NET Exams

ENGLISH

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Identify from the following the work Nirad C. Chaudhuri called “the finest novel in the English language with an Indian theme”.

(1) Kim

(2) A Passage to India

(3) Train to Pakistan

(4) Private Life of an Indian Prince

Show Answer

2. Who is the author of the poem “The Defence of Lucknow” dealing with the siege of Lucknow, one of the terrible incidents of the Indian Mutiny ?

(1) Rudyard Kipling

(2) Edward Lear

(3) Alfred Lord Tennyson

(4) Robert Browning

Show Answer

3. Who among the following theorists holds that metaphor and metonymy are the two fundamental structures of language ?

(1) Ferdinand de Saussure

(2) J.L. Austin

(3) Roman Jakobson

(4) Victor Shklovsky

Show Answer

4. From among the following, who are the Dashwood sisters in Jane Austen’s Sense and Sensibility ?

I. Elinor      II. Marianne

III. Mary    IV. Amanda

The right combination according to the code is :

(1) I and III

(2) I and II

(3) II and III

(4) III and IV

Show Answer

5. Which among the following texts can be characterised as a lesbian Bildungsroman ?

(1) Angela Carter, The Magic Toyshop

(2) Sylvia Plath, The Bell Jar

(3) Jeanette Winterson, Oranges Are Not the Only Fruit

(4) Ruth Pawar Jhabvala, Heat and Dust

Show Answer

6. Identify the correct chronological sequence of publication :

(1) Paradise Lost – The Advancement of Learning – An Essay Concerning Human Understanding – MacFlecknoe

(2) The Advancement of Learning – An Essay Concerning Human Understanding – MacFlecknoe – Paradise Lost

(3) The Advancement of Learning – Paradise Lost – MacFlecknoe – An Essay Concerning Human Understanding

(4) Paradise Lost – MacFlecknoe – The Advancement of Learning – An Essay Concerning Human Understanding

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7. Poe’s “The Raven” mourns the death of Poe’s

(1) lost Lenore

(2) lost Abigail

(3) pet animal

(4) lost heritage

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8. In Shakespeare’s Macbeth who was “untimely ripped” from his mother’s womb ?

(1) Macbeth

(2) Macduff

(3) Duncan

(4) Malcolm

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9. Alexander Pope revised The Rape of the Lock three times. In the final revision of the poem in 1717 he inserted a speech by

(1) Belinda

(2) Clarissa

(3) Betty

(4) Thalestris

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10. Identify, from the following list, two plays written by John Webster :

I. A Woman Killed with Kindness

II. The Revenger’s Tragedy

III. The White Devil

IV. The Ducchess of Malfi

The right combination according to the code is

(1) I & IV

(2) II & IV

(3) III & IV

(4) I & III

Show Answer

11. Which of the following works by David Malouf tells the story of the Roman poet, Ovid, during his exile in Tomis ?

(1) Remembering Babylon

(2) The Great World

(3) The Conversations at Curlow Creek

(4) An Imaginary Life

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12. In his Defence of Poesy which of the following works does Sidney commend as good examples of English Poesy ?

I. The Mirror of Magistrates

II. The Shepherd’s Calendar

III. Lament for the Makers

IV. Ballad of Scottish King

The right combination according to the code is :

(1) I and III

(2) I and IV

(3) I and II

(4) II and III

Show Answer

13. Who among the following dismissed Ulysses as “a misfire” ?

(1) Virginia Woolf

(2) Wyndham Lewis

(3) E.M. Forster

(4) D.H. Lawrence

Show Answer

14. Which of the following works Daniel Defoe offered his readers as a collection of “Strange Surprising Adventures” ?

(1) Moll Flanders

(2) Robinson Crusoe

(3) Roxana

(4) Captain Singleton

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15. In Charlotte Bronte’s Jane Eyre, what does Mr. Brocklehurst accuse Jane of when he visits Lowood School ?

(1) Laziness

(2) Stealing

(3) Lying

(4) Spying

Show Answer

16. William Faulkner’s As I Lay Dying contains one of the shortest chapters in literary history.

Which of these sentences is the chapter in its entirety ?

