UGC NET Exam January 2017 Women’s Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

WOMEN’S STUDIES

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which one of the following Universities first started a course on Women’s Studies ?

(1) San Diego State University

(2) Cornell University

(3) S.N.D.T. University

(4) Oxford University

Answer: (2)

2. Gender sensitive curriculum refers to that type of curriculum which

(1) has separate provision for women students.

(2) excludes Boys not to learn gender issues.

(3) attempts to challenge the gender stereotypes.

(4) includes only women’s issues.

Answer: (3)

3. Dual systems feminism suggests that women’s oppression is linked to a mixture of which of the following ?

(1) Gender and Sex

(2) Capitalism and Biology

(3) Culture and Patriarchy

(4) Capitalism and Patriarchy

Answer: (4)

4. Which of the feminist ideology attempts to revalidate ‘female nature or female essence’ ?

(1) Radical feminism

(2) Liberal feminism

(3) Cultural feminism

(4) Subaltern feminism

Answer: (3)

5. Who coined the slogan “The personal is Political, “Which became synonymous with the Second Wave Feminism ?

(1) Gamal Abdel Nasser

(2) Simon de Beauvoir

(3) Carol Hanisch

(4) Susan B. Anthony

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following variable is most critical for those who focus on gender oppression theory ?

(1) Power

(2) Money

(3) Mothering

(4) Culture

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following women have featured in the postage stamp issued by US to commemorate the centennial celebrations of Seneccafalls convention.

I. Elizabeth Cady Stanton

II. Carrie Chapman Catt

III. Lucretia Mott

IV. Frederick Douglass

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) I, II and III are correct.

(4) I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

8. Which one of the following feminist theorists said, regarding human growth and development, “Women organize their sense identity, find existential meaning, achieve a sense of coherence and continuity, and are motivated in the context of a relationship.”  

(1) Carol Gilligan

(2) J.V. Jordan and J.L. Surrey

(3) Elizabeth Cady and Susan B. Anthony

(4) Alison M. Jaggar

Answer: (2)

9. Which of the following perspectives acknowledges that women experience oppression in the variety of ways according to class, race, ethnicity, religion and sexual preference ?

(1) Cultural materialism

(2) Intersectionality theory

(3) Socialist feminism

(4) Liberal feminism

Answer: (2)

10. Which is included in the concept of ‘Culture’ ?

I. House of mud

II. Clothes

III. Democracy

IV. Furniture

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV

(2) III only

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, II

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following is not an exposure of androcentric bias in the academic discipline of Women’s Studies ?

(1) Using the image of man for humanbeings.

(2) Regarding the experience of men as more important.

(3) Women are not given the chance to build theories or create knowledge.

(4) Considering what applies to females as equally applicable to males.

Answer: (4)

12. Which of the following is not an action proposed by radical feminism as a means to defeat patriarchy ?

I. Women coming to recognise their own values and strengths.

II. Women uniting across their differences and forming a sisterhood of trust.

III. Women withdrawing from female networks in the workplace.

IV. Women uniting across classes to overthrown the capitalist system.

Codes :

(1) I is correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) IV is correct

(4) I, II and IV are correct

Answer: (2)

13. Who said the following ?

“Educate your women first and leave them to themselves, then they will tell you what reforms are necessary for them”.

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Swami Vivekananda

(3) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(4) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (2)

14. Which of the following statements is an example of the Ascribed status ?

I. Person born in a wealthy family.

II. Gender of the person.

III. Caste and creed of a person.

IV. Person born in a educated family.

Codes :

(1) I is correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) I and IV are correct.

(4) I, II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

15. Post-modern feminists believe that

I. Knowledge is completely objective.

II. It is possible to deconstruct gender.

III. Social Scientists have the authority to define social reality for everyone.

IV. Essentialist and Universal Categories liberate people.

Code :

(1) I is correct.

(2) I, II and III are correct.

(3) I, II and IV are correct.

(4) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (All)

16. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ? 

(1) “Of Woman Born : Motherhood as Experience and Institution” – Adrienne Rich

(2) “The Dialectic of Sex” – Shulamith Firestone

(3) “The Origin of the Family, Private Property and State” – Karl Marx

(4) “Feminist Politics and Human Nature” – Alison Jaggar

Answer: (3)

17. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (3)

18. Which one of the International Conferences brought together the values and ideas of 1500 women from the North and the South and recognized women’s integral role in environmental Management and outlined ways to achieve a sustainable world with the help of women. 

(1) Beijing Conference

(2) Rio-de-Janerio Conference

(3) Stockholm Conference

(4) Paris Agreement

Answer: (2)

19. Which of the following are the component indicators of “The Global Hunger Index” ?

I. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from Vitamin A deficiency.

II. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from wasting.

III. The proportion of children under the age of five suffering from stunting.

IV. The mortality rate of children under the age of five.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I, II and III are correct.

(3) I and IV are correct.

(4) II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

20. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (2)

21. Among the following feminists who believed that the biologists, psychologists and Marxists have to say about the causes and reasons for woman’s condition, but none of them truly explain, why women not man is the other.

(1) Simone de Beauvoir

(2) Harriyet Taylor

(3) Nancy Chowdrow

(4) Shulamith Firestone

Answer: (1)

22. Gap between urban/rural female literacy rate in India as per 2011 census is

(1) 20.17 per cent

(2) 21.07 per cent

(3) 21.17 per cent

(4) 22.4 per cent

Answer: (3)

23. Which of the following suits or proceedings come under the Jurisdiction of the Family Courts Act, 1984 ?

I. For declaration as to the validity of a marriage or as to matrimonial status of a person.

II. Between the parties to a marriage with respect to the property of the parties or of either of them.

III. For a declaration as to the illegitimacy of any person.

IV. For maintenance.

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) I, II and III

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II, III and IV

Answer: (1)

24. Match the List-I with List-II according to the Census of India 2011.

Answer: (2)

25. In which research technique, there is more involvement of the researcher with the researched ?

(1) Questionnaire

(2) Participant observation

(3) Interview method

(4) Interview guide

Answer: (2)

26. Which Article of the Constitution of India requires the state to endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code ?

(1) Article 42

(2) Article 44

(3) Article 45

(4) Article 46

Answer: (2)

27. Assertion (A) : Gender equality means accepting and valuing equally the differences between women and men and the diverse roles they play in the society.

Reason (R) : Gender sensitization programme has not brought positive changes to achieve gender equality in the society.

Which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

28. Match the List-I with List-II of following :

Answer: (4)

29. Who was the Minister of Women and Child Development when the National Policy on Empowerment of Women was framed ?

(1) Renuka Choudhary

(2) Krishna Tirath

(3) Menaka Sanjay Gandhi

(4) Sumitra Mahajan

Answer: (4)

30. As per ‘Sukanya Samridhi Yojana’, the parents of girl children can open an account for a girl child up to the age of

(1) 5 years

(2) 10 years

(3) 15 years

(4) 18 years

Answer: (2)

31. Who among the following set up a radio transmitter called “The Voice of Freedom” to disseminate Gandhiji’s message during Quit India Movement ?

(1) Aruna Asaf Ali

(2) Usha Mehta

(3) Sarojini Naidu

(4) Annie Besant

Answer: (2)

32. Find out the correct sequence concerning various steps to conduct research effectively :

I. Developing hypothesis

II. Data analysis

III. Preparation of report

IV. Formulating research problem

Codes :

(1) III, II, I, IV

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) II, IV, I, III

(4) IV, I, II, III

Answer: (4)

33. Which of the following International Conference was marked by a growth of networks linking women’s activism at the local and global levels ?

(1) Mexico City Conference

(2) Copenhagen Conference

(3) Nairobi Conference

(4) Beijing Conference

Answer: (4)

34. The 2016 Women Economic Forum (WEF) has been hosted by which of the following countries ?

(1) Brazil

(2) India

(3) South Africa

(4) Russia

Answer: (2)

35. Which of the following terminology is correct according to the “Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act”, 1986 ?

I. An “advertisement” include any notice, circular label, wrapper or other document.

II. “Distribution” includes distribution by way of material sold only.

III. An “advertisement” include any visible representation made by means of any light, sound, smoke or gas.

IV. “Package” includes a box, carton, tin or any container.

Codes :

(1) I,II, III and IV

(2) I, II and III

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

Answer: (4)

36. Which of the following is correct that during the ancient Olympic Games ?

(1) Only the married women could participate in or watch the games.

(2) Only unmarried women could watch the games.

(3) Women were not allowed to watch the games.

(4) Women with their husbands alone were allowed to watch the games.

Answer: (2)

37. Which research design aims at finding out the possibility of conducting research and formulation of hypothesis ?

(1) Diagnostic

(2) Descriptive

(3) Experimental

(4) Exploratory

Answer: (4)

38. Assertion (A) : Sexual harassment at work place is a personal problem of women. 

Reason (R) : Women keep silent about sexual harassment to protect the perpetrator.

Which of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

39. In which year the Global Gender Gap Index was first introduced ?

(1) 2002

(2) 2004

(3) 2006

(4) 2007

Answer: (3)

40. Which of the following was a significant event in the bay Rights moment ?

(1) Seneca falls

(2) Stonewall Riots

(3) Declaration of Sentiments

(4) Beaumont Race Riots

Answer: (2)

41. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ?

Answer: (2)

42. Which of the following is not a function of the National Commission for Women ?

(1) Advice on the planning process of socio economic development of women.

(2) Functions like a civil court.

(3) Examination of all matters related to safeguards provided for women under the constitution and other laws.

(4) Fund the litigation involving issues affecting a large body of women.

Answer: (2)

43. Arrange chronologically the Schemes/Acts according to the year of establishment :

I. Juvenile Justice Act

II. Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act

III. Integrated child protection scheme.

IV. The protection of children from sexual offences.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II, IV, III

(3) II, I, IV, III

(4) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (1)

44. Who has been named as the most powerful woman in technology on the Forbes’ 100 most powerful women list ?

(1) Indra Nooyi

(2) Sheryl Sandberg

(3) Chanda Kochhar

(4) Ginni Rometty

Answer: (2)

45. What does formation of an All India Group by the name of National Federation of Dalit Women Symbolize ?

I. Invisibility of Dalit Women.

II. Dalit Women’s perception of exclusion from the main stream.

III. Legal inequalities.

IV. Caste-based inequalities.

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

46. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Match the List-I with List-II.

Answer: (1)

47. Which of the following schemes encourage parents to build a fund for the feature education and marriage expenses for their girl children.

(1) Kishori Samriddhi Yojana

(2) Janani Surakha Yojana

(3) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana

(4) Sabala Samriddhi Yojana

Answer: (3)

48. Who said that men’s relationship with nature was predatory from the beginning and in his lust for power, man establishes a similar relationship with women who seemed to be like nature ?

(1) Maria Mies

(2) Simon de Beauvoir

(3) Medha Patkar

(4) Robin Morgan

Answer: (1)

49. R.W. Connell’s theory of the gender hierarchy identifies many expressions of Femininity and Masculinity. Which one sets at the top of the hierarchy ?

(1) Complicit Masculinity

(2) Hegemonic Masculinity

(3) Emphasised Femininity

(4) Complicit Femininity

Answer: (3)

50. Which of the following is an approach/strategy for Women In Development (WID).

I. An approach which views women’s lack of participation of the problem.

II. Integrate women into existing structures.

III. Increase women’s ability to manage the household.

IV. Address unequal relations between women and men for equitable development.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I, II and IV are correct.

(3) I and II are correct.

(4) I, II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Comparative Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPARATIVE LITERATURE

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which was “Melic” poetry for the Greeks ?

(1) The monodic

(2) The elegiac

(3) The choric

(4) The Pastoral

Answer: (1)

2. Who among the following are associated with the theorization of “Polysystem” ?

I. Itamar Evan – Zohar

II. Jonathan Culler

III. Paul Van Tieghem

IV. Jose Lambert

The right combination according to the code is

(1) I & III

(2) II & III

(3) I & IV

(4) III & IV

Answer: (3)

3. The German equivalent of the term, ‘thematology’ is _____.

(1) Gestalt

(2) Stoffgeschichte

(3) Wissenschaft

(4) Geistesgeschicht

Answer: (2)

4. The Sanskrit short poem was called

(1) Campu

(2) Rupaka

(3) Muktaka

(4) Nibaddha

Answer: (3)

5. The first novel in Odia is titled

(1) Chamana Aathaguntha

(2) Bibasini

(3) Padmamali

(4) Lachhama

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following statements is true of Baroque and Mannerism ?

(1) They are proper designations for literary period styles.

(2) They are related only to German literature.

(3) They mean to vindicate Aristotle’s theories.

(4) They are not proper definitions.

Answer: (1)

7. In _______, an author suggests for an artistic purpose another literary work, or even the style of an entire period by a combination of style and materials.

(1) adaptation

(2) stylization

(3) creative treason

(4) parody

Answer: (2)

8. The first Malayalam novel to be adapted into film was

(1) T. Shivashankar Pillai’s Coir

(2) O. Chandu Menon’s Induleka

(3) Rajasekhara Pillai’s Marthandaverma

(4) Basheer’s My Grandfather had An Elephant

Answer: (3)

9. Who is the editor of the book Poisoned Bread : Translations from Modern Marathi Dalit literature ?

(1) Vilas Sarang

(2) Arjun Dangle

(3) Kiran Nagarkar

(4) Maya Pandit

Answer: (2)

10. Which of the following is not a contribution to the newly founded cultural studies field in England ?

(1) Uses of literacy

(2) Culture and Society

(3) Notes Toward a Definition of Culture

(4) The Long Revolution

Answer: (3)

11. Who makes the statement, “the period as a mode of classification, corresponds to the concept in philosophy, and to the class in natural science” ? 

(1) Rene Wellek

(2) R.M. Meyer

(3) Benedetto Croce

(4) Claudio Guillen

Answer: (2)

12. Grounds for Comparison was written by

(1) Rene Wellek

(2) H.M. Posnett

(3) Harry Levin

(4) Anna Balakian

Answer: (3)

13. Who is the author of Repossessing the World : Reading Memoirs by Contemporary Women ?

(1) Margaret Atwood

(2) Helen Buss

(3) Alice Munro

(4) Susanna Moodie

Answer: (2)

14. Who among the following is not one of Sharatchandra’s heroines ?

(1) Kiranmayi

(2) Achala

(3) Charulata

(4) Abhaya

Answer: (3)

15. The author of the book, The Myth of Sisyphus is

(1) Salvador Dali

(2) Albert Camus

(3) Andre Breton

(4) Max Jacob

Answer: (2)

16. The translation of the Tamil work Thiruvachakam done by G.V. Pope appeared in the year :

(1) 1910

(2) 1900

(3) 1890

(4) 1880

Answer: (2)

17. In Teesing’s view, generation is the spearhead of a/an

(1) Era

(2) Period

(3) Epoch

(4) Movement

Answer: (2)

18. Identify the novel where music plays an important role :

(1) The Magic Fountain

(2) Dr. Faustus

(3) Jane Eyre

(4) Scarlet and Black

Answer: (2)

19. The film version of Alice Walker’s novel The Colour Purple is directed by

(1) Steven Spillberg

(2) Woody Allen

(3) Francis Ford Coppola

(4) Quentin Tarantino

Answer: (1)

20. Horst Frenz in his essay on translation refers to the translation of Bhagavad Gita done by

(1) Friedrich Gundalf

(2) Swami Prabhavanananda and Christopher Isherwood

(3) G.V. Pope

(4) George Sampson

Answer: (2)

21. Who among the following talks about “The heresy of paraphrase” ?

(1) I.A. Richards

(2) T.S. Eliot

(3) William Empson

(4) Cleanth Brooks

Answer: (4)

22. Who is the author of Languages and Literatures of India ?

(1) Shishir Kumar Das

(2) Suniti Kumar Chatterjee

(3) Indra Nath Choudhari

(4) G.N. Devy

Answer: (2)

23. Tripuraneni Ramasamy’s work _______ in 4 cantos was an attack on the ancient puranas.

(1) Sutapuranam

(2) Kooni

(3) Kuppusamy Satakam

(4) Sambukavadha

Answer: (1)

24. Race is a problematical idea in cultural studies because

(1) it divides humanity into separate blocks.

(2) it creates cycles of violence and episodes of international terror.

(3) it is associated with biological discourses of intrinsic and inevitable superiority and subordination involving power, control and domination.

(4) it obstructs the realization of world peace by exacerbating the feelings of hate or hostility.

Answer: (3)

25. Who among the following underlines the difficulty of defining comparative literature, holding the field to be “fragmented and pluralistic” ?

(1) Henry Remak

(2) Paul Van Tieghem

(3) Oscar James Campbell

(4) Steven Totosy de Zepetnek

Answer: (4)

26. Paradise Lost shows an influence of

(1) Paganism

(2) Pre-Christian theology

(3) Christianity and the Renaissance

(4) Greek nihilism

Answer: (3)

27. Apart from reflecting on specific literary features Horace’s Ars Poetica touches upon

(1) Music

(2) Painting

(3) Sculpture

(4) Architecture

Answer: (1)

28. The Kavyamimansa that follows Dhvanyaloka is a work by

(1) Jagannatha

(2) Bhoja

(3) Rajasekhara

(4) Mahimabhatta

Answer: (3)

29. Getthold Ephraim Lessing in his classical essay. “Laocoon” observes that time is the element of _____ and pace the element of the _____.

(1) poetry, drama

(2) poetry, plastic arts

(3) prose, poetry

(4) novel, visual arts

Answer: (2)

30. Trousson calls the “Hundred Years War” a _____ but “Joan of Arc a” _____.

(1) Motif, Stoff

(2) Motif, subject

(3) Theme, subject

(4) Period, characters

Answer: (1)

31. _____ provides the materials or the basic part of materials for the plot of the work.

(1) Source

(2) Imitation

(3) Analogy

(4) Mannerism

Answer: (1)

32. Which of the following theorists objected to a study of thematology as it slights continuity and thus completeness ?

(1) Max Koch and Karl Goedeke

(2) Raymond Trousson and Georges Polti

(3) Goethe and Curtius

(4) Elizabeth Frenzel and Harry Levin

Answer: (1)

33. Identify the author of the book Literary Origins of Surrealism :

(1) Alois Hofman

(2) Anna Balakian

(3) H. Root

(4) Mark Spilka

Answer: (2)

34. In the case of _____ studies there can be no question of influence in proper sense, but only affinities.

(1) Source

(2) Imitation

(3) Parallel

(4) Genre

Answer: (3)

35. Gustav Flaubert’s Salammbô is a

(1) Bildungsroman

(2) Historical novel

(3) Diary novel

(4) Picaresque novel

Answer: (2)

36. Identify the work of the poet Tenali Ramakrishna :

(1) Mahaprastham

(2) Panduranga Mahatmyanmu

(3) Kappalu

(4) Yenki Paatalu

Answer: (2)

37. Baudelaire’s translation of _____ is an instance of translation by a poet.

(1) Robert Frost

(2) Edgar Allan Poe

(3) Rita Dove

(4) Emily Dickinson

Answer: (2)

38. Identify the author of the essay, “Contemporary cultural studies : An Approach to the study of Literature and Society.”

(1) Louis Althusser

(2) Terry Eagleton

(3) T.S. Eliot

(4) Richard Hoggart

Answer: (4)

39. Which of these statements is true ?

(1) Karukku is translated by Lakshmi Holmstrom.

(2) Karukku is translated by Ambai.

(3) Karukku is translated by Bama.

(4) Karukku is translated by Gayatri Spivak.

Answer: (1)

40. Which novel of Amitava Ghosh has become a “Key text for postcolonial eco-critics” ?

(1) Shadow Lines

(2) Sea of Poppies

(3) The Hungry Tide

(4) The Calcutta Chromosome

Answer: (3)

41. Who speaks of periodization as at once “notional” and “real” ?

(1) H.H. Remak

(2) Horst Frenz

(3) Ulrich Weisstein

(4) S.S. Prawer

Answer: (3)

42. Who among the following does not exert an influence on literary works ?

(1) Translators

(2) Reviewers

(3) Travellers

(4) Printers

Answer: (4)

43. Sethumadhavan’s “Velutha Koodarangal” is a _______.

(1) Short story

(2) Essay

(3) Poem

(4) Drama

Answer: (1)

44. Which report on professional standards recommends that comparative literature departments “actively recruit faculty from non-European literature departments and from allied disciplines” ?

(1) The Saussy report

(2) The Levin report

(3) The Bernheimer report

(4) The Greene report

Answer: (3)

45. Which of the following terms, as used by Aristotle, means a reversal ?

(1) Anagnorisis

(2) Nemesis

(3) Peripeteia

(4) Hamartia

Answer: (3)

46. After Bable is a book by

(1) Eugene Nida

(2) Maria Vargas Llosa

(3) George Steiner

(4) Jose Lambert

Answer: (3)

47. That the essential difference between two genres of literature, according to Weisstein, is observed by the presence of terms that are similarly spelt or pronounced is an instance of 

(1) Contamination

(2) Linguistic parallelism

(3) Voice Over

(4) Defamiliarization

Answer: (1)

48. A study of the Oedipal theme from the classical age to the present is an instance of

(1) Historical study

(2) Anachronic study

(3) Diachronic study

(4) Synchronic study

Answer: (3)

49. A study of the history of literatures of all nations regardless of their scope and aesthetic and historical significance would be called

(1) National Literature

(2) World Literature

(3) Regional Literature

(4) General Literature

Answer: (2)

50. Who among the following figures in the Lake school of poetry ?

(1) Keats

(2) Shelley

(3) Byron

(4) Wordsworth

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Folk Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

FOLK LITERATURE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The synchronic perspective is the study of expressive behaviour

(1) over a chronological time and space.

(2) at a point of time and space.

(3) over a period of time and space.

(4) at different points of time and space.

Answer: (2)

2. ‘Culture provided as a buffer against natural selection’ is the assumption of the followers of the school of thought of

(1) Devolutionists

(2) Diffusionists

(3) Evolutionists

(4) Functionalists

Answer: (3)

3. Who attempted to reconstruct the nature of the parent and sub-parent Indo-European languages and cultures using the tools of historical and comparative linguistics ?

(1) Prephologists

(2) Pragmatic Linguistics

(3) Semasiologists

(4) Philologists

Answer: (4)

4. The concept of ‘Urform’ in folk tale scholarship was proposed by

(1) Kaarle Krohn

(2) Vladimir Propp

(3) Wilhelm Grimm

(4) Theodor Benfey

Answer: (1)

5. Who stated ‘Folklore reveals man’s escape into fantasy from the conditions of his geographical environment and from his own biological limitations’ ?

(1) Sigmund Freud

(2) William Bascom

(3) Bronislaw Malinowski

(4) Franz Boas

Answer: (2)

6. The research method that facilitates validation of data through cross verification from two or more sources is known as

(1) Correlation method

(2) Modeling method

(3) Triangulation method

(4) Sampling method

Answer: (3)

7. The type of marriage in which the status of the wife was higher than that of the husband

(1) Hypergamy

(2) Hypogamy

(3) Endogamy

(4) Exogamy

Answer: (2)

8. Alan Dundes considers meta-folklore as a source for the study of

(1) Material culture

(2) Oral traditions

(3) Oral literary criticism

(4) Textual criticism

Answer: (3)

9. ‘Fixed phrase genres’ are also identified by

(1) Ethnic genres

(2) Verse genres

(3) Conversational genres

(4) Song genres

Answer: (3)

10. William Thomas introduced the term ‘folklore’ to replace the term

(1) Folk literature

(2) Popular antiquities

(3) Volkskunde

(4) Tradition

Answer: (2)

11. Ballad is a

(1) Story with religious context

(2) Song with dance

(3) Poetic tale

(4) Prose tale

Answer: (3)

12. Performer and audience relations is more closer in

(1) Religious performances

(2) Non-religious dance

(3) Ritualistic songs

(4) Non-ritualistic performances

Answer: (4)

13. Alan Dunde’s theory of motifeme developed in his work on ‘The Morphology of North American Indian folktales’ was influenced by the concepts of

I. Stith Thompson

II. Vladimir Propp

III. Kenneth Pike

IV. Sigmund Freud

Codes :

(1) III and IV are correct.

(2) II and IV are correct.

(3) II and III are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

14. According to Charles Sander Pierce’s semiotics, the ‘triadic model’ or three part model of the sign constitute

I. Representation

II. Object

III. Interpretant

IV. Significant

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I, II and IV are correct.

(3) II and III are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (1)

15. Identify the scholars who opined that myths have explanatory and etiological functions :

I. Julius Krohn

II. William Bascom

III. Milman Parry

IV. Joseph Cambell

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) II and IV are correct

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (3)

16. According to Roman Jakobson ‘aphasia’ i.e., impairment of the power to understand and to use speech is connected to two major disorders which are strikingly related to the two basic rhetorical figures :

I. Metaphor

II. Allegory

III. Hyperbole

IV. Metonymy

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (4)

17. The Prague school contributed in bringing innovation to the development of linguistics and it is known for

I. Articulatory phonology

II. Functional phonology

III. Semiotic structuralism

IV. Syntagmatic structuralism

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (2)

18. The spreading of people from one original country to other countries are commonly identified with the terms :

I. Asylum seekers

II. Immigrants

III. Commuters

IV. Descendants

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) II and IV are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and III are correct.

Answer: (1)

19. The genre of folklore which follows a traditional pattern in metaphorical language for passionate expression of grief is called

I. Songs of Jubilation

II. Chants of Exorcism

III. Lamentations

IV. Songs of Mourning

Codes :

(1) II and III are correct.

