Directions (Q. 1 to 10) In each of the following questions, a related pair of figures (unnumbered) is followed by five numbered pairs of Figures. Out of these five, four have relationship similar to that in the unnumbered pair. Only one p air of figures does not have similar relationship. Select that pair of figures which does not have a relationship similar to t hat in the unnumbered p air. The number of that pair is your answer. Study the following question.
In this question, element (ii) of the unnumbered pair of figures is related t element (i) in a certain way. Element (ii) has one side more than element (i). The numbered figures (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) have a similar relationship ie, element (ii) of each figure has one side more than element (i). However, the elements in figure (4) do not have such a relationship. Therefore, (4) is the answer. Now, solve the following questions.
1. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (3)
2. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (4)
3. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (5)
4. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (4)
5. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (3)
6. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (1)
7. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (5)
8. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (3)
9. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (4)
10. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) The first figure in the first unit of problem figures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly one of the answer figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.
11. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (3)
12. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (1)
13. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (4)
14. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (4)
15. Problem Figures Answer Figures
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) The first figure in the first unit of the problem figures bears a certain relationship to the second figure. Similarly one of the figures in the answer figures bears the same relationship to the second figure in the second unit of the problem figures. You are therefore to locate the figure which would fit in the question mark.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) In each question below five figures are given. Four are similar in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the figures does not belong to that group ?
1.
Answer: (2)
2.
Answer: (5)
3.
Answer: (4)
4.
Answer: (5)
5.
Answer: (2)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) In each of the following in four out of the five figures, element (i) is related to element (ii) in the same particular way. Find out the figure in which element (i) is not so related to element (ii).
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 21) In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued.
1. What should come next in the following letter series ?
I H G F E D C B A I H G F E D CI H G F E
(1) I
(2) D
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
2. What should come next in the following letter series?
PQRSTABCDE PQRS ABCDE PQRS ABCDPQ
(1) R
(2) T
(3) A
(4) B
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
3. What should come next in the following letter series?
ZXV T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
(1) M
(2) K
(3) N
(4) J
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
4. What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A H G F E D C B H G F E D C H
(1) F
(2) G
(3) B
(4) A
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
5. What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O P O N P O N M P O N M L P O N M L
(1) P
(2) K
(3) J
(4) I
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
6. What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
(1) U
(2) T
(3) A
(4) G
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
7. What should come next in the following letters series?
b a c b a c d ba c d e b a c d e f b a cd
(1) c
(2) d
(3) e
(4) f
(5) g
Answer: (3)
8. What should come next in the following letter series?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(1) J
(2) K
(3) A
(4) L
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
Directions (Q. Nos. 9 to 13) Each of the questions below contains three elements. These three elements may or may not have some linkage. Each group of the elements may fit into one of the diagrams at (1), (2), (3), (4)and (5). You have to indicate the groups of elements in each of the questions fit into which of the diagrams given below. The number of the diagram is the answer.
9. Cloth, Cotton, Shirt
Answer: (5)
10. Paper, Stationary, Ink
Answer: (1)
11. Iron, Lead, Nitrogen
Answer: (2)
12. Classroom, Black board, School
Answer: (3)
13. Hockey, Football, Cricket
Answer: (2)
14. What should come next in the following letter sequence?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie, it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’, though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts give.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, ie, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Passage 1
There has been considerable debate in India regarding the privatization of higher education. In this debate, there is generally an implicit assumption that privatization is essentially the same as corporatization, ie, private investment comes due to the potential of returns. In the higher education field, privatization and corporatization are actually quite different. Privatization is regarding who controls the educational institute and the role of government in the management and funding of the institute, while corporatization is about making profits. In India, there is no doubt that private not-for-profit universities need to be encouraged to increase education opportunities and the fact that there is no other alternative as the government simply cannot create enough public universities to satisfy the demand. However, guidelines for private not-for-profit universities should be made clear, simple and transparent to ensure that they are truly not for profit and offer a level playing field to all those who might want to set up a private university.
1. Privatization of higher education has yet to take proper shape in India.
Answer: (1)
2. Expansion of higher education opportunities in India is needed to meet the increasing demand.
Answer: (1)
3. Corporatization of higher education has benefited the students in the developed countries.
Answer: (4)
4. Privatization of higher education will lead to commercialization of education in India.
Answer: (2)
5. India does not have any extant guidelines for setting up higher educational institutions by private entities.
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie, it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’, though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’, ie, it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it’ contradicts the given facts.
Passage 2
Between 2002-03 and 2006-07, Indian economy grew annually at 8.7% led by the services sector at 9% per year. In 1990, India’s share of services at 40% of GDP was consistent with its per capita income for low-income country. By 2001, its share of one-half of the GDP was higher by five percentage points, compared to the average for low-income countries. Economic reforms that energized the private corporate sector and technological changes that opened up new vistas in telecommunications, IT and outsourcing are believed to be responsible for the impressive performance. However, the services-led growth remains a puzzle at a low per capita income, with 55% of the workforce still engaged in agriculture and when agriculture decelerated and industry stagnated-defying a styled fact in economies.
6. Share of services sector in India’s GDP crossed the halfway mark in early 2000.
Answer: (3)
7. India has now emerged as a high per capita income country.
Answer: (5)
8. Growth in India’s services sector post-2005 is more than 9 per cent.
Answer: (2)
9. In early nineties, the share of services sector in GDP for low per capita income group of countries was about 40 per cent.
Answer: (2)
10. Less than half of total workforce is engaged in agricultural sector in India.
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, ie, it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is ‘probably true’, though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, ie, from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ ie, it cannot possibly be drawn from facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Passage 3
A fundamental global trend now a days is the growing natural resources scarcity. Oil and natural gas prices have roared in recent years. This year, food prices have also skyrocketed causing hardships among the poor and large shifts in income between countries and between rural and urban areas. The most basic reason for the rise in natural resource prices is strong growth, especially in China and India, which is hitting against the physical limits of land, timber, oil and gas reserves and water supplies. Thus, wherever nature’s goods and services are traded in markets (as with energy and food), prices are rising when they are not traded in the markets (as with clean air), the result is pollution and depletion rather than higher prices. There are many reasons for the dramatic increase in world food prices, but the starting point is increasing food consumptions again strongly powered by China’s economic growth. China’s population is earning more notably more meat, which in turn requires the importation of higher volumes of animal feed made from soyabeans and maize. Moreover, rising world energy prices has m ad food production more costly, since it requires large energy inputs for transport, farming and fertilizers. At the same time, rising energy prices create a strong incentive for farmers to switch from food production to fuel production.
11. Ever increasing consumption of food articles by world population is pushing up the world food prices beyond expectations.
Answer: (1)
12. Farmers get more returns by producing food articles than by producing raw material for fuel production.
Answer: (4)
13. China’s food production is less than its total domestic requirements.
Answer: (2)
14. Non-tradable natural resources are being indiscriminately contaminated by the thoughtless use of less environment friendly activities.
Answer: (1)
15. Countries other than China and India produce enough food and energy within their countries.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 6) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursing.
Given answer as
(1) if only I follows.
(2) if only II follows.
(3) if either I or II follows
(4) if neither I nor II follows.
(5) if both I and II follow.
Statement Many pilgrims died in a stampeded while boarding a private ferry to the holy place on the first day of the ten day long festival.
Course of Action
The government should immediately cancel the licenses of all the private ferry operators with immediate effect.
The government should deploy an adequate number of its personnel to guide pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.
Answer: (2)
Statement Some students of the local college were caught travelling in the train without purchasing valid tickets.
Courses of Action
The parents of these students should be informed about the incident and requested to counsel their wards.
These students should be put behind bars for travelling without bonafide credentials.
Answer: (1)
Statement Two persons, while on their daily walks in the jogger’s park were killed by unidentified miscreants early in the morning.
Courses of Action
The policy authority should deploy policy constables near the jogger’s park to prevent such criminal acts in future.