(1) “For the love of God, where is my hat ?”

(2) “My mother is a fish.”

(3) “Addie Bundren was dead, to begin with.”

(4) “Apricot jam is the worst sort of jam.”

Show Answer

17. The prelude to Middlemarch makes a reference to the particular history of a remarkable woman, _____.

(1) St. Agnes

(2) St. Theresa

(3) St. Joan

(4) St. Carmel

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18. “O, for a draught of vintage ! that hath been 

Cooled a long age in the deep-delved earth, 

Tasting of Flora and the country green, 

Dance, and Provencal song, and sunburnt mirth !”

The above description is an example of

(1) Paronomasia

(2) Synaesthesia

(3) Aphaeresis

(4) Synecdoche

Show Answer

19. The term, “poetic justice,” to designate the idea that the good are rewarded and the evil punished, was devised by

(1) Aristotle

(2) John Dryden

(3) Thomas Rhymer

(4) Ben Jonson

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20. ______ is the producer of the first complete printed English Bible.

(1) Jerome

(2) William Tyndale

(3) Miles Coverdale

(4) Bede

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21. In The Fall of Hyperion : A Dream Keats sees a ladder leading upwards and is addressed by a prophetess in the following words : “None can usurp this height … / But those to whom the miseries of the world / Are misery, and will not let them rest.” Who is the prophetess ?

(1) Urania

(2) Moneta

(3) Melete

(4) Mneme

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22. Virginia Woolf’s To the Lighthouse has a tripartite structure. The three parts are named the following EXCEPT : 

(1) The Sky

(2) The Window

(3) Time Passes

(4) The Lighthouse

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23. Which novel by Patrick White is based on the story of Ludwig Leichhardt, the Prussian naturalist who explored Australia in the mid-1840s, in which White’s fictional hero says when asked about navigation – “The Map? I will first make it” ?

(1) The Tree of Man

(2) Voss

(3) Riders in the Chariot

(4) The Solid Mandala.

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24. Who among the following is not a character in William Golding’s Lord of the Flies ?

(1) Ralph

(2) Piggy

(3) Peter

(4) Jack

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25. Dante Gabriel Rossetti founded the Pre-Raphaelite Brotherhood which included

I. Holman Hunt II. Arthur Hugh Clough

III. Gerald Manley Hopkins IV. John Millais

The right combination according to the code is

(1) II and III

(2) I and IV

(3) I and III

(4) II and IV

Show Answer

26. The seven deadly sins are sought to be portrayed in Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales. Which of the following sins is not covered by Chaucer ?

I. Jealousy

II. Envy

III. Lust

IV. Homicide

The right combination according to the code is

(1) I & II

(2) I & III

(3) I & IV

(4) III & IV

Show Answer

27. Richardson’s Pamela had its origin in

(1) the real case of a woman born to lower-middle-class parents

(2) an elementary letter-writing manual

(3) the general plight of English women

(4) the suggestion of a friend to defend middle-class values

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28. The Medall, a poem written by John Dryden in 1681, is sub-titled 

(1) A Satire against Sedition

(2) A Satire against Tyranny

(3) A Satire against Greed

(4) A Satire against Apostasy

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29. “Full fathom five thy father lies” is an example of

(1) assonance

(2) alliteration

(3) apostrophe

(4) enjambment

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30. What is a trochee ?

(1) A two syllable foot of verse with two heavy stresses

(2) A two syllable foot of verse in which the stress falls on the first syllable

(3) Three successive heavy stresses

(4) A six line stanza in which the rhyme sounds are all identical

Show Answer

31. Keats’s “La Belle Dame Sans Merci” combines two poetic forms

I. Lyric

II. Dramatic Monologue

III. Ballad

IV. Sonnet

The right combination according to the code is

(1) II and III

(2) I and IV

(3) I and III

(4) II and IV

Show Answer

32. ______ narrator highlights the problem of narrative authority.