(2) I and IV are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and III are correct.

Answer: (3)

20. In the structural analysis of fairy tales by propp, the number of major dramatis personae and the functions are fixed as

I. thirty two

II. thirty one

III. eight

IV. eleven

Codes :

(1) I and IV are correct.

(2) I and II are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

21. In folkloristics, the concept of ‘structure’ is an arrangement of entities which embodies the following fundamental ideas :

I. The idea of wholeness

II. The idea of hybridity

III. The idea of self-regulation

IV. The idea of non-automated

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) II and IV are correct.

(4) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (2)

22. Philosophy and moral precepts about how and why the universe came into being is the subject matter of

I. World view

II. Eschatology

III. Cosmology

IV. Geneology

Codes :

(1) I and IV are correct.

(2) I and II are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (3)

23. Assertion (A) : A signifier is the concept that represents the sign.

Reason (R) : The ‘signified’ is the form which the sign takes.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) true and (R) is false.

(4) (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (2)

24. Assertion (A) : Positivistic approaches are founded on a belief that the study of folklore should be conducted in the same way as studies conducted in the natural sciences.

Reason (R) : Human motivation is shaped by factors that are not always observable such as inner thought processes and a detached approach to research in folklore is not desirable.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is not correct explanation.

(4) (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (4)

25. Assertion (A) : In folk religion, ‘Revenant’ is a home-wanderer, a deceased person believed to appear to the people of his or her own community after death.

Reason (R) : People usually express their encounters with revenants in memorates and legends as folklore.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(2) (A) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

26. Assertion (A) : Public folklore is the application of folk traditions in new contours and contexts within and beyond the communities in which they originated.  

Reason (R) : The academic programmes in folklore and folklore do not provide public sector experience or reflection as a formal part of their curricula. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(3) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true and (R) is false.

Answer: (2)

27. Assertion (A) : ‘Tradition’ has the connotation of the past but inseparable from the present while being in practice.

Reason (R) : Construction of social conflict is one of the functions of ‘Tradition’.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (3)

28. Assertion (A) : The distinctive folklore that are learned, transmitted and performed by children on their own is termed as children’s folklore.

Reason (R) : Researchers do not regard those materials that adults teach to children as children’s folklore.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is not correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

Answer: (4)

29. Assertion (A) : The concept of ‘bricolage’ refers to the rearrangement and juxtaposition of previously unconnected signifying objects to produce new meanings. 

Reason (R) : Levi-Strauss deployed bricolage method to interpret myths of the primitives.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is not correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (2)

30. Assertion (A) : Richard Dorson coined the term folklore and ideological manipulation of folklore as its emergent factor.

Reason (R) : Under globalisation, given the pervasive of consumer culture, the concept of “Folklore” is eventually loosing its connotation.

Codes :

(1) (A) is false and (R) is true.

(2) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (All)

31. Identify the correct group of concepts associated with the theory of performance.

(1) Ethno aesthetics, Stereotype, Ethnography of Art, Theatre Analogy

(2) Ethno poetics, Stimulus and responses, Ethnography of music, Ritual Analogy

(3) Ethno poetics, Verbal art, Ethnography of speaking, Drama Analogy

(4) Ethno poetics, Invented tradition, Ethnography of Listening, Game Analogy

Answer: (3)

32. Identify the correct group of scholars associated with the theory of oral composition.

(1) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Roger Abrahams, Edmund Leach, John Miles Foley

(2) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Roman Jakobson, C.M. Bowra, John Miles Foley

(3) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, Linda Degh, Edmund Leach, Bruce Jackson

(4) Albert B. Lord, Milman Parry, C.M. Bowra, Kenneth Goldstein, John Miles Foley

Answer: (2)

33. Sequence of the speech Acts – Asserting, commanding, repudiating and commending with the following meaning :

I. Authoritatively expressive

II. Suitable for approval

III. Refuse to accept

IV. Confident articulation

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

34. Sequence the scholars – Roger Abrahams, Felix Oinas, Y. Sokolov and Simon Bronner with their Books below :

I. African Folktales

II. American Children’s Folklore

III. Folklore and Politics in the Soviet Union

IV. Russian Folklore

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, IV

(2) I, III, IV, II

(3) II, IV, III, I

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (2)

35. Sequence the folklore terms – Syntagmatic, Formula, Motifeme, Cantometrics with the following meaning :

I. Unit of PhraseologyII.

Units of Measurement of song

III. Abstract Units of actions

IV. Linear Linguistic units

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

36. Identify the correct group of concepts associated with Mikhail Bakthin.

(1) Hegemony, Circuit of Culture, Anti-essentialism, Hybridity

(2) Chronotope, Polyphony, Heteroglossia, Dialogism

(3) Commodification, Hyperreality, Monologism, Simulacrum

(4) Deconstruction, Polysemy, Polyglossic, Narrative Identity

Answer: (2)

37. Identify the profounder of the concepts – Derrida, Foucault, Ricoeur and Barthes in the order of sequence :

I. Iterability

II. Studium and Punctum meaning

III. Panopticism

IV. Symbolism of Evil

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I

(3) I, III, IV, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (3)

38. Sequence the Literary devices used in Ballad tradition – Rhetoric, Refrain, Rhapsodoi and Retraction – with the following meaning : 

I. Regular repeated lines

II. To pull back

III. Homeric wandering poet – singers

IV. Persuasive argument

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, II, III, I

(4) IV, I, III, II

Answer: (4)

39. Sequence the meaning of – Axiology, Gerontology, Theomantia and Eschatology – used in performance studies

I. Philosophy of values

II. Study of End things

III. Art of Oracle

IV. Study of Aging

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II

(3) IV, I, III, II

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer: (2)

40. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(1) Lauri Honko – Folkore Process

(2) Alan Dundes – Allomotifs

(3) Raymond Firth – Narrative and Identity

(4) Levi Strauss – Culinary practices

Answer: (3)

41. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

42. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

43. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

44. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

45. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

46. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

47. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Answer: (2)

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow based on the passage (48-50)

There are only two basic steps in the study of folklore in literature and in culture. The first step is objective and empirical; the second is subjective and speculative. The first might be termed identification and the second interpretation. Identification essentially consists of a search for similarities; interpretation depends upon the delineation of differences. The first task in studying an item is to show how it is like previously reported items, whereas the second is to show how it differs from previously reported items-and, hopefully, why it differs.

Professional folklorists who are usually skilled in the mechanics of identification are apt to criticize literary critics and cultural anthropologists for failing to properly identify folkloristic materials before commenting upon their use. And folklorists are quite right to do so. Naïve analyses can result from inadequate or inaccurate identification. Plots of traditional tale types might be falsely attributed to individual writers; European themes in a European tale told by American Indians might be mistakenly considered to be aboriginal elements. However, folklorists themselves might be criticized for doing no more than identifying.

48. Inaccurate identification of folklore can emerge due to

(1) Naïve interpretation

(2) Non-objective identification

(3) Unsophisticated analysis

(4) Delineating speculations

Answer: (3)

49. The basic steps in the study of folklore in literature involve :

I. Objective empiricism

II. Search for similarities

III. Delineation of differences

IV. Objective interpretation

Codes :

(1) I and II are correct.

(2) III and IV are correct.

(3) I and III are correct.

(4) II and III are correct.

Answer: (4)

50. The critique of skilled folklorists on cultural anthropologists is mainly due to

(1) erroneous linkage of the authors

(2) inapt identification of folklore material

(3) mistaken consideration of aboriginal elements

(4) inadequate proof of evidence for folk themes

Answer: (2)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Tribal and Regional Languages/Literature Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

TRIBAL & REGIONAL LANGUAGES/LITERATURE

Paper – II 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

Read the passage carefully and answer Question 1 to 5 :

I have committed many mistakes in my life, but mark you, I am sure of this that without everyone of those mistakes I should not be what I am today and so am quite satisfied to have made them. I do not mean that you are to wilfully commit mistakes, do not misunderstand me in that way. But do not mope because of the mistakes you have committed and sit idle. On the other hand think positive and take it for sure that the end would be good.

1. What would be an appropriate title for the passage ?

(1) My Life

(2) Correction of the wrong

(3) Hard work

(4) Character Building

Answer: (1)

2. What lesson a person gets by the mistakes he commits in his life ?

(1) To improve

(2) To sit idle

(3) To stay happy with life

(4) The end fruit will be sweet.

Answer: (1)

3. In the light of the passage given above, which message should be taken ?

(1) Life construction

(2) Character Building

(3) Fresh start

(4) Rethinking

Answer: (1)

4. ‘The end would be good’. What is the essence of this sentence ?

(1) To be satisfied with life

(2) To sit idle

(3) Improvement in life

(4) Occurrence of mistakes

Answer: (1)

5. The correction of mistakes of life is

(1) Correction is very difficult.

(2) Correction is easy.

(3) Correction is essential.

(4) Correction is not essential.

Answer: (3)

6. How many tribes were scheduled in 2003 in Jharkhand in the list of Scheduled Tribe ?

(1) 4

(2) 3

(3) 5

(4) 2

Answer: (4)

7. Who is the author of the book – ‘The Customs and Religion of Oraon’s’ ?

(1) E.T. Dalton

(2) P.O. Bodding

(3) H.H. Risley

(4) S.C. Rai

Answer: (4)

8. Which one among the following tribes is in the most primitive state ?

(1) Onge

(2) Jarwa

(3) Khasi

(4) Birhore

Answer: (2)

9. ‘Pahadiyas’ belong to which of the following races ?

(1) Tibbetan – Burmese

(2) Austro – Asiatic

(3) Dravid

(4) Mangole

Answer: (3)

10. Ethnology is related to which discipline

(1) Anthropology

(2) Psychology

(3) Social Science

(4) Linguistics

Answer: (1)

11. Which among the following is counted in both the streams – Tribes and Sadan ?

(1) Chero-Kharvar

(2) Mahali-Lohara

(3) Asur-Korva

(4) Birhore-Birjia

Answer: (2)

12. Which among the following is the most developed tribe of India ?

(1) Bheel

(2) Naga

(3) Santhal

(4) Meena

Answer: (4)

13. Which script is being developed for ‘Kurukh’ language ?

(1) Ole Chiki

(2) Varang Kshiti

(3) Tolong Siki

(4) Jhar Lipi

Answer: (3)

14. Who among the following is not a supporter of ‘Music Theory’ ?

(1) Max Muller

(2) Darwin

(3) Spencer

(4) Jespersen

Answer: (1)

15. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (2)

16. ‘The act of presenting an equivalent message from the original language into the target language is called translation.’ Who has said the above ?

(1) Naeda and Tever

(2) Pattanayak

(3) Catford

(4) Newmark

Answer: (1)

17. The nine languages of Jharkhand have been divided into how many language families ?

(1) 04

(2) 05

(3) 02

(4) 03

Answer: (4)

18. Which State is accepted English as it’s state language ?

(1) Tripura

(2) Nagaland

(3) Sikkim

(4) Assam

Answer: (2)

19. Ranchi University was founded on

(1) 12th August, 1962

(2) 11th June, 1961

(3) 12th July, 1960

(4) 10th July, 1960

Answer: (3)

20. Dr. Camil Bulcke worked on ‘Ramkatha : Utpatti Aur Vikas’ for his doctoral thesis.

(1) True

(2) False

(3) Doubtful

(4) Partially true

Answer: (1)

21. ‘Dekhan Mein Chhotan Lage, Ghav Kare Gambheer’ – has been said for which of the following poets ?

(1) Kabir

(2) Rahim

(3) Ghananand

(4) Bihari

Answer: (4)

22. Who’s articles have been compiled in the book ‘Nakhoon Kyon Badhate Hain ?’

(1) Mohan Rakesh

(2) Ram Chandra Shukla

(3) Hazari Prasad Dwivedi

(4) Harishankar Parsai

Answer: (3)

23. The tradition of worshipping God by impersonification of nature is the speciality of

(1) Indian Poets

(2) Indian Drama Writers

(3) Indian Novelists

(4) Indian Story Writers

Answer: (1)

24. Who among the following is a Mundari specialist ?

(1) P.O. Bodding

(2) Father Hoffman

(3) H.S. Biligree

(4) Frank Sidwick

Answer: (2)

25. The magazine ‘Sarna Phool’ is brought out which occasion ?

(1) Holi-Diwali

(2) Magh-Devthan

(3) Manda-Jatra

(4) Karma-Sarhul

Answer: (4)

26. What is the name of the book written by B.P. Keshari ?

(1) Sato Nadi Paar

(2) Jhoomar Sangeet

(3) Nagpuri Kavi Aur Unke Kavya

(4) Vivah Geet

Answer: (3)

27. Which magazine has brought out an special issue on Dr. Ram Dayal Munda ?

(1) Dahar

(2) Rumbul

(3) Spat Bharti

(4) All the three

Answer: (4)

28. The magazine ‘Titaki’ is published in which of the following languages ?

(1) Khortha

(2) Nagpuri

(3) Kurmāli

(4) Panchpargania

Answer: (1)

29. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (2)

30. Which of the following pairs is a correct one ?

(1) Chir – Purana
     Cheer – Vastra

(2) Pāni – Jal
     Pani – Pair

(3) Bahan – Bahna
      Vahan – Dhona

(4) Giree – Gir Jana
      Giri – Nadi

Answer: (1)


31. Which Rasā has been called Rasa rāj ?

(1) Shant

(2) Karuna

(3) Veer

(4) Shringar

Answer: (4)

32. ‘Shabdartho Sahito Kavyam’ – who among the following has defined Kavya as above ?

(1) Anand Varddhan

(2) Acharya Mammat

(3) Acharya Bhamah

(4) Kuntak

Answer: (3)

33. ‘Tarani Tanuja Tat Tamal Taruvar Bahu Chhaye’ is an example of which Alankara ?

(1) Rupak

(2) Anupras

(3) Shlesh

(4) Yamak

Answer: (2)

34. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (1)

35. Among the two statements given below, one is called Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : First of all a man learns his behaviour and gets concepts at his home.

Reason (R) : Because family is his first school.

Use the code for right answer :

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) (A) and (R) both are false.

(4) (A) and (R) both are true.

Answer: (4)

36. The Hindi translation ‘Poornaprakash Chandraprabha’ of a Marathi Novel has been done by

(1) Pratap Narayan Mishra

(2) Bhartendu Harishchandra

(3) Dharmaveer Bharti

(4) Mohan Rakesh

Answer: (2)

37. ‘Ram Charit Manas’ has been composed mainly in which of the following Chhandas ?

(1) Kavitta – Sawaiya

(2) Sortha – Chhappaya

(3) Doha – Chaupai

(4) B·arve – Harigiteeka

Answer: (3)

38. ‘Kamayani’ is a great book by

(1) Prasad

(2) Mahadevi

(3) Nirala

(4) Pant

Answer: (1)

39. Who has written the short story ‘Poos Ki Raāt’ ?

(1) Sudarshan

(2) Premchand

(3) Yashpal

(4) Jayshankar Prasad

Answer: (2)

40. The language of Kabir was

(1) Brajbhasha

(2) Apbhransha

(3) Awadhi

(4) Sadhukkadi

Answer: (4)

41. Match List – I with List – II. Use the code given below for right answer :

Answer: (1)

42. Bauddha Dharma spread to eastern India in which of the distorted forms ?

(1) Jain Sampradaya

(2) Siddha Sampradaya

(3) Vajrayān Sampradaya

(4) Vaishnav Sampradaya

Answer: (3)

43. According to Hindi grammar the total number of Devnagari consonants is

(1) 33

(2) 37

(3) 35

(4) 43

Answer: (1)

44. Phoole Kāl Sakal Mahi Chhaie …

Janu Barsa Ritu Prakat Budhai ……

The above given lines of Tulsidas are an example of which Alankar ?

(1) Upama

(2) Utpreksha

(3) Rupak

(4) Atishayokti

Answer: (2)

45. Among the two statements given below one is called Assertion (A) and the other one is Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : The word ‘Kahani’ has been derived from the art of storytelling.

Reason (R) : Because the purpose is to narrate the event from beginning to end.

Use the code for right answer :

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are true.

(2) (A) and (R) both are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (3)

46. ‘Tu Roop Hai Kiran Mein

Saundarya Hai Suman Mein

Tu Prana Hai Pawan Mein

Vistār Hai Gagan Mein’.

This is an example of which Alankara ?

(1) Utpreksha

(2) Virodhabhas

(3) Atishayokti

(4) Ullekh

Answer: (4)

47. According to Chhanda Shashtra the number of main types of Chhandas are

(1) Two

(2) Four

(3) Three

(4) Five

Answer: (1)

48. Who was the author of the famous novel ‘Jhootha Sach’ ?

(1) Prem Chand

(2) Yashpal

(3) Jai Shankar Prasad

(4) Jainendra Kumar

Answer: (2)

49. ‘Aadi Ramayana’ is a work by

(1) Kamban

(2) Kirtivasa

(3) Valmiki

(4) Camil Bulcke

Answer: (3)

50. Shravan Kumar was killed by who’s arrow ?

(1) Ravana

(2) Meghnath

(3) Rām

(4) Dashrath

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Criminology Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

CRIMINOLOGY

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. How many subjects were there in the study, ‘The English Convict’, by Charles Goring ?

(1) 3000 English Convicts

(2) 4000 Italian Convicts

(3) 5000 American Convicts

(4) 7000 German Convicts

Answer: (1)

2. Indicate using the codes, who among the following one linked to white collar crimes ?

I. Politicians

II. Professionals

III. Office WorkersIV. P

eople with Social Status

Codes :

(1) I is true

(2) II & III are true

(3) II and IV are true

(4) I and III are true

Answer: (3)

3. Which radical criminology view is primarily concerned with restorative justice for communities, victims and offenders ?

(1) Conflict theory

(2) Left realism perspective

(3) Abolitionist criminology

(4) Peace-making criminology

Answer: (4)

4. The physiological or medical removal of toxic substances from a human body is called

(1) Rejuvenation

(2) Retoxification

(3) Detoxification

(4) Restoration

Answer: (3)

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Worm – Cyber crime

(2) Insurgency – Tamil Nadu

(3) White collar crime – Professionals

(4) Cannot contest election – Convicted person

Answer: (2)

6. Indicate, using the codes given below, which among the following is linked to cyber crimes ?

I. Worms

II. Virus

III. Foreign exchange

IV. Denial of service

Codes :

(1) I & II are correct

(2) II and III are correct

(3) I, II and III are correct

(4) I, II and IV are correct

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following practical issues should be considered before doing the criminological research ?

I. Access to information

II. Cost of Research

III. Time required to do research

IV. The availability of the information

Codes :

(1) I, II, III and IV are correct

(2) II, I, III and IV are correct

(3) III, II, I and IV are correct

(4) I, III, II and IV are correct

Answer: (All)

8. Who among the following opined the view that “society is organic body and crime is the disease” ?

(1) Goddard

(2) Sheldon

(3) Kretchmer

(4) Garofalo

Answer: (4)

9. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with that “confession by accused while in custody of police cannot be proved against him ?

(1) Section 26

(2) Section 21

(3) Section 23

(4) Section 22

Answer: (1)

10. Which section defines the ‘Juvenile’ in Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015 ?

(1) Section 2(10)

(2) Section 2(15)

(3) Section 2(25)

(4) Section 2(35)

Answer: (4)

11. How would you classify ‘desertion’ by a husband from his family ?

(1) Violation of contract

(2) Social problem

(3) Crime

(4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

12. Assertion (A) : Differential Reinforcement theory is an attempt to explain crime as a type of learned behavior.

Reason (R) : A number of learning processes shape behavior and direct conditioning occurs when behavior is reinforced by being either rewarded or punished while interacting with others.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

13. Assertion (A) : Crime is considered to be a function of free will and personal choice. Punishment on the other hand, is a deterrent to crime.

Reason (R) : Crime is seen as a function of upbringing, learning, and control Peers, parents and teachers influence behaviour.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

14. Assertion (A) : The combination of cooperative surveillance and willingness to intervene has been called protective neighbouring.

Reason (R) : Protective neighbouring seems to be more common among people with higher incomes, among long term residents and among home owners.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

15. Assertion (A) : Punishment is the defining characteristic of crime and other characteristics such as social harm are corollaries rather than defining traits.

Reason (R) : The law requires a causal connection among criminal intent, criminal conduct and harm to prove the guilty mind then determine the suitable punishment.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

16. The term ‘Status Offence’ is related to

(1) Political Crime

(2) White Collar Crime

(3) Economic Offences

(4) Juvenile Delinquency

Answer: (1, 2, 3)

17. Who among the following is the proponent of “Differential Identification Theory” ?

(1) Simon Dinitz

(2) Paul Tappan

(3) Robert Agnew

(4) Daniel Glacer

Answer: (4)

18. There has been an “Institutionalised racism” against Afro-Americans and hence there is a discriminatory approach by police. Whose view is this ?

(1) Feminist Criminologists

(2) Environmental Criminologists

(3) Positive Criminologists

(4) Critical Criminologists

Answer: (4)

19. How many Central Jails are there in India ?

(1) Between 110 to 120

(2) Between 121 to 130

(3) Between 131 to 140

(4) Between 141 to 150

Answer: (3)

20. A tentative explanation based on theory to predict a causal relationship between two or more variables is called

(1) Reliability

(2) Framework

(3) Internal validity

(4) Hypothesis

Answer: (4)

21. The most frequented score in a statistical distribution is called

(1) Reliability

(2) Dispersion

(3) Mode

(4) Mean

Answer: (3)

22. The collection of information from all units in a defined universe is called

(1) Ceiling

(2) Sample

(3) Census

(4) Case study

Answer: (3)

23. In case of information relating to the cognizable offence, it shall be reduced to writing under section :

(1) 154 of Cr. P.C.

(2) 165 of Cr. P.C.

(3) 149 of Cr. P.C.

(4) 150 of Cr. P.C.

Answer: (1)

24. Which statistical measure indicates the degree to which two or more variables are related with each other ?

(1) Standard Deviation

(2) Correlation coefficient

(3) Central tendency

(4) Discriminant Analysis

Answer: (2)

25. Crimes such as robbery, dacoity, murder and rape are considered as :

(1) Actus delicti

(2) Mala in se

(3) Mala prohibitum

(4) All the above

Answer: (2)

26. During prosecution in a court of law in India the benefit of doubt goes in favour of :

(1) Victim

(2) Prosecutor

(3) Accused

(4) Complainant

Answer: (3)

27. Match List – I with List – II, using the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

28. Which among the following is not a “Graphic representation” ?

(1) Pie Chart

(2) Tables

(3) Bar Chart

(4) Histogram

Answer: (2)

29. Which among the following are offence against human body ?

(1) Culpable Homicide

(2) Murder

(3) Dowry death

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

30. Who has indicated a correlation between crime and heredity ?

(1) Cesare Beccaria

(2) Enrico Ferri

(3) Cessare Lombroso

(4) Charles Goring

Answer: (3)

31. Who has propounded Social Bonding theory ?

(1) Cessare Lombroso

(2) Walter Reckless

(3) Travis Hirshi

(4) Howard Becker

Answer: (3)

32. Who propounded Institutional Anomic theory ?

(1) Harold E. Pepinsky and Richard Quinney

(2) Sutherland and Cressey

(3) Shaw and Mckay

(4) Messner and Rosenfeld

Answer: (4)

33. Which sampling is best to study habitual drug users ?

(1) Simple Random Sampling

(2) Snow-ball Sampling

(3) Cluster Sampling

(4) Stratified Random Sampling

Answer: (2)

34. Who has introduced the concept of ‘Criminal Saturation’ ?

(1) W. Bonger

(2) R. Garofalo

(3) E. Ferri

(4) G. Tarde

Answer: (3)

35. The idea that humans have mental conflicts because of desires and urges are repressed into the unconscious is propounded by

(1) Henry Goddard

(2) Eysenck

(3) Sigmund Freud

(4) Bandura

Answer: (3)

36. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(1) Selection of Research tools

(2) Statement of objectives

(3) Collection of Data

(4) Analysis of Data

Answer: (1)

37. According to The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act (JJ Act) how many woman social workers should be there in Juvenile Justice Board ?

(1) Atleast one

(2) Atleast two

(3) Atleast three

(4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

38. Assertion (A) : Information in regards to a cognizable offence is recorded as an FIR.

Reason (R) : Information with regards to non-cognizable offence is filed as Daily Diary Report. (DDR).

(1) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(2) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

39. Who is competent to grant prisoners admission to open-air jail ?

(1) Police

(2) Judiciary

(3) Jail Authorities

(4) Probation Officer

Answer: (3)

40. Criminal victimization survey in the USA highlights

(1) Reported crimes

(2) Hidden crimes

(3) Victimless crimes

(4) All the above

Answer: (4)

41. ‘Victim Precipitation Theory’ was propounded by

(1) Marvin Wolfgang

(2) Benjamin Mendelsohn

(3) Ronni Netal

(4) Walter Reckless

Answer: (2)

42. ‘Mala-in-se’ means

(1) Insistent wrong

(2) Inherent wrong

(3) Immediate wrong

(4) Indebted wrong

Answer: (2)

43. In Ramamurthy v/s State of Karnataka the Supreme Court of India has given direction for

(1) Juvenile Justice Reforms

(2) Prison Reforms

(3) Judicial Reforms

(4) Police Reforms

Answer: (2)

44. Dealing with victim’s needs, assistance and participation is called

(1) Victim Advocacy

(2) Offender Advocacy

(3) Elders Advocacy

(4) Political Advocacy

Answer: (1)

45. After Independence, welfare state constituted jail reform committees to improve the jail conditions. Indicate the committees constituted chronologically.