The citizens of the locality should go for early morning walks in groups to avoid such attacks.
Answer: (5)
Statement Many school children died in few accidents caused due to poor maintenance of school buses during the last few months.
Course of Action
The Government should set up an expert group to inspect the condition of school buses to avoid such accidents.
The Government should suspend the licence of all the school buses till these buses are properly checked.
Answer: (1)
Statement A huge tidal wave swept away many fishing boats and hutments of the fishermen living along the coastline.
Course of Action
The fishermen should henceforth be restrained from constructing their huts along the coast line.
The local administration should send a team of officials to assess the extent of damage and suggest remedial measures.
Answer: (5)
Statement A large number of invitees who attended the marriage function fell ill due to food poisoning and were rushed to various hospitals located in the data.
Courses of Action
The Government should ban such marriage functions till further notice.
The local hospitals should be advised by the Government to provide best services to the affected people.
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 7 to 8) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursing.
Given answer as
(1) if only I follows.
(2) if only II follows.
(3) if either I or II follows
(4) if neither I nor II follows.
(5) if both I and II follow.
Statement Drinking water supply to many parts of the town has been disrupted due to loss of water because of leakage in pipes supplying water.
Courses of Action
The Government should order an enquiry into the matter.
he civic body should set up a fact-finding team to assess the damage and take effective steps.
Answer: (2)
Statement There is an alarming increase in the number of people suffering from malaria in many parts of the city.
Courses of Action
The Municipal corporation has advised all the government hospitals to store adequate supply of malaria drugs.
Municipal corporation has advised people to use mosquito repellants and to keep their house clean.
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 9 to 10) In each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I,II and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursing.
Statement The members belonging to two local clubs occasionally fight with each other on the main road and block traffic movement.
Courses of Action
The local police station should immediately deploy police personnel round the clock on the main road.
Those involved in fighting should be identified and put behind bars.
III. The local administration should disband the management of the two clubs with immediate effect.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
Statement Many school buses have fitted CNG k it without observing the safety guidelines properly. This results into same instances of these buses catching fires due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of Action
The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses fitted with CNG kit.
The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for the use of CNG kit.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of the above
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursing.
Give answer as
(1) if only I follow.
(2) if only II follow.
(3) if either I or II follows.
(4) if neither I nor II follows.
(5) if both I and II follow.
Statement Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of Action
Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent informs for maintenance of vehicles.
Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.
Answer: (2)
Statement Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of Action
Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
Government should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.
Answer: (5)
Statement There has been a spurt of robbery and house breaking incidents in one locality during the past fortnight.
Courses of Action
The local police station personnel should start patrolling the locality at regular intervals.
The residents in the locality should be asked by the police authority not to leave their houses during the night.
Answer: (1)
Statement The local college principal has ordered that all the students must strictly adhere to the dress code stipulated by college authority in the admission brochure.
Courses of Action
Those students who are found to violate the dress code should be terminated from the college.
Those students who are found to violate the dress code for the first time should be reprimanded and the warned against further violation.
Answer: (2)
Statement The railway have decided to repair the main tracks within the city on the following Sunday and have decided to suspend operations for the whole day.
Courses of Action
The railway authority should issue public notification well in advance to case inconvenience to the passengers.
All the long-distance trains entering the city during the repair hours should be terminated outside the city limit.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor important and also may not be directly related to the question, or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
1. Statement Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power, plants in India?
Arguments
I. yes, this is the only way to arrest, further addition to environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence, g3eneration of electricity needs to be augmented.
III. No, many developed countries continues to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I s strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only III is strong
(5) Only either I or II is strong
Answer: (3)
2. Statement Should road repair work in big cities by carried out only late at night?
Arguments
I. No, this way the work will never get completed.
II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.
III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and III are strong
(5) Only I and II are strong
Answer: (1)
3. Statement Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the Central or State Universities in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence, the level of education is compromised.
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backset in these institutions.
(1) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III are strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
4. Statement Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water levels have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country, where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.
(1) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III are strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All, I II and III are strong
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
5. Statement Should there b e a restriction on the construction of high rise building in big cities in India?
Arguments
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infra structural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.
(1) Only II is strong
(2) Only III is strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) Only I is strong
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 8) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question, or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
6. Statement Should the Govt. order closure of all educational institutions for a month of avoid fast spreading of the contagious viral infection?
Arguments
I. No, the closure of education institutions alone is not the solution for curbing the spread of the viral infection.
II. No, students will visit crowded places like malls, markets, playgrounds etc in more numbers and spread the disease, as they will have a lot of spare time at their disposal.
III. Yes, young persons are more prone to get affected by the viral infection and hence, they should remain indoors.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) All I, II and III are strong
Answer: (3)
7. Statement Should the Govt. ban export of all types of foodgrains for the next one year to tide over the unpredicted drought situation in the country?
Arguments
I. Yes, there is no other way to provide food to its citizens during the year.
II. No, the Govt. does not have its jurisdiction over private exporters for banning exporters.
III. Yes, the Govt. should not allow the exporters to export foodgrains and procure all the foodgrains held by such exporters and make it available for home consumption.
(1) Only I and II are strong
(2) Only II and III are strong
(3) Only I and III are strong
(4) All I, II and III are strong
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
8. Statement Should there be a common syllabus for all subjects in graduate courses in all the universities across the country?
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to spring in uniformity in the education system in the country.
II. Yes, it will help standardize the quality of graduation certificates being given by different universities in the country?
III. No, each university should have the autonomy to decide its syllabus based on the specific requirement of the university.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I is strong
(3) Only II is strong
(4) Only I and II are strong
(5) Only II and III are strong
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 9 to 13) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments’. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the questions.
Each question be low is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the argument is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Give answer
(1) if only argument I is strong.
(2) if only argument II is strong.
(3) if either I or II is strong.
(4) if neither I nor II is strong.
(5) if both I and II are strong.
9. Statement Should there be only a uniform rate of income tax irrespective of the level of income.
Arguments
I. Yes, this will substantially reduce the work of the officials of the income tax department.
II. No, this will reduce the Govt. tax collection to a large extent.
Answer: (2)
10. Statement Should be number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year?
Argument
I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of the nation.
II. No, employees required intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.
Answer: (1)
11. Statement Should all correspondence courses at graduate level as be stopped?
Argument
I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to pursue studies and earn at the same time.
II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.
Answer: (5)
12. Statement Should he sex determination test during pregnancy be completely banned?
Arguments
I. Yes, this leads to indiscriminate female foeticide and eventually will lead to social imbalance.
II. No, people have a right to know about their unborn child.
Answer: (1)
13. Statement Should the parents in India in future be forced to opt for only one child as against two or many as present.
Argument
I. Yes, this is the only way to check the over-increasing population of India.
II. No, this type of pressure tactic is not adopted by any other country in the world.
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 9 to 13) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments’. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments many not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question.
Each question be low is followed by two arguments numbered I, II and III. You have to decide which of the argument is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
14. Statement Should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol by the actors be completely banned in the movies in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the trend of smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol among the youth in India.
II. No, there should be no such ban on the creative pursuits of the filmmaker.
III. No, the films portray the society and hence, such scenes should be an integral part of the movie, if the storyline demands so.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I and II are strong
(3) Only II and III are strong
(4) Only I and III are strong
(5) All are strong
Answer: (4)
15. Statement Should sale of vital human organs be made legal in India?
Arguments
I. No, it goes against our culture.
II. No, this will lead to unhealthy practices.
III. Yes, this will bring an end to the illegal trading of human organs.
(1) None is strong
(2) Only I and II are strong
(3) Only III is strong
(4) Only II and III are strong
(5) All are strong
Answer: (1)
16. Statement Should the conscription of citizens for deffence services be made compulsory in India?
Arguments
I. Yes, this is the only way to tackle the serious shortage of manpower in defence services.
II. No, instead the compensation package be made comparable to other job sectors to attract people to join defence services.
