are way clever that thought about generally.
(E) To see if the stick-displaying was a form of clever predation. Dinets and his colleagues performed systematic observations of the reptiles for one year at four sites in Louisiana, including two rookery and two non-rookery sites.
7. Five statements are given below, labelled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among the these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
(A) The competitive pressures in the environment have radically altered the context in which human resource services are delivered in Indian organizations.
(B) The HR competencies, in other words, differentiate outstanding performers from average performers in the HR function.
(C) The traditional role of HR, based on the image of a transaction and administrative oriented HR practitioner providing services
(D) With the focus moving towards integrating HR into strategic planning of the organization, another dimension is added to the picture of HR service deliver.
(E) This change in focus calls for HR professionals taking up the emerging roles of advocate, business partner, and change agent in new organizational structures that are radically different from the past.
8. Five statements are given below, labeled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among the these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
(A) The emerging web services paradigm offers the promise of new efficiencies and improve integration designed to enhance collaboration between internal and external applications
(B) For example web services can serve as a bridge between an e-procurement application and an internal inventory system.
(C) Although, web services are relatively nascent and adoption rates currently low, it is critical for ERP vendors to begin taking steps to prepare for their rapidly maturing initiative.
(D) As items are purchased through e-procurement application, a web service specific to inventory reduction can be invoked to adjust inventory levels.
(E) As soon as re-order points are hit, a web services, the cycle time between buying and replenishment can be greatly reduced and the potential for errors virtually eliminated.
9. Five statements are given below, labeled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among the these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
(A) Every campaign leader known how to pick up and kiss a child in the crowds, how to hug an old widow, how to chant with the pundits, and show abeyance to the Mullahs.
(B) Did anyone hit at ‘quality’ for infrastructure amenities, education, health and finally governance.
(C) Politics is still a game of money, mind and manipulations.
(D) False promise are not entirely a sin, but let these be redeemed by true, professional and quality governance, that shows at the end of the tenure.
(E) Many Asian countries have transformed their work culture, and up-scaled their economies.
10. Five statements are given below, labeled (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Among the these, four statements are in logical order and form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the option that does not fit into the theme of the passage.
(A) Much off the modern use of metals happens behind closed doors of corporations, under the veil of trade secrets.
(B) He chooses to restrict his analysis to metals and metalloids, which could face more critical constraints because many of them are relatively rare.
(C) Even if we can find out how certain metals are used, it may not always be possible to determine the proportions they are used in.
(D) The authors compromise was to account for the use of 80% of the material that is made available each year through extraction and recycling.
(E) Their compromise was to account for the use of 80% of the material that is made available each year through extraction and recycling.
Directions-(Q. 11 to 15) Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
11. If the issuer issues masala bond in rupees, then he gets rid of the risk in the form of currency fluctuation which he passes on to the investor. This bond brings a new and diversified set of investors for Indian companies and more liquidity in foreign exchange.
(a) Risk gets passed on the investor.
(b) More liquidity in foreign exchange.
(c) Masala bonds bring a new set of investors.
Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (b)
(E) None of the above
12. Captain Michael allowed his men to make important decisions in a democratic manner. This democratic attitude fostered a spirit of togetherness and commitment on the part of Michael’s fellow explorers.
(a) As soon as.
(b) In accordance with.
(c) Allowing.
Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (b)
(E) None of the above
13. High interest rates on the loan the business procured consumed so much of their revenue that they were forced to liquidate some of their holdings. All this happened when its refinancing attempts failed.
(a) The high interest rates of the loan.
(b) The business was forced to liquidate.
(c) The high interest rate of the loan.
Pick out the option which when used to start a sentences combines both the above sentences in one.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) None of the above
14. Reporting a 90% drop in net income during the second quarter, dragged down by restricting charges and weak sales, the earnings guidance for the year was withdrawn by Best Buy Co.
(a) Report of a 90% drop in net income.
(b) Best Buy Co. is reporting a 90% drop in net income.