I. Justice Krishna Iyer Committee on women prisoners.

II. Dr. W.C. Reckless Committee prison administration in India.

III. All India Jail Manual Committee.

IV. All India Committee on Jail Reform (Mulla Committee)

Codes :

(1) IV, III, II, and I are correct

(2) II, III, IV and I are correct

(3) I, II, III and IV are correct

(4) IV, I, II and III are correct

Answer: (2)

Read the following passage and answer the questions 46 to 50 :
Fear can contribute to crime by undermining community solidarity and weakening informal social control. Fear is not always rationally related to the actual risk of victimization. It causes people to stay at home, restrict their travel and spend money on measures which will protect them from crime. By reducing interpersonal trust, fear can diminish the informal control of behaviour in a community. Informal control of crime is most effective when interaction is common. Those conditions are more common in small towns than in large cities.

46. In your opinion this paragraph speaks about :

(1) Crime prevention

(2) Defensible space

(3) Fear of crime

(4) Housing plans

Answer: (3)

47. What effect does Fear, have on community solidarity ?

(1) Increasing effect

(2) Minimum effect

(3) Routine effect

(4) No effect

Answer: (2)

48. According to the above paragraph, how is fear related to crimes ?

(1) Positively related

(2) Negatively related

(3) Always related

(4) Not related at all

Answer: (4)

49. What causes people to stay at home ?

(1) Fear of solidarity

(2) Fear of spending money

(3) Fear of travel

(4) Fear of crime

Answer: (4)

50. Fear has an inverse relationship with

(1) Interpersonal trust

(2) Crime rates

(3) Victimization rates

(4) Increasing informal control

Answer: (1)

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Archaeology Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ARCHAEOLOGY

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The longest part of the human past is

(1) Stone Age

(2) Bronze Age

(3) Iron Age

(4) Chalcolithic Age

Answer: (1)

2. Bhimbetka, one of the most magnificent rock art sites in the world, was discovered by

(1) H.D. Sankalia

(2) V.N. Misra

(3) V.S. Wakankar

(4) G.R. Hunter

Answer: (3)

3. Australopithecus anamensis was discovered by which of the following ?

(1) L.B.S. Leakey

(2) Richard Leakey

(3) Meave Leakey

(4) Donald Johnson

Answer: (3)

4. Yediapur is a primary context site of

(1) Lower Palaeolithic

(2) Middle Palaeolithic

(3) Upper Palaeolithic

(4) Mesolithic

Answer: (1)

5. The bone figurine was recovered in upper Palaeolithic period from which of the following regions ?

(1) Sohan Valley

(2) Son Valley

(3) Belan Valley

(4) Mahanadi Valley

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following Harappan sites has produced a well ?

(1) Kunal

(2) Farmana

(3) Lohat

(4) Banawali

Answer: (4)

7. Which of the following Harappan sites has produced burials ?

(1) Balu

(2) Banawali

(3) Rakhigarhi

(4) Baroor

Answer: (3)

8. The famous Ajanta painting of ‘Mother and Child’ is depicted in which cave ?

(1) No. 1

(2) No. 9

(3) No. 16

(4) No. 17

Answer: (4)

9. It is evident from archaeological remains that the earliest solid stupa made of bricks from base to the top was built at

(1) Amaravati

(2) Bhattiprolu

(3) Ghantasala

(4) Jaggayapeta

Answer: (2)

10. Who among the following was issuer of Karthikeya type gold coins ?

(1) Chandragupta II

(2) Kujula Kadphises

(3) Kumaragupta I

(4) Chandragupta I

Answer: (3)

11. Which of the following sites has revealed the Black and Red Ware for the first time in Neolithic context ?

(1) Chirand

(2) Martand

(3) Kuchai

(4) Daojali Hading

Answer: (1)

12. Which of the following sites has yielded a terracotta plaque depicting a child writing alphabet ?

(1) Atranjikhera

(2) Sugh

(3) Thanesar

(4) Sannati

Answer: (2)

13. Which of the following is the characterizing symbol of the Chola coins ?

(1) Garuda lanchhan

(2) Singha lanchhan

(3) Varaha lanchhan

(4) Vyaghra lanchhan

Answer: (4)

14. Northern Black Polished ware was found for the first time from which of the following sites ?

(1) Bhir Mound Taxila

(2) Hastinapur

(3) Kausambi

(4) Rajaghat

Answer: (1)

15. Depictions at Bhimbetka rock shelters include

a. Elephants

b. Rhinoceros

c. Wild Buffalo

d. Snakes

Codes :

(1) a, b, c

(2) b, c, d

(3) a, c, d

(4) a, b, c, d

Answer: (1)

16. The Neolithic sites of Andhra Pradesh are

a. Hallur

b. Brahmgiri

c. Veerapuram

d. Kesarpalli

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) a and d

Answer: (3)

17. In Africa, pre-Acheulian industries are associated with which of the following homonid remains ?

a. Australopithecines

b. Homo habilis

c. Homo erectus

d. Homo sapians

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) a and d

(4) c and d

Answer: (1)

18. Which of the following sites are located in Odisha ?

a. Karur

b. Kuchai

c. Ollaiyur

d. Baidyapur

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) b and d

(4) c and d

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following sites are located on the left bank of the Indus river ?

a. Kile Ghul Muhammad

b. Kot Diji

c. Sanaikhola

d. Chanhudaro

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) b and c

(3) c and d

(4) d and a

Answer: (2)

20. Which of the following inscriptions refer to Vaisnavism ?

a. Poona Copper Plate Inscription

b. Besnagar Pillar Inscription

c. Hathi Gumpha Inscription

d. Junagarh Inscription of Skandagupta

Codes :

(1) a and c

(2) b and d

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

Answer: (2)

21. Who among the following notable Sanskrit authors were Panegyrists also ?

a. Bharavi

b. Harishena

c. Kubja

d. Vatsabhatti

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a and d only

(4) c and d only

Answer: (2)

22. The dance poses (Karanas) described in the Natyasastra are depicted in which of the following temples ?

a. Brihadishwara temple

b. Chidambaram temple

c. Kailasanatha temple Kanchipuram

d. Narttamalai temple

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) a only

(2) b only

(3) a and b

(4) c and d

Answer: (3)

23. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Our knowledge of the dwellings and material culture of the Mesolithic people is very limit.

Reason (R) : Items made of organic material hardly survive.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

24. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : There is no unanimity about horse remains from Harappan levels.

Reason (R) : With wild onager still thriving in the region, it is difficult to distinguish it from the horse.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (R).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

25. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Robert Bruce Foote was a geologist of the Geological Survey of India.

Reason (R) : He found a handaxe in a gravel pit at Pallavarm in outskirts of Chennai.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

26. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Hakraware was discovered from stratified deposits in Bahawalpur region.

Reason (R) : This region was the epicentre of the beginning of Harappan civilization.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (2)

27. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The Harappa civilization originated from the early Harappa Culture.

Reason (R) : Several settlements have produced remains of both the phases.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is the incorrect explanation of (A).

Answer: (1)

28. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The Northern Black Polished ware is frequently available from settlements in the Indo-Gangetic divide.

Reason (R) : The technique to produce this ware was known in this region.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is the incorrect explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

29. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Indian inscriptions engraved into stone or other durable materials are an important historical source.

Reason (R) : They also document the development and use of the written language in India.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is incorrect explanation of (A).

Answer: (4)

30. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : Archaeological evidence shows that Buddhism was still lingering in North India in the 12th Century A.D.

Reason (R) : The images of Buddhist gods and goddesses of the Tantric school have been excavated in large numbers at places like Kausambi and Mathura.

In the conext of the above, which of the following is correct ? 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

31. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The obverse and reverse of the coins of Indo-Greek king Agathocles bear the images of male figures, Krishna and Balarama.

Reason (R) : This indicates that they were important enough to receive royal recognition.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (2)

32. Consider the following statements :

Assertion (A) : The main factor for the rise of Cities in Magadha was wide scale use of iron.

Reason (R) : Because the wide scale use of iron led to surplus production.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and explanation of (R) to (A) is also correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

33. Arrange in correct order the four-phase evolutionary sequence of microlithic :

a. Diminutive microlithic industry with pottery.

b. Geometric microlithic industry.

c. Non-geometric microlithic industry.

d. Geometric microlithic industry with pottery.

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) c, b, d, a

(4) b, c, a, d

Answer: (3)

34. Arrange the geological formations of Narmada valley in chronological order :

a. Devakachar formation

b. Jhalon formation

c. Shobpur formation

d. Narsinghpur formation

Codes :
(1) a, b, c, d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) c, d, a, b

(4) b, a, d, c

Answer: (3)

35. Arrange the following prehistoric sites in chronological order :

a. Inamgaon

b. Patpara

c. Tarsang

d. Mahadev Piparia

Codes :

(1) d, a, b, c

(2) b, c, a, d

(3) d, b, a, c

(4) c, b, d, a

Answer: (3)

36. Arrange the following sites in chronological order :

a. Jakhera

b. Balathal

c. Jalilpur

d. Mehrgarh

Codes :

(1) d, b, a, c

(2) b, d, c, a

(3) d, c, b, a

(4) c, a, d, b

Answer: (3)

37. Arrange the following sites in chronological order :

a. Agiabir

b. Bahadrabad

c. Rohina

d. Mahurjhavi

Codes :

(1) b, d, a, c

(2) d, a, c, b

(3) c, a, d, b

(4) c, b, a, d

Answer: (4)

38. Which of the following gold coin-types of Samudragupta bear only his name and no metrical legend ?

a. Archer-type

b. Battle-axe type

c. Lyrist type

d. Tiger-slayer type

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a and b

(2) a and c

(3) b and c

(4) c and d

Answer: (4)

39. Arrange the following parts of Asokan Monolithic Pillars in ascending order.

a. Crowning animals

b. Persepolitan bell

c. Abacus

d. Tapering pillars

Codes :

(1) d, a, c, b

(2) b, a, c, d

(3) d, c, b, a

(4) c, b, a, d

Answer: (3)

40. Arrange the following examples of Jaina art in the chronological order :

a. Jaina Tirthankara images of Mathura.

b. Gajalakshmi depicted in Khandagiri, Odisha.

c. Cave I Udayagiri, Odisha.

d. Meguti temple, Aihole.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, c, d, a

(3) a, c, d, b

(4) d, a, b, c

Answer: (1)

41. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (4)

42. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II and choose the correct answer from codes given below :

Answer: (3)

43. Match sites of List-I with the excavators of List-II.

Answer: (4)

44. Match sites of List-I with the rivers of List-II.

Answer: (3)

45. Match the sites of List-I with the rivers of List-II.

Answer: (4)

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

48. Match the books of List-I with authors of List-II.

Answer: (3)

49. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (2)

50. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II.

Answer: (2, 4)

 

 

 

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Museology and Conservation Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MUSEOLOGY AND CONSERVATION

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. A separate Museum branch in Archaeological Survey of India was established by Mortimer Wheeler in the year
(1) 1936

(2) 1836

(3) 1946

(4) 1846

Answer: (3)

2. The best method of collecting Archaeological material is

(1) Gift

(2) Exchange

(3) Purchasing from dealer

(4) Excavation

Answer: (4)

3. The Journal “Studies in Conservation” is published by

(1) ICCROM

(2) UNESCO

(3) IIC

(4) ICOM

Answer: (3)

4. Pyrite disease occurs in

(1) Wood

(2) Leather

(3) Geological specimen

(4) Textiles

Answer: (3)

5. Solander boxes are used for storage of

(1) Coins

(2) Terracottas

(3) Manuscripts, prints and drawings, etc.

(4) Costumes

Answer: (3)

6. Which of the following is a way of authenticating art objects ?

(1) Scientific Analysis

(2) Historical Analysis

(3) Stylistic Analysis

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

7. Legal ownership of an artifact offered as gift is transferred when

(1) the deed of gift is signed by the donor and the museum representative

(2) the artifact is assigned an accession number

(3) the artifact is entered in the accession register

(4) when the artifact is brought to the museum and left in custody of the museum for consideration

Answer: (1)

8. Which of the following influence the effect of air-conditioning in moderating temperature and humidity ?

(1) The Climate

(2) Building Envelop

(3) Air Conditioning Equipment

(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

9. An object exposed to 100 Lux for 100 hours will suffer the same damage as an object exposed to

(1) 50 Lux for 200 hours

(2) 50 Lux for 300 hours

(3) 150 Lux for 100 hours

(4) 150 Lux for 50 hours

Answer: (1)

10. Skansen open Air Museum is in

(1) London

(2) Stockholm

(3) Florence

(4) Paris

Answer: (2)

11. The life cycle stages of silver fish does not include

(1) Egg

(2) Larva

(3) Nymph

(4) Adult

Answer: (2)

12. The reason for keeping employees on probation for a certain period of time is

(1) to motivate employees

(2) to assess the abilities and skills

(3) to provide intangible incentives

(4) to divide work

Answer: (2)

13. Public Relations is a conscious effort to

(1) Educate People

(2) Generate Funds

(3) To influence public perception

(4) Propagate Culture

Answer: (3)

14. Which of the following is not a warm colour ?

(1) Red

(2) Yellow

(3) Blue

(4) Orange

Answer: (3)

15. The method of dating associated with the effect of the high energy radiation emitted as a result of the decay or radioactive impurities is called

(1) Thermoluminescene dating

(2) Radiocarbon dating

(3) Dendrochronology

(4) Stratigraphy

Answer: (1)

16. Arrange the basic phases in the record-keeping procedure in order :

I. Marking numbers

II. Temporary acceptance

III. Decision to accept

IV. Record the artifact in accession register and assign a number

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) III, II, I, IV

(4) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (1)

17. Arrange the following stages of Exhibition development in order :

I. Selection of objects

II. Concept

III. Preparing objects for display

IV. Installation

Codes :

(1) III, IV, II, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) II, III, IV, I

(4) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (4)

18. Arrange the following stages of pursuing IPM policy in order :

I. Discouraging pest access

II. Using pesticides

III. Monitoring pest occurrences

IV. Employing non-chemical control methods

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, III, IV, II

(3) II, I, III, IV

(4) IV, II, I, III

Answer: (2)

19. Arrange the following in chronological order :

I. Copper age

II. Iron age

III. Bronze age

IV. Stone age

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) IV, I, III, II

(3) IV, II, I, III

(4) II, III, IV, I

Answer: (2)

20. Arrange the following Museums in order of their establishment :

I. National Science Centre, New Delhi

II. National Museum of Mankind (IGRMS), Bhopal

III. National Museum, New Delhi

IV. National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) III, I, IV, II

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) II, III, IV, I

Answer: (3)

21. Arrange the following Museums in order of their establishment :

I. Ashmolean Museum, Oxford

II. Hermitage, St. Petersburg

III. British Museum, London

IV. Victoria and Albert Museum, London

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, IV, I

(3) III, IV, I, II

(4) I, III, II, IV

Answer: (4)

22. Arrange the stages of construction of a traditional painting in order from bottom to top :

I. Paint

II. Ground

III. Support

IV. Coating

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) III, II, I, IV

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) II, IV, III, I

Answer: (2)

23. Before disposing an art object the museum must ensure that :

I. It is legally free to do so.

II. It has clear title to the art object proposed for disposal.

III. There are no restrictions associated with the art object when it was acquired.

IV. The transaction is not fully approved by the Governing authority.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

24. Museums should avoid the acquisition of material :

I. Which is inconsistence with its collecting mandate.

II. Which can be stored or exhibited as per policies.

III. Which cannot be conserved within reasonable period of time.

IV. To which special conditions apply, particularly if these cannot be met in a timely manner.

Codes :

(1) I, III, IV

(2) I, II, III

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (1)

25. Which of the following personal safety methods should be used while handling works of Arts ?

I. Avoid twisting when lifting

II. Avoid excessive bending of the back

III. Use your back when lifting not your legs.

IV. Keep loads close to your body

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) I, II, IV

(4) I, II, III

Answer: (3)

26. Which of the following are conducive to mould growth ?

I. Temperature at 20 °C and above

II. RH above 65%

III. Lack of air circulation

IV. Air circulation

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, II

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, III

Answer: (4)

27. Which of the following are autonomous bodies of Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India ?

I. Indian Museum, Kolkata

II. National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata

III. National Culture Fund

IV. Victoria Memorial Hall, Kolkata

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II

(3) I, II, III, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (3)

28. Which of the following statements are correct ?

I. Mission statements should be understood by all employees.

II. A SWOT analyses looks at the visions of the people in a mission.

III. Best practice museums can be used as bench-marks.

IV. Budgeting is a process of planning income and expenditure for a specific time period.

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III, IV

(3) I, IV

(4) I, III

Answer: (2)

29. Which of the following methods of Pest Control are non-toxic ?

I. Anoxia

II. Freezing

III. Fumigation

IV. Chemical spray

Codes :

(1) I, II

(2) I, II, III

(3) I, II, IV

(4) I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

30. The properties of Lignin include

I. It is unstable.

II. It is light sensitive.

III. It breaks down into acid components.

IV. It contributes to the degradation of paper products.

Codes :

(1) I, II

(2) I, II, III

(3) I, III

(4) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (4)

31. Match the acronyms in List –I with ICOM’s International Committees in List – II :

Answer: (3)

32. Match the Personalities in List – I with the Museums they were associated with in List – II :

Answer: (4

33. Match the objects in List – I with the Museums they are housed in List – II :

Answer: (1)

34. Match the personalities in List – I with their contributions in List – II :

Answer: (3)

35. Match the personalities in the List – I with contributions in List – II :

Answer: (2)

36. Match the Institutes in List – I with their location in List – II :

Answer: (3)

37. Match the Insurance terms in List – I with their meanings in List – II :

Answer: (1)

38. Match the colour in List – I with the feelings or mood they create in List – II :

Answer: (2)

39. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II :

Answer: (4)

40. Match the type of Exhibition in List – I with their focus in List – II :

Answer: (3)

41. Assertion (A) : If a conservator cannot find out by research what the original condition or appearance of an art object was, she/he should conjecture and proceed with conservation.

Reason (R) : Because by conjecture authentic original appearance can be created. 

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (4)

42. Assertion (A) : Light source should be exterior to a showcase.

Reason (R) : Any light sources inside a case, even low power ones, will heat up the air inside cause fluctuations in RH.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

43. Assertion (A) : Preventive conservation does not always require expensive or complex care strategies.

Reason (R) : Because much can be done by applying common sense.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

44. Assertion (A) : Bedspread and quilts should always be stored using the standard technique of rolled storage.

Reason (R) : Because decisions about storage systems are not influenced by the number of visitors who wish to see the collections.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (4)

45. Assertion (A) : The collection storage areas must be systematically arranged, and both the storage rooms and the individual and retrieval storage systems should be coded and clearly labelled.

Reason (R) : So that the exact location of any object in the collection can be described.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

46. Assertion (A) : The collection records should be stored with the same security and conservation safeguards as the collection objects.

Reason (R) : The historical or scientific significance of an object lies not in itself alone, but also in the information relating to it.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

47. Assertion (A) : Potted plants should not be used as decoration in museum’s public areas. 

Reason (R) : Because potted plants often carry unseen pests, and water under plants is a pest attractant.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

48. Assertion (A) : The collection records should not be stored in fireproof filing cabinets equipped with a locking mechanism, and a duplicate set of records should not be kept outside of the museum.

Reason (R) : In the event of a fire, vandalism, or some other kind of disaster, the information in the records will not be lost.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

49. Assertion (A) : IR and UV radiations need to be filtered in museum exhibitions.

Reason (R) : They are harmful and do not contribute to visibility.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (3)

50. Assertion (A) : Colour of moisture indicating silica gel changes from pink to blue as it absorbs moisture.

Reason (R) : Because of the presence of cobalt in silica gel.

Codes :

(1) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(2) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

 

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Dance Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

DANCE

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Gajje

(2) Ghungaroo

(3) Pajeb

(4) Gharghar

Answer: (3)

2. Assertion (A) : The practice and politics of some of the Indian classical dance styles make palpable both realistic and utopian visions of culture, nation, religion and aesthetics.

Reason (R) : Despite being the soft power and highly visible, these classical forms remain highly understudied and under represented in scholarly works.

Codes :

(1) (A) false (R) true.

(2) (A) true (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (4)

3. Which dance is not from Kashmir ?

(1) Rouf

(2) Hafiza

(3) Bach Nagma

(4) Chhatrari

Answer: (4)

4. Match List-I with List-II.

Answer: (1)

5. Indicate the correct sequence :

I. Mahabhasya

II. Arthashastra

III. Mrichhakatika

IV. Buddhacharita

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, I, IV

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) III, I, IV, II

Answer: (All)

6. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Kurt Joose

(2) Mary Wigman

(3) Pina Bausch

(4) Maurice Be’jart

Answer: (4)

7. Assertion (A) : Folk and Tribal dances of any region show the ethnicity and culture at its best.

Reason (R) : The Ghoomar, Garba, Rasa, Kummi, and all circular dances propagate the principles of equality and justice.

Codes :

(1) (A) true, (R) false.

(2) (A) and (R) both false.

(3) (A) false, (R) true.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (1)

8. ‘Pandawi’ is from

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Jharkhand

(3) Chhattisgarh

(4) Bihar

Answer: (3)

9. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (4)

10. As per the sacred Shloka on Shiva, put in the correct sequence :

(1) Angika, Vachika, Aharya, Satvika

(2) Angika, Aharya, Satvika, Vachika

(3) Aharya, Vachika, Angika, Satvika

(4) Vachika, Aharya, Satvika, Angika

Answer: (1)

11. Serimpi is a

(1) Court Dance

(2) Temple Dance

(3) Stage Dance

(4) Street Dance

Answer: (1)

12. Assertion (A) : Thang-Ta, Kalaripayatu and such martial arts are ritualistic and associated with the myths of creation.

Reason (R) : The training is very vigorous and begins late after the body is fully developed.

Codes :

(1) (A) false, (R) true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both true.

(4) (A) and (R) both false.

Answer: (2)

13. Pick the odd one out :

Folk ornaments are

(1) Jhumaka

(2) Mahawar

(3) Nathani

(4) Nagmori

Answer: (2)

14. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

15. Put in the correct sequence of Natyashastra chapters :

(1) Natya Mandapa, Rasa, Kavya, Purva Ranga

(2) Rasa, Kavya, Purva Ranga, Natya Mandapa

(3) Natya Mandapa, Purva Rang, Kavya, Rasa

(4) Purva Rang, Natya Mandap, Rasa, Kavya

Answer: (4)

16. Odette and Odile are characters of the ballet.

(1) Gisselle

(2) The Sleeping Beauty

(3) The Nut Cracker

(4) Swan Lake

Answer: (4)

17. Assertion (A) : The Hasta – Mudra(s) held by an Odissi dancer is very lyrical and has gentle curves.

Reason (R) : “Baddha Musti” mudra of a dancing girl in Udaygiri cave is a common mudra used in Odissi.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) and (R) both false.

(3) (A) true, (R) false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (3)

18. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Amada

(2) Parana

(3) Kasak Masak

(4) Koutuvam

Answer: (4)

19. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

20. Identify the correct sequence :

(1) Joan Erdman, Anne-Marie Gaston, Janet O’shea, Andree Grew

(2) Joan Erdman, Anne-Marie Gaston, Andree Grew, Janet O’shea

(3) Anne-Marie Gaston, Andree Grew, Janet O’shea, Joan Erdman

(4) Joan Erdman, Andree Grew, Anne-Marie Gaston, Janet O’shea

Answer: (1)

21. One administrator cum scholar who has encouraged the creative enthusiasm in dance is 

(1) Smt. Manjari Sinha

(2) Smt. Lila Vyankatraman

(3) Smt. Shanta Sarbhjeet Singh

(4) Smt. Nandini Ramani

Answer: (3)

22. Assertion (A) : The four Dev-dasis Tilammal, Ammani, Rangam and Sundaram was the first professional Indian dance group who performed in the west in 1848.

Reason (R) : After the writing of Victor Hugo and Victor Jacquemout, the French were ready to receive the original temple dancers.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (4)

23. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Chali

(2) Longlai

(3) Vrindavan Pareng

(4) Gati

Answer: (4)

24. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

25. Identify the correct sequence of dances from North to South :

(1) Peking Opera, Nat Pwe, Komedya, Bangsawan

(2) Nat Pwe, Komedya, Peking Opera, Bangsawan

(3) Peking Opera, Komedya, Nat Pwe, Bangsawan

(4) Komedya, Peking Opera, Bangsawan, Nat Pwe

Answer: (1)

26. “Going beyond tradition” is one of the best coined phrases for 

(1) Free dance

(2) Contemporary dance

(3) Bharatanatyam

(4) Modern dance

Answer: (1, 2, 4)

27. Assertion (A) : The Margam of Bharatanatyam is so constructed to give equal emphasis on Nritta and Nritya.

Reason (R) : The Tanjavur quartet were expert practioners of both Nritta and Nritya.

Codes :

(1) (A) false, (R) true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) and (R) both true.

Answer: (4)

28. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Bighnaraj Puja

(2) Sthai

(3) Abhinaya

(4) Tirmanam

Answer: (4)

29. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

30. Indicate the correct sequence of folk instruments from South to North :

(1) Rabab, Chenda, Khanjeri, Muraj

(2) Chenda, Khanjeri, Muraj, Rabab

(3) Muraj, Khanjeri, Rabab, Chenda

(4) Chenda, Muraj, Khanjeri, Rabab

Answer: (2)

31. Assertion (A) : In the study of Natyashastra, one faces the issue of the identity of the author, that of the date or the period of composition.