III. Yes, many other countries have made this compulsory.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 23) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer as
(1) if only assumption I is implicit
(2) if only assumption II is implicit
(3) if either assumption I or II is implicit
(4) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit
(5) if both assumptions I and II are implicit
1. Statement The driver of the huge truck pulled the emergency brakes to avoid hitting the auto-rickshaw, which suddenly came in front of the truck.
Assumption
I. The auto-rickshaw driver may be able to steer his vehicle away from the oncoming truck.
II. The truck driver may be able to stop the truck before it hits the auto rickshaw.
Answer: (5)
2. Statement The doctor warned the patient against any further consumption of alcohol if he desired to get cured from the ailment and live a longer life.
Assumption
I. The patient may follow the doctor’s advice and stop consuming alcohol.
II. The doctor may be able to cure the patient from the ailment if the patient stops consuming alcohol.
Answer: (5)
3. Statement The government has decided to distribute 3 kg of foodgrains to every family living below poverty line for the next three months at a nominal price of Rs 5 per kg.
Assumption
I. The govt. has enough stock to distribute foodgrains for the entire period.
II. Families living below poverty line may be able to afforded to buy foodgrains at Rs 5 per kg.
Answer: (5)
4. Statement The cricketing body decided to hold the final match of the tournament in the biggest stadium of the country which can accommodate above one lakh spectators.
Assumption
I. Most of the tickets may be sold resulting into huge income for the cricketing body.
II. Most of the spectators may prefer to watch the match on TV at their homes rather than going to the stadium.
Answer: (1)
5. Statement Manish invited all his friend to his house for dinner on his birthday and requested his mother to arrange for the birthday party.
Assumptions
I. Most of Manish’s friends may attend his birthday party.
II. Manish’s mother may be able to make all the arrangement including food for all his friends.
Answer: (5)
6. Statements The civic authority of the metropolis had decided to suspend sanctioning of new building proposals for six months and assess the impact of the current building projects on the city’s amenities.
Assumptions
I. The builders’ lobby may move the court against the civic body’s decision.
II. The civic authority may be able to complete the impact study in about six months.
Answer: (3)
7. Statement The railway authority has announced suspension of movements of train on the main track within the city limit for carrying out major repair works on Saturday and Sunday and advised the commuters to plan their journey accordingly.
Assumptions
I. The commuters may protest against the decision of the railway authority and may disrupt other transport services.
II. The municipal authority may be able to deploy additional buses during Saturday and Sunday to help the commuters.
Answer: (1)
8. Statement “If you are first-class graduate with good communication skills and also have work experience of at least two years in sales-related activities, you are welcome in our organization.” – An employment advertisement.
Assumption
I. Many with good communication skills may not respond to the advertisement.
II. All the first-class graduates may possess good communication skills.
Answer: (4)
9. Statement The municipal authority blocked movement of traffic in and around the temple on the main festival day.
Assumptions
I. Very large number of devotees may visit the temple on the main festival day.
II. People travelling to the areas near the temple may postpone their journey by a day unless they have very urgent work in that area.
Answer: (5)
10. Statement The government has instructed all the private schools in the city to maintain the current fees for at least two more years.
Assumptions
I. The authorities of private schools may not follow the govt. instruction as they are not dependent on govt funds.
II. The parents of the students of private schools of the city may still be eager to pay higher fees.
Answer: (4)
11. Statement The municipal authority has decided to demolish the old bridge on a bus road for constructing a new flyover.
Assumption
I. The traffic department may be able to divert movement of vehicles through alternate roads.
II. The people travelling in the nearly areas may demonstrate to protest against the authority’s decision.
Answer: (1)
12. Statement The college administration has instructed all the students to stop using cell phones within the college premises.
Assumptions
I. The students may stops using cell phones in the college premises.
II. The students may continue to use cell phones in the college premises.
Answer: (1)
13. Statement The Govt. had decided to levy congestion tax on passengers travelling by air to and from the metro cities.
Assumption
I. The tax so collected may be adequate to meet part of the expenses for providing additional resources to handle huge traffic.
II. Passengers travelling by air to and from these cities may be able to pay extra amount by way of congestion tax.
Answer: (5)
14. Statement Even though the number of sugar factories is increasing at a fast rate in India, we still continue to import it from other countries.
Assumption
I. Even the increased number of factories may not be able to meet the demand of sugar in India.
II. The demand for sugar may increase substantially in future.
Answer: (1)
15. Statement Gambling through lotteries is banned by the central government in all the states with immediate effect.
Assumption
I. This may save innocent citizens from getting cheated of their hard-earned money.
II. The citizens may not gamble in any other way in lotteries are banned.
Answer: (1)
16. Statement The school authority has decided to increase the number of students in each classroom to seventy from the next academic session to bridge the gap between income and expenditure to a larger extent.
Assumption
I. The income generated by way of fees of the additional students will be sufficient enough to bridge the gap.
II. The school will get all the additional students in each class from the next academic session.
Answer: (5)
17. Statement A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates to apply for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions
I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want o join a nationalized bank.
Answer: (5)
18. Statement The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within the city will e free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions
I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.
Answer: (1)
19. Statement “Our Europe holiday package costs less than some of the holiday packages within the country.” – An advertisement by an Indian travel company.
Assumption
I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the place within the country at comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.
Answer: (5)
20. Statement The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.
Assumption
I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II. The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.
Answer: (2)
21. Statement The Government has recently hiked the prices of diesel and petrol to reduce the oil pool deficit.
Assumptions
I. The amount earned by this increase m ay be substantial enough to reduce the deficit.
II. There may be wide spread protests against the price hike.
Answer: (5)
22. Statement The X passenger car manufacturing company announced a sharp reduction in the prices of their luxury cars.
Assumptions
I. There may be an increase in the sale of their luxury cars.
II. The other such car manufacturers may also reduce their prices.
Answer: (5)
23. Statement A foreign film producer rendered his apology before Indian society for misinterpreting a part of Indian epic.
Assumptions
I. Indians are very sensitive to the misinterpretation of their epic.
II. It is possible to derive wrong meaning from the epic.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank.
The candidate must
(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.
(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent m arks in post graduate degree/diploma in Management/Economics/Statistics
(iv) be at least 25 yr and not be more than 35 yr as on 1.3.2010
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 yr as General Banking Officer in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.
(vii) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in personal interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except
(A) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to VP Recruitment.
(B) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
In each question be low are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and m ark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.03.2010.
Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to VP Recruitment.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (5) if the candidate is not be selected.
1. Sohan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 per cent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past 3 yr after completing his post graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.
Answer: (1)
2. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past 3 yr after completing her post graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58 per cent marks in B. Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.
Answer: (4)
3. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past 4 yr after completing his post graduate diploma in Management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February 1975.
Answer: (5)
4. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past 2 yr after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent mark in personal interview.
Answer: (2)
5. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist office for the past 4 yr after completing her post, graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Trainee Officers in an organization.
The candidate must
(i) be a graduate in any discipline with at least 55 per cent marks.
(ii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in the XII Std. examination.
(iii) be at least 22 yr and not more than 29 yr as on 01.01.2010.
(iv) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection examination.
(v) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in the personal interview.
(vi) be ready to sign a bond for two yr.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions except
(A) at (i) above, but is a qualified Cost Accountant/Chartered Accountant, the case is to be referred to ED.
(B) at (v) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in the selection examination, the case is to be referred to Chairman.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.1.2010.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to ED.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Chairman.
Mark answer (5) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
6. Susan D’Souza has secured 62 per cent marks in XII Std. and 59 per cent marks in B.A. She was born on 15th July 1984. She has secured 50 per cent marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. She is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (1)
7. Archana Sahu was born on 8th May 1986. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both XII Std. and B.Sc. She is ready to sign bond for 2 yr. She has secured 40 per cent marks in the personal interview and 50 per cent in the selection examination.