(c) Best Buy Co. has reported a 90% drop in net income.
Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (b)
(E) None of the above
15. Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy due to his belief in canals on Mars. However, modern astronomers dismiss this belief as material for pop science fiction.
(a) Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy
(b) Percival Lowell’s interest in astronomy was due to
(c) Percival Lowell was interested in astronomy
Pick out the option which when used to start a sentence combines both the above sentences in one.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) None of the above
Directions-(16 to 20) In the following questions four words are given of which two are most nearly same or opposite in meaning find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate your answer by marking the option which represents the correct option.
16. (i) Confront (ii) Voluntary
(iii) Covered (iv) Avoid
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
(E) (i), (iv)
17. (i) Immoderate (ii) Bashful
(iii) Extreme (iv) Succour
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (ii), (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii)
(E) (iii), (iv)
18. (i) Sanity (ii) Energetic
(iii) Sobriety (iv) Quietness
(A) (ii), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (iii), (iv)
(D) (ii(, (iv)
(E) (i), (iv)
19. (i) Tormented (ii) Devasted
(iii) Decide (iv) Ruined
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (v)
(C) (ii), (iii)
(D) (ii), (iv)
(E) (iii), (iv)
20. (i) Abundant (ii) Remiss
(iii) Angelic (iv) Inadequate
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii)
(C) (i), (v)
(D) (ii), (iii)
(E) (ii), (iv)
Directions-(Q. 21 to 30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions Certain word/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions :
Management is a set of processes that can keep a complicated system of people and technology running smoothly. The most important aspects of management include planning, budgeting, organizing, staffing, controlling and problem solving. Leadership is a set of processes that creates organizations in the first place or adapts them to significantly changing circumstances. Leadership defines what the future should look like, aligns people with that vision, and inspires them to make it happen despite the obstacles. This distinction is absolutely crucial for our purposes here. Successful transformation is 70 to 90 per cent leadership and only 10 to 30 per cent management. Yet for historical reasons, many organizations today don’t have much leadership. And almost everyone thinks about the problem here as one of managing change.
For most of this century, as we created thousands and thousands of large organizations for the first time in human history, we didn’t have enough good managers to keep all those bureaucracies functioning. So many companies and universities developed management programmes and hundreds and thousands of people were encouraged to learn management on the job. And they did, But, people were taught little about leadership. To some degree, management was the main item on the twentieth-century agenda because that’s what was needed. For every entrepreneur or business builder who was a leader, we needed hundreds of managers to run their evergrowing enterprises.
Unfortunately for us today, this emphasis on management has often been institutionalized in corporate cultures that discourage employees from learning how to lead. Ironically, past success is usually the key ingredient in producing this outcome. They syndrome, as I have observed it on many occasions, goes like this : success creates some degree of marked dominance, which in turn produces much growth. After a while keeping the ever larger organization under control becomes the primary challenge. So attention turns inward, and managerial competencies are nurtured. With a strong emphasis on management but not leadership, bureaucracy and an inward focus take over. But with continued success, the result mostly of market dominance, the problem often goes unaddressed and an unhealthy arrogance begins to evolve. All of these characteristics make any transformation effort much more difficult.
Arrogant managers can over evaluate their current performance and competitive position, listen poorly, and learn slowly. Inwardly focused employees can smother those who want to respond to shifting conditions. And the lack leadership leaves no force inside these organizations to break of the morass.
21. What is the main topic of the passage?
(A) Importance of management schools in the present context.
(B) Good mangers
(C) Importance of leadership in a organization.
(D) Management and success of an organization.
(E) None of these
22. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(A) Bureaucratic culture smothers those who want to change conditions.
(B) Leadership involves carrying out important functions such as budgeting and planning.
(C) Pressure on managers comes mostly fro within.
(D) Leadership has the potential to establish direction.
(E) None of these
23. Why did companies and universities develop programmes to prepare managers in large numbers?
(A) Companies and universities wanted to generate funds through these programmes.