Reason (R) : Bharat was a mythical on historical author.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) true, (R) false.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (2)

32. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Dheera

(2) Dheera Adhira

(3) Adhira

(4) Dheera Dheera

Answer: (2)

33. Who was the most recently awarded “the Fellow” of SNA award by the President of India ?

(1) Smt. Uma Dogra

(2) Prof. Mohan Khokar

(3) Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan

(4) Prof. C.V. Chandrashekhar

Answer: (4)

34. Identify the correct sequence :

I. Paran

II. That

III. Bhajan

IV. Amad

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, I, III

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) III, II, I, IV

Answer: (2)

35. Match the List-I with List-II :

Answer: (2)

36. Assertion (A) : The British colonizers and Indian nationalist provided a similar set of contexts within which the place and position of Indian classical dance should be viewed.

Reason (R) : Social reformers and revivalists engaged simultaneously in both the prohibition and rescue of the same art form.

(1) (A) and (R) both true.

(2) (A) false (R) true.

(3) (A) and (R) both false.

(4) (R) false, (A) true.

Answer: (1)

37. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Kalidas

(2) Rajshekar

(3) Sagarnandi

(4) Bhavbhuti

Answer: (3)

38. Whose recent choreography of “Giselle” is seeing the real meeting of dance of East & West ?

(1) Bharati Shivaji

(2) Marius Petipa

(3) Akram Khan

(4) Jean-Wen Yu

Answer: (3)

39. Match the items in List I with List II :

Answer: (1)

40. Indicate the correct sequence of ornaments in Bharatanatyam :

I. Mangeimala

II. Rakudi

III. Mattal

IV. Jhumki

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, I

(2) I, II, III, IV

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) IV, I, III, II

Answer: (1)

41. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

42. Assertion (A) : Some of the ritualistic features in the performances of South East Asian countries reflect ancient animistic belief going back even further in time and even today the performances can have both spiritual and symbolic meanings.

Reason (R) : Theatrical Dance in South East Asia registers the living history of the region. 

Codes :

(1) (A) is true (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false (R) is true.

(3) (A) and (R) both true.

(4) (A) and (R) both false.

Answer: (3)

43. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Mayuri Upadhya

(2) Preethi Athreya

(3) Anuj Mishra

(4) Anusha Lal

Answer: (3)

44. Match the items in List-I with List-II :

Answer: (1)

45. Identify the correct sequence according to age :

I. Shaswati Sen

II. Kumudini Lakhia

III. Vishal Krishna

IV. Shovana Narayan

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, IV, III, I

(3) IV, III, II, I

(4) II, IV, I, III

Answer: (4)

46. Match List-I with List-II :

Answer: (3)

47. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Dristikon

(2) Bhukham

(3) Yagna

(4) Falling Angels

Answer: (1)

48. Identify the correct sequence of the dances from West to East :

(1) Thang-ta, Kandyan, Moro-moro, Hat-boi

(2) Kandyan, Thang-ta, Hat-boi, Moro-moro

(3) Hat-boi, Moro-moro, Kandyan, Thang-ta

(4) Moro-moro, Hat-boi, Thang-ta, Kandyan

Answer: (2)

49. Pick the odd one out :

(1) Lucinda childs

(2) John Martin

(3) Alastair Macaulay

(4) Clive Barnes

Answer: (1)

50. Match the List I with List II :

Answer: (2)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Mass Communication and Journalism Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

MASS COMMUNICATION AND JOURNALISM

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. According to critics, effects models are problematic as they are

(1) Real

(2) Hypothetical

(3) Traditional

(4) Normative

Answer: (2)

2. In communication, relational information is

(1) non-interpretative

(2) uncritical

(3) non-transferable

(4) emotional

Answer: (4)

3. Media of the third degree contain _______ processed forms of representation .

(1) personally

(2) impersonally

(3) digitally

(4) conventionally

Answer: (3)

4. Media texts are considered as

(1) passive

(2) static

(3) dynamic

(4) negative

Answer: (3)

5. The theory of frame analysis was developed by

(1) Erving Goffman

(2) Samuel Huntington

(3) F. Inglis

(4) Carl Hovland

Answer: (1)

6. Identify the researcher who distinguished the functions of mass media as manifest and latent.

(1) Robert Merton

(2) Charles W. Wright

(3) P.J. Tichenor

(4) G. Tuchman

Answer: (1)

7. One of the barriers to persuasive communication is

(1) Income

(2) Level of education

(3) Age

(4) Religion

Answer: (2)

8. The most important limitation of information-flow theory is

(1) Message-centric

(2) Source-dominance

(3) Channel problem

(4) Receiver-specific

Answer: (2)

9. The organization, International Freedom of Expression Exchange, is located in

(1) the USA

(2) the UK

(3) Australia

(4) Canada

Answer: (4)

10. Section 499 of Indian Penal Code (IPC) contains the criminal liability of

(1) copyright

(2) contempt of court

(3) defamation

(4) sedition

Answer: (3)

11. In cases of copyright violation, the interlocutory injunction is considered as a ______ remedy.

(1) Final

(2) Constitutional

(3) Non-conforming

(4) Discretionary

Answer: (4)

12. The object of the Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867, is merely to regulate ______ for preservation of copies of books and newspapers.

(1) Printing presses

(2) Publishers

(3) Printers

(4) Authors

Answer: (1)

13. The memorandum to control the selection of newspapers for ______ by the Indian government was challenged in the Calcutta High Court by print media during the period of internal emergency (1975-76).

(1) Public advertisements

(2) Newsprint quota

(3) Accreditation

(4) Government benefits

Answer: (1)

14. The major strategy of participatory communication is

(1) Government scheme

(2) Top-down approach

(3) Information dissemination

(4) Dialogue

Answer: (4)

15. Los Banos School is associated with

(1) Cultural communication

(2) Development communication

(3) Risk communication

(4) International communication

Answer: (2)

16. A quantitative aggregation of findings of many research efforts will result in

(1) Meta analysis

(2) Gatekeeping and unit analysis

(3) Output analysis

(4) Input analysis

Answer: (1)

17. A construct is

(1) Incomplete in presentation

(2) A false statement

(3) A personal statement

(4) An abstract statement

Answer: (4)

18. A discreet variable cannot be divided into

(1) values

(2) phenomena

(3) groups

(4) sub-parts

Answer: (4)

19. The difference between sample and population values will show

(1) the range

(2) the statistical significance

(3) the sampling error

(4) the stratified deviation

Answer: (3)

20. Which document describes your needed camera set-ups ?

(1) Shot list

(2) Rule of Thirds

(3) Script

(4) Synopsis

Answer: (1)

21. The button at the top of the camera used to take the picture is called

(1) Shutter Speed

(2) Shutter Release

(3) Camera Body

(4) Lens

Answer: (2)

22. A text matter that accompanies a photograph is ______ :

(1) Headline

(2) By-line

(3) Date-line

(4) Cut-line

Answer: (4)

23. A premium rate for a special position to advertise is known as

(1) Make-good rate

(2) Impact rate

(3) Mandatory rate

(4) Loading rate

Answer: (4)

24. Communication audit is commonly employed in the field of

(1) Advertising

(2) Public relations

(3) Newspaper publishing

(4) Broadcasting

Answer: (2)

25. Gravure printing method is

(1) Black and white only

(2) Intaglio printing

(3) Thermal printing

(4) Flexographic printing

Answer: (2)

26. RGB colour model is known as ______ colour model.

(1) Additive

(2) Subtractive

(3) Restrictive

(4) Non-active

Answer: (1)

27. Robert Gunning’s readability formula attempts to identify the level of ______ in a piece of text.

(1) Fog

(2) Excellence

(3) Codification

(4) Abstraction

Answer: (1)

28. Assertion (A) : In the practice of his or her professional activities, a public relations practitioner should respect the collective dignity of the publics, but not of individuals.

Reason (R) : It is his/her responsibility to deal properly with everyone around that includes colleagues, employer, media and public at large.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

29. Assertion (A) : A public relations practitioner should maintain the highest level of professionalism to achieve the specific targets identified.

Reason (R) : For this, he or she should manage and manipulate the media outlets.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

30. Assertion (A) : The impact of paid sales message is an additional worry for marketing communicators.

Reason (R) : The increased commercial contents in mass media make the audience tune them out because of their noise level.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

31. Assertion (A) : The concept of linear modernisation is still popular among power elites across the globe.

Reason (R) : It helps them expand and sustain their hold on power by their control of capitalistic means.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

32. Assertion (A) : RTI has become a new source of news and information.

Reason (R) : Earlier government officers were not allowed to provide information to journalists.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

33. Assertion (A) : Single screen cinemas are disappearing fast in India.

Reason (R) : Because malls are being constructed in their place. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

34. Assertion (A) : Radio plays are different from TV plays because radio plays have no actors in them.

Reason (R) : Because radio is a blind medium.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (4)

35. Assertion (A) : Citizen journalism is different from professional journalism.

Reason (R) : Professional journalists do not use social media to disseminate their stories.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

36. Identify the chronological sequence of following AIR broadcasts :

(1) Vividh Bharathi, School broadcasts, External services, Rural broadcasts

(2) School broadcasts, Rural broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi, External services

(3) External services, Vividh Bharathi, Rural broadcasts, School broadcasts

(4) Rural broadcasts, External services, School broadcasts, Vividh Bharathi

Answer: (4)

37. Identify the correct sequence of the following codes :

(1) Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens, ASCI Code

(2) ASCI Code, Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens

(3) Fairness Doctrine, Code of Athens, ASCI Code, Hays Code

(4) Code of Athens, ASCI Code, Hays Code, Fairness Doctrine

Answer: (1)

38. Identify the correct sequence of feminist media perception advocates :

(1) Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia, G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan

(2) A.N. Valdivia, G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan, Margaret Gallagher

(3) G. Tuchman, Betty Friedan, Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia

(4) Betty Friedan, G. Tuchman, Margaret Gallagher, A.N. Valdivia

Answer: (4)

39. Identify the correct sequence of following news agencies that operated in India :

(1) Free Press, Reuters, Associated Press of India, United Press of India

(2) Reuters, Associated Press of India, Free Press, United Press of India

(3) Associated Press of India, United Press of India, Reuters, Free Press

(4) United Press of India, Reuters, Associated Press of India, Free Press

Answer: (2)

40. Write the correct chronological order of the following social media platforms :

(1) Linkedin, facebook, youtube, twitter

(2) facebook, youtube, twitter, Linkedin

(3) youtube, twitter, Linkedin, facebook

(4) twitter, Linkedin, facebook, youtube

Answer: (1)

41. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (2)

42. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (1)

43. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

44. Match the following tag line :

Answer: (1)

45. Match List – I with List – II :

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage and answer questions from 46 to 50 :

    Brands have been around since ancient times. In 3000 BC, in Ancient Egypt, symbols were used to identify the bricks leading to pharaoh tombs; in 2000 BC, in ancient Palestine, signs were employed to distinguish pottery. The word brand comes from the Old Norse word brandr (North Germanic language of the Scandinavian peoples prior to 1350 AD) which means ‘to burn’ or, more specifically, to mark livestock. According to a widely accepted definition, a brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these elements intended to identify and differentiate a product in the minds of concerned subjects. According to this definition, there are four ingredients which characterize a brand. Firstly, a brand consists of names, symbols, designs, or any other feature, which constitute its brand elements. These brand elements refer to the logotype, packaging and other tangible constituent parts of a product. Secondly, brands identify and differentiate a branded product, both roles being the fundamental functions of a brand. A brand identifies the goods and services of a seller and attests the product’s source. dentification is objective; it relies only on the capacity of names, symbols, designs and any other external cue to describe or insinuate where the offering comes from. Other than the purpose of identification, a brand differentiates the seller’s offering from that of competitors. Contrary to identification, differentiation is subjective and depends on consumers’ perceptions, attitudes and behaviour towards the brand. Differentiation does not occur just because the name or logotype on a product is distinct from that of competitors; differentiation implies that consumers perceive differences among brands in a product category. Therefore, it is possible that a brand name or logotype identifies a product but does not differentiate it from competitors. For example, brand name mentions product categories such as writing pads, rubbers, felt tip pens, markers and photocopy paper, where brands, despite having distinctive brand elements, do not differentiate. Hence, brand elements per se do not differentiate. In short, both functions are necessary and only when a brand identifies and differentiates a product is it possible to talk about a branded product. Thirdly, brands involve products. Products, in a wide sense, refer not only to physical goods and services, but also to experiences, retailers and distributors, events, people, geographical locations, properties, organizations, information and ideas. Hence, almost everything can be branded, as some well-known branding cases confirm. For example, a number of physical goods, once considered commodities, have been successfully branded in recent years. Also ‘products’ such as sports, political candidates and religions are actively branded today. Lastly, a brand’s identification and differentiation functions occur in the minds of the subjects concerned. A brand is thus ultimately something that resides in the subject’s memory.

46. What is the intended use of a brand ?

(1) To burn every product

(2) To purchase livestock

(3) To employ distinguished potters

(4) To differentiate the product in the minds of consumers

Answer: (4)

47. What purpose does the brand serve ?

(1) To identify the product’s source

(2) To create more brands in the market.

(3) To increase more marketing channels.

(4) To give good names to products.

Answer: (1)

48. What can brands do other than identification ?

(1) They offer free gifts.

(2) They are an attractive logotypes.

(3) They solicit frequent sellers.

(4) They differentiate the selling price of one brand to another.

Answer: (4)

49. What is the advantage of a brand ?

(1) Provides information and ideas.

(2) Provides disinformation about a product.

(3) Encourages relationship between sellers and retailers.

(4) Prompts impulsive buying.

Answer: (1)

50. What is the ultimate purpose of a brand ?

(1) It resides in subject’s memory.

(2) It encourages creative ideas.

(3) It decides the future of political candidates.

(4) It drives people into depression.

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Comparative Study of Religions Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

COMPARATIVE STUDY OF RELIGIONS

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(1) Sikhism – Imam

(2) Hinduism – Risi

(3) Buddhism – Bhikkhu

(4) Jainism – Muni

Answer: (1)

2. Identify the correct statement in respect of primitive society ?

(1) Animation and Editing

(2) Animism and Manaism

(3) Monotheism and Pantheism

(4) Musical Instruments and Scriptures

Answer: (2)

3. Upanishads expound

(1) Literature

(2) Geography

(3) Spiritualism

(4) History

Answer: (3)

4. Atheists believe in

(1) One God

(2) Several Gods

(3) No God

(4) Only Rituals

Answer: (3)

5. Which of the following scriptures is found written in the script other than Devanagri ?

(1) Tripitakas

(2) Vedas

(3) Prakrit Āgamas

(4) Guru Granth Sahib

Answer: (4)

6. The concept of the ‘Unity of All Beings’ was propounded by

(1) Ibn al-Arabi

(2) Al-Ghazzali

(3) Ibn Sina

(4) Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the following is not a modern concept ?

(1) Secularism

(2) Rationalism

(3) Manaism

(4) Materialism

Answer: (3)

8. The concept of ‘Perfect man’ in India was propounded by which poet ?

(1) Mir

(2) Hali

(3) Dr. Sir Mohd. Iqbal

(4) Ghalib

Answer: (3)

9. ‘Vedo-a-Khilo Dharmamoolam’ is mentioned in the following scripture :

(1) Manu-Smriti

(2) Yoga-Sūtra

(3) Rāmāyana

(4) Atharva Veda

Answer: (1)

10. According to the Vedic culture the Vedas are recognised

(1) Apaurusheya

(2) Epic

(3) Pratishakhya

(4) Ayurvedic texts

Answer: (1)

11. Śatpath Brāhman is an explanatory text of

(1) Rigveda

(2) Sāmveda

(3) Atharv veda

(4) Yajurveda

Answer: (4)

12. The concept of Jñan, Karm and Bhakti for salvation has great role in

(1) Vaishnavism

(2) Tantrism

(3) Chārvakism

(4) Lingāyatism

Answer: (1)

13. Select the correct term which is used for the soul in Sānkhya-philosophy

(1) Purusa

(2) Jiva

(3) Prāna

(4) Ātmā

Answer: (1)

14. Idol worship was strongly opposed in his social reform and Bhakti movement by

(1) Surdās

(2) Kabirdās

(3) Ravidās

(4) Rāmānuj

Answer: (2)

15. The founder of Arya Samaj Movement was

(1) Rājā Rām Mohan Roy

(2) Vidyā Sāgar

(3) Swāmi Dayānand Saraswati

(4) Devendra Thākur

Answer: (3)

16. Of the following which one is the main teaching of Lord Mahāvira

(1) Aparigrahavāda

(2) Satkāryavāda

(3) Śunyavāda

(4) Ekāntavāda

Answer: (1)

17. The ‘Upāsakadaśāngasūtra’ mainly deal with

(1) Spiritual saying of Tirthankara

(2) Ten type of Religions

(3) The concept of Karma theory

(4) Vows of Householder

Answer: (4)

18. Which of the following are the main sects of Jainism ?

(1) Siya-Sunni

(2) Digambara-Śvetāmbara

(3) Heenyana-Mahāyāna

(4) Akāli-Khālsā

Answer: (2)

19. According to Jainism the dispenser of the fruits of actions is

(1) Earlier virtuous acts

(2) Parmātma

(3) Dharmāchārya

(4) One who control one’s senses

Answer: (4)

20. The meaning of Syādavāda in Jainism is

(1) Many sideness of reality

(2) Final judgement about reality

(3) Explanation of seven aspects of the thing

(4) Doubtfulness about thing

Answer: (3)

21. The Jaina Monuments of Devagarha are specially famous for

(1) Paintings

(2) Stūpas

(3) Iconography

(4) Illustrated Manuscripts

Answer: (3)

22. The Khandagiri-Udaigiri Jain caves are situated in the state of

(1) Karnataka

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Rajasthan

(4) Odisha

Answer: (4)

23. Siddharha’s Titular name was

(1) Dipankara Buddha

(2) Kakusandha Buddha

(3) Gotama (Gautama) Buddha

(4) Nārada Buddha

Answer: (3)

24. According to the Sinhalese tradition, the number of texts included in the Khuddaka-Nikāya is

(1) 17 (seventeen)

(2) 16 (sixteen)

(3) 15 (fifteen)

(4) 14 (fourteen)

Answer: (3)

25. The Paticcasamuppāda (Pratityasamutpāda) is explained in terms of twelve Nidānas. The second Nidāna among them happens to be

(1) Nāmarūpa

(2) Viñña a (Vijñana)

(3) Sa khāra (Samsakāra)

(4) Avijjā (Avidyā)

Answer: (3)

26. The texts of the Buddhist Scripture (words of the Buddha) originally in one of the Indian languages is lost, but is available in its Chinese translation. The name of that scripture is

(1) Tipitaka

(2) Vaipulya Sūtra_s

(3) Sarvāstivāda Āgama

(4) Mahāvastu

Answer: (3)

27. In history of Buddhist philosophy, the philosopher who established Śūnyavāda was

(1) Vasubandhu

(2) Asanga

(3) Maitreyanātha

(4) Nāgārjuna

Answer: (4)

28. The Ajanta Caves are located in the State known as

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Chhattisgarh

(4) Odisha

Answer: (2)

29. The Mahabodhi Society of India was founded by

(1) Devapriya Valisimha

(2) Anagarika Dharmapal

(3) B.R. Ambedkar

(4) Bhikkhu Sangharatana

Answer: (2)

30. Identify the correct statement :

The main Christian Churches are

(1) Catholic, Judaic and Protestant

(2) Catholic, Protestant and Orthodox

(3) Catholic, Protestant and Shia

(4) Catholic, Protestant and Sunni

Answer: (2)

31. Among the following, who is the Prophet of the Old Testament ?

(1) St. Paul

(2) St. Thomas

(3) Jeremiah

(4) Jesus

Answer: (3)

32. Abraham of the Old Testament is the forefather of

(1) Egyptians

(2) Romans

(3) Persians

(4) Jews

Answer: (4)

33. The ancient city of Jerusalem is important for the following group of religions :

(1) Christians, Muslims and Hindus

(2) Christians, Jews and Muslims

(3) Christians, Muslims and Sikhs

(4) Christians, Muslims and Jains

Answer: (2)

34. Jesus Christ was crucified at

(1) Rome

(2) Jerusalem

(3) Antioch

(4) Galilee

Answer: (2)

35. The last book of the New Testament is

(1) Book of Revelation

(2) Gospel of St. Mark

(3) Gospel of St. Mathew

(4) Genesis

Answer: (1)

36. Easter Sunday is the day of

(1) Death of Jesus

(2) Ascension of Jesus

(3) Apparition of Jesus

(4) Resurrection of Jesus

Answer: (4)

37. Which event is regarded as a turning point in the history of Islam ?

(1) Hulagu’s attack on Baghdad

(2) Migration to Madina

(3) Conquest of Constantinople

(4) Modernisation of Egypt under Mohammad Ali

Answer: (2)

38. The 24 chapters of the Quran which were revealed upon Prophet Muhammad at Madina deal with

(1) Ibadat

(2) Muamlat

(3) Uqubat

(4) Ibadat, Muamlat and Uqubat

Answer: (4)

39. The title of the ‘Philosopher of the Arabs’ was given to

(1) Al-Kindi

(2) Al-Farabi

(3) Al-Ghazzali

(4) Ibn Rushd

Answer: (1)

40. To raise the scientific standard of the medical profession at Baghdad, the first hospital ever established in the history of Islam was

(1) Dar al-Shifa

(2) Bimaristan

(3) Dar al-Hikma

(4) Al-Maristan al-Mansuri

Answer: (2)

41. A clear conception of pulmonary circulation of the blood, three centuries before the Portuguese servetus, was presented by which medieval Muslim physician ?

(1) Ali Al-Tabari

(2) Abu al-Hasan Ali ibn al-Nafis

(3) Al-Razi

(4) Al-Majusi

Answer: (2)

42. Match the following. Identify the correct answer and mark the same in the code given below :

Answer: (1)

43. Identify the correct statement :

(1) Sanusi mystic order worked in India

(2) Islam is the youngest of all the revealed religions

(3) Mustafa Kamal Ataturk belongs to Egypt

(4) Mohd. Abduh was a philosopher

Answer: (2)

44. Author of the book Sachi Sakhi is

(1) Bhai Miharban

(2) Bhai Balaji

(3) Bhai Vir Singh

(4) S. Kapur Singh

Answer: (4)

45. Gurugaddi to Guru Granth was awarded at

(1) Amritsar

(2) Nauder

(3) Talwandi Sabo

(4) Anandpur Sahib

Answer: (2)

46. Baba Farid belonged to the Sufi Silsilah

(1) Naqashbandi

(2) Suharawardi

(3) Chishti

(4) Qadri

Answer: (3)

47. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Shiromani Akali Dal was founded by Kartar Singh Jhhabar

(2) Paira Mokha wrote Janamsakhi

(3) Baba Gurbachan Singh founded Nirankari movement

(4) Emperor Bahadur Shah paid all respects to Guru Gobind Singh

Answer: (3)

48. First amongst 31 ragas of Guru Granth is

(1) Sri Rag

(2) Asa Rag

(3) Tukhari Rag

(4) Vadahans Rag

Answer: (1)

49. First baani of Sri Dasam Granth is

(1) Bachittar Natak

(2) Jaapu Sahib

(3) Chandi Di Var

(4) Krishan Avtar

Answer: (2)

50. Author of Guru Nanak Chamatkar is

(1) Bhai Santokh Singh

(2) Giani Gian Singh

(3) Koir Singh

(4) Bhai Vir Singh

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

BUDDHIST, JAINA, GANDHIAN & PEACE STUDIES

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The Buddhist site of Bharhut is located in the state of

(1) Andhra Pradesh

(2) Chhattisgarh

(3) Madhya Pradesh

(4) Rajasthan

Answer: (3)

2. After leaving home, the first ascetic from whom Siddhartha Gautama learnt various systems of meditation was :

(1) Uddaka Ramaputta (Udraka Ramaputra)

(2) Ālara Kalama (Ārada K–al–ama)

(3) Uruvela – Kassapa (Uruvela – Kaśyapa)

(4) Gaya – Kassapa (Gaya – Kaśyapa)

Answer: (2)

3. Match the items in List I with items in List II :

Answer: (1)

4. The testimony of the Canton Dotted Record is often used in the calculation of

(1) Size of a mandala

(2) Level of Kundalini activation

(3) Date of the Buddha

(4) The stage of Dhyana

Answer: (3)

5. The region in which the Buddha preached the Dhamma is known in the Pali Tripitaka as

(1) Majjhimadesa

(2) Dhammadesa

(3) Buddhadesa

(4) Suttadesa

Answer: (1)

6. The travelogue of Xuanzang is known as

(1) Faqu-Shan-ji

(2) Fo-quo-ji

(3) Da-Tang-Fo-quo-ji

(4) Si-Yu-Ji

Answer: (4)

7. According to Buddhist tradition, the Śakyamuni Buddha, the Buddha’s wife Yaśodhar–a, and his horse Kan haka were :

(1) born under the same tree

(2) born on the same day

(3) died on the same day

(4) lived in Tu ita together in the previous birth

Answer: (2)

8. In the list of the Eight-fold path, specify the order of Sammā Āj vo.

(1) First place

(2) Third place

(3) Fifth place

(4) Sixth place

Answer: (3)

9. In the list of twelve nidanas of law of dependent origination, identify the eleventh nidana :

(1) Sankhara

(2) Phasso

(3) Vedana

(4) Jati

Answer: (4)

10. The number of the kinds of dukkha’s (suffering) are available in the first noble truth (dukkha ariyasacca)

(1) Five

(2) Six

(3) Seven

(4) Eight

Answer: (4)

11. Who recited the ‘Dhamma’ at the First Buddhist Council ?

(1) Ānanda

(2) Moggaliputta Tissa

(3) Revata

(4) Upali

Answer: (1)

12. Which of the following has the characteristics of non-distraction (avikkhepo) ?

(1) Śela

(2) Samadhi

(3) Panna

(4) Nibbana

Answer: (2)

13. Who was sent to ‘Yonaka’ in order to spread Buddhism ?

(1) Sona

(2) Maharakkhita

(3) Uttara

(4) Dhammarakkhita

Answer: (2)

14. By which rule of Vinaya carrying salt in a horn is prohibited ?

(1) Pacittiya 38

(2) Pacittiya 37

(3) Sekhiya 38

(4) Sekhiya 37

Answer: (1)

15. In which Buddhist Council was the Sangha divided ?

(1) First

(2) Second

(3) Third

(4) Fourth

Answer: (2)

16. The name of the founder of Jainism is :

(1) Ajitanatha

(2) Parshvanatha

(3) R.abhadeva

(4) Mahavira

Answer: (3)

17. The birth place of Lord Parśvanatha was

(1) Vaiśali

(2) Varanasi

(3) Mathura

(4) Ayodhya

Answer: (2)

18. The preaching language of Lord Mahavira was

(1) Apabhramśa

(2) Sanskrit

(3) Prakrit

(4) Earliest Hindi

Answer: (3)

19. The text ‘Samstaraka’ is mentioned in

(1) Upanga texts

(2) Mulasutras

(3) Cheda sutras

(4) Prakirnakas

Answer: (4)

20. The complete agama literature of the Śvetambara Jainas is available in how many parts ?

(1) Five

(2) Six

(3) Seven

(4) Eight

Answer: (2)

21. This is included in the mulasutras of Ardhamagadhi Āgamas :

(1) Ācaranga sutra

(2) Aupapatika sutra

(3) Āvaśyaka

(4) Ātura-pratyakhyana

Answer: (3)

22. The place of Nirvana of Lord Parśvanatha is

(1) Pavapura

(2) Sammedaśikharaji

(3) Campapura

(4) Giranara

Answer: (2)

23. The meaning of ‘Mahavratas’ in Jainism is :

(1) Vows of Laymen

(2) Vows of great things

(3) Vows of Monks

(4) Vows of Women

Answer: (3)

24. Anekantavada is known in Jainism as :

(1) Not-attachment

(2) Spiritual saying

(3) Supreme knowledge

(4) The multi-view point of reality

Answer: (4)

25. The meaning of “Live and Let Live” is

(1) Truth

(2) Non-Theft

(3) Non-Attachment

(4) Non-Violence

Answer: (4)

26. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(1) Bhakta-Parijñā – Substance

(2) Nama – Deed

(3) Avadhi – Great Vow

(4) Asteya – Knowledge

Answer: (2)

27. Kinds of Jiva in Jainism are :

(1) Four

(2) Two

(3) Five

(4) Six

Answer: (2)

28. The Jain images of Mathura generally belong to the period of :

(1) Fourth century C.E.