Answer: (2)
8. Atul Garg was born on 2nd December 1980. He has secured 56 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 63 per cent marks in XII Std. He has also secured 55 per cent marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. He is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (2)
9. Meena Gogoi was born on 14th March 1985. She has secured 62 per cent marks in XII Std. and 65 per cent marks in the selection examination. She has also secured 58 per cent marks in graduation and 48 per cent marks in personal interview. She is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (4)
10. Sudhakar Bachi was born on 4th November 1982. He has secured 67 per cent marks in XII Std. and 50 per cent marks in graduation. He has also successfully qualified as Chartered Accountant. He has secured 50 per cent marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. He is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (3)
11. Ashok Pradhan has secured 56 per cent marks in graduation and 63 per cent marks in XII Std. He was born on 12th December 1986. He has secured 45 per cent marks in the selection examination and 55 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Answer: (5)
12. Antara Ghosh was born on 2nd December 1981. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both the selection examination and personal interview. She has secured 62 per cent marks in XII Std. and 57 per cent marks in B.Sc. She is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (1)
13. Navin Malhotra was born on 3rd August 1987. He has secured 68 per cent marks in XII Std. and 50 per cent marks in B.A. He has secured 50 per cent marks in personal interview and 40 per cent marks in the selection examination. He is a qualified Cost Accountant. He is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (3)
14. Abhinav Shukla has secured 70 per cent marks in XII Std. and 58 per cent marks in B.Com. He was born on 15th September 1984. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection examination and 52 per cent marks in the personal interview. He is ready to sign bond for 2 yr.
Answer: (1)
15. Suresh Das is ready to sign bond for 2 yr. He is first class graduate in Science. He has secured 50 per cent marks in personal interview and 40 per cent marks in the selection examination. He was born on 25th April 1982. He got 10 per cent more marks than his friend in XII Std.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input day 74 night 36 25 68 all for
Step I all day 74 night 36 25 68 for
Step II all 74 day night 36 25 68 for
Step III all 74 day 68 night 36 25 for
Step IV all 74 day 68 for night 36 25
Step V all 74 day 68 for 36 night 25
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
1. Step II of an input is car 73 18 25 wear 49 long for Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 18 25 wear49 long for car 73
(2) 73 18 car 25 wear 49 long for
(3) 18 73 25 car wear 49 long for
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
Answer: (4)
2. Input war 52 and peace 43 16 now 24
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
3. Step II of an input bond 86 goal 112 33 like high 46
Which of the following will be step VII?
(1) bond 86 goal 46 like 12 33 high
(2) bond 86 goal 46 high like 33 12
(3) bond 86 goal 46 high 33 like 12
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Answer: (3)
4. Step IV of an Input dear 63 few 51 16 29 yes now
How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
5. Input mind new 27 35 19 59 own tower
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(1) VI
(2) IV
(3) V
(4) VII
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input rose petal 29 32 86 goal 41 toll
Step I 29 rose petal 32 86 goal 41 toll
Step II 29 toll rose petal 32 86 goal 41
Step III 29 toll 32 rose petal 86 goal 41
Step IV 29 toll 32 rose 41 petal 86 goal
and step IV is the last step of the rearrangement.
6. Step III of an input is 15 yes 24 80 today never go 59
Which of the following will definitely be the input?
(1) 24 80 today never go 59 15 yes
(2) 24 80 today yes never go 59 15
(3) 24 15 yes 80 today never go 59
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
Answer: (4)
7. Input man 79 over 63 like 43 joy 15
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Eight
(4) Nine
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
8. Step III of an Input 18 tower 38 basket 82 76 hall new
Which of the following will be step VII?
(1) 18 tower 38 hall 76 new basket 82
(2) 18 tower 38 new 76 hall 82 basket
(3) 18 tower 38 hall 76 new 82 basket
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Answer: (2)
9. Input 94 join for 81 style home 32 48
Which of the following steps will be the last?
(1) VI
(2) V
(3) VII
(4) IX
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
10. Steep II of an Input 27 world go 57 48 stem 35 kite
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Six
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement?
Input 17 put show on 39 27 85 gold
Step I show 17 put on 39 27 85 gold
Step II show 85 17 put on 39 27 gold
Step III show 85 put 17 on 39 27 gold
Step IV show 85 put 39 17 on 27 gold
Step V show 85 but 39 on 17 27 gold
Step VI show 85 put 39 on 27 17 gold
Step VII show 85 put 39 on 27 gold 17
and step VII is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
11. Input glass full 15 37 water now 85 67
Which of the following will be step VI of the above input?
(1) water 85 now 67 full glass 15 37
(2) water 85 now 67 glass full 15 37
(3) water 85 now 67 glass 37 full 15
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Answer: (4)
12. Step II of an input is ultra 13 12 16 mail sort 39 kite Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(1) VIII
(2) IX
(3) VII
(4) VI
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
13. Step III of an input is win 75 voice 15 39 store gap 26
Which o f the following is definitely the input?
(1) voice 15 win 75 39 store gap 26
(2) voice win 75 15 39 store gap 26
(3) 15 75 win voice store gap 26
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
Answer: (4)
14. Step II of an input is tube 83 49 34 garden flower rat 56
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
15. Input hunt for 94 37 good 29 48 book
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Direction (Q. Nos. 16 to 21) A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
16. Input show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(1) VII
(2) VIII
(3) VI
(4) V
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
17. Input home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
Which of the following steps will be last?
(1) X
(2) IX
(3) VIII
(4) VII
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
18. Step II of an input is 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42.
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
19. Step IV of an input is 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot.
Which of the following steps will be the last?
(1) VII
(2) VI
(3) VIII
(4) IX
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
20. Step III of an input is 94 car 86 window shut 52 31house.
Which of the following is definitely the input?
(1) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
(2) 80 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
(3) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
Answer: (4)
21. Input by win task 52 38 43 door 12. Which of the following will be step IV?
(1) 52 buy 43 door 38 task 12 win
(2) 52 buy 43 door 38 task win 12
(3) 52 buy 43 door task win 38 12
(4) There will be no such step.
(5) None of the above
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 22 to 26) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input shop 17 table 20 53 oven desk 39
Step I 17 shop table 20 53 oven desk 39
Step II 17 table shop 20 53 oven desk 39
Step III 17 table 20 shop 53 oven desk 39
Step IV 17 table 20 shop 39 53 oven desk
Step V 17 table 20 shop 39 oven 53 desk
and step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
22. Input 89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy
How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
23. Step II of an input is 15 yes 62 51 48 talk now gone
Which of the following will be step VI?
(1) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now gone 62
(2) 15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
(3) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Answer: (3)
24. Step III of an input is 21 victory 30 joint 64 47 all gone
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
25. Input win 92 task 73 59 house range 34
Which of the following will be step IV of the above input?
(1) 34 win 59 task 72 range 92 house
(2) 34 win 92 59 task 73 house range
(3) 34 win 92 task 73 59 house range
(4) There will be no such step
(5) None of the above
Answer: (5)
26. Input save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 4) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
1. Who is to the immediate right of F?
(1) B
(2) G
(3) E
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
2. Who is third to the right of K?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) G
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
3. What is E’s position with respect to B?
(1) Second to the left
(2) Third to the right
(3) Fourth to the right
(4) Third to the left
(5) Fifth to the right
Answer: (4)
4. Who is fourth to the left of G?
(1) C
(2) A
(3) D
(4) K
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 5 to 9) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is second to the right of D who is third to the right of F. C is second to the left of A who is second to the left of F. G is third to the right of E.
5. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between the second and the third persons ?