(B) Organizations wanted to create communication network through trained managers.
(C) Large number of organizations were created and they needed managers in goods numbers.
(D) Only trained managers could lead an organization to success.
(E) None of these
24. What is the historical reason for many organizations not having leadership?
(A) Leaders allow too much complacency in organizations.
(B) Leaders are not adept in carrying out managerial functions and organizations need good managers only.
(C) The view that leaders are born and not made.
(D) Socio-political pressure.
(E) None of these
25. Why were people taught little about leadership in management programmes?
(A) Enough study material was not available.
(B) Leadership was considered a political phenomenon.
(C) Focus of these programmes was on developing managers.
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
26. Which of the following characteristics help organizations in their transformation efforts?
(A) Bureaucratic and inward looking approach.
(B) A strong and dogmatic culture.
(C) Emphasis on leadership rather than management.
(D) Emphasis on customer satisfaction.
(E) None of these
27. Which of the following is similar in meaning to the Bold word ‘’nurtured’ as used in the passage?
(A) Created
(B) Developed
(C) Surfaced
(D) Thwarted
(E) Cared
28. Which of the following is similar in meaning to the undersigned word ‘institutionalized’ as used in the passage?
(A) Disorganized
(B) Systematized
(C) Regulated
(D) Ordered
(E) Officiated
29. Which of the following is opposite, in meaning to the undersigned word ‘arrogance’ as used in the passage?
(A) Egotism
(B) Vanity
(C) Modesty
(D) Audacity
(E) Presumption
30. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the undersigned word ‘dominance’ as used in the passage?
(A) Control
(B) Authority
(C) Sway
(D) Power
(E) Submission
Directions-(Q. 31 to 40) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
One likes to think that one’s attitudes, beliefs, and related behaviour form a consistent pattern. Incongruity that is detected results in a sense of imbalance or dissonance, which the person then seeks to correct. The motivating effects of the need to correct incongruity, imbalance, or dissonance has been the occasion for several theories. We may select for occasion for several theories, We may select for consideration the theory proposed by Festinger which treats congnitive dissonance and its reduction. The kind of disagreement or disharmony with which Festinger has been chiefly concerned is that which occurs after a decision has been made, after one is committed to a course of action; under such circumstances, there is often some lack of harmony between what one does and what one believes, and there is pressure to change either one’s behaviour or one’s beliefs. For example, if a regular smoker reads about the relationship between smoking and lung cancer, the habitual action and the new information are dissonant. If the decision is made to continue smoking, the dissonance will be reduced by disbelieving the information about the relationship between smoking and lung cancer; if the decision is made to give up smoking, the information on the linkage between smoking and lung cancer will be accepted. The fact that this information also affected the decision is not important here. As Festinger and others have shown, the weighing of alternatives is more realistic prior to the decision; after the decision, the pressure is great to bring belief and action into balance.
The theory goes on to make some non-obvious predictions, for example, in some cases, failure of expectations instead of destroying belief may strengthen it. This was illustrated by the study of a group of people who expected to be saved from a prophesied disastrous flood by the intervention of a heavenly being. The theory predicted that when the long awaited day arrived and the prophecy failed (no flood), those who had the social support of the other believers would indeed proselyte for their beliefs with new enthusiasm; while those who had to face the crisis alone would have their faith weakened. These predicted results did indeed occur, the rationalization for the group of disappointed believers who faced failure together being that God had postponed his vengeance because of their faith.