(2) Second century B.C.E.

(3) First century C.E.

(4) Sixth century C.E.

Answer: (2)

29. The earliest example of Jaina architecture is available from here :

(1) Khajuraho

(2) Ranakapura

(3) Ellora

(4) Velra

Answer: (3)

30. According to Jainism vegetarianism belongs to :

(1) Ahimsa

(2) Aparigraha

(3) Satya

(4) Asteya

Answer: (1)

31. Kaba Gandhi was M.K. Gandhi’s

(1) Father

(2) Grand Father

(3) Great Grand Father

(4) Cousin

Answer: (1)

32. Gandhi was suggested to chant Ramanama in his early childhood by :

(1) Lodha Maharaj

(2) Rambha

(3) Putlibai

(4) Kasturbai

Answer: (2)

33. Gandhi’s childhood friend Uka belonged to the following community :

(1) Parsi

(2) Muslim

(3) Untouchable

(4) Brahmin

Answer: (3)

34. Putlibai was Karamchand Gandhi’s :

(1) First wife

(2) Second wife

(3) Third wife

(4) Fourth wife

Answer: (4)

35. Identify the member of the Gandhi family who devoted his life to South Africa to carry on Gandhi’s work.

(1) Maganlal Gandhi

(2) Manilal Gandhi

(3) Devdas Gandhi

(4) Harilal Gandhi

Answer: (2)

36. Kasturba’s Samadhi is situated at :

(1) Rajghat

(2) Sevagram

(3) Aga Khan Palace

(4) Porbandar

Answer: (3)

37. In which South African unit had most of the Indian emigrants taken up abode ?

(1) Natal

(2) The Transvaal

(3) The Cape Colony

(4) The Orange Free State

Answer: (1)

38. Gandhi was enrolled as an Advocate of the Supreme Court of Natal in :

(1) September, 1894

(2) October, 1894

(3) November, 1894

(4) December, 1894

Answer: (1)

39. Demand for Pakistan was raised by Mohammad Ali Jinnah in the year :

(1) 1938

(2) 1939

(3) 1940

(4) 1942

Answer: (3)

40. Gandhi’s Sarvodaya reflects his belief in :

(1) Communism

(2) Socialism

(3) Regionalism

(4) Casteism

Answer: (2)

41. Gandhi was called a “half-naked Faqir” by :

(1) Lord Mountbatten

(2) Ramsay MacDonald

(3) Winston Churchill

(4) Lord Wavell

Answer: (3)

42. Affectionately Gandhi called ‘Deshbandhu’ to one of the following :

(1) C.R. Das

(2) Thakkar Bapa

(3) Kaka Kalelkar

(4) Vinoba Bhave

Answer: (1)

43. Identify the incorrect match :

(1) The Story of My Experiments with Truth – M.K. Gandhi

(2) The Conquest of Violence – M. K. Gandhi

(3) Reading Gandhi – A.D. Mishra

(4) Gandhi : The Prisoner of Hope – J.M. Brown

Answer: (2)

44. Place the following in chronical order :

I. M.K. Gandhi invited by Seth Abdulla.

II. M.K. Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj.

III. M.K. Gandhi founded Sevagram.

IV. M.K. Gandhi started Dandi March.

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV, III

(2) IV, II, III, I

(3) III, I, IV, II

(4) II, I, III, IV

Answer: (1)

45. Gandhi wanted to

(1) separate politics from religion

(2) separate religion from politics

(3) spiritualize politics

(4) discard both religion and politics

Answer: (3)

46. “There is no greater danger in the world than that of atomic war.” was the statement of

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Barrack Obama

(3) Robert McNamara

(4) Nelson Mandela

Answer: (3)

47. The originator of the U.S. Fleet of Nuclear Submarines was

(1) Richard Nixon

(2) Bill Clinton

(3) George Bush

(4) Hyman G. Rickover

Answer: (4)

48. “War is neither an absolute evil nor an absolute accident.” is the statement of

(1) Hegel

(2) Machiavelli

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Nelson Mandela

Answer: (1)

49. “War is an absolute necessity” is the statement of

(1) Locke

(2) Hegel

(3) J. Bentham

(4) Hobbes

Answer: (2)

50. “We have continuously to repeat, although it is a voice that cries in the desert, ‘no to violence, yes to peace’” is the statement of :

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Nelson Mandela

(3) Bishop Oscar Romero

(4) Narendra Modi

Answer: (3)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Library and Information Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LIBRARY & INFORMATION SCIENCE

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Number of working days of National Library of India in a year

(1) 350 days

(2) 360 days

(3) 362 days

(4) 365 days

Answer: (3)

2. Lotka’s law deals with

(1) Frequency of occurrence of words in a text.

(2) Productivity of authors in terms of scientific papers.

(3) Scattering of articles over different journals.

(4) Growth of articles in journals.

Answer: (2)

3. The large volumes of high velocity, complex and variable data are termed as

(1) Big data

(2) Linked data

(3) Semantic data

(4) Ontology-based data

Answer: (1)

4. Sony unveiled the first Blu-ray Disc (BD) prototypes in

(1) September 1982

(2) August 1985

(3) October 2000

(4) November 2005

Answer: (3)

5. ISO 26324 : 2012 is a standard for

(1) RFID in Libraries

(2) DOI

(3) Dublin Core

(4) Inter Library Transaction

Answer: (2)

6. ISO 2108 standard is related to :

(1) International Standard Serial Number

(2) International Standard Book Number

(3) International Technical Report Number

(4) International Standard for Patents Number

Answer: (2)

7. The Browne charging system does not include

(1) Reader’s ticket

(2) Book card

(3) Date slip

(4) Transaction slip

Answer: (4)

8. In CC ‘1’ is used for Unity, God, World, First in evolution etc. as a

(1) Seminal mnemonic

(2) Schedule mnemonic

(3) Alphabetical mnemonic

(4) Syntactical mnemonic

Answer: (1)

9. Identify the mode of formation of the subject ‘Agriculture of Corn’ :

(1) Agglomeration

(2) Denudation

(3) Fusion

(4) Lamination

Answer: (4)

10. The number of successive characteristics forming the basis of its derivation from the Universe of Knowledge is known as :

(1) Order of an array

(2) Order of a class

(3) Open array

(4) Collateral array

Answer: (2)

11. What is the third part of colon classification ?

(1) Schedules

(2) Rules

(3) Classic and sacred books

(4) Index

Answer: (3)

12. Subject entry which refers from the name of a class to its class number is known as

(1) Class Index Entry

(2) Consolidated Entry

(3) Cross Reference Entry

(4) Subject Analytical Entry

Answer: (1)

13. The license for accessing the’Europa World of Learning Online’ is available through 

(1) Routledge – (Taylor and Francis)

(2) SpringerOpen

(3) Sage Publications

(4) Elsevier

Answer: (1)

14. What is periodicity of ‘Annals of Library and Information Studies’ published by NISCAIR, India ?

(1) Monthly

(2) Bi-monthly

(3) Quarterly

(4) Bi-annual

Answer: (3)

15. ‘Facet publishing’ is a division of

(1) American Library Association

(2) Canadian Library Association

(3) Chartered Institute of Library and Information Professionals

(4) International Federation of Library Associations

Answer: (3)

16. Who differentiated information and knowledge in the following way ?

“Information is piecemeal, fragmented, particular; whereas knowledge is structural, coherent and universal”

(1) B.C. Brooks and N.J. Belkin

(2) S.G. Faibisoff and D.P. Ely

(3) F. Machlup and U. Mansfield

(4) J.H. Shera

Answer: (3)

17. Which of the following key terms of references assigned to National Knowledge Commission (NKC) constituted in June 2005 under the Chairmanship of Sam Pitroda for preparing a blue print to reform knowledge-related institutions and their infrastructure ?

(a) Build Excellence in Education System and increase India’s competitive advantage in the field of knowledge.

(b) Establishment of one “Knowledge Pool” (KP) in each state capital and to check the drop-out rate of school going children in a acquiring knowledge.

(c) Promote creation of knowledge in S & T Labs and improve management of institutions engaged in IPR activities.

(d) Promote knowledge applications in Agriculture and Industry and use of knowledge capabilities in making Government effective, transparent, and accountable. 

Codes :

(1) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (3)

18. In which of the following places the zonal offices of RRRLF are located ?

(a) Delhi            (b) Trivendrum

(c) Mumbai      (d) Hyderabad

Codes :

(1) (a) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a) and (c) are correct.

(3) (b) and (d) are correct.

(4) (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (2)

19. Which of the following can be used to measure the research output of an individual ?

(a) h-index    (b) benchmark

(c) g-index    (d) Bookmarks

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) (a) and (c) are correct.

(4) (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (3)

20. Identify from the following the Silver Halide process used in reprography :

(a) Exposure         (b) Miniature

(c) Developing    (d) Rinsing

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (d), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (3)

21. Identify the type of ‘metadata’ held by D space for archiving contents :

(a) Descriptive    (b) Configured

(c) Structural      (d) Administrative

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c) are correct.

(2) (b), (c), (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (b), (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (c), (d) are correct.

Answer: (4)

22. Which of the following are ‘Special Auxiliary Subdivisions’ of UDC ?

(a) Apostrophe     (b) Sub-grouping

(c) Colon               (d) Point-naught

Codes :

(1) (a) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a) and (b) are correct.

(3) (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (c) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (1)

23. What are the constituent elements of Simon’s Flow Chart that are the components of management system ?

(a) Planning        (b) Staffing

(c) Motivating   (d) Innovating

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (d), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (1)

24. Which of the following are the characteristics of not-for-profit organizations according to Edward G. Evans ?

(a) Financial sources derived from outside funding sources rather than from sales of service.

(b) Have clear indicator of effect i.e. profit or loss.

(c) Organizations are public rather than private.

(d) Funding preferences for collaborative projects.

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (2)

25. Which of the following are the criteria for defined open standard in W3C (2006) ?

(a) Transparency and Impartiality

(b) Maintenance and Relevance

(c) Availability and Openness

(d) Security and Preservation

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (d) are correct.

(2) (b), (c), (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (c), (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) are correct.

Answer: (4)

26. A Blog usually provides

(a) a commentary on a particular subject.

(b) a personal online diary.

(c) an online brand advertising of a particular individual or company.

(d) an exclusive pre-paid publishing tool and non-instructional and non-illustrative resource for the scribes.

Codes :

(1) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (3)

27. Which of the following are pillars of information literacy according to SCONUL seven pillars of information literacy ?

(a) Find         (b) Gather

(c) Identify   (d) Manage

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (2)

28. Identify from the following, the digital library projects were implemented by C-DAC (Agency) Noida :

(a) Creation of Vidwan database

(b) Print your own book – Mobile Digital Library

(c) Creation of Shodhsindhu

(d) Creation of Digital Library of Books in President House

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct.

(2) (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (b) and (d) are correct.

Answer: (4)

29. Which of the following are the objectives of RRRLF ?

(a) To act as referal centre

(b) To act as clearing house

(c) To promote reading habit

(d) To promote library movement

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) are correct.

(2) (b), (c) are correct.

(3) (a), (d) are correct.

(4) (c), (d) are correct.

Answer: (All)

30. Identify the sequence of the ‘title’ and ‘statement of responsibility’ area from the following :

(a) Title proper

(b) Parallel title

(c) General Material Designation (GMD)

(d) Statement of responsibility

Codes :

(1) (a), (c), (b) and (d)

(2) (c), (b), (a) and (d)

(3) (d), (c), (b) and (a)

(4) (b), (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)


31. Arrange the following according to their year of origin/publication :

(a) Cause and effect diagram

(b) MBO

(c) Pareto Principle

(d) POSDCORB

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (c), (d), (a), (b)

(4) (d), (a), (b), (c)

Answer: (3)

32. Arrange the following Public Libraries Acts’ according to their year of enactment :

(a) Gujarat Public Libraries Act

(b) Chhattisgarh Public Libraries Act

(c) Goa Public Libraries Act

(d) Rajasthan Public Libraries Act

Codes :

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(2) (d), (b), (a), (c)

(3) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(4) (d), (b), (c), (a)

Answer: (3)

33. Match the following :

Answer: (2)

34. Match the following:

Answer: (1)

35. Match the following States with their corresponding E-Government initiatives :

Answer: (1)

36. Match the following :

Answer: (4)

37. Match the following :

Answer: (1)

38. Match the following :

Answer: (3)

39. Match the following Main Entry fields with their corresponding tag as are given numbers in MARC 21 :

Answer: (1)

40. Assertion (A) : There is a connection between the concept of uncertainty and relevance in IR.

Reason (R) : In IR both uncertainty and relevance are totally ruled out as part of query document matching.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

41. Assertion (A) : Electronic indexing and abstracting services are not advantageous over print.

Reason (R) : Electronic indexes work on much the same principles as print.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.

Answer: (2)

42. Assertion (A) : The efforts of contemporary libraries in using static A-Z lists (as a part of their ERM system) to facilitate access for users who wanted to limit their searches to e-content has failed to yield results.

Reason (R) : Such lists maintained locally are, by necessity, more detailed and elaborate, as increase of titles made the maintenance of such lists more labour intensive and complicated.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

43. Assertion (A) : Libraries contribute to capacity building, which is essential to community development.

Reason (R) : Library programmes and services can influence a person’s desire for life-long learning, which is an important component of capacity building. 

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (3)

44. Assertion (A) : A collaborative culture is an important condition for knowledge transfer between individuals.

Reason (R) : Knowledge transfer do not require individuals to come together to interact, exchange, and share ideas and knowledge with one another.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (1)

45. Assertion (A) : Right to Information Act in India mandates timely response to citizen requests for information sought.

Reason (R) : The basic object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

Answer: (3)

Read the passage given below and answer the questions based on your understanding of the passage. (Question Nos. 46 – 50)

       The idea and phrase “serious leisure’ comes from Stebbins’ interviewees, who used the word “serious” to underline the extent of their passion for a favourite leisure activity. In this case, the term embodies positive qualities such as importance and sincerity, rather than negative traits such as gravity or anxiety. Whereas casual leisure supplies pleasure, and project-base leisure delivers a temporary reward, serious leisure generates deep and
enduring sensations of fulfilment.

           There are six defining characteristics to all serious leisure. First, there is the occasional need to persevere, as when mountain climbers push through exhaustion to reach a peak. Second, is that of finding a leisure career in the activity, with turning points and a sense of advancement. Third, serious leisure takes significant personal effort based on specially acquired knowledge, training, experience, or skill. In this quality, serious leisure is the opposite of its casual counterpart, which requires no expertise. Fourth, there are eight durable benefits or outcomes to serious leisure: self-actualization, selfenrichment, self-expression, regeneration or renewal of self, feelings of accomplishment, enhancement of self-image, social interaction and belongingness, and lasting physical
products of the activity. Fifth, serious leisure participants tend to identify strongly with their chosen pursuits, and may be quick to assert their affiliation. Sixth, a unique ethos, or spirit of the community, exists around each serious leisure activity. 

       There are three main types of serious leisure : amateurism, volunteering, and hobbies. Amateurs operate in the fields of art, science, sport, and entertainment.

46. One of the six defining characteristics of serious leisure is

(1) amateurism

(2) requires no expertise

(3) pleasure

(4) spirit of the community

Answer: (4)

47. One of the three main types of serious leisure is

(1) hobbies

(2) sport

(3) entertainment

(4) art

Answer: (1)

48. Which is not one of the eight durable benefits of serious leisure ?

(1) Self-expression

(2) Renewal of self

(3) Social interaction

(4) Unique ethos

Answer: (4)

49. The word ‘serious’ is the phrase ‘serious leisure’ expresses the idea of

(1) gravity

(2) anxiety

(3) sincerity

(4) pleasure sensations

Answer: (3)

50. A temporary reward comes from

(1) casual leisure

(2) project-based leisure

(3) serious leisure

(4) enduring sensations of fulfilment

Answer: (2)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Law Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LIBRARY & INFORMATION SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Number of working days of National Library of India in a year

(1) 350 days

(2) 360 days

(3) 362 days

(4) 365 days

Answer: ()

2. Lotka’s law deals with

(1) Frequency of occurrence of words in a text.

(2) Productivity of authors in terms of scientific papers.

(3) Scattering of articles over different journals.

(4) Growth of articles in journals.

3. The large volumes of high velocity, complex and variable data are termed as

(1) Big data

(2) Linked data

(3) Semantic data

(4) Ontology-based data

4. Sony unveiled the first Blu-ray Disc (BD) prototypes in

(1) September 1982

(2) August 1985

(3) October 2000

(4) November 2005

5. ISO 26324 : 2012 is a standard for

(1) RFID in Libraries

(2) DOI

(3) Dublin Core

(4) Inter Library Transaction

6. ISO 2108 standard is related to :

(1) International Standard Serial Number

(2) International Standard Book Number

(3) International Technical Report Number

(4) International Standard for Patents Number

7. The Browne charging system does not include

(1) Reader’s ticket

(2) Book card

(3) Date slip

(4) Transaction slip

8. In CC ‘1’ is used for Unity, God, World, First in evolution etc. as a

(1) Seminal mnemonic

(2) Schedule mnemonic

(3) Alphabetical mnemonic

(4) Syntactical mnemonic

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Law Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LAW

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. The Preamble to Constitution of India proclaims that, ‘we, the people of India,’ have established

(1) A Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic, Republic only

(2) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic only

(3) A Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Republic only

(4) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

Answer: (4)

2. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Under Art. 226 of the Constitution of India the High Court has discretionary remedy to issue writs.

Reason (R) : If the High Court is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate remedy elsewhere it can refuse to grant writ.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

4. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

5. “The Fundamental Duties incorporated in Article 51A of the Constitution of India are mere reminder to the citizens, with no enforceability, to ensure their compliance” was said by

(1) Justice J.S. Verma

(2) Justice O. Chinnapa Reddy

(3) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud

(4) Justice P.N. Bhagwati

Answer: (1)

6. Justice Mukherjee C.J., speaking for the court, stated “that though the executive power is vested in the president, the president is only a formal or constitutional head of the executive. The real power is vested in the Council of Ministers on whose aid and advise the president acts in the exercise of his functions,” in the following case :

(1) U.N.R. Rao v/s. Indira Gandhi

(2) Ram Jawaya Kapur v/s. State of Punjab

(3) Jayantilal Amratlal Shodan v/s. F.N. Rao

(4) Sardarilal v/s. Union of India

Answer: (2)

7. The right of a person to be appointed as a guardian of his minor children under the personal law is not a fundamental right was decided by the Supreme Court in one of the following cases :

(1) Mohd-Aslam v/s. Union of India

(2) Sahifzada Saiyed Muhammed Amirabbas Abbasi v/s. State of Madyabharat

(3) Khatri v/s. State of Bihar

(4) Mohd. Faruk v/s. State of M.P.

Answer: (2)

8. According to Austin the positive law has following three attributes :

(1) command, sovereign, obedience

(2) command, sovereign, sanction

(3) command, obedience, sanction

(4) sovereign, obedience, sanction

Answer: (2)

9. “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract.” This statement is of

(1) Hegel

(2) Savigny

(3) Henry Main

(4) Puchta

Answer: (3)

10. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

11. Which one of the following is not a theory of corporate personality ?

(1) Fiction Theory

(2) Interest Theory

(3) Bracket Theory

(4) Will Theory

Answer: (4)

12. ‘A’ has a house and nobody should interfere with the enjoyment of proprietary right over the house. This right is called

(1) Personal right

(2) Imperfect right

(3) Right in rem

(4) Right in personam

Answer: (3)

13. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

14. Who has remarked that “It is both practically inconvenient and also contrary to the best juristic thought to deny its (International law) legal character” ? 

(1) H.L.A. Hart

(2) J.G. Starke

(3) Edward Collins

(4) J.L. Brierly

Answer: (4)

15. Read both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : ‘Res Judicata’, ‘estoppel’, etc. are examples of the General Principles of Law recognised by civilised states.

Reason (R) : In the case of diversion of water from Muese, the Permanent Court of International justice applied ‘Res Judicata’ and ‘Estoppel’.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

16. Which of the following is not a “theory” propounded to explain the relationship between International Law and Municipal Law ?

(1) Transformation Theory

(2) Delegation Theory

(3) Fiction Theory

(4) Specific Adoption Theory

Answer: (3)

17. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? Answer by using the codes below :

(a) The Charter of the United Nations came into force on October 24, 1945.

(b) The purposes of the United Nations are enshrined in Article 2 of the Charter.

(c) The seventh and the last principle of the United Nations states that nothing contained in present Charter shall authorise the United Nations to intervene in matters which are essentially within domestic jurisdiction of any state.

(d) The provision relating to suspension of a Member finds mention in Article 3 of the charter.

Codes :

(1) Only (a) and (c) are correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (1)

18. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? Answer by using the codes below :

(a) “Mediation” is not “pacific means” of settlement of International Disputes.

(b) “Pious Fund Case” is an important decision given by the Permanent Court of Arbitration.

(c) “Retorsion” is a compulsive or ‘coercive’ means of settlement of international Disputes.

(d) A leading case on “Reprisal” is the “Naulilaa Incident”.

Codes :

(1) Only (b) is correct.

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are only correct.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (3)

19. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ? Answer by using the codes below :

(a) The Commission on Human Rights was established by the Economic and Social Council in February, 1946.

(b) The General Assembly decided to replace U.N. Human Right Commission by Human Right Council Vide Resolution 60/251 of 15 March, 2006.

(c) The Human Right Council concluded its first session at Hague on 30 June, 2007.

(d) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the General Assembly by a vote of 48 to nil with eight abstentions.

Codes :

(1) Only (c) is incorrect.

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect.

(3) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect.

Answer: (1)

20. Read the following statements and answer with the help of codes given below :

(a) Two persons are said to be related to each other by full blood when they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.

(b) Two persons are said to be related to each other by uterine blood when they are descended from a common ancestress but by different husbands.

(c) Two persons are said to be related to each other by half blood when they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife.

(d) Two persons are said to be related to each other by half blood when they are descended from a common ancestor but by different wives.

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (d) are incorrect.

(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct, but (c) is incorrect.