(1) GCD
(2) FGH
(3) EFH
(4) ABE
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
6. Who is third to the right of H?
(1) G
(2) D
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
7. Who is the immediate right of A?
(1) B
(2) E
(3) F
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
8. What is H’s position with respect to B?
(1) Fifth to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Fifth to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Fourth to the left
Answer: (5)
9. Who is the immediate left of G?
(1) H
(2) F
(3) D
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 10 to 14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, Y and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. V is second to the left of P who is third to the left of Y. S is the fourth to the left of P. T is third to the right of Q who is to the immediate right of V. W is fourth to the right of Z.
10. Who is third to the left of S?
(1) Y
(2) W
(3) T
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
11. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
(1) VQ
(2) ZV
(3) SZ
(4) RS
(5) YT
Answer: (5)
12. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting in between the second and the third persons?
(1) RSZ
(2) YTW
(3) WPQ
(4) VZQ
(5) PQV
Answer: (4)
13. Who is third to the right of W?
(1) S
(2) R
(3) V
(4) Z
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (2)
14. Who is second to the right of Z?
(1) Q
(2) P
(3) W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 15 to 19) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W. T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is third to the right of R.
15. Who is second to the right of Q?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) T
(4) S
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
16. Who is to the immediate left of S?
(1) V
(2) T
(3) Q
(4) W
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
17. Who is to the immediate right of R?
(1) W
(2) T
(3) P
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
18. In which of the following groups is the first person sitting between the second and the third persons?
(1) RPQ
(2) TWS
(3) QPR
(4) QVS
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
19. Who is third to the left of V?
(1) T
(2) S
(3) W
(4) R
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 20 to 24) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is third to t he left of V who is second to the left of T. W is second to the right of P who is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is not an immediate neighbour of W.
20. Who is second to the right of R?
(1) T
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
21. Who is third to the left of P?
(1) S
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
22. Who is third to the right of Q?
(1) T
(2) P
(3) S
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
23. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
(1) PR
(2) PT
(3) RW
(4) QV
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
24. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of R?
(1) PT
(2) PQ
(3) WT
(4) PW
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 25 to 27) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, D, P, K, R, T and W are around a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. T is third to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of D. M is third to the left of R.
25. Who is second to the right of T?
(1) D
(2) K
(3) M
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
26. In which of the following pairs is second person sitting to the immediate right of the first person?
(1) DT
(2) TP
(3) PR
(4) KW
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
27. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(1) W
(2) P
(3) K
(4) T
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 28 to 32) Study the following information carefully and answer these questions
Ashwini, Priya, Sudha, Rani, Meeta, Geeta and Mukta are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Ashwini is third to the left of Mukta and to the immediate right of Rani. Priya is second to the left of Geeta who is not an immediate neighbour of Meeta.
28. Who is the immediate right o f Priya?
(1) Meeta
(2) Sudha
(3) Mukta
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
29. Who is second to the left of Rani?
(1) Ashwini
(2) Meeta
(3) Priya
(4) Sudha
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
30. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate left of second person?
(1) Rani-Meeta
(2) Ashwini-Geeta
(3) Sudha-Priya
(4) Geeta-Sudha
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
31. Which of the following groups has the first person sitting between the other two?
(1) Meet-Ashwini-Geeta
(2) Sudha-Rani-Geeta
(3) Mukta-Priya-Rani
(4) Mukta-Priya-Sudha
(5) None of the above
Answer: (2)
32. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani with respect to Mukta?
1. Nikhil walked 30 m towards East took a left turn and walked 20 m. He again took a left turn and walked 30 m. How far and in which direction is the from his starting point?
(1) 20 m North
(2) 80 m North
(3) 20 m South
(4) 80 m South
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (1)
2. Mohan walked 30 m towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 m. He then took a right turn and walked 20 m. He again took a right turn and walked 15 m. How far is he from the starting point?
(1) 95 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 70 m
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
3. Given problem consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer (1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to anser the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) If the data given in both the Statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Town P towards which direction of Town K?
I. Town T is towards South of town K which is towards West of town P.
II. Town R is towards South of town V and towards East of town T.
Answer: (1)
4. Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn followed by a left turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If the walks 5 km before taking each turn, towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point S to reach point Q?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) West
(4) East
(5) North-East
Answer: (1)
5. Town D is to the West of town M. Town R is to the South of town D. Town K is to the East of town R. Town K is towards which direction of town D?
(1) South
(2) East
(3) North-East
(4) South-East
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 7) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and given answer.
(1) If data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(4) If the data in both the Statements I and II even together is not sufficient o answer the question.
(5) If both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
6. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y?
I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point X and point Y.
II. Walking 5 km to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 km before each turn leads to point Y.
Answer: (2)
7. Tower P is in which direction with respect to tower Q?
I. P is to the West of H, which is to the South of Q.
II. F is to the West of Q and to the North of P.
Answer: (3)
8. Vikas walked 10 m towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 m and again took a left turn and walked 10 m and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking?
(1) South
(2) South-West
(3) South-East
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
Directions (Q. Nos. 9 to 10) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 km towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 km. It now runs 6 km after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 km and stops at point Q.
9. How far is point Q with respect to point P?
(1) 16 km
(2) 25 km
(3) 4 km
(4) 0 km
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
10. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q?
(1) North
(2) East
(3) South
(4) West
(5) North-West
Answer: (4)
11. Suresh started walking straight facing East. After walking a distance of 20 m, he took a right turn, again after walking 10 m, he took a left turn and again after walking 10 m, he took a left turn. Which direction is he facing now?
(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) North-West
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 12 to 13) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer
(1) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) If the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(4) If the data given in both the Statements I and II even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
12. Village R is towards which direction of village M?
I. Village M is to the West of village T, which is to the South of village R,
II. Village M is to the South of village B, which is to the West of village R.
Answer: (3)
13. Pillar X is in which direction with respect to pillar Y?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They study in Std. VI, VII and VIII with not more than three in any Std. Each of them in a favourite subject from Physics, Geography, English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and Economics not necessarily in the same order.
D likes Chemistry and studies in Std. VIII with only H. B does not study in Std. VII. E and A study in the same Std. but not with B. C and F study in the same Std. Those who study in Std. VI do not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who studies in Std. VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A’s favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology.
1. Which subject does H like?
(1) English
(2) Marathi
(3) Science
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
2. What is G’s favourite subject?
(1) Biology
(2) Physics
(3) Marathi
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
3. What is C’s favourite subject?
(1) Economics
(2) Biology
(3) English
(4) Geography
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (1)
4. Which of the following combinations of student Std.- Subject is correct?
(1) C – VII – Economics
(2) D – VI – Chemistry
(3) G – VII – Physics
(4) B – VIII – Mathematics
(5) None is correct
Answer: (5)
5. Which of the following group of students study in VII Std. ?
(1) EAF
(2) EGC
(3) EAG
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 6 to 10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight persons working in three different departments viz. Operations, Sales and Finance of an organization with atleast two and not more than three in any department. They are in three different scales viz. I, II and III with atleast two in an one scale.
Both the employees in Operations department are in scale II. D works in Sales department and belongs to scale I. A works in Finance department and does not belong to scale I. Two employees in Sales department belong to one scale. F works with only H in one of the department. C works with E in one of the department. B does not work with either C or A in the same department. G does not belong to scale III. E does not belong to scale I.
6. G belongs to which scale?
(1) II
(2) III
(3) I
(4) I or II
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
7. H belongs to which scale?
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
8. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(1) Operation – F – I
(2) Operation – H – III
(3) Sales – B – II
(4) Finance – E – III
(5) All are correct
Answer: (4)
9. C belongs to which scale?
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) I or II
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
10. Which of the following groups of employees work in sales department?
(1) DBE
(2) DBC
(3) DBG
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 11 to 15) Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics, Chemistry, English, Biology, History, Geography and Philosophy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also has a favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball, Badminton, Table-Tennis and Basketball, no necessarily in the same order.