(1) First person

(2) Self-conscious

(3) Third person

(4) Participant

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33. Who among the following modern writers is associated with the quote, “Only connect” ?

(1) D.H. Lawrence

(2) Virginia Woolf

(3) James Joyce

(4) E.M. Forster

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34. Which of the following images does not figure in Auden’s “Musee des Beaux Arts” ?

(1) a boy falling out of the sky

(2) children … skating on a pond at the edge of wood

(3) ranches of isolation and the busy griefs

(4) the dogs go on with their doggy life

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35. Feste is a clown in

(1) Twelfth Night

(2) As You Like It

(3) The Taming of the Shrew

(4) Much Ado About Nothing

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36. Which play by Tom Stoppard has a play within the play ?

(1) Enter a Free Man

(2) The Real Inspector Hound

(3) Jumpers

(4) Night and Day

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37. Which of the following is not true of free verse ?

(1) Characterised by short, irregular lines.

(2) No rhyme pattern.

(3) Written in iambic pentameter

(4) A dependence on the effective and more intense use of pauses

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38. James Thomson’s long poem, The Seasons, revised and expanded all his life, began in the first instance as a poem entitled

(1) Spring

(2) Summer

(3) Winter

(4) Autumn

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39. Two cantos from the seventh book of The Faerie Queene appeared posthumously. They are known as

(1) Mutability cantos

(2) Friendship cantos

(3) Justice cantos

(4) Courtesy cantos

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40. Foucault believes that the facts of history will protect us from

(1) repeating mistakes

(2) totalitarianism

(3) deconstructionism

(4) historicism

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41. What is the occupation of Max’s son, Lenny, in Harold Pinter’s The Home Coming ?

(1) boxer

(2) butcher

(3) pimp

(4) cab driver

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42. Which Byron poem begins in the following manner : “I want a hero : an uncommon want, when every year and month sends forth a new one” ?

(1) Beppo

(2) Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage

(3) Don Juan

(4) The Vision of Judgement

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43. In the second ending of John Fowles’s The French Lieutenant’s Woman Charles Smithson’s lawyer finds that Sarah has been living in the house of

(1) William Morris

(2) William Holman Hunt

(3) D.G. Rossetti

(4) James Collinson

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44. In 1692 William Congreve published Incognita, a work of fiction which is dubbed a ‘novel’ on its title-page. What is the sub-title ?

(1) Love and Duty Reconcil’d

(2) Beauty in Distress

(3) Virtue Rewarded

(4) Love in Excess

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45. In “Tradition and the Individual Talent” T.S Eliot uses the analogy of the catalyst to elucidate his theory of impersonal poetry. He cites the example of a filament of platinum and, in the poetic process this is equivalent to

(1) the language of the poet

(2) the mind of the poet

(3) the soul of the poet

(4) the life of the poet

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46. Match the character with the work :

The right combination according to the code is :

Show Answer

47. Samuel Johnson’s Lives of the English Poets combines the following except

(1) analytical criticism

(2) literary history

(3) personal biography

(4) Socratic dialogue

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48. Which two works of JM Coetzee won Booker Prize on two occasions ?

I. In the Heart of the Country

II. Life and Times of Michael K.

III. Disgrace

IV. Waiting for the Barbarians

The right combination according to the code is :

(1) II and III

(2) II and IV

(3) III and IV

(4) I and III

Show Answer

49. Who among the following Greek Philosophers has a bearing on the composition of Shelley’s “Adonais” ?

(1) Miletus

(2) Socrates

(3) Plato

(4) Aristotle

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50. Match the author with the work :

Show Answer

MANAGEMENT

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Indicate the correct code for the scope of managerial economics from the following :

a. Demand Analysis

b. Production and Cost Analysis

c. Pricing and Investment Decisions

d. Factor pricing Decisions

e. Economic Environmental Analysis

Codes :

(1) a, b, c, d

(2) b, c, d, e

(3) a, b, c, e

(4) a, c, d, e

Show Answer

2. Price elasticity of demand for a product is measured by

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

(Where Ed = elasticity of demand, Q = Quantity, P = Price and Δ = represents change)

Show Answer

3. Which one of the following will be the appropriate pricing strategy for a new product expecting an expanding market ?

(1) Monopoly pricing

(2) Skimming pricing

(3) Penetrating pricing

(4) Differential pricing

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4. Match the items of the List – I with those of the List – II and suggest the correct code from the following :

Show Answer

5. In case the firm makes varying investments on the different investment projects, the appropriate project evaluation technique would be, which one of the following ?