The tendency to be consistent is but one aspect of how self-perception influences motivation. Earlier illustrations of human motivation might also be reinterpreted in these terms. For example, the success motivating and the avoidance of failure are also concerned with how a person sees himself, R. W. White, for example, reinterprets many motives concerned with curiosity, and desire for knowledge and for achievement as though they are all concerned with one’s sense of competence as a person who is effective in relation to the environment. In another sense, the person like to develop his potentials to the full, to be as complete a person as he can. For such a pervasive type of motive, the expression self-actualization was coined, originally by Carl Jung, one of Freud’s followers who later developed as system of his own. By self-actualization, he meant the development of full individuality, with all parts somehow in harmony. The term and closely related ones (productive orientation, creative becoming, etc.) have been used by many psychologists who criticize contemporary motivational theory as being too narrow, concerned with short episodes of choice and behaviour rather than with the more profound and pervasive aspects of individual hopes and aspirations.
31. With which of the following statements would Jung be most likely to agree?
(A) Parents should not allow their children to smoke.
(B) Parents should force their children to learn music.
(C) Parents should give their children complete freedom.
(D) Parents should encourage their children to pursue any interests the children might have.
(E) None of these
32. The passage probably comes from :
(A) The introduction to a book
(B) The first chapter of a book
(C) The middle of a text book
(D) An article in a news weekly
(E) None of these
33. The best title for this passage would be:
(A) ‘Self-actualization’
(B) ‘Self-reference in Human Motivation
(C) ‘The Reduction of cognitive Dissonance’
(D) ‘Cognitive Dissonance and the self’
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following statements would the author disagree with?
(A) The tendency to be consistent is the only aspect of how self perception influences motivation.
(B) The motivating effects of the need to correct incongruity have been the occasion for several theories.
(C) By self-actualization, Carl Jung meant the development of full individuality, with all parts somehow in harmony.
(D) There is often some lack of harmony between what one does and what one believes.
(E) None of htese
35. Which of the following situations is most likely to give rise to cognitive dissonance?
(A) Cricket fans watching their team lose.
(B) An antique collector being told by an expert that the vase he has paid Rs 3,000 for is worth Rs 100.
(C) Student failing an exam.
(D) Man cutting himself shaving.
(E) None of these
36. In the case that one’s expectations fail, belief:
(A) will be destroyed
(B) will be shaken but not destroyed
(C) will be strengthened
(D) may be destroyed or strengthened
(E) None of these
37. Which of the following most nearly the same in meaning to the word ‘Dissonance’ as used in the passage?
(A) Concord
(B) Harmony
(C) Sympathy
(D) Disagreement
(E) Peacefulness
38. Which of the following is most nearly SAME in meaning ‘Disastrous’ as used in the passage?
(A) Blessed
(B) Aiding
(C) Triumphant
(D) Calamitous
(E) Wondrous
39. Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Vengeance’ as used in the passage?
(A) Reprisal
(B) Retribution
(C) Pardon
(D) Retaliation
(E) Counterblow
40. Which of the following is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Pervasive’ as used in the passage?
(A) Uncommon
(B) Common
(C) Prevalent
(D) Rife
(E) Ubiquitous
General/Economic/Banking Awareness
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the proposed ‘payment banks’?
(A) RBI has given ‘in-principle’ approval to 11 entities to establish payments bank
(B) Cholamandalam Distribution services has withdrawn from the race of payments bank
(C) Dilip Sanghvi dropped the payments bank plan
(D) All the eleven entities are in process to establish the payments banks
(E) None of these
2. Non-form into micro units are eligible for how much loan under “Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna”?
(A) Rs 1 lakh
(B) Rs 2 lakh
(C) Rs 5 lakh
(D) Rs 10 lakh
(E) None of these
3. East of doing business index is developed by-
(A) World Bank Group
(B) International Financial Group
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Economic and Social Council
(E) None of these
4. Who is the present CEO and MD of Bandhan Bank?
(A) Arundhati Bhattacharya
(B) Chandra Shekhar Ghosh
(C) Satya Nadella
(D) Chanda Kochar
(E) Piyush Gupta
5. Women Economic Forum Summit held in which city?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bengaluru
(D) New Delhi
(E) Chennai
6. Fine Pay Tech is a which type of bank?
(A) Commercial Bank
(B) Regional Bank
(C) Payment Bank
(D) Co-operative Bank
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following cities have emerged as the winner in the second round of ‘Smart Cities’ inclusion list?