R likes Philosophy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football likes English. T’s favourite sport is not Badminton or Table-Tennis. V does not like either History or Biology The one whose favourite sport is Basketball does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his favourite sport is Volleyball. S likes Geography. Q’s favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and his favourite sport is not Basketball. P’s favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is Badminton does not like Biology.
11. Which subject does P like?
(1) History
(2) Biology
(3) Chemistry
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
12. Who likes History?
(1) P
(2) R
(3) Q
(4) V
(5) Data inadequate
Answer: (3)
13. What is Q’s favourite sport?
(1) Cricket
(2) Table-Tennis
(3) Football
(4) Badminton
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
14. Whose favourite sport is Basketball?
(1) S
(2) W
(3) Q
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
15. Which subject does T like?
(1) Biology
(2) Physics
(3) Chemistry
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 16 to 20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a Call-centre. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with atleast two of them in each shift.
R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
16. Which of the following is W’s day off?
(1) Tuesday
(2) Monday
(3) Saturday
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
17. Which of the following is R’s off?
(1) Friday
(2) Thursday
(3) Tuesday
(4) Wednesday
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
18. Which of the following group of friends work in Shift II?
(1) RP
(2) RV
(3) QWS
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
19. Which of the following is Q’s day off?
(1) Friday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Monday
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
20. Which of the following group of friends work in shift I?
(1) RV
(2) RP
(3) QWS
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 21 to 25) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a sports club and have liking for different games, viz Carrom, Table-Tennis, Badminton, Bridge, Hockey, Football and Lawn-Tennis but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them has a liking for different musical instruments. viz Sitar, Guitar, Harmonium, Flute, Tabla, Banjo and Santoor, not necessarily in the same order.
B likes Carrom and Banjo. E likes to play Bridge but not Harmonium or Tabla. The one who plays Hockey plays Sitar. F plays Guitar but not Table-Tennis or Lawn-Tennis. A plays Badminton and Flute. The one who plays Lawn-Tennis does not play Tabla. C plays Harmonium and G plays Hockey.
21. Who plays Santoor?
(1) D
(2) A
(3) E
(4) D or E
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
22. D plays which game?
(1) Table-Tennis
(2) Lawn-Tennis
(3) Football
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
23. Which of the following combinations of game-person-musical instrument is definitely correct?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 10) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects o independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(1) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(2) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(3) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(4) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(5) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
1. (A) Majority of the students of the school passed in Mathematics in the annual examination.
(B) Majority of the students of the school failed in English in the annual examination.
Answer: (3)
2. (A) The municipal authority advised all the schools in the city to close down for the next two days.
(B) A huge storm is likely to hit the city during the next two days.
Answer: (2)
3. (A) The residents reported of increased criminal activities init he area to the local police station.
(B) Many criminals were arrested by searching the residence of the suspected individuals.
Answer: (1)
4. (A) Government has awarded a high-stake reward scheme for such persons as may provide any information about the suspect.
(B) Four members of a family were brutally murdered by unidentified gunmen.
Answer: (2)
5. (A) There has been a continuous increase in average temperature during winter in many parts of the country over the past few years.
(B) There has been significant changes in the wind pattern across the country over the last few years.
Answer: (2)
6. (A) The conditions of all the major roads in the city have deteriorated causing hardship to motorists.
(B) The municipal authority has sanctioned significant amount to repair all the major roads in the city.
Answer: (1)
7. (A) The BPO sector has laid off a large number of employees in the recent months.
(B) Very few project are now being outsourced to BPO sector.
Answer: (2)
8. (A) The municipal authority decided to carry out repair work of the pipeline under the main arterial road of the city.
(B) Vehicular movement has been diverted through alternate roads for a period of fifteen days.
Answer: (1)
9. (A) There is a significant drop in the number of people travelling by air during the last quarter.
(B) There is a significant drop in the number of people travelling by long-distance trains during the last quarter.
Answer: (5)
10. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by private vehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children’s led to deaths of a few and injuries for many children’s.
1. Mohit correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is not after 18th of April. His sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before 20th but after 17th of April. On which day in April was definitely their father’s birthday?
(1) 17th
(2) 19th
(3) 18th
(4) 17th or 18th
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 2 to 4) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below
2. Which of the following represents the sum of the first two digits of the highest number ?
(1) 7
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 13
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
3. If the positions of the 1st and the 2nd digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the 3rd digit of the 2nd lowest number?
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 2
(5) 5
Answer: (2)
4. If the positions of the 1st and the 3rd digits of each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the middle digit of the 3rd highest number ?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 9
(5) 7
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 5 to 10) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
5. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by a number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Answer: (2)
6. Which of the following is the 10th to the right of the 19th from right end of the above arrangement?
(1) M
(2) T
(3) #
(4) 2
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
7. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the 14th from the left end?
(1) R
(2) Q
(3) U
(4) 3
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
8. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
JEM 591 RU3 ?
(1) 7AB
(2) 7AT
(3) ⋆78
(4) ABV
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
9. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by number and immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
Answer: (4)
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
11. Seema correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st October and before 27th October. Her colleague Rita took leave on 23rd. October but Seema was present on that day. If 24th October was a public holiday and 26th October was Sunday, on which day in October did Seema take leave ?
(1) 22nd October
(2) 25th October
(3) 22nd or 25th October
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 12 to 14) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below
813 479 564 385 792
12. If the positions of the 1st and 2nd digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(1) 813
(2) 479
(3) 564
(4) 385
(5) 792
Answer: (1)
13. Which of the following is the 2nd digit of the 2nd lowest number ?
(1) 1
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 8
(5) 9
Answer: (2)
14. Which of the following is the sum of the 1st and the 3rd digits of the 2nd highest number?
(1) 11
(2) 13
(3) 9
(4) 8
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
15. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different weight, R is heavier than S but lighter than T. P is lighter than S. Who among them is the heaviest ?
(1) T
(2) Q
(3) T or Q
(4) Data Inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
16. It was 9 : 35 am in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bust stop at 9 : 25 am Reena’s watch is 5 min fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 min. For how long must Rakhi wait to catch the next bus ?
(1) 5 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 15 min
(4) 25 min
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
17. In a row of thirty boys, R is 4th from the right end and W is 10th from the left end. How many boys are there between R and W ?
(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
18. Nitin correctly remembers that Nidhi’s birthday is before Friday but after Tuesday. Deepak correctly remembers that Nidhi’s birthday is after Wednesday but before Saturday. On which of the following days does Nidhi’s birthday definitely fall ?
(1) Monday
(2) Tuesday
(3) Wednesday
(4) Thursday
(5) Cannot be determined
Answer: (4)
19. Among six friends L, M, N, P, Q and S, each having a different height, N is shorter than Q and P but taller than M. S is shorter than only L. Which of the following represents the tallest among six friends ?
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) L
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 20 to 22) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below
519 378 436 624 893
20. If the positions of the 1st and the 3rd digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the 2nd smallest number?
(1) 519
(2) 378
(3) 436
(4) 624
(5) 893
Answer: (4)
21. If ‘1’ is subtracted from the 1st digit in each number and ‘1’ is added to the 2nd digit in each number, which will be the 3rd digit of the 2nd highest number?
(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 4
(5) 3
Answer: (4)
22. If the positions of the 1st and the 2nd digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 2) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
(i) ‘P × Q’ means P is the mother of Q’.
(ii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
(iii) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
1. Which of the following means ‘M is niece of R?
(1) M – T ÷ J – R
(2) T ÷ M – K
(3) R – T ÷ M – K
(4) R + T ÷ M + K
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
2. Which of the following means ‘J is paternal grandfather of W’?
(1) W ÷ T ÷ J
(2) J ÷ T × W
(3) J × T × W
(4) J × T ÷ W
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 3 to 4) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below
(i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
(iii) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
(iv) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
3. Which of the following represents ‘W is grandfather of H’?
(1) W + T – H
(2) W ÷ T – H
(3) W × T + H
(4) W ÷ T + H
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
4. Which of the following represents ‘M is nephew of R’?
(1) M ÷ T – R
(2) R ÷ T – M
(3) R × T + M × J
(4) R ÷ T – M ÷ J
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
5. If ‘A × D’ means ‘A is the sister of D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter of A’ and ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of D’, then how will N is the aunt of M be denoted ?