(1) Average annual rate of return technique

(2) Pay back period technique

(3) Net present value technique

(4) Profitability index technique

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6. According to Henry Fayol, which one of the following combinations of qualities are required in a manager ?

(1) Physical, mental, experience, educational and conceptual

(2) Technical, human, conceptual, mental and moral

(3) Physical, mental, moral, educational, technical and experience

(4) Mental, moral, conceptual, educational, technical and experience

Show Answer

7. Neo-classical organisation theory emphasises on which one of the following ?

(1) Flat structure of organisation

(2) Tall structure of organisation

(3) Coordination by hierarchy

(4) Unity of command

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8. According to Graicuna’s formula of span of management, if a superior has three subordinates, what number of cross-relationships would be ?

(1) three

(2) six

(3) nine

(4) eighteen

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9. In Reddin’s ‘Tridimensional Grid’, which one of the following is a less effective style of leadership ?

(1) Developer

(2) Missionary

(3) Executive

(4) Bureaucrat

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10. Assertion (A) : Attribution theory is based on relationship between personal perception and interpersonal behaviour. 

Reasoning (R) : Since most ‘whys’ are not directly observable, people must depend upon cognitions, particularly perception.

Codes :

(1) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.

(2) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).

Show Answer

11. Arrange the following steps of training and development process in the right sequence :

a. Need analysis

b. Validation

c. Evaluation

d. Implement the programme

e. Instructional design

(1) a, e, d, c, b

(2) a, e, c, b, d

(3) a, e, b, d, c

(4) a, b, e, c, d

Show Answer

12. Which one of the following is related to ‘Standard of Personnel’ ?

(1) Job Specification

(2) Job Description

(3) Job Design

(4) Job Evaluation

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13. If an employee desires to pay more than the minimum required contribution under the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952, then 

(1) employer shall also pay an amount equal to the total contribution of employee.

(2) employer shall pay only half of the additional contribution of employee.

(3) employer is under no obligation to pay the additional contribution.

(4) the act is silent regarding this matter.

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14. Under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948, sickness benefit can be paid for which one of the following maximum periods ?

(1) 45 days in two consecutive benefit periods.

(2) 66 days in two consecutive benefit periods.

(3) 91 days in two consecutive benefit periods.

(4) 180 days in two consecutive benefit periods.

Show Answer

15. Which one of the following laws is enacted by the Central Government and enforced by the State Governments ?

(1) The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948

(2) The Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952

(3) Factories Act, 1948

(4) The Mines Act, 1952

Show Answer

16. The cost of external equity can be most appropriately computed as per the

(1) Earnings price ratio

(2) Dividend price ratio

(3) Dividend price plus growth ratio

(4) Capital assets pricing model

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17. For the following items in List – I and List – II, indicate the correct code after matching them :

Show Answer

18. Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘Preference Shares’ ?

(1) Prior claim on income / assets of the company over equity shareholders.

(2) Redeemability after certain period.

(3) Possessing voting rights on important issues of the company.

(4) May possess the right to participate in surplus profits of the company.

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19. The basic consideration for dividend pay-out for a company excludes which one of the following ?

(1) Investment opportunities for the company

(2) Expectations of the shareholders of the company

(3) Legal and financial restrictions for the company

(4) Stability of the dividend considerations

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20. For the following two statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code :

Assertion (A) : Shareholders Wealth Maximisation (SWM) and not the profit maximisation is an appropriate and operationally feasible financial management goal.

Reasoning (R) : There exists a principal-agent relationship between the shareholders and the management of the company.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct.