(A) Lucknow, Warangal, Chandigarh, New Town Kolkata
(B) Dharamshala, Raipur, Bhagalpur, Imphal
(C) Agartala, Faridabad, Panji, Chandigarh, Port Blair
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
8. Which of the following has the maximum share in foreign exchange reserves in India?
(A) Foreign Currency Assets
(B) Gold
(C) SDRs
(D) Tranche with IMF
(E) None of these
9. What is the maximum total credit amount in BSBDA account in a year?
(A) Rs 50 thousand
(B) Rs 1 lakh
(C) Rs 2 lakh
(D) Rs 50 lakh
(E) None of these
10. Small Finance Banks will also have to ensure that 50% of their loan portfolio constitutes advances of upto-
(A) Rs 5 lakh
(B) Rs 10 lakh
(C) Rs 25 lakh
(D) Rs 50 lakh
(E) None of these
11. In FDI Intelligence report, which state top destination states for FDI in 2015?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Punjab
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
12. What is true for income Tax in Union Budget 2016-17?
(A) No change in Tax slabs
(B) Maximum Tax rate increased to 40%
(C) Income upto Rs 4 lakh made tax free
(D) 20% tax is levied between income range of Rs 6 lakh to Rs 10 lakh
(E) None of these
13. What is e-Kuber?
(A) It is the Core Banking solution of RBI
(B) A new type of e-volet
(C) A new payment identity selected as the proposed Small Bank
(D) A new payment system of new private sector banks
(E) All of these
14. RBI has given in-principle approval for the establishment of ‘Payment Bank’. These payment banks are not allowed to-
(A) Accept deposits
(B) Issue Credit Card
(C) Issue Debit Card
(D) Earn a commission per transaction
(E) All of these
15. Which Bank launched a ‘mobile-only bank’ in India?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) DBS Bank
(C) RBL Bank
(D) Federal Bank
(E) None of these
16. Krishi Kalyan Cess to be implemented from-
(A) 1 April, 2016
(B) 1st June, 2016
(C) 1 January, 2017
(D) 1 April, 2017
(E) None of these
17. World Bank categorize India under-
(A) High economy
(B) Upper middle economy
(C) Lower middle economy
(D) Low economy
(E) None of these
18. What is RBI ‘On Tap’ licensing foreign investment limit?
(A) 72%
(B) 74%
(C) 82%
(D) 86%
(E) None of these
19. Which bank approved loan $ 500 million for 9.8 km road bridge across the Ganga in Bihar?
(A) Federal Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) European Investment Bank
(D) State Bank of India
(E) None of these
20. Venue of North Atlantic Treaty organization (NATO) SUMMIT, 2016?
(A) Chicago, U.S.
(B) Istanbul, Turkey
(C) Brussels, Belgium
(D) Warsaw, Poland
(E) None of these
21. World Bank provided loan to which bank for India’s Rooftop Solar Power” project?
(A) RBI
(B) HDFC
(C) SBI
(D) Bandhan Bank
(E) None of these
22. Which was the 1st non test playing country to beat India in an International match?
(A) Canada
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) East Africa
(E) Ireland
23. Public sector banks have been granted infusion of Rs 70,000 crore during the period 2015-2019, During first tranche in 2015-16, the infusion of ……. crore will be made.