(1) M + L × N
(2) M ÷ L + N
(3) L × N ÷ M
(4) N × L ÷ M
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
6. Pointing to a girl, Subodh said, ‘She is the daughter of my mother’s only brother’. How is Subodh related to the girl?
(1) Cousin brother
(2) Maternal uncle
(3) Brother
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
7. Pointing to a woman, Nirmal said, ‘She is the daughter of my wife’s grand-father’s only child’. How is the woman related to Nirmal?
(1) Wife
(2) Sister-in-law
(3) Sister
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
8. Pointing to a girl, Arun said, ‘She is the only daughter of my grandfather’s son.’ How is the girl related to Arun ?
(1) Daughter
(2) Sister
(3) Cousin sister
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
9. K is brother of T. M is mother of K. W is brother of M. How is W related to T ?
(1) Maternal uncle
(2) Paternal uncle
(3) Grandfather
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
10. M is sister of K. D is brother of K. F is mother of M. How is K related to F?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Son or daughter
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
11. D is brother of B. M is mother of B. K is father of M. T is wife of K. How is B related to T ?
(1) Son
(2) Daughter
(3) Son or daughter
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 12 to 14) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions each follow
(i) ‘P ×Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
(ii) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the brother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’.
12. How is T related to S in the expression T × R + V ÷S ?
(1) Sister
(2) Mother
(3) Aunt
(4) Uncle
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
13. How is T related to S in the expression T × R ÷ V – S ?
(1) Father
(2) Sister
(3) Daughter
(4) Aunt
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
14. How is S related to T in the expression T + R – V + S ?
(1) Uncle
(2) Nephew
(3) Son
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 15 to 17) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
(i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’.
(ii) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’.
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’.
15. In H + I ÷, how is L related to H ?
(1) Brother
(2) Sister
(3) Cousin
(4) Brother or Sister
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
16. Which of the following represents ‘S is mother of T’ ?
(1) S × M ÷H – T
(2) S × M + H – T
(3) M × S ÷ H – T
(4) M × S ÷ H + T
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
17. In J – F + R × B, how is R related to J ?
(1) Father
(2) Mother
(3) Paternal Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
18. Nandani is the only daughter of Madan’s sister Sangita’s brother. How is Nandini related to Madan ?
(1) Daughter
(2) Niece
(3) Cousin
(4) Niece or Daughter
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
19. Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sunita said, ‘She is the mother of Renu, whose father is my son.’ How is Sunita related to that girl in the picture ?
(1) Mother
(2) Aunt
(3) Cousin
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
20. P’s father is Q’s son. M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How is N related to M ?
(1) Brother
(2) Nephew
(3) Cousin
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
21. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
1. In a certain code, ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘5% 3# 42’ and ‘ARM’ is written as ‘% @ 9’. How is ‘TERM’ written in that code?
(1) 23@9
(2) 249@
(3) 42@9
(4) 24@9
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
2. In a certain code, ‘Down’ is written as ‘5@9#’ and ‘NAME’ is written as ‘# 6 % 3’. How is ‘MODE’ written in that code?
(1) %653
(2) %@63
(3) %5@3
(4) %@53
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
3. How is ‘sure’ written in a code language?
I. ‘he is sure’ is written as ‘ja ha ma’ in that code language.
II. ‘is she sure’ is written as ‘ka ja ma’ in that code language.
(1) ja
(2) ja or ma
(3) ma
(4) ha
(5) ka
Answer: (2)
4. In a certain code language, ‘how many are there’ is written as ‘ka na ta da’ and ‘many are welcome here’ is written as ‘na pi ni ka’. How is ‘how’ written in that code language?
(1) ta
(2) da
(3) ta or da
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
5. In a certain code, ‘BUILDER’ is written as ‘JVCKSFE’. How is ‘SEALING’ written in that code?
Directions (Q. Nos. 7 to 11) In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits | symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, based on the following coding system and the conditions tht follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) ie, ‘None of these’ as your answer.
12. In a certain code, ‘ARCHIVE’ is written as ‘DSBGFWJ’. How is ‘SYSTEMS’ written in that code?
(1) TZTSTNF
(2) TZTUTNF
(3) TZTSFNT
(4) RXRSTNF
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
13. In a certain code, ‘THRIVES’ is written as SIUHRDU. How is ‘SOULFUL’ written in the code?
(1) VPTKKTE
(2) VPTKETK
(3) TPVKKTE
(4) TNRKMVG
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
14. In a certain code language ‘Monday’ is a holiday’ is written as ‘sa da pa na’ and ‘they enjoy a holiday’ is written as ‘da na ta ka’. How is ‘Monday’ written in that code language?
(1) sa
(2) pa
(3) sa or pa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
Directions (Q. Nos. 15 to 19) In each question below is a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of the at combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (5) ie, ‘None of these’ as your answer.
21. In a certain code, ‘SOLDIER’ is written as ‘JFSCRNK’. How is ‘GENIOUS’ written in that code?
(1) PVTHFO
(2) PVTHFDM
(3) PVTHMDF
(4) TVPHFDM
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
22. If blue means green, green means black, black means white, white means pink, pink means red and red means orange, then what is the colour of blood?
(1) Red
(2) Black
(3) White
(4) Pink
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
23. In a certain code, ‘CORDIAL’ is written as ‘SPDCMBJ’. How is ‘SOMEDAY’ written in that code?
(1) NPTDEBZ
(2) NPTFFZBE
(3) TPNDZBE
(4) NPTDZBE
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
24. In a certain code language, ‘food is good’ is written as ‘ho na ta’, ‘eat food regularly’ is written as ‘sa ta la’ and ‘keep good health’ is written as ‘da na ja’. How is ‘eat’ written in that code language?
(1) sa
(2) la
(3) sa or la
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
25. In a certain code, ‘DESPAIR’ is written as ‘TFEQSJB’. How is ‘NUMERAL’ written in that code?
(1) DVNFMBS
(2) NVOFSBN
(3) NVOMFBS
(4) NVOFMBS
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
26. If ‘yellow’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘green’ and ‘green’ is called ‘violet’, what is the colour of clear sky?
(1) Green
(2) Violet
(3) Yellow
(4) Red
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
27. In a certain code, ‘GEAR’ is written as ‘5% 9 $’ and ‘FIRM’ is written as ‘3@$7’. How is ‘FAME’ written in that code?
(1) 397%
(2) 3%97
(3) 597%
(4) 5397
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
28. In a certain code, ‘MODEL’ is written as ‘513# 2’ and ‘DEAR’ is written as ‘3 # % 8’. How is ‘LOAD’ written in that code?
(1) 21 % 3
(2) 23 % 1
(3) 25 % 3
(4) 21 # 3
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
29. In a certain code, ‘CURATIVE’ is written as ‘BSVDDUHS’. How is ‘STEAMING’ written in that code?
(1) BFUTFMHL
(2) TUFBFMHL
(3) BFUTLHMF
(4) BFUTHOJN
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
30. In a certain code language, ‘when did you come’ is written as ‘ti na ki ja’, ‘will you come again’ is written as, ‘na pa sa ja’ and ‘she will go’ is written as ‘pa do ra’. How is ‘again’ written in that code language?
(1) na
(2) sa
(3) na or sa
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
31. In a certain code, ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code?
(1) HAF$
(2) AFH$
(3) ADF$
(4) BHF$
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
32. Which of the following will be the changed form of the word ‘OBLIQUE’, when the word is written again by substituting each vowel by the 2nd letter following it in English alphabet and each consonant is substituted by the 3rd letter following it in the English alphabet?