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(4) (A) and (R) both are incorrect. 

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21. Which one of the following components is not the part of broad marketing environment ?

(1) Technological environment

(2) Task environment

(3) Demographic environment

(4) Natural environment

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22. The Coco Cola Company markets a wide range of different beverage products including bottled water, soft-drinks, juices and sports drinks. Each product appeals to a different segment. This is an example of which type of market offering ?

(1) Differentiated marketing

(2) Target marketing

(3) Undifferentiated marketing

(4) Intensified marketing

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23. Temporarily reducing prices to increase short-run sales is an example of which one of the following ?

(1) Segmented pricing

(2) Promotional pricing

(3) Dynamic pricing

(4) Geographical pricing

Show Answer

24. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct matching :

Show Answer

25. Statement – I : In developing advertising programme marketing managers must always start by identifying the target market and buyer motives.

Statement – II : A company may run multiple ad campaigns at the same time, each emphasizing different aspects of its brand and service.

(1) Only Statement – I is correct.

(2) Only Statement – II is correct.

(3) Both Statements – I and II are correct.

(4) Both Statements – I and II are incorrect.

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26. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correct matching with regard to forecasting models for operations :

Show Answer

27. In which one of the following situations, a product-oriented layout is appropriate ?

(1) A medical clinic

(2) An automated carwash

(3) A work centre for welding, heat treating and painting

(4) A home plumbing repair business.

Show Answer

28. A graphic tool to trace the interaction of several workers with one machine is termed as

(1) Gang process chart

(2) Flow process chart

(3) Activity chart

(4) Operation chart

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29. Which one of the following is a technique of statistical quality control used for product control ?

(1) R-chart

(2) Sampling plan

(3) np-chart

(4) control-chart

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30. The decision-criterion in which a decision-maker selects an alternative that maximizes H (criterion of realism) = [a × (maximum in column)] + [(1 – a) × (minimum in column)] is called

(1) Laplace criterion

(2) Hurwicz criterion

(3) Wald’s criterion

(4) Bayesian criterion

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31. Which one of the following expressions relates to an event which represents the occurrence of either A or B or both ?

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

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32. A Bernoulli process has all but which one of the following properties ?

(1) Each trial has two possible outcomes.

(2) The probability of a success on any trial remains fixed over time.

(3) The probability of success on any trial is equal to the probability of failure.

(4) Trials are statistically independent.

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33. Statement – I : The product of coefficient of correlation, standard deviation of variable ‘X’ and Standard deviation of variable ‘Y’ gives the measure of covariance between X and Y variables.

Statement – II : The product of coefficient of correlation between X and Y variables and the ratio between standard deviation of X variable to standard deviation of Y variable measures the slope of the regression line of X on Y variable.

Codes :

(1) Both the Statements are correct.

(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.

(3) Statement – I is correct while Statement – II is incorrect.

(4) Statement – I is incorrect while Statement – II is correct.

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34. Statement – I : Both the probable error and standard error of the coefficient of correlation are different.
Statement – II : When a sampling distribution of mean is prepared by taking small sized samples from a normally distributed population, the distribution takes the shape of normal distribution.

Codes :

(1) Both the Statements are correct.

(2) Both the Statements are incorrect.

(3) Statement – I is correct while Statement – II is incorrect.

(4) Statement – I is incorrect while Statement – II is correct.

Show Answer

35. Which one of the following is not the major characteristics of internet ?

(1) Open

(2) Expensive

(3) Global

(4) Untrusted

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36. Assertion (A) : Private foreign capital lends to flow to the high profit areas rather than to the priority sectors.

Reasoning (R) : One of the important limitations to utilize the foreign capital is the absorptive capacity of the recipient country. 

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct whereas (R) is incorrect.

(4) (R) is correct whereas (A) is incorrect.

Show Answer

37. Consider the following statements and identify the correct code of true statements :

(a) When an organization’s survival is threatened and it is not competing effectively, retrenchment strategies are often needed.