(A) Rs 20,000
(B) Rs 25,000
(C) Rs 35,000
(D) Rs 30,000
(E) None of these
24. According to economic survey 2015-16 economically active population of India has increased from 1991 to 2013 is-
(A) 59.7%
(B) 62.3%
(C) 63.3%
(D) 58.6%
(E) None of these
25. What is the name of social banking application launched by SBI for face book and twitter?
(A) SBI Quick
(B) State Bank anywhere
(C) Social Money
(D) SBI Card
(E) SBI Mingle
26. Who was won Gold Medal in 50 m pistol event at ISSF World Cup?
(A) Pang Wei
(B) Mc Phail Michael
(C) Jitu Rai
(D) Wang Zhiwei
(E) None of these
27. India’s first Integrated Defence Communication Network (DCN) has been launched in which following cities?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Bengaluru
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kochi
(E) None of these
28. The Headquarter of “Capital Small Finance Bank” is located at-
(A) New Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C) Gurgram
(D) Jalandhar
(E) Chandigarh
29. Which e-commerce company has launched “Tatkal” initiative for small and medium business?
(A) Amazon
(B) Flipkart
(C) Jabong
(D) Snapdeal
(E) None of these
30. How much loan amount has been sanctioned by World Bank for Indian Solar Program?
(A) $ 500 million
(B) $ 575 million
(C) $ 625 million
(D) $ 875 million
(E) None of these
31. Which committee has been constituted to give recommendation on Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM)?
(A) N. K. Singh Committee
(B) N. R. Madhava Menon Committee
(C) H. Devaraj Committee
(D) Ajay Shankar Committee
(E) None of these
32. India’s first AYUSH University will be setup in which state of India?
(A) Punjab
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Karnataka
(D) Haryana
(E) Gujarat
33. Which one is not money market instrument?
(A) Treasury Bills
(B) Federal Agency Note
(C) Certificate of Deposit
(D) Commercial Paper
(E) None of these
34. Government of India launched ‘Setu Bhartam’ on March 4, 2016. Which of the following statements is incorrect about it?
(A) The cost of the project is Rs 20800 crore.
(B) It aims to make all National Highways Free of Railway crossings by 2019.
(C) The project will be implemented by Indian Railways.
(D) 208 Railway over bridges/Railways under bridges will be constructed
(E) None of these
35. Who has been chosen for 47th Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(A) Bharat Kumar “Manoj Kumar’
(B) Anupam Kher
(C) Kamini Kaushal
(D) Sachin Bhaumik
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following Asset Management Companies, dethroned HDFC Mutual Fund in February 2016?
(A) Franklin Templeton
(B) Reliance
(C) Birla
(D) ICICI Prudential
(E) None of these
37. Which of the following airport has become world’s first airport to fully run on Solar Power?
(A) Dubai (UAE)
(B) Vancouver (USA)
(C) Zurich(Switzerland)
(D) Kochi (India)
(E) None of these
38. United Nations General Assembly has decided to observe 20th February every year as the-
(A) World Kidney Day
(B) World Day of Social Justice
(C) World Cancer Day
(D) World Radio Day
(E) World Consumer Rights Day
39. Which of the following cities has emerged as the choicest hub for global Housing innovation?
(A) Noida
(B) Gurugram
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Hyderabad
(E) Ahemadabad
40. Ministry of Urban development has approved the Atal Mission Plans for which of the following states?
(A) Uttarkhand and Bihar
(B) Punjab and Uttarakhand
(C) Jharkhand and Kerala
(D) Punjab and Madhya Pradesh
(E) Punjab and Haryana
Data Analysis & Interpretation
Directions-(Q. 1 to 5) Study the following Pie-charts to answer these questions:
1. Which institute has the highest percentage of candidates who completed the M.B.A. programme out of the candidates that joined?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) E
(E) A
2. What percentage of candidates completed the M.B.A. programme from institute E out of the total number of candidate that joined the same institute?
(A) 62.5%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 50%
(E) 80%
3. What is the ratio f candidates who successfully completed the M.B.A. programme to the candidates who joined from institute G?
(A) 3 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 6 : 11
(D) 9 : 7
(E) 7 : 11
4. What percentage of candidates completed the M.B.A programme out of the candidates who joined for institutes B and C together?