(1) M E D G T S D
(2) R D N L S X H
(3) Q E O K T X G
(4) Q E O K T W G
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 33 to37) In each question below is given a group of six letters followed by four combinations of digits and symbols numbered (1),(2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and the conditions those follow. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give (5) ie, ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letters P U J K A T R D E W
Digits/Codes 1 6 0 5 9 2 8 7 3 4
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a Consonant and the last letter is a Vowel both are to be coded as $.
(ii) If the first letter is a Vowel and the last letter is a Consonant both are to be coded as #.
1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sand
(2) Cement
(3) Building
(4) Wood
(5) Bricks
Answer: (3)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Black
(2) Yellow
(3) Red
(4) Green
(5) Violet
Answer: (1)
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Nephew
(2) Cousin
(3) Mother
(4) Brother
(5) Sister
Answer: (2)
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 35
(2) 80
(3) 45
(4) 60
(5) 75
Answer: (1)
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Cup
(2) Jug
(3) Tumbler
(4) Plate
(5) Pitcher
Answer: (4)
6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Copper
(2) Mercury
(3) Iron
(4) Aluminium
(5) Zinc
Answer: (2)
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 12
(2) 28
(3) 52
(4) 68
(5) 96
Answer: (5)
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 217
(2) 143
(3) 241
(4) 157
(5) 181
Answer: (2)
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Plastic
(2) Nylon
(3) Polythene
(4) Terylene
(5) Silk
Answer: (5)
10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Guitar
(2) Violin
(3) Flute
(4) Veena
(5) Sitar
Answer: (3)
11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so farm a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) RU
(2) BE
(3) FI
(4) AD
(5) IM
Answer: (5)
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 28
(2) 56
(3) 175
(4) 112
(5) 63
Answer: (2)
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) 78
(2) 48
(3) 72
(4) 54
(5) 42
Answer: (1)
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Sweet
(2) Cake
(3) Pastry
(4) Bread
(5) Biscuit
Answer: (1)
Directions : (Q. Nos. 15 to 30) In each of the following questions, five numbers are given out of these, four are alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Choose the one which is different from the rest four.
Directions (Q. Nos. 1 to 21) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three or four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically flows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Statements Some pencils are windows. All windows are roads. Some roads are cups. All cups are chains.
Conclusions I. Some chains are pencils.
II. Some cups are pencils.
III. Some chains are windows.
IV. Some roads are pencils.
(1) None follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only IV follows
(4) Only III and IV follow
(5) Only III follows
Answer: (3)
2. Statements Some beds are mirrors. Some mirrors are dolls. Some dolls are cheques. Some cheques are pins.
Conclusions I. Some pins are dolls.
II. Some cheques are beds.
III. Some cheques are mirrors.
IV. Some dolls are beds.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows
Answer: (1)
3. Statements All chocolates are holders. No holder is lamp. Some lamps are desks. All desks are pens.
Conclusions I. Some pens are holders.
II. Some desks are lamps.
III. No pen is holder.
IV. Some pens are chocolates
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or III follows
(5) Only either I or III and II follow
Answer: (5)
4. Statements All glasses are rooms, Some rooms are planes. All planes are ducks. Some ducks are lanterns.
Conclusions I. Some lanterns are planes.
II. Some ducks are rooms.
III. Some rooms are glasses.
IV. Some ducks are glasses.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I, II and III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
5. Statements Some chairs are tents. Some tents are jugs. All jugs are glasses. All glasses are pots.
Conclusions I. Some pots are tents.
II. Some pots are chairs.
III. Some glasses are chairs.
IV. Some glasses are tents.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) Only I and IV follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
6. Statements All cheques are notes. All notes are tyres. All tyres are books. All books are rods.
Conclusions I. Some rods are notes.
II. Some books are tyres.
III. Some tyres are cheques.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All I follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (4)
7. Statements Some pens are tables. All tables are umbrellas. Some umbrellas are sticks. All sticks are caps.
Conclusions I. Some caps are umbrellas.
II. Some umbrellas are pens.
III. Some sticks are pens.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (1)
8. Statements Some beads are rings. Some rings are bangles. All bangles are clothes. All clothes are boxes.
Conclusions I. Some boxes are bangles.
II. Some clothes are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
Answer: (5)
9. Statements All desks are pillars. All pillars are circles. Some circles are squares. Some squares are rectangles.
Conclusions I. Some rectangles are pillars.
II. Some circles are desks.
III. Some squares are desks.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only II follows
(5) Only I and II follow
Answer: (3)
10. Statements Some tyres are ropes. Some ropes are tents. Some tents are walls. Some walls are buildings.
Conclusions I. Some buildings are ropes.
II. Some walls are ropes.
III. Some tents are tyres.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
Answer: (1)
11. Statements All chairs are fires. Some fires are winds. All winds are nets. Some nets are clocks.
Conclusions I. Some clocks are winds.
II. Some nets are fires.
III. Some winds are chairs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
Answer: (3)
12. Statements All papers are clips. Some clips are boards. Some boards are lanes. All lanes are roads.
Conclusions I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips.
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only I, II and III follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
13. Statements Some pencils are kits. Some kites are desks. All desks are jungles. All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites.
(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only III and IV follow
(4) Only II, III and IV follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (3)
14. Statements All stones hammers. No hammer is ring. Some rings are doors. All doors are windows.
Conclusions I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings.
III. No window is stone.
IV. Some rings are stones.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only either I or III follows
(5) Only either I or III and II follow
Answer: (5)
15. Statements All houses are windows.
All roads are windows. All toys are windows.
Conclusions I. Some toys are houses.
II. Some roads are houses.
III. Some roads are toys.
(1) All follow
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (5)
16. Statements All chairs are fruits.
No fruit is nail. Some nails are hammers.
Conclusions I. Some hammers are fruits.
II. Some nails are fruits.
III. Some fruits are chairs.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Answer: (2)
17. Statements Some chairs are pens.
All pens are books.
Some books are walls.
Conclusions I. Some walls are pens.
II. Some books are chairs.
III. Some walls are chairs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only II and III follow
Answer: (3)
18. Statements Some bags are plates.
Some plates are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
Conclusions I. Some tables are plates.
II. Some chairs are bags.
III. No chair is bag.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only either II or III follows
(3) Only I and either II or III follow
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of the above
Answer: (3)
19. Statements All desks are rooms.
Some rooms are halls.
All halls are leaves.
Conclusions I. Some leaves are desks.
II. Some halls are desks.
III. Some leaves are rooms.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only II and III follow
Answer: (4)
20. Statements Some days are nights.
Some nights are weeks.
All weeks are months.
All months are years.
Conclusions I. Some years are nights.
II. Some years are days.
III. Some months are nights.
IV. Some years are weeks.
(1) Only I, II and III follow
(2) Only I, III and IV follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of the above
Answer: (2)
21. Statements All bulbs are wires.
No wires is cable.
Some cables are brushes.
All brushes are paints.
Conclusions I. Some paints are cables.
II. Some wires are bulbs.
III. Some brushes are wires.
IV. ome cables are bulbs.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) Only IV follows
Answer: (2)
Directions (Q. Nos. 22 to 24) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(1) if only conclusions I follows
(2) if only conclusion II follows
(3) if either conclusion I or II follows
(4) if neither conclusions I nor II follows
(5) if both conclusions I and II follow
22. Statements All benches are cats.
No cat is lamp.
Some lamps are candle.
Conclusions I. Some cats are benches.
II. Some candles are cats.
Answer: (1)
23. Statements Some cats are dogs.
All dogs are goats.
All goats are walls.
Conclusions I. Some walls are dogs.
II. Some walls are cats.
Answer: (5)
24. Statements All rats are bats.
Some bats are desks.
All desks are chairs.
Conclusions I. Some desks are rats.
II. Some chairs are rats.
Answer: (4)
Directions (Q. Nos. 25 to 26) In each of the questions below are given three four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