(3) (d) and (b) are correct, but (c) and (a) are incorrect.

(4) (b) and (c) are correct, but (a) and (d) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

21. A person shall not be treated as Buddhist under sec. 2(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, if :

(1) Both of his parents were Buddhists.

(2) His father was Christian, mother was Buddhist and he was brought up as Buddhist child.

(3) His father was Christian, mother was Buddhist and he was brought up as Christian child.

(4) He was a Muslim and has converted to Buddhist religion.

Answer: (3)

22. Ancient sources of Hindu law are :

(1) Custom, Sruti, Precedent

(2) Sruti, Vedas, Custom, Legislation

(3) Smritis, Custom, Precedent

(4) Sruti, Smritis, Custom, Digests etc.

Answer: (4)

23. The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act 1937 is applicable to all kinds of property except

(1) Agricultural land, testamentary succession and Charities other than wakfs.

(2) Testamentary succession and charities other than wakfs only.

(3) Agricultural land and testamentary succession only.

(4) Agricultural land and charities other than wakfs only.

Answer: (1)

24. Match List – I with List – II under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and give the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

25. Presently the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 recognizes the following theories of divorce :

(1) Fault and Mutual Consent

(2) Mutual Consent and Breakdown of Marriage

(3) Fault, Breakdown of Marriage, Mutual Consent and Customary

(4) Fault, Irretrievable Breakdown of Marriage and Mutual Consent

Answer: (3)

26. Talaq ahsan is

(1) Irrevocable

(2) Revocable during the tuhr in which it has been pronounced

(3) Revocable until the next successive tuhr

(4) Revocable during the period of iddat

Answer: (4)

27. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :

Assertion (A) : An agreement made with consideration is void unless it is in writing and registered.

Reason (R) : Because Section 25(1) of the Indian Contract Act stipulates so.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.

Answer: (2)

29. In which one of the following cases doctrine of frustration was laid down ?

(1) BOI Finance Ltd. v. Custodian

(2) Orissa Textile Mills Ltd. v. Ganesh Das

(3) Sachidananda Patnaik v. G.P. & Co.

(4) Taylor v. Caldwell

Answer: (4)

30. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) A person who wrongfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.

(2) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is not entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.

(3) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract 

(4) A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has not sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.

Answer: (3)

31. Every person is competent to contract

(1) who is of the age of minority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

(2) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is not subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

(3) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not qualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

(4) who is of the age of majority according to law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind, and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.

Answer: (4)

32. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

33. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below : 

Assertion (A) : Compensation is recoverable for any loss or damage which the parties knew at the time of the contract as unlikely to result from the breach of the contract. 

Reason (R) : Because above rule is laid down in Hadley v. Baxendale case. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.

Answer: (2)

34. Match List – I (Name of case) with List – II (Decision of case) by using codes below :

Answer: (4)

35. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Acts of state are directed against another sovereign state or its sovereign personally or its subjects.

Reason (R) : Acts of executive Government in the name of President in normal course of administration are acts of state and are not open to judicial scrutiny. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct reason of (A).

(3) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (R) is right, but (A) is wrong.

Answer: (3)

36. Which of the following is correct ? Answer by using the codes below :

(a) Corporation is vicariously liable for acts done by its employees.

(b) Minor is liable for the torts committed by him.

(c) Wife is liable under law of torts to her husband if she negligently fractures his legs.

(d) Tort committed by any partner in the ordinary course of business of firm all other partners are liable.

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (3)

37. In which case the principle ‘ubi jin ibi remedium’ was recognized ?

(1) Rylands v. Flecher

(2) Asbhy v. White

(3) Ashdown v. Samuel Williams

(4) Pema Chibber v. Union of India

Answer: (2)

38. State Government may notify that State Commission may perform its function at other places other than state capital. Who needs to be consulted by the State Government for such notification under Consumer Protection Act ?

(1) Central Government

(2) National Commission

(3) State Commission

(4) State Commission and High Court

Answer: (3)

39. Who among the following cannot file a complaint before the District Forum under Section 12 of the Consumer Protection Act ?

(1) One consumer and not more than one consumer

(2) Any recognized consumer association

(3) Central and State Government

(4) One or more consumers

Answer: (1)

40. ‘The degree of cogence need not reach certainity but it must carry a high degree of probability.’

As per the statement answer using codes as to in which of the situations, in sequential order the principle of natural justice is applied :

Codes :

(a) Alibi

(b) Self-incrimination

(c) Presumption of innocence

(d) Strict liability

Sequence of order :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (c), (a), (b)

(3) (c), (b), (a), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d), (a)

Answer: (2)

41. The principle of ‘Quod necessitas non habet leegen’ is applied in circumstances of 

(1) an act done in order to avoid consequence

(2) in a little harm that resulted in the consequence

(3) a harm resulted in order to do another evil

(4) self-preservation

Answer: (4)

42. Aggravated abetment can be found within the public 

(1) when the act was done by any one of the ten or more members present.

(2) when the act was done by one of the seven members while collecting funds from other public.

(3) while a person affixing a poster on the wall specially called attention of an assembly of five persons to protest against police excesses.

(4) when an un-named member of a fluctuating population incite others to undertake a strike to stop train movement.

Answer: (1)

43. In which of the matters it was held that disclosure of identity of victim either by printing or publishing will not amount to penal liability ?

(1) In a judgement given by the Session’s Judge on the ground of social victimisation.

(2) In a judgement given by the High Court on the ground of Ostracism.

(3) In a judgement given either by High Court or Supreme Court on the ground of preventing social victimisation or contracism.

(4) In a judgement given by the Supreme Court on the ground of prevention from social victimisation.

Answer: (3)

44. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer the reasonableness using the ‘code’ given below :

Assertion (A) : Section 304-A is directed at offences outside the range of Sections 299 and 300.

Reason (R) : It contemplates those acts into which neither intention nor knowledge enters. Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct as the act results from rash and negligence act.

(2) (A) is correct as certain acts are unjustifiable while (R) is not the correct reason as it falls short of culpable homicide.

(3) (R) is correct while (A) is incorrect application to the rule of culpable homicide to cause murder.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect statement as to imposing penalty.

Answer: (1)

45. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Multiple Trade Unions in industries and the consequential necessity for selecting one as the recognised union by the management devising a method on democratic principles is necessary.

Reason (R) : The Union which represents the largest number of workmen working in the undertaking must acquire the status as that would be in tune with the concept of Industrial democracy.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right. 

Answer: (1)

46. “The working class unfamiliar with the sophistications of definitions and shower of decisions, unable to secure expert legal opinion, what with poverty pricing them out of justice market and denying them the staying power to withstand the multi-decked litigative process, defacto is denied social justice if legal drafting is vagarious, definitions indefinite and court rulings contradictory.”

The above remarks were made in support of an expensive definition of “Industry” by one of the following justice :

(1) Justice O. Chinnappa Reddy

(2) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

(3) Justice Gajendragadkar

(4) S.P. Bharucha

Answer: (2)

47. Which one of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an industrial establishment and who has completed one year of continuous service under an employer is laid off, whether continuously or intermittently shall be paid by the employer for all days during which he is so laid off except for such weekly holidays.

(2) Termination on the ground of misconduct or continued ill health of a workman is not a retrenchment.

(3) Lock-out means the permanent closing of a place of employment, or the total suspension or the refusal by an employer to continue to employ any number of persons employed.

(4) The right to close down the business, trade or undertaking is subject to payment of compensation to the workers engaged in the business immediately before the closure.

Answer: (3)

48. Match List – I with List –II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

49. Reference of an Industrial Dispute, the subject matter of which is covered by a settlement as defined in Section 2(P) of the Act would be :

(1) valid during the operation of such settlement

(2) invalid during the operation of such settlement

(3) valid and subject to the importance of Industrial Dispute

(4) voidable at the option of the parties to the dispute during the operation of such settlement

Answer: (2)

50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The retention of Industrial Adjudication is necessary till all Trade Unions attain sufficient strength to bargain with employers, from a position of equality.

Reason (R) : Collective Bargaining presently provides only lip services, whereas in practice it has perpetuated Adjudication.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(4) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Labour Welfare and Industrial Relations Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LABOUR WELFARE & INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Examine the following statements about Scientific Management and identify those which are true and false.

a. The term ‘Scientific Management’ was not coined by Frederick Winslow Taylor.

b. Henry R. Towne’s ‘Engineer as a economist’ influenced Taylor’s ideas.

c. ‘Shop Management’ embodies ‘Therbligs’.

d. Louis D. Brandies heard the case filed against Taylor’s Scientific Management by Trade Unions.

Codes :

(1) a, b, c are true and d is false.

(2) a, b, d are true and c is false.

(3) a, b are true and c, d are false.

(4) a, c are true and b, d are false.

Answer: (2)

2. Which of the following statements about open systems as given by Daniel Katz and Robert Khan are true ?

a. The exportation of energic inputs into the environment.

b. Transformation of available energy as throughput, so that work is done.

c. The importation of the output from the environment.

d. A cycle of events in which the product exported to the environment provides the energy for repetition of the cycle.

Codes :

(1) a, b

(2) b, c

(3) b, d

(4) a, d

Answer: (3)

3. Match the following :


Answer: (2)

4. Match the following activities (List-I) with the degree of delegation (List-II).


Answer: (4)

5. The steps in planning process are jumbled up. Arrange them in correct sequence.

a. Specifying alternatives

b. Analyzing alternatives

c. Goal setting

d. Elaborating plans and specifying details

e. Establishing standards for measurement

f. Maintaining communication

g. Maintaining a time perspective

h. Planning for unpredictable contingencies

i. Organising

j. Implementing

k. Ensuring Participation

l. Follow-up, providing for flexibility

Codes :

(1) c, e, g, a, b, d, k, f, i, j, l, h

(2) c, a, g, b, d, k, f, j, i, h, l, e

(3) d, c, a, f, g, i, b, e, l, h, j

(4) c, g, e, b, a, k, d, i, f, j, l, h

Answer: (1)

6. Match the following HRM models (List-I) with their themes (List-II) :


Answer: (2)

7. Which of the following statement/s is/are true ?

a. Configurational or bundle theorists propose that there are ideal types of configurations of HR practices that promote synergies.

b. High performance work systems combining information sharing, decentralized decision making via teams; participative management at operational, tactical and strategic levels are, however not part of the configurational framework.

Codes :

(1) only a

(2) only b

(3) both a and b

(4) neither a and b

Answer: (1)

8. Read the following statements about ‘staffing’ as a strategy formation. Identify the ones which are true.

a. Organisations need to hire ‘best’ people emphasizing person-organisation fit over person-job fit.

b. Organisations need to hire people with unique as well as complementary KSAs in order to have the capability to implement flexible and focused business strategies in a fast changing environment.

c. Organisation need to hire people with talent and creativity to contribute to business strategies in a manner that will take any possible course of action in any direction.

Codes :

(1) only a

(2) a, b

(3) b, c

(4) a, b, c

Answer: (4)

9. Which of the following is not a best practice in High Commitment Pay ?

(1) High wage policies to attract, retain and motivate the best talent, that is based on the belief that, ‘You get what you pay for’.

(2) Employment security is essential to be the ‘employer of choice’ and it is the bed rock for high quality work and a willingness to be flexible and innovative.

(3) Encourage employee ownership of the enterprise.

(4) Non-egalitarian symbols and perquisites.

Answer: (4)

10. Which of the following may be a possible consequence of inter-group conflict within the involved groups ?

a. Group cohesiveness increases.

b. Group becomes task oriented.

c. Organisation structure becomes more rigid.

d. Leadership becomes more rigid.

Codes :

(1) a, b and d

(2) b, c and d

(3) a, b, c and d

(4) a and b only

Answer: (3)

11. Assertion (A) : Master-Servant doctrine believed in the inalienable prerogative of Master’s will with regard to servant’s continuance in employment.

Reason (R) : This prerogative has been granted by the sanction of law made by the State Power.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are wrong.

(2) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

(3) (A) and (R) are right, but (R) does not justify the Assertion (A).

(4) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong and does not justify the (A).

Answer: (4)

12. Match the contributors (Behavioural Scientists) List-I with their contributions given in List-II.


Answer: (3)

13. Which of the following is not a Simulation technique of development ?

(1) Management Games

(2) Case Study

(3) In-basket

(4) Sensitivity Training

Answer: (4)

14. Which of the following statements is/are true and false ?

a. If motivation is low, monotony (mental fatigue) grips very early.

b. If motivation is high, the will and desire to work increases and both fatigue and monotony decreases.

c. Highly intelligent people are more susceptible to monotony if subjected to repetitive work, because their level of expectations from job towards meaningfulness is low.

d. The anticipation of the end of the work period tends to abolish signs of monotony. 

Codes :

(1) a and d are true; b and c are false.

(2) a and c are true; b and d are false.

(3) a, b and d are true; and c is false.

(4) b, c and d are true; and a is false.

Answer: (3)

15. Consider the following statements :

a. Conflict that supports the goals of the group and improves its performance.

b. Conflict that hinders group performance.

c. Emotional involvement in a conflict creating anxiety, tenseness, frustration, or hostility.

d. Withdrawal from or suppressing conflict.

The above statements, in correct sequence (a, b, c, d) refer to : 

Codes :

(1) Dysfunctional, functional, inter-group, and approach-approach conflict respectively.

(2) Functional, Dys functional, Felt conflict and avoidance respectively.

(3) Functional conflict, confrontation strategy, Perceived and manifest conflict respectively.

(4) Inter-group conflict, dysfunctional conflict, Goal Diversity and Containment Strategy.

Answer: (2)

16. In Transactional Analysis, if the response is by the same ego state as through which the message was received, the transaction is called

(1) Crossed Transaction

(2) Complementary Transaction

(3) Ulterior Transaction

(4) Feed-forward Transaction

Answer: (2)

17. “Healthy people show the behaviour of maturity, while unhealthy people tend to demonstrate child like immature behaviour.”

Who among the following behavioural Scientists said this ?

(1) John Berry

(2) Blake and Mouton

(3) F.W. Taylor

(4) Chris Argyris

Answer: (4)

18. Which of the following statements are true/false ?

a. Maslow’s need theory considers needs to explain human behaviour.

b. Mc Gregor’s theory considers opposite perceptions based on managerial assumption of employee behaviour.

c. Vroom’s theory considers force, valence, expectancy, and instrumentality to explain motivation.

d. Cognitive evaluation theory classifies persons as intrinsically and extrinsically motivated.

Codes :

(1) a and d are true, c and b are false.

(2) a, b and d are true, c is false.

(3) a, b, c and d are true.

(4) a and c are true, b and d are false.

Answer: (3)

19. The following three types of tests namely objective tests, projective tests, and situation tests are basically used as tools of

(1) Intelligence tests

(2) Personality tests

(3) Cognitive ability test

(4) Competency mapping

Answer: (2)

20. ‘Alarm Reaction’, ‘Stage of Resistance’ and ‘Stage of Exhaustion’ are the stages of which of the following syndromes :

(1) Buggy-whip Syndrome

(2) Dissociative Identity Disorder Syndrome

(3) General Adaptation Syndrome

(4) Amoeba Syndrome

Answer: (3)

21. Who is/are the author (s) of the books titled, ‘A History of Trade Unionism’ (1897) and ‘Industrial Democracy’ (1902), the two early writings on Industrial Relations ?

(1) Sidney and Beatrice Webb

(2) Alan Fox and Allan Flanders

(3) Karl Marx

(4) H.A. Clegg

Answer: (1)

22. The Descending Participation i.e., Workers’ participation in work was propounded by

(1) The Fabians

(2) The Harvard Group

(3) The Oxford Group

(4) The Tavistock Group

Answer: (4)

23. Match the themes of the three approaches of industrial relations under contradictions perspective : 


Answer: (2)

24. Which of the following is not an industrial union ?

(1) The Engineering Mazdoor Sabha

(2) The Rohtas Workers’ Union

(3) The Girni Kamgar Union

(4) The Rashtriya Mill Mazdoor Sangh

Answer: (2)

25. Who has viewed collective bargaining as a process of social change ?

(1) Neil W. Chamberlain

(2) J.H. Richardson

(3) Arthur D. Butler

(4) H.W. Davey

Answer: (3)

26. Which of the following is not included in the ‘illustrative list of items’ approved by the Indian Labour Conference pertaining to the items which the Works Committees will normally deal with ?

(1) Amenities such as drinking water, canteens, creches,medical, and health services.

(2) Quantum of leave and national and festival holidays.

(3) Adjustment of festivals and national holidays.

(4) Safety and accident prevention, occupational diseases and protective equipment.

Answer: (2)

27. Which of the following was formed in the year 1945 ?

(1) International Federation Chemical, Energy, Mining and General Workers.

(2) International Confederation of Free Trade Unions.

(3) World Federation of Trade Unions.

(4) International Federation of Christian Unions.

Answer: (3)

28. Who among the following were moderates in the context of trade union movement in India ?

(1) B.T. Ranadive and S.V. Deshpande

(2) Diwan Chamanlal and N.M. Joshi

(3) M.N. Roy and Maniben Kara

(4) H.K. Mehtab and Dattopant Thengadi

Answer: (2)

29. When a strike is conducted with a view to force an employer to recognise or bargain with a particular trade union instead of another, such strike is called as

(1) Political strike

(2) Ordinary strike

(3) Protest strike

(4) Jurisdictional strike

Answer: (4)

30. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?


Answer: (3)

31. According to William Beveridge which of the following are not part of a comprehensive social security scheme ?

a. Social assistance

b. Compulsory insurance

c. Social insurance

d. Voluntary insurance

e. Voluntary assistance

Codes :

(1) b and e only

(2) d and e only

(3) b, d and e only

(4) a, b and d only

Answer: (1)

32. A trade Union has been formed in an establishment employing five hundred employees.

What is the minimum number of members it should have to apply for registering it under the Trade Unions Act, 1926 ?

(1) Seven members

(2) One hundred members

(3) Fifty members

(4) Seventy members

Answer: (3)

33. Under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, to which of the following industrial undertakings the provisions relating to lay-off, retrenchment and closure provided under chapter V-B shall be made applicable ?

(1) Industrial establishment in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day for the preceding twelve months.

(2) Industrial establishment in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day in the preceding calendar month.

(3) Industrial establishment in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average per working day during the preceding calendar year.

(4) Industrial establishment in which not less than one hundred workmen were employed on an average for the preceding three months.

Answer: (1)

34. As per the Government of India notification the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 is proposed to be increased to

(1) Rupees Eighteen thousand

(2) Rupees Twenty-five thousand

(3) Rupees Twenty thousand

(4) Rupees Twenty-one thousand

Answer: (4)

35. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 what is the extent of representation of Independent persons in the Advisory Committee ?

(1) one-half of its total members.

(2) one-third of its total members.

(3) one-fourth of its total members.

(4) one-half of its total members subject to a maximum of light.

Answer: (2)

36. If any dispute arises regarding the payment of subsistence allowance to a workman under the provisions of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, then the dispute may be referred to !

(1) Certifying Officer appointed under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946.

(2) Enquiry Officer appointed to enquire the allegations framed against the workman.

(3) Chief executive of the industrial establishment in which the workman is employed.

(4) Labour court constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

Answer: (4)

37. What is the minimum period an employee should have worked in an accounting year in an establishment to become eligible for bonus under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965?

(1) Forty five days

(2) Thirty days

(3) Sixty days

(4) Ninety days

Answer: (2)

38. Which of the following statements relating to the Constitution of the Advisory Committee under the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 is true ?

(1) It shall consist of not less than twelve persons of which one-third shall be women.

(2) It shall consist of eight persons of which one-half shall be women.

(3) It shall consist of not less than ten persons nominated by the appropriate Government, of which one-half shall be women.

(4) It shall consist of twelve persons nominated by the Central Government of which one-third shall be women.

Answer: (3)

39. Match the propounders mentioned in List-I with the theories of wages mentioned in List-II.


Answer: (4)

40. Under which of the following legislations the provision for payment to any trade union fee on a written authorisation from an employee has been provided ?

(1) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(2) Trade Unions Act, 1926

(3) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

(4) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946

Answer: (3)

41. Match the Principles of Labour Welfare mentioned in List-I with the contents given in List-II.


Answer: (2)

42. Which among the following statements is not true is relation to Labour Welfare ?

(1) Labour Welfare is an essential part of Social Welfare.

(2) Labour Welfare Work not only covers the work life of workers in the factory but also extends beyond into his life with his family and community.

(3) Labour Welfare is not concerned with desirable conditions of existence, biologically and Socially determined.

(4) Labour Welfare is a relative concept, relative in time and place.

Answer: (3)

43. Which one of the following does not constitute to be a direct source of Industrial Jurisprudence in India ?

(1) The Constitution of India

(2) Legislative enactments

(3) International obligations

(4) Judicial decisions

Answer: (3)

44. Who was the first person to advocate an eight hours working day for workers ?

(1) Robert Owen

(2) John Stuart Mill

(3) George Elliot

(4) August Comte

Answer: (1)

45. Assertion (A) : Welfare is a relative concept, relative in time and place.

Reason (R) : Ideas of Welfare differ with passage of time. Man accepted comparatively less convenient and less sumptuous conditions of existence; for Science and Technology had not made possible better amenities. Then again, meaning and content of Welfare differs from country to country or region to region.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) partially explains (A).

(2) (A) is partially correct and therefore, (R) only partially explains (A).

(3) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A).

(4) (A) is wrong and (R) is partially correct.

Answer: (3)

46. Labour Welfare Services were divided into two groups by the committee of experts on Welfare facilities for Industrial Workers convened by ILO in 1963. These are (a) Those within the precincts of the establishment and (b) Those outside the precincts of the establishment. The content of Welfare activities remained the same as recommended by 1959 study team.

As per the ILO classification, which one among the following is not Welfare and Amenities outside the precincts of the establishment.

(1) Social insurance measures including gratuity, pension and provident fund.

(2) Housing facilities.

(3) Recreation facility.

(4) Arrangement for prevention of fatigue.

Answer: (4)

47. Which is not true in relation to State Regulation of Wages ?

(1) Internal Wage differentials are regulated by the State.

(2) The ideals of Welfare State necessitate State Regulation of Wages.

(3) It is necessary to raise the efficiency of the workers by ensuring improvements in health, productivity and distribution of income.

(4) It is necessary because of the gap existing between the marginal productivity of labour and the actual level of wages on the average.

Answer: (1)

48. Twelfth Plan has identified certain sectors that will create large employment. Which among the following sectors has not been identified ?

(1) Textiles and Garments

(2) Leather and Footwear

(3) Gems and Jewellery

(4) Health Care

Answer: (4)

49. “Marginal productivity, wages and standard of living tend to adjust to one another.”

What is true in relation to the statement ?

(1) The condition is achieved for short-run only.

(2) The condition never arrives.

(3) The condition is achieved in the long-run.

(4) The condition arrives when high wages are paid.

Answer: (3)

50. Which among the following is not a factor which will determine the level of demand for any commodity ?

(1) Price

(2) Prices of other commodities

(3) Taste

(4) Social values

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Indian Culture Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

INDIAN CULTURE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. When were the bow and arrow added in the equipment of hunters for the first time ?

(1) Lower Palaeolithic period

(2) Neolithic period

(3) Mesolithic period

(4) Chalcolithic period

Answer: (3)

2. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) and select your correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The upper palaeolithic people at Bhimbetka practiced the art of painting.

Reason (R) : They painted the various animals whom they might have known.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

3. The most common form of Harappan seals is

(1) Cylindrical

(2) Rectangular

(3) Round

(4) Square

Answer: (4)

4. Which animal finds the largest number of mention in the Rigveda ?

(1) Cow

(2) Horse

(3) Bull

(4) Buffalo

Answer: (2)

5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) and select your correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The Sulvasutras prescribe various kinds of measurements for the construction of sacrificial altars.

Reason (R) : The ritual of sacrifice had become popular.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

6. Space is categorised in Jainism as :

(1) Jiva

(2) Ajiva

(3) Samvara

(4) Nirjara

Answer: (2)

7. Of the following, which was not a sect of Theravada Buddhism ?

(1) Sarvastivada

(2) Sammitiya

(3) Gokulika

(4) Mahishaska

Answer: (3)

8. In which inscription does Ashoka make a reference to the forest tribes ?

(1) Sarnath pillar edict

(2) Bhabru inscription

(3) Rock-Edict – XIII

(4) Roopnath minor edict

Answer: (3)

9. What did Greeks mean by Strategos ?

(1) Governor

(2) Priest

(3) Village headman

(4) Monk

Answer: (1)

10. Which of the following law-giver allows a woman to sell and mortgage her movable and immovable property ?

(1) Manu

(2) Āpastamba

(3) Vishnu

(4) Katyayana

Answer: (4)

11. Which of the following is not correct about the Sangam literature ?

(1) It refers to many settlements such as Kaveripattanam.

(2) It refers to the Yavana traders coming to South India with their own ships to take pepper.

(3) It refers to some South Indian dynasties.

(4) Sangam was the name of a ruling dynasty of South India.

Answer: (4)

12. Which is not correct about the Sarnath school of art ?

(1) The treatment of Buddha’s eyes adds to his serenity.

(2) The rounder face gives him the extra grace.

(3) The transparent drapery makes the Buddha’s figure impressive.

(4) There is absence of mudras.

Answer: (4)

13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R), and select your correct answer from the codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The Gupta period witnessed the growth of lot of scientific literature.