(A) 64%
(B) 75%
(C) 90%
(D) 80%
(E) 76%
5. The number of candidates who completed the M.B.A. programme from A and D institutes together exceeds the number of candidates who joined institutes C and E together by-
(A) 304
(B) 278
(C) 298
(D) 369
(E) 399
Directions-(Q. 6 to 10) Study the following bar-diagram which shows the number of labourers, clerks, executives, officers and managers of a certain company over the period of five years-
6. What is the approximate ratio of average number of labourers and that of managers?
(A) 1 : 60
(B) 61 : 1
(C) 59 : 1
(D) 57 : 1
(E) 51 : 1
7. Find the percentage (approximate) of average number of clerks with respect to the average number of total employees of the company-
(A) 16
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 18
(E) 19
8. Which year has shown decrease in the number of laboures?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2014
9. What is the percentage decrease in the average number of executives, officers and managers in 2014 regards the same in 2011?
(A) 2.3
(B) 2.66
(C) 2.22
(D) 2.25
(E) 2.47
10. In 2010 total number of employees in company is what per cent of total number of employees in 2011.
(A) 98.37%
(B) 94.23%
(C) 97.68%
(D) 95.67%
(E) 96.94%
Directions-(Q. 11 to 15) Study the graph to answer these questions. The graph indicates the amount of money raised through various financial instruments from capital market by M/s P.P. Ltd. The amount is in Rs Crores.
11. The total amount of funds raised was the least in which of the following years?
(A) 2014-15
(B) 2011-12
(C) 2010-11
(D) 2013-14
(E) 2012-13
12. What is the percentage decrease in amount raised by rights issue in 2011-12 against that of 2012-13?
(A) 44.4%
(B) 42.2%
(C) 54.4%
(D) 45%
(E) 48%
13. What is the percentage of amount raised by public issue to the total amount raised?
(A) 52%
(B) 49.9%
(C) 69.20%
(D) 46%
(E) 50.19%
14. The amount of private placement raised as a percentage of total funds raised was the maximum in the year-
(A) 2010-11
(B) 2013-14
(C) 2011-12
(D) 2014-15
(E) 2012-13
15. The average amount raised by ways of public issue for the period 2010-11 to 2014-15 excluding the period 2011-12-
(A) Rs 16,112 crore
(B) Rs 14,159 crore
(C) Rs 17,628 crore
(D) Rs 13,532 crore
(E) Rs 14,267 crore
Directions-(Q.16 to 18) Answer these questions based on the information given.
Fabric X has to go through three stages of manufacturing viz., Spinning, weaving and dyeing. In Rimal Fabric Company, there are six spinning machines, ten weaving machines and five dyeing machines. Each machine works for 10 hour a day. One unit of a fabric X needs 40 minutes on a spinning machine, 2 hours on a weaving machine and 30 minutes on a dyeing machine in order to be completed. Similarly one unit of fabric Y needs 60 minutes on a spinning machine, 30 minutes on a weaving machine and 60 minutes on a dyeing machine in order to be completed.
16. If 20 units of fabric X are made in day, how many units of fabric X can be completed the same day?
(A) 0
(B) 40
(C) 20
(D) 45
(E) 60
17. In a day, how many units of fabric Y can be completed at most?
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
(E) 50
18. If only 30 units of fabric Y are made in a day, how many machine hours will be idle that day?
(A) 120
(B) 130
(C) 135
(D) 150
(E) 180
Directions-(Q. 19 to 21) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question. A bag contain 6 Black, 4 Red, 3 Blue and 4 White Balls.
19. If 5 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that none are black?
(A) 442/33
(B) 33/442
(C) 15/167
(D) 23/235
(E) 21/235
20. If 3 balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that 1 is Red and the other 2 are white?
(A) 7/85
(B) 3/87
(C) 3/85
(D) 7/87
(E) 2/87
21. Is 3 balls are picked at random, what is the probability that all are blue?
(A) 4/670
(B) 1/270
(C) 4/630
(D) 1/600
(E) 1/680
Directions-(Q. 22 to 25) Given below is per cent of number of students from 5 different colleges attended different number of seminars.