Reason (R) : The scientists were paid rich amount by the state for the task.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

14. Which is not correctly taken from the description of Hiuen – Tsang ?

(1) He praises the king of Jalandhar.

(2) He compliments for the Hindu ruler of Ujjain for bravery and learning.

(3) His appreciation for the non-Buddhists of Matipura.

(4) He praises the Buddhist ruler of Vallabhi, who was the son-in-law of King Harsha of Kanauj.

Answer: (4)

15. Which is not correct about the interpretation of Sankara’s Vedant philosophy ?

(1) The reality is advaita.

(2) Upanishdic relation between brahm and atman is rejected.

(3) The world is illusion.

(4) Asceticism is advocated for the control of senses.

Answer: (2)

16. Which work criticizes the foul practices of the Buddhists and the Kapalikas ?

(1) Gaudavaho

(2) Chandisataka

(3) Mattavilasa Prahasan

(4) Prithviraja Vijaya

Answer: (3)

17. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :


Answer: (2)

18. Which of the following was the prominent Art-centre of the Rashtrakutas ?

(1) Ellora

(2) Salsette

(3) Elephanta

(4) Badami

Answer: (1)

19. Which of the following is not the work of Kshemendra ?

(1) Bodhisattvavadana

(2) Brihatkatha manjari

(3) Bala Ramayana

(4) Ramayana manjari

Answer: (3)

20. Which Chola King granted land to the Sailendra King of Sri Vijaya for the construction of a Buddhist monastery at Nagapattinam ?

(1) Rajaraja I

(2) Rajendra I

(3) Rajendra II

(4) Rajadhiraja

Answer: (1)

21. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct about Indian trade with China ?

(i) Sadiduddin Awfi mentions Irani merchants who settled down in Cambay, carried on trade between India and China.

(ii) The Taj-ul Ma‘asir mentions that Chinese mirrors and silk were in demand in the Indian markets.

(iii) Ibn Battuta records the availability of Chinese silk such as Khuz, Diba, Shir, and Qasab.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (1)

22. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : 

Assertion (A) : Shaikh Fariduddin (Baba Farid) left Delhi and settled at Ajodhan.

Reason (R) : Baba Farid decided to leave Delhi when his fame became an obstacle to his prayers.

In the light of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

23. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below. 

Match the following Persian works with their authors :


Answer: (2)

24. The Batihagarh inscription mentions the construction of a gow math (cow temple) by the order of which Sultan ?

(1) Alauddin Khalji

(2) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(3) Firoz Tughlaq

(4) Ibrahim Lodi

Answer: (2)

25. The Sharqi kingdom of Jaunpur was founded by a eunuch who was in the service of sultan Firoz Tughluq.

Identify the eunuch from the following :

(1) Malik Sarwar

(2) Abu Bakr Shah

(3) Muhammad Shah

(4) Mir Hajib Sultani

Answer: (1)

26. Chronologically arrange the following monuments of Akbar’s reign :

(i) Humayun’s Tomb

(ii) Shaikh Salim Chishti’s Tomb

(iii) Buland Darwaza

(iv) Agra Fort

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

(2) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(3) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(4) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)

Answer: (1)

27. Identify the pair of the emperors in their period tobacco come into use in Northern India and it was banned within twenty years.

(1) Humayun and Akbar

(2) Akbar and Jahangir

(3) Jahangir and Shah Jahan

(4) Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb

Answer: (2)

28. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :


Answer: (4)

29. From the following, point out the incorrect pair :

(1) Rajatarangini – Sanskrit

(2) Humayunama – Turkish

(3) Baburnama – Turkish

(4) Chachnama – Arabic

Answer: (2)

30. Arrange the following manuscript illustrations of the Mughal atelier in chronological order :

(i) Anwar-i Suhaili

(ii) Razmnama

(iii) Hamzanama

(iv) Tarikh-i-khandan-i-Timuria

Select your answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Answer: (1)

31. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :


Answer: (2)

32. Who among the following pursued European fashions construction of their buildings ?

(1) British

(2) Dutch

(3) French

(4) Portuguese

Answer: (All)

33. Mughal nobles were honoured in many ways. Which one of the following did not fall into the category of royal honours bestowed upon the nobles ?

(1) Khila’t

(2) Sarpech

(3) Sar-o-pa

(4) Nisar

Answer: (4)

34. “As regards myself, my liking for painting and my practice in judging it has arrived at such a point that when any work is brought before me, either of deceased artists or of those of the present day, without the names being told me, I say on the spur of the moment that it is the work of such and such a man.”

In the above statement which of the following emperor is applanding his painting skills ?

(1) Babur

(2) Akbar

(3) Jahangir

(4) Shahjahan

Answer: (3)

35. A whole body of literature on etiquette known as Akhlaq developed in India and Iran during the medieval period. Which of the following is/are correct about Akhlaq literature ?

(i) Akhalaq-i-Nasiri of Nasir al-Din Tusi was the earliest work produced in Iran on etiquettes in the first half of the thirteenth century.

(ii) In India Fatwa-i-Jahandari of Ziauddin Barani was the first treatise on Akhalaq genre.

(iii) Akhlaq-i-Jahangiri was the first major work on etiquettes complied under the Mughals by Nur-al-din Qazi al-Khaqani.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (3)

36. Chronologically arrange the following legislations on the basis of the year of their enactment :

(a) Charles Metcalfe’s Act XI that liberated the Press in India.

(b) India Act V that made slavery illegal in India.

(c) Regulation XVII that made sati illegal in Bengal Presidency.

(d) Regulation III that declared infanticide to be treated as murder.

Codes :

(1) (d) (c) (a) (b)

(2) (b) (a) (c) (d)

(3) (c) (b) (d) (a)

(4) (c) (d) (b) (a)

Answer: (1)

37. Identify which one of the following does not belong to Serampore missionaries :

(1) William Carey

(2) Joshua Marshman

(3) Charles Grant

(4) William Ward

Answer: (3)

38. Identify which one of the following statement is wrong :

(1) Orientalists made an attempt to learn about Indian culture through a study of texts in Sanskrit and Persian languages and use that knowledge in matters of governance.

(2) Utilitarians believed in appropriate social engineering and authoritarian reformism.

(3) Evangelists argued about the necessity of government intervention to liberate Indian’s from their religions that were full of superstitions, idolatry and tyranny of the priests.

(4) Free trade thinkers believed that a free Indian economy would ensure a free flow of trade from the shackles of tradition and without government intervention.

Answer: (4)

39. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :


Answer: (3)

40. On whose suggestion Dayananda Saraswati started recording his ideas that formed the content of Satyartha Prakash ?

(1) Swami Vijayananda

(2) Devendranath Tagore

(3) Raja Jai Kishan Das

(4) Lala Hans Raj

Answer: (3)

41. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :


Answer: (4)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :


Answer: (1)

43. Which one of the following literary works was not authored by Bankim Chandra Chatterji ?

(1) Meghnadbadh

(2) Durgeshnandini

(3) Kamalakanta

(4) Anandmath

Answer: (1)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :


Answer: (4)

45. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Ramkrishna Paramhansa’s teachings emphasized the universality of all religious – all were true and led to God.

Reason (R) : Vivekananda’s vision of Hinduism was deeply divided between its glorious past and degenerate present.

In the light of above statements which of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

46. Who said :

“I want to be in my country not as outlander but as master in the same sense that an Englishman is a master in his own country and in the colonies.”

(1) B.C. Pal

(2) B.G. Tilak

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: (2)

47. Who was the moving spirit behind the founding of Indian Social Conference in 1887 ?

(1) Beheramji M. Malabari

(2) Surendra Nath Banerjee

(3) Mahadev Govind Ranade

(4) Narayan Ganesh Chandavarkar

Answer: (3)

48. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :


Answer: (4)

49. Who amongst the following was not an eminent orientalist ?

(1) Dr. Bhau Daji

(2) Dr. R.G. Bhandarkar

(3) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(4) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Answer: (4)

50. Who wrote the song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ during the Swadeshi Movement, that later inspired liberation struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as their national anthem ?

(1) Kazi Nazrul Islam

(2) Rajani Kant Sen

(3) Syed Abu Mohammed

(4) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (4)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ARAB CULTURE & ISLAMIC STUDIES

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. In pre-Islamic Arabia, the dowry of the bride, the price of blood, the wealth of a Shaikh were all computed in terms of

(1) Horses

(2) Date-Palm trees

(3) Gold

(4) Camels

Answer: (4)

2. The purpose of Hilf al-Fudul was to

(1) drive away non-Makkans from the town

(2) help oppressed persons in Makkah

(3) conclude a pact with the people of Ta’if

(4) organize an annual fair at Makkah

Answer: (2)

3. Arrange the following incidents in chronological order. Use the code given below :

(a) The True of Hudaybiyyah

(b) Mithaq al-Madinah

(c) Battle of Hunayn

(d) Battle of Ahzab

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(2) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(3) (b), (d), (a), (c)

(4) (d), (a), (c), (b)

Answer: (3)

4. The Black stone was taken away from the Ka’bah by

(1) Ridwan Ibn Tutush

(2) Abu Tahir Sulayman

(3) Abu Sa’id al-Hasan al-Jannabi

(4) Al-Hasan Ibn al-Sabbah

Answer: (2)

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) The Battle of Camel – Aishah

(2) The Battle of Nahrawan – Mu’awiyah

(3) The Battle of Siffin – Ali and Mu’awiyah

(4) The Assassin of Ali – Abd ur-rahman ibn Muljam

Answer: (2)

6. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) The Battle of Namaraq – during the caliphate of ‘Umar

(2) The Battle of Nihawand – during the caliphate of ‘Uthman

(3) The Battle of Jalulah – during the caliphate of Abu Bakr

(4) The Battle of Buwaib – during the caliphate of ‘Ali

Answer: (1)

7. The first mosque built in Egypt was in

(1) Cairo

(2) Alexandria

(3) Fustat

(4) Aswan

Answer: (3)

8. The question given below consists of four statements. Indicate the correct answer from the alternatives below :

(A) Musaylimah of al-Yamamah was killed.

(B) Ka’b ibn Ashraf, a jew poet, was pardoned

(C) Several tribes of Arabia refused to pay Zakat

(D) Abu Bakr was martyred by a Syrian Slave

Codes :

(1) (A) and (C) are correct.

(2) (A) and (B) are correct.

(3) (C) and (D) are correct.

(4) (A) and(D) are correct.

Answer: (1)

9. Which of the following is not a collection of Hadith ?

(1) Al-Mu’jam Al-Saghir

(2) Al-Muwatta

(3) Kitab ul-Sadaqah

(4) Anwar ul-Tanzil

Answer: (4)

10. “The commandership belongs to the Quraysh.” The above tradition of the Prophet was quoted at the time of the finalization of the caliphate by

(1) Abu ‘Ubaydah ibn al-Jarrah

(2) Abu Bakr

(3) ‘Umar

(4) Abdul Rahman ibn ‘Awf

Answer: (2)

11. The famous Umayyad Mosque is located in

(1) Mosul

(2) Ramlah

(3) Damascus

(4) Jerusalem

Answer: (3)

12. The last Umayyad Caliph was

(1) Al-Walid II

(2) Marwan II

(3) Yazid III

(4) ‘Umar II

Answer: (2)

13. The tragedy of Karbala took place in the year

(1) 663 AD

(2) 675 AD

(3) 680 AD

(4) 690 AD

Answer: (3)

14. The famous singer Ziryab was patronized by

(1) Fatimids

(2) Umayyads

(3) Abbasids

(4) Ayyubids

Answer: (2)

15. The founder of the Abbasid dynasty was

(1) Harun Rashid

(2) Abu Jafar al-Mansur

(3) Abul Abbas

(4) Al-Hadi

Answer: (3)

16. Arrange the following caliphs in chronological order. Use the code given below :

(a) Al-Mustasim

(b) Al-Mahdi

(c) Al-Amin

(d) Al-Mutawakkil

Codes :

(1) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(3) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(4) (d), (c), (b), (a)

Answer: (1)

17. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Abu al-‘Ala Maududi – Tafhim al-Qur’an

(2) Ashraf Ali Thanwi – Jami ul-Bayan

(3) Abu al-Kalam Azad – Tarjuman ul-Qur’an

(4) Amin Ahsan Islahi – Tadabbur al-Qur’an

Answer: (2)

18. The title of Jar Allah was given to

(1) Mahmud ibn ‘Umar al-Zamakhshari

(2) Jalal ud-Din al-Mahalli

(3) Jalal ud-Din al-Suyuti

(4) Abdullah ibn ‘Umar al-Baydawi

Answer: (1)

19. Arrange the following books chronologically. Use the code given below :

(a) Al-Kashshaf

(b) Tafsir al-Jalalayn

(c) Mafatih ul-Ghayb

(d) Jami’ al-Bayan

Codes :

(1) (c), (d), (a), (b)

(2) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(3) (d), (a), (c), (b)

(4) (a), (b), (d), (c)

Answer: (3)

20. Baitul Hikmah was an academy founded for the promotion of

(1) Architecture

(2) Translation and Research

(3) Arts and Painting

(4) Music

Answer: (2)

21. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Law of Inheritance – Surah 4

(2) Punishment for adultery – Surah 24

(3) Makkan Trade – Surah 106

(4) The people of the Elephant – Surah 60

Answer: (4)

22. The real founder of the Ghaznawid dynasty was

(1) Subuktigin

(2) Mahmud

(3) Mawdud

(4) Mas’ud

Answer: (1)

23. The duration of the Fatimid rule lasted

(1) 900 – 1070

(2) 909 – 1171

(3) 950 – 1175

(4) 960 – 1180

Answer: (2)

24. Abdul Qadir Jilani was a renowned Sufi of the

(1) Idrisi period

(2) Samanid period

(3) Safavid period

(4) Saljuq period

Answer: (4)

25. The collection of Hadith entitled ‘al-Sahifah al-Sadiqah’ was compiled by

(1) Abdullah ibn Abbas

(2) Abdullah ibn ‘Amr ibn ‘As

(3) Ubayy ibn Ka’b

(4) ‘Abdullah ibn Mas‘ud

Answer: (2)

26. The renowned Persian poet Rudki was associated with the court of

(1) Ahmad

(2) Mansur I

(3) Nasr II

(4) Nuh II

Answer: (3)

27. The long epic poem Shahnama was written by

(1) Umar Khayyam

(2) Mulla Jami

(3) Firdausi

(4) Hafiz Shirazi

Answer: (3)

28. The founder of modern Iran was

(1) Shah Ismail

(2) Nasiruddin Qachar

(3) Shah Abbas

(4) Shah Nasir

Answer: (2)

29. The Jundi-Shapur Academy was founded by

(1) Yazdagird

(2) Nawbakht

(3) Anūsharwan

(4) Cyrus

Answer: (3)

30. Jerusalem was recaptured from the Crusaders by

(1) Ubaidullah al-Mahdi

(2) Abul Qasim

(3) Imaduddin Zangi

(4) Salohuddin Ayyubi

Answer: (4)

31. Pahlawi version of the Panchatantra was translated into Arabic by

(1) Al-Turtushi

(2) Ibn al-Muqaffa

(3) Hunayn Ibn Ishaq

(4) Isa Ibn Yahya

Answer: (2)

32. The best-known botanist and pharmacist of Spain was

(1) Ibn al-Baytar

(2) Ibn-Zuhr

(3) Ibn-Bajjah

(4) Ibn-Rushd

Answer: (1)

33. The Fame of Ibn-Khaldun rests on his work

(1) Al-Masalik wal-Mamalik

(2) Muqaddamah

(3) Kitab ul-Hayawan

(4) Rehla

Answer: (2)

34. Abd ur-Rahman-I, the founder of the Umayyad dynasty in Spain and his next seven successors assumed the title of

(1) Shaykh

(2) Rais

(3) Padeshah

(4) Amir

Answer: (4)

35. Abd ur-Rahman-III chose the title of

(1) Khalifah

(2) Al-Khalifah al-Nasir Li-Din Allah

(3) Khalifah-i Rasulullah

(4) Padeshah

Answer: (2)

36. The earliest Spanish Muslim scientist who edited and corrected the planetary tables of al-Khwarizmi was

(1) Al-Zarqali

(2) Al-Karmani

(3) Al-Majriti

(4) Al-Bitruji

Answer: (3)

37. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Kawakibi – Unity of all Muslims

(2) Pan-Turanism – Sulayman the magnificent

(3) Waqa-i Hurriyah – Qizilbash

(4) Murad-I – Janissary

Answer: (4)

38. The founder of the Ottoman dynasty Uthman Khan was succeeded by

(1) Murad-II

(2) Bayazid

(3) Urkhan

(4) Sulayman

Answer: (3)

39. ‘Al-Bimaristan’, the most significant and famous hospital was in the city of

(1) Baghdad

(2) Bukhara

(3) Samarqand

(4) Madinah

Answer: (1)

40. The founder of the Mutazilite School of Muslim philosophy was

(1) Al-Jahiz

(2) Wasil bin Ata

(3) Al-Kindi

(4) Abu Musa al-Ash‘ari

Answer: (2)

41. In connection with his ‘Bayt ul-Hikma’ al-Mamun, erected an astronomical observatory – near the gate of the city of

(1) Shammasiyah

(2) Al-Basrah

(3) Al-Kufah

(4) Damascus

Answer: (1)

42. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Imaduddin Zangi – Kashghar

(2) Nuruddin Zangi – Aleppo

(3) Malik Salih – Safawi

(4) Khusrau Shah – Ayyubi

Answer: (2)

43. Match the following. Identify the correct answer and mark the same in the code given below :

Answer: (1)

44. The pointed arch of western Gothic architecture, appears first in Islam in the

(1) Umayyad Mosque of Damascus

(2) Mosque of Samarra

(3) Cairo Mosque

(4) Mosque of the Prophet

Answer: (1)

45. Hasan Al-Banna was associated with

(1) Sanausi

(2) Mahdawi

(3) Tijanwi

(4) Ikhwan ul-Muslimin

Answer: (4)

46. Identify which of the following is correct chronologically :

(1) Abu Bakr, Uthman, Ali, Umar

(2) Muawiyah-I, Marwan-I, Al-Walid, Yazid-I

(3) Uthman, Urkhan, Murad-I, Bayazid-I

(4) Al-Abbas, Al-Nasir, Al-Amin, Al-Mamun

Answer: (3)

47. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Abul Hasan Al-Mawardi – Kitb ul-Hawi al-Kabir

(2) Abul Farajal-Isfahani – Al-Fihrist

(3) Ibn al-Nadim – Al-Masalik wa-al-Mamalik

(4) Al-Istakhri – Kitab ul-Aghani

Answer: (1)

48. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Ibn al-Khatib – Al-Thatah Fi Tarikh Gharnatah

(2) Abul Hasan al-Mawardi – Malumat al-Handasah

(3) Ibn Hajar al-Asqalani – Al-Isabah

(4) Ibn Khallikan – Wafayat ul-Ayan

Answer: (2)

49. The author of the book ‘Izalatul Khafa’ was

(1) Muhammad Abduhu

(2) Shah Waliullah

(3) Hasan Al-Banna

(4) Rasheed Raza

Answer: (2)

50. The square minaret was added to the mosque of Cordova by

(1) Abdul Rahman I

(2) Hisham I

(3) Al-Nasir

(4) Abu Abdullah Mohammad

Answer: (1)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Physical Education Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

PHYSICAL EDUCATION

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. A swimmer Joseph schooling winning the first ever Gold Medal for his country in Rio Olympics is from :

(1) Luxembourg

(2) Bolivia

(3) Singapore

(4) Iceland

Answer: (3)

2. Identify the athletes who have more ST fibres and relatively less FT fibres in their muscles

(1) Sprinters

(2) Shot-putters

(3) High jumpers

(4) Marathoners

Answer: (4)

3. Abduction of the arm about the gleno humeral joint is accompanied by :

(1) Abduction of the shoulder girdle

(2) Elevation of the shoulder girdle

(3) Upward tilt of the shoulder girdle

(4) Upward rotation of the shoulder girdle

Answer: (4)

4. Name the psychologist who defined stimulus in terms of physical energy such as mechanical pressure, sound etc.

(1) Thorndike

(2) Skinner

(3) Kohlar

(4) Hull

Answer: (4)

5. Philosophy of experimentalism that gave

(1) The basic theory of curriculum

(2) The realistic theory of curriculum

(3) The instructive theory of curriculum

(4) The make shift theory of curriculum

Answer: (1)

6. Which of these is not an inherited trait ?

(1) Shape of nose

(2) Tooth decay

(3) Blood group

(4) Skin colour

Answer: (2)

7. Which of the following factors should not be considered for talent identification ?

(1) Nature and duration of training in the past.

(2) Socio-economic conditions of child.

(3) Emotional state of child.

(4) Health status of the child.

Answer: (3)

8. If a chi-square test is to be performed on a contingency table with 3 rows and 4 columns, how many degrees of freedom should be used ?

(1) 12

(2) 10

(3) 8

(4) 6

Answer: (4)

9. The lateral deviation in spine are measured through

(1) Vertrebro graph

(2) Scolio meter

(3) Infra scolio

(4) Gonio spine

Answer: (2)

10. The last link of sports management chain is

(1) Control and evaluation

(2) Finance and budget

(3) Public relation

(4) Overall control

Answer: (1)

11. In Badminton, Dronacharya, Arjuna, Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna is awarded to :

(a) Prakash Padukone

(b) Mohammad Arif

(c) Pullela Gopichand

(d) Vimal Kumar

Code :

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (c)

(3) (c)

(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (3)

12. Of the following therapeutic modatities, which are called penetrative thermo-therapy ?

(a) Wax bath

(b) Hydrotherapy

(c) Short wave diathermy

(d) Cryotherapy

(e) Electrotherapy

(f) Ultra-sound

Code :

(1) (a), (e)

(2) (c), (f)

(3) (c), (d)

(4) (b), (f)

Answer: (2)

13. Sesamoid bones are found in

(a) Mastoid process             (b) Pisiform of the wrist

(c) First metacarpal bone  (d) Hyoid bone

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (d)

Answer: (3)

14. Trait-centered orientation contends that motivated behaviour of sportsperson is primarily influenced by :

(a) Personality       (b) Negative environment

(c) Need & goals   (d) Competition

Codes :

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (b)

Answer: (1)

15. Delphi technique for curriculum development has been employed :

(a) to set goals

(b) to determine organisational change

(c) to evaluate programme

(d) to assess students needs to develop curriculum ideas

(e) to ascertain community needs

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (d), (e)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(3) (c), (d), (e), (b)

(4) (d), (e), (b), (a)

Answer: (1)

16. Which of the following food components have antioxidant effects ?

A. Phends             B. Sesame Lignous

C. Vitamin – C     D. Vitamin – D

E. Vitamin – E     F. Corotenoid

Codes :

(1) A, C, E, F

(2) A, B, C, E, F

(3) B, D, E, F

(4) B, C, D, E

Answer: (1)

17. Find out the correct combination of the factors determining speed from the codes given below :

(a) Psychic factors

(b) Stretchability of muscles

(c) Flexibility

(d) Mobility of the nervous system

(e) Ligaments of the joint

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)

(3) (a), (c), (d)

(4) (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (3)

18. Which of the following strategies facilitate problem solving ?

(a) Algorithms

(b) Mental set

(c) Planning fallacy

(d) Heuristics

(e) Analogy

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (d) and (e)

(3) (a), (d) and (e)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

19. The basic approaches used to develop criterion referenced standards for tests of human performance are

(a) Referenced equivalence approach

(b) Judge mental approach

(c) Minimal equivalence approach

(d) Normative approach

(e) Empirical approach

(f) Combination of all sources

(g) Rationale balance approach

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (d), (g)

(2) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(3) (b), (d), (e), (f)

(4) (d), (e), (f), (g)

Answer: (3)

20. Intramural programme creates in students the sense of

(a) Selfishness

(b) Enmity

(c) Maximum involvement

(d) Mass participation

Codes :

(1) (a), (b)

(2) (d), (a)

(3) (d), (c)

(4) (c), (a) 

Answer: (3)

21. Find the correct sequence of I, II, III and IV position winners of Rio De Janeiro Olympic Games 2016 in Badminton Women Singles Event :

(a) Carolina Marin

(b) Nozomi Okuhara

(c) Pursala Venkat Sindhu

(d) Li Xuerui

Codes :

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(2) (a), (d), (c), (b)

(3) (a), (c), (d), (b)

(4) (d), (a), (c), (b)

Answer: (1)

22. Find the correct sequence of events that occur during transmission of nerve impulse :

a. Sodium influx

b. Change of membrane permeability

c. Action potential generated

d. Rupture of synaptic vesicle

e. Stimulation f. Depolarization

Code :

(1) e, f, b, a, d, c

(2) a, e, b, f, a, c

(3) b, a, f, c, d, e

(4) e, b, a, f, c, d

Answer: (4)

23. Arrange in sequence of constitute of synovial joint from inner to outer :

(a) Hyline cartilage  (b) Synovial membrane

(c) Synovial fluid      (d) Joint capsule

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(3) (a), (d), (c), (b)

(4) (b), (c), (d), (a)

Answer: (2)

24. Personal self-efficacy is based on four major sources of information. Arrange the information in sequential order from most influencing to least influencing.

(a) Past performance accomplishment

(b) Physiological arousal

(c) Precarious experiences

(d) Social & verbal persuasion

Codes :

(1) (a), (c), (d), (b)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(3) (b), (c), (d), (a)

(4) (c), (a), (b), (d)

Answer: (3)

25. Put the steps involved in observational learning in sequence of its occurrence :

(a) Reproduction

(b) Attention

(c) Motivation for later use

(d) Retention

Codes :

(1) (c), (d), (b), (a)

(2) (b), (d), (a), (c)

(3) (d), (b), (c), (a)

(4) (b), (a), (d), (c)

Answer: (2)

26. Sequentially arrange nutritive value in calories in per 100 gm of edible protein of common fruits in descending order :

(a) Mango    (b) Guava

(c) Orange   (d) Papaya

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(2) (d), (c), (a), (b)

(3) (a), (d), (b), (c)

(4) (b), (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (1)

27. In the formulation of a Macro-Cycle plan, mostly the following steps are followed.

Sequentially arrange them using the given codes :

(a) Determination of goal and sub-goals.

(b) Determination of periods and arrangement of meso-cycles.

(c) Performance proguosis and determination of performance structure.

(d) Determination of dates of tests, controls, competitions.

(e) Determination of load dynamics and load indices.

Codes :

(1) (c), (a), (d), (e), (b)

(2) (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

(3) (c), (a), (b), (d), (e)

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

Answer: (3)

28. Select the correct sequence of steps of research :

A. Formulation of Hypothesis

B. Collection of data

C. Formulation of generalisation and conclusion

D. Selection of Problem

E. Analysis of Data

F. Design of Research

G. Discussion on Hypothesis

Codes :

(1) D F A B E C G

(2) F B E A G D C

(3) D A F B E G C

(4) D F A B E G C

Answer: (3)

29. Arrange the items of Johnson Basket ball test in a sequential order :

a. Dribble

b. Basket ball throw for accuracy

c. Field goal speed test

Codes :

(1) c, b, a

(2) a, c, b

(3) c, a, b

(4) b, a, c

Answer: (1)

30. Arrange the universal principles of controlling in a sequence :

(a) Patting or pulling up people

(b) Develop comparable performance standard

(c) Evaluation of process and procedures

(d) Establish a reporting system

Codes :

(1) (d), (b), (c), (a)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)

(3) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(4) (a), (d), (b), (c)

Answer: (1)

31. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : N.S.N.I.S. is the nodal agency in the country to look after sports promotions.

Reason (R) : The primary job of N.S.N.I.S. is to produce coaches of high caliber and significantly contribute in rendering their expertise and assistance in the preparation of national teams for international competitions.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Drugs are chemical substances used for clinical purposes, unfortunately many athletes abusing drugs by taking banned items to enhance their performance unethically and illegal way.

Reason (R) : Knowing ill effects of smoking and alcohol many people consume them, then why athletes are debarred from taking drugs ? Only winners are glorified, therefore they may be allowed to enhance performance by any method.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A dimpled golf ball travel further than a smooth golf ball.

Reason (R) : The dimpled golf ball creates a small area of turbulent air behind it which create a small area of low pressure.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

34. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Theory of competence motivation contends that perception of control to learn & perform skills work along with self-worth & competence to influence motivation.

Reason (R) : These feelings do not affect motivation directly but influence emotional state such as enjoyment, anxiety, pride, shame etc., and in turn motivate sports person.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

35. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : 

Assertion (A) : The curriculum includes all the learner’s experiences in or outside the school that are included in a programme which has been devised to help him develop mentally, physically, emotionally, socially spiritually and morally.

Reason (R) : The term curriculum is of Latin origin and it implies an athletic ground, thus indicating that curriculum is the ground through which the educand has to pass in order to reach a definite goal.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Dietary fibre is thought to be associated with enhanced incidence of coronary heart diseases.

Reason (R) : The mechanism of its action is attributed to its binding to bile salt and preventing its re absorption, and thus affecting cholesterol level in circulation.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

37. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) : 

Assertion (A) : The aim of direct preparation for competition is to achieve year’s best performance in the main competition.

Reason (R) : Direct preparation is also important for build-up competition to perform well in practice match.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

38. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A dependent variable is the factor manipulated by the experimenter in his attempt to ascertain its relationship to an observed phenomenon.

Reason (R) : An independent variable is the presumed cause of the dependent variable and the dependent variable is the presumed effect of independent variable.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

39. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Validity is affected by the consistency in the results of a test.

Reason (R) : Inconsistency in test results will lower the correlation with a validating criterion.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

40. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Authoritarian or autocratic management is primarily a “one-man” show where the executive at the top wields all powers the supreme authority to say.

Reason (R) : Every word uttered by him is a command that must be obeyed every one, An  autocratic administrator tolerates neither dissent nor disagreement.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is true ?

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

41. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (4)

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

47. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

48. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (4)

50. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

 

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Adult Education Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

ADULT EDUCATION

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. What is not the cause of frustration for an adolescent of the following ?

(1) Delay in getting job

(2) Delay in getting marriage

(3) Delay in getting prestige

(4) Delay in getting maturity

Answer: (3)

2. ‘The Right to Education’ was first recognised as a human right by

(1) United Nation Universal Declaration of human rights

(2) Indian Constitution

(3) SAARC Summit

(4) Millennium Development Goals

Answer: (1)

3. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) One third of Indian population is below poverty line.

(2) India has been declared a polio free nation.

(3) One third of female population of India is still illiterate.

(4) The Gujarat state has the highest literacy rate in the country.

Answer: (4)

4. Who among the following was associated with “Etawah Pilot Project” ?

(1) Albert Mayer

(2) W.H. Wisher

(3) R.N. Tagore

(4) F.L. Browne

Answer: (1)

5. To achieve a “stable population” by 2045 is one of the

(1) “Immediate objective” of India’s population policy.

(2) “Medium term objective” of India’s population policy.

(3) “Long term objective” of India’s population policy.

(4) “Decadal objective” of India’s population policy.

Answer: (3)

6. The main objective of “National Adult Education Programme” launched in 1978 was

(1) Literacy alone

(2) Social awareness alone

(3) Functionality alone

(4) Literacy, functionality and social awareness

Answer: (4)

7. The book entitled ‘Pedagogy of the Oppressed’ is written by

(1) Paulo Freire

(2) S. Waghmare, V. Waghmare

(3) R.N. Tagore

(4) Paterson

Answer: (1)

8. “Reflection without Action is mere verbalism, action without reflection is pure activism” Who made the above statement ?

(1) McKenzie

(2) Knowles

(3) Freire

(4) Goodman

Answer: (3)

9. Which of the following is not required for bare survival of life ?

(1) Food

(2) Water

(3) Fashion

(4) Protection of life

Answer: (3)

10. Arrange the stages of communication in order these are practised. Use the codes given below :

a. Feedback   b. Decoding

c. Content     d. Encoding

Codes :

(1) c, d, b, a

(2) c, b, a, d

(3) c, d, a, b

(4) a, b, c, d

Answer: (1)

11. Arrange the following major literacy programmes of different countries in order these were introduced. Use the codes given below :

a. India            b. Vietnam

c. Myanmar   d. Cuba

Codes :

(1) b, d, c, a

(2) a, b, c, d

(3) d, c, b, a

(4) b, a, c, d

Answer: (1)

12. Arrange the following institutions as these were incorporated. Use the codes given below :

a. Bengal Social Service League

b. Rural Reconstruction Centre Sriniketan

c. Indian Adult Education Association

d. Indian University Association for Continuing Education

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, a, d, c

(3) b, a, c, d

(4) d, a, c, b

Answer: (1)

13. Arrange the following programmes in order these were introduced. Use the codes given below :

a. Community Development Programme

b. Mahila Samakhya

c. Integrated Rural Development Programme

d. Jandhan

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, c, a, d

(3) a, c, b, d

(4) c, a, b, d

Answer: (3)

14. Arrange the following steps of Literacy Programme in order of their use. Use the codes given below :

a. Certification of the learners

b. Instruction for the learners

c. Identification of learners

d. Motivation among the learners

Codes :

(1) b, c, a, d

(2) c, d, b, a

(3) a, b, c, d

(4) d, b, a, c

Answer: (2)

15. Arrange the following programmes of adult education in order these were conducted. Use the codes given below :

a. Sakshar Bharat

b. Total Literacy Campaign

c. Gram Shikshan Muhim

d. National Adult Education Programme

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, d, a, c

(3) c, d, b, a

(4) a, b, d, c

Answer: (3)

16. Arrange the stages/functions of management as these are applied in conduct of a programme. Use the codes given below :

a. Provisioning of resources b. Preparing a blue-print

c. Information system d. Corrective mechanism

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, a, c, d

(3) a, c, d, b

(4) d, b, a, c

Answer: (2)

17. Arrange the following institutions in order of their establishment for promotion of continuing education. Use the codes given below :

a. Jan Shikshan Nilayam

b. Shramik Vidya Peeth

c. Krishi Vigyan Kendra

d. Lok Shikshan Kendra

Codes :

(1) a, c, d, b

(2) b, d, a, c

(3) c, b, a, d

(4) b, c, a, d

Answer: (4)

18. Arrange the stages of evaluation of social development programme as per their sequence in adoption. Use the codes given below :

a. Development of instruments

b. Analysis

c. Determining the parameters

d. Administering the tools

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, c, d, a

(3) c, d, a, b

(4) c, a, d, b

Answer: (4)

19. Arrange the training of functionaries in adult education in order these were imparted. Use the codes given below :

a. Training of volunteers

b. Training of resource persons

c. Training of master trainers

d. Training of key resource persons

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) d, c, b, a

(3) c, d, b, a

(4) c, a, d, b

Answer: (3)

20. Arrange the following needs as per the Hierarchical Theory of Needs using the codes given below :

a. Self-esteem needs b. Security needs

c. Basic needs d. Self-actualisation needs

Codes :

(1) c, b, a, d

(2) c, d, b, a

(3) c, a, b, d

(4) c, d, a, b

Answer: (1)

21. Arrange the following milestones in chronological order. Use the codes given below :

a. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

b. Sakshar Bharat

c. Right to education to children of 6-14 years

d. Right to Information

Codes :

(1) a, d, b, c

(2) b, a, d, c

(3) a, c, b, d

(4) a, b, c, d

Answer: (1)

22. Assertion (A) : An oral message is more dynamic and makes direct impact than a written message.

Reason (R) : An oral message is always better than a written message.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(2) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Answer: (4)

23. Assertion (A) : “Family Life Education” is a part of the population education programme.

Reason (R) : Family Life Education contributes to the emergence of a small family.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is the outcome of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

Answer: (1)

24. Assertion (A) : The percentage growth of education among girls and women has contributed to their empowerment.

Reason (R) : The increase in the education of girls does not contribute to postponement of the age of marriage and to a reduction in the size of families.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(4) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

Answer: (3)

25. Assertion (A) : One of the greatest attributes of a successful leader is the ability to communicate simply and effectively.

Reason (R) : Knowledge alone is adequate for a successful leader.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(2) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

26. Assertion (A) : Human senses are the gateways to learning.

Reason (R) : Learning activities should engage maximum number of senses by using audiovisual aids.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(2) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (3)

27. Assertion (A) : India has experienced a drastic rise in educational level among its population in the past three decades.

Reason (R) : The differences in educational attainment between males and females have shrunk.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(3) (R) is correct and (A) is wrong.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (2)

28. Match the items given in List – I with the items of List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

29. Match the items given in List – I with the items of List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

30. Match the items given in List – I with the items of List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (4)

31. Match the items given in List – I with the List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

32. Match the items given in List – I with the items of List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

33. Match the items given in List – I with the items in List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

34. Match the items given in List – I with the items in List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (1)

35. Match the items given in List – I with the items in List – II, use the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

36. Which of the following are the most important means of empowering women ?

Use the codes given below :

(a) Literacy and Education

(b) Health and Nutrition

(c) Free travel Facilities

(d) Freedom to Worship

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (1)

37. Which of the following is an example of formal institution ? Use the codes given below :

(a) School            (b) Crowd

(c) Panchayat     (d) Self help group

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and(d)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

38. Which of the following are the constituents of education ? Use the codes given below :

(a) Teacher and learner

(b) Furniture

(c) Methods and contents

(d) Goals and objectives

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

39. Which of the following is an agent of positive social change ? Use the codes given below :

(a) Education     (b) Economic development

(c) Innovation   (d) Calamity

Codes :

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (3)

40. “Factors” concerning adult learners are important guideposts for development and formulation of a typology of adult learners. 

(a) Socio-cultural   (b) Socio-economic

(c) Psycho-social   (d) Trends of fashion

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) Above all

Answer: (1)

41. Education is a process of bringing about desirable changes in human-being 

(a) Skills (b) Knowledge

(c) Attitude (d) Gambling

Codes :

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

42. Communication is the process by which two or more persons exchange _____.

(a) Ideas

(b) Facts

(c) Feelings

(d) Power

Codes :

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

43. The Experimental World Literacy Programme (EWLP) was promoted during 1965 to 1975 by

(a) UNICEF (United Nations International Children Emergency Fund)

(b) UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation)

(c) W.H.O. (World Health Organisation)

(d) UNDP (United Nations Development Programme)Codes :

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (3)

44. In the universities, the Population Education Resource Centre (PERC) scheme was implemented by

(a) United Nations Population Fund

(b) University Grants Commission

(c) National Council of Education Research and Training

(d) Department of Adult and Continuing Education of Universities

Codes :

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (4)

45. The main consequences of overpopulation are : Use the codes given below :

(a) Deforestation due to need for more houses.

(b) Loss of ecosystem

(c) High life expectancy

(d) High infant and child mortality

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

Direction : (Q. No. 46 to 50) :

         Comparative education is a fully established academic field of study that examines education in one country (or group of countries) by using data and insights drawn from the practices and situation in another country, or countries. Programmes and courses in comparative education are offered in many universities throughout the world, and relevant studies are regularly published in scholarly journals. The field of comparative education is supported by many projects associated with UNESCO and the national education ministries of various
nations.

Comparative education has four purposes :

1. To describe educational systems, processes or outcomes.

2. To assist in the development of educational institutions and practices.

3. To highlight the relationship between education and society.

4. To establish generalized statements about education that are valid in more than one country.

     Many important educational questions can best be examined from an international and comparative perspective. For example, in the United States there is no nationwide certificate of completion of secondary education. This raises the question of what the advantages and disadvantages are of leaving such certification to each of the 50 states. Comparative education draws on the experience of countries such as Japan and France to show how a centralized system works, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of centralised certification.

46. Comparative education is a study based on

(1) evaluation of one system in one country with the same system in another country.

(2) description of many systems in the same country.

(3) the economics of fashion industry in two countries.

(4) the dietary preferences in one country.

Answer: (1)

47. Projects in comparative education are financed by

(1) only by business corporations in various nations.

(2) only UNESCO

(3) only education ministries of various nations.

(4) Both UNESCO and ministries of education in various nations.

Answer: (4)

48. The purpose of comparative education helps to make generalised statements that are valid

(1) in more than one dissertation

(2) in more than one country

(3) in more than one play field

(4) in one coaching shop

Answer: (2)

49. Japan has a _______ system whereas France has a _______ system of certification of students.

(1) decentralized – centralized

(2) centralized – centralized

(3) centralized – decentralized

(4) decentralized – decentralized

Answer: (2)

50. A centralized system of certification has _______.

(1) only advantages

(2) only disadvantages

(3) both advantages and disadvantages

(4) more advantages and less disadvantages

Answer: (3)

UGC NET Exam January 2017 Linguistics Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

LINGUISTICS

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Charles F. Hockett originally believed there to be 13 design features, out of which the features reserved for humans in this list are :

(1) two

(2) three

(3) four

(4) None

Answer: (3)

2. A standard set of basic written symbols or graphemes used to write a language based on the general principle that the letters represent phonemes of the spoken language is called

(1) phonemic writing

(2) alphabet

(3) ideography

(4) logography

Answer: (2)

3. Within the linguistic theory André Martinet used a term to refer to the two levels of structure in which speech can be analysed the term is

(1) double signifier

(2) signifié

(3) coarticulation

(4) double articulation

Answer: (4)

4. A broad transcription is a transcription that

(1) broadly ignores the difficult sounds

(2) includes symbols for only the syllables

(3) includes symbols for all the phones and write them between [ ].

(4) includes symbols for the phonemes and write them between slashes. //.

Answer: (4)

5. When we study language as it exists at any given point in time we are looking at it from a point of view called

(1) synchronic

(2) diachronic

(3) structural

(4) tagmemic

Answer: (1)

6. Assertion (I) : The eighteenth to nineteenth centuries saw the development of comparative philology arising from the discovery and gradual identification of the Indo-European language family.

Assertion (II) : For the most part, however, nineteenth century comparative philology took the western classical tradition in a new direction by focusing on phonological systems.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(2) (I) is true, (II) is wrong.

(3) (I) is wrong, (II) is true.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong.

Answer: (1)

7. The necessary conditions which have to be imposed on the construction of grammars in order for them to be able to operate are :

(1) implicational universals

(2) formal universals

(3) substantive universals

(4) statistical universals

Answer: (2)

8. The traditional term for a grammatical class of words is

(1) forms

(2) adpositions

(3) parts of speech

(4) particles

Answer: (3)

9. A regionally or socially distinctive variety of language, identified by a particular set of words and grammatical structures is

(1) sociolect

(2) register

(3) dialect

(4) restricted code

Answer: (3)

10. Assertion (I) : Animal communication is the transfer of information from group of animals to one or more group of animals.

Assertion (II) : Human communication through language is distinctively discrete and characterized by many design features of language.

Codes :

(1) (I) is correct, (II) is wrong.

(2) (I) is wrong, (II) is correct.

(3) Both (I) and (II) are wrong.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

Answer: (4)

11. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

Answer: (3)

12. Assertion (I) : Pitch variation is found in all languages, and its function is same in all languages.

Assertion (II) : One is always very conscious of the rise and fall in one’s own speech.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(2) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (4)

13. Assertion (I) : Frequencies are interpreted by the listener in terms of pitch, that is, whether a sound seems relatively higher or lower than its neighbours.

Assertion (II) : Pitch meters cannot display intonation patterns since they cannot measure changing frequencies.

Codes :

(1) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

(2) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

(3) Both (I) and (II) are false.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are true.

Answer: (1)

14. Match the following in List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the following codes :

Answer: (3)

15. Variant forms of sounds that do not change the meaning of a word, and are all very similar to one another, but occur in phonetic contexts, differ from one another are called 

(1) Phonemes

(2) Allophones

(3) Archiphonemes

(4) Geminates

Answer: (2)

16. The overlapping of adjacent articulations is known as

(1) Secondary articulation

(2) Adjacency pair

(3) Double articulation

(4) Coarticulation

Answer: (4)

17. Words such as radar, laser etc. are a result of

(1) Diminition

(2) Abbreviation

(3) Acronymy

(4) Back formation

Answer: (3)

18. Assertion (I) : The standard theory was proposed by Chomsky in his book ‘Syntactic Structures’.

Assertion (II) : The modified version of standard theory was the extended standard theory.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (3)

19. Assertion (I) : The pro-drop parameter determines whether the subject of a clause can be suppressed.

Assertion (II) : Determining the parametric values for a given language is known as parameter setting.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (1)

20. Which of the following is the appropriate term for the string ‘Boys and Girls’ ?

(1) Complex Noun Phrase

(2) Co-ordinate structure

(3) Dependent clause

(4) Wh – Island

Answer: (2)

21. Which of the following is not true for ‘Aspects model’ ?

(1) Base provides input to deep structure.

(2) Transformations change meaning.

(3) Deep structure goes to surface structure via transformations.

(4) Syntax is generative and semantics is interpretive.

Answer: (2)

22. Which of the following correctly describes ‘it’ in the sentence ‘It was raining’ ?

(1) Anticipatory

(2) Extrapositive

(3) Dummy

(4) Preparatory

Answer: (3)

23. From the perspective of syntactic constructions using distributional criteria, which of the following is an endocentric construction ?

(1) The big house

(2) The man fell on the grass

(3) On the table

(4) Birds fly

Answer: (1)

24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct response from the codes given below :

 

Answer: (1)

25. Language used for establishing social contact rather than for exchanging information is said to perform the

(1) phatic function

(2) emotive function

(3) referential function

(4) cognitive function

Answer: (1)

26. The ambiguity solely due to the alternative meanings of an individual lexical item is referred to as

(1) structural ambiguity

(2) grammatical ambiguity

(3) metaphorical ambiguity

(4) lexical ambiguity

Answer: (4)

27. A term derived from formal logic that refers to a relation between a pair of sentences such that the truth of the second sentence necessarily follows from the truth of the first is

(1) implicature

(2) entailment

(3) inclusion

(4) hyponymy

Answer: (2)

28. Assertion (I) : Indo-Aryan languages are known for their full relative clause constructions. 

Assertion (II) : Dravidian languages are known for their reduced relative clause or participial constructions.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are true.

(2) (I) is true, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is true.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (1)

29. In historical linguistics, the merger of features from two or more segments into a single segment, is called

(1) dissimilation

(2) coalescence

(3) assimilation

(4) epenthesis

Answer: (2)

30. What kind of borrowing occurs in the rendering of ‘Peace courier’ as / ša:nti du:t / in Hindi ?

(1) loan shift

(2) vernacularisation

(3) loan blend

(4) loan translation

Answer: (4)

31. A language for which there is no probative evidence whatsoever for outside genetic relationship is called an isolate :

(1) Khasi

(2) Nagamese

(3) Sinhala

(4) Burushaski

Answer: (4)

32. The glottal stop is a characteristic feature of which language family ?

(1) Tibeto – Burman

(2) Austro – Asiatic

(3) Dravidian

(4) Indo – Aryan

Answer: (2)

33. If in a language the morphemes used in a word can be easily identified and assigned meanings or grammatical functions, what type of language is it ?

(1) Polysynthetic

(2) Synthetic

(3) Inflectional

(4) Agglutinative

Answer: (4)

34. The two basic claims that sound change is regular and is purely phonetically conditioned have come to characterize

(1) Verner’s law

(2) Sphota theory

(3) the Wackernagel’s law

(4) Neogrammarianism

Answer: (1, 4)

35. In historical linguistics, the phenomenon, by which a phoneme is modified in a subset of the lexicon, and spreads to other lexical items, is 

(1) lexical homogeneity

(2) lexical diffusion

(3) phonemic extension

(4) lexical crystallization

Answer: (2)

36. The number of major language families whose interaction has led India to be a linguistic area is :

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Answer: (2)

37. Assertion (I) : Diachronic studies of languages presuppose synchronic studies.

Assertion (II) : Diachronic and synchronic studies are not interdependent.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, but (II) is wrong.

(3) (I) is wrong, but (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong.

Answer: (2)

38. Which of the following is not correct in the context of sociolinguistic variation ?

(1) Linguistic variants result from spatial differences.

(2) Linguistic variants result from class-specific linguistic behaviour.

(3) Linguistic variants result from situational factors such as formal v/s informal conversational contexts.

(4) Linguistic variants result from the linguistic competence of a speaker.

Answer: (4)

39. Speakers who participate in interactions based on social and cultural norms and values that are regulated, represented and recreated through discursive practices are said to comprise 

(1) A speech community

(2) A diglossic situation

(3) A bilingual competence

(4) A disadvantaged community

Answer: (1)

40. Assertion (I) : The term competence refers to the knowledge of the native language which is acquired alongwith the language used by an ideal speaker / listener of a heterogenous speech community.

Assertion (II) : The ability to produce and understand grammatically well-formed utterances alongwith the knowledge of their appropriateness in the context in which they are made is known as communicative competence.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (3)

41. The use of statistical model to indicate the probability of use of a speaker’s choice between at least two linguistic alternatives and their dependency on linguistic and extralinguistic environmental conditions is known as

(1) variable rule

(2) categorial rule

(3) lexical rule

(4) transformational rule

Answer: (1)

42. Assertion (I) : Pidginization and creilozation differ from other language contact phenomena.

Assertion (II) : Neither pidgins nor creoles can be justifiably viewed as changed versions of the languages in contact.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (1)

43. The scholar who first declared to the world that in addition to the primary dialects of the language, there is a very divergent, highly codified, superposed variety, the vehicle of a large and respected body of written literature, but it is not used by any section of the community for ordinary conversation, was 

(1) Joshua Fishman

(2) Charles Ferguson

(3) John Gumperz

(4) Zellig Harris

Answer: (2)

44. Assertion (I) : Language acquisition takes place in an infant and a young child at a time when he/she is acquiring many other skills and knowledge about the world. 

Assertion (II) : Language learning normally starts at a later stage, when language performance has already become established and many other physical and mental processes of maturation are complete or nearing completion.

Codes :

(1) Both (I) and (II) are correct.

(2) (I) is correct, but (II) is false.

(3) (I) is false, but (II) is correct.

(4) Both (I) and (II) are false.

Answer: (1)

45. “Thanda Matlab Coca Cola” (Cold drink means Coca cola) is an example of

(1) Metonymy

(2) Metaphor

(3) Semantic drift

(4) Semantic change

Answer: (3)

46. The scholar who first introduced the term Inter Language (IL) was

(1) S. Pit Corder

(2) Robert Lado

(3) Larry Selinker

(4) Noam Chomsky

Answer: (3)

47. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the following codes : 

Answer: (3)

48. Any vocal activity in the larynx whose role is neither of initiation nor of articulation is generally termed as :

(1) burst

(2) aspiration

(3) phonation

(4) stricture

Answer: (3)

49. Match the items in List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Answer: (2)

50. Linguistic units which cannot be substituted for each other without a change in meaning can be referred to as

(1) complementation

(2) contrast

(3) free variation

(4) phonation

Answer: (2)

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