22. If the difference between number of students from college T who attended 3 seminars and students who attended 5 seminars is 22, and the total students from college R is 60% of the total students from college T then find the number of students of college R who are attending 2 seminars.
(A) 32
(B) 35
(C) 33
(D) 38
(E) None of these
23. The number of students from college P who attended more than 2 seminars is approximate what per cent less than the number of students from college S who attended at least 3 seminars if the number of student who attended 2 seminars from college P is 48. And the number of students of college S who attended 6 seminars is 14 more than the number of students from college P, who attended 1 seminar?
(A) 57%
(B) 44%
(C) 60%
(D) 48%
(E) None of these
24. Total no. of students from college P who attended atmost 2 seminars is equal to the sum of number of students from college T who attended 1 seminar and the number of students from the same college who attended 6 seminars. Then the total number of students from college P is what per cent of total no. of student from college T?
(A) 
(B) 45%
(C) 49%
(D) 60%
(E) None of these
25. If the number of students from college R who attended at most 3 seminars is equal to number of students from college S who attended at least 3 seminars and the total number of students from college S is 114. Then find the number of students from college R who attended 3 seminars.
(A) 37
(B) 41
(C) 45
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Directions-(Q. 26 to 30) In each of given questions two quantities numbered 1 and 2 are given. You have to solve both the quantities and mark the appropriate answer.
26. Given that D is the mid point of AC and BC is diameter of circle, and circumference of circle is 44 cm.
Quantity 1-area of shaded region, Quantity 2-7 π cm2
(A) quantity I > quantity II
(B) quantity I < quantity II
(C) quantity I ≥ quantity II
(D) quantity I ≤ quantity II
(E) quantity I = quantity II or No relation
27. Quantity I = 28x3y3
Quantity II = 12x4y4, if x > 0 and y > 0
(A) quantity I > quantity II
(B) quantity I < quantity II
(C) quantity I ≥ quantity II
(D) quantity I ≤ quantity II
(E) quantity I = quantity II or No relation
28. Speed of a boat in still water speed of current is in ratio 6 : 1. If the difference between distance covered by boat in 2 hours upstream and in 2 hours downstream is 8 km.
Quantity : I-speed of boat in still water.
Quantity : II-speed of cyclist who goes 28 km in 2 hrs.
(A) quantity I > quantity II
(B) quantity I < quantity II
(C) quantity I ≥ quantity II
(D) quantity I ≤ quantity II
(E) quantity I = quantity II or No relation
29. To complete a work A and B take 30 days B and C take 24 days and C and A take 2 days.
Quantity : I-3 days work of B.
Quantity : II-2 days work of C.
(A) quantity I > quantity II
(B) quantity I < quantity II
(C) quantity I ≥ quantity II
(D) quantity I ≤ quantity II
(E) quantity I = quantity II or No relation
30. Quantity I 
Quantity II 
(A) quantity I > quantity II
(B) quantity I < quantity II
(C) quantity I ≥ quantity II
(D) quantity I ≤ quantity II
(E) quantity I = quantity II or No relation
Directions-(Q. 31 to 35) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and, give answer-
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
31. What is Nnidhi’s age?
(I) Nidhi is 3 times younger to Rani.
(II) Surekha is twice the age of Rani and the sum of their ages is 72.
32. What is the ratio of the total number of girls to the total number of boys in the school?
(I) The ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls, last year was 4 : 5.
(II) There are 3500 students in the school out of which 60% are boys.
33. What is the speed of the bus?
(I) The bus covers a distance of 80 km in 5 hrs.
(II) The bus covers a distance of 160 km in 10 hrs.
34. What is the ratio of the number of freshers to the number of seniors in a college?
(I) The ratio of males and females in the college is 2 : 3.
(II) There are 1125 female freshers in the college.
35. What is Mr. Mehta’s present income?
(I) Mr. Mehta’s income increases by 10% every year.
(II) His income will increase by Rs 2500 this year.
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