(b) Turnaround strategy is used when an organization is performing well but has not yet reached a critical stage.

(c) Divestment strategy involves selling the business or setting it up as a separate corporation.

(d) Liquidation strategy involves closure of business which is no longer profitable.

Codes :

(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

(2) Only (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

(4) Only (a) and (d) are correct.

Show Answer

38. Statement – I : Most businesses start off as “Question Marks”, in that they enter a highgrowth market in which there is already a market leader.

Statement – II : A “Star” is the market leader in a high-growth market, but it does not necessarily provide much cash.

(1) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect.

(2) Statement – II is correct but Statement – I is incorrect.

(3) Both the Statements are incorrect.

(4) Both the Statements are correct.

Show Answer

39. Match the items of List – I with List – II and identify the code of correct matching :

Show Answer

40. Apple computers uses a differentiation competitive strategy that emphasizes innovative product with creative design. This is an example of

(1) Functional strategy

(2) Business strategy

(3) Operating strategy

(4) Product strategy

Show Answer

41. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the code of correcting matching :

Show Answer

42. Total Quality Management, job redesigning, new techniques of doing things and management by consensus are the examples of which one of the following ?

(1) Opportunistic entrepreneurship

(2) Administrative entrepreneurship

(3) Incubative entrepreneurship

(4) Mass entrepreneurship

Show Answer

43. Under technology and quality upgradation support to help manufacturing MSMEs buy energy efficient technologies for production, what percentage of the actual expenditure is provided as financial support by the Government of India ?

(1) 75%

(2) 60%

(3) 50%

(4) 25%

Show Answer

44. Which one of the following is not a personal characteristic of an entrepreneur ?

(1) Innovative

(2) Hardworking

(3) Practical

(4) Submissive

Show Answer

45. Which one of the following is the most insignificant reason for sickness in SSI sector ?

(1) Power shortage

(2) Lack of demand

(3) Management problems

(4) Equipment problems

Show Answer

46. Statement – I : Ethical principles tend to be broader than legal principles.

Statement – II : Laws and ethics are closely related.

Codes :

(1) Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect.

(2) Statement – II is correct but Statement – I is incorrect.

(3) Both the Statements are correct.

(4) Both the Statements are incorrect.

Show Answer

47. Assertion (A) : The state shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forest and wildlife of the country.

Reasoning (R) : The Directive principles of state policy of the Indian Constitution Command the State to ensure protection and improvement of environment and to safeguard forest and wildlife.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

Show Answer

48. Match the items of List – I with List – II and identify the code of correct matching :

Show Answer

49. Which one among the following is not correct about J. J. Irani Committee’s recommendations on Company Law (2005) :

(1) 2/5th of the board of a listed company should comprise of independent directors.

(2) Introduce the concept of One Person Company (OPC).

(3) Allow corporations to self-regulate their affairs.

(4) Disclose proper and accurate compilation of financial information of a corporation.

Show Answer

50. A business should act ethically for which of the following reasons ?

(a) To prevent harm to the general public

(b) To meet stake-holder expectations

(c) To protect their own employees

(d) To maximize profit of the business

Codes :

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (d) only

Show Answer

 

HINDUSTANI MUSIC

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which Shastra’s help is required to set a chhand into a ‘tala’ ?

(1) Pingal Shastra

(2) Kaku

(3) Dingal Shastra

(4) Swarit

Show Answer

2. In a ‘tala’, where number of ‘matras’ are not placed equally in all the vibhagas but arranged in two different ways, is known as

(1) Sampadi

(2) Vishampadi

(3) Mishrapadi

(4) Ubhaypadi

Show Answer

3. How many players or singers are required to render the musical composition ‘Quintet’ ?

(1) 4

(2) 5

(3) 10

(4) 15

Show Answer

4. Match the following according to the similarity of notes and choose the correct code :

Show Answer

5. Which scholar elucidated the unequal interval of shruties through ‘Shruti Darpan’ ?

(1) Vyankatmakhi

(2) Ramamatya

(3) Acharya Brihaspati

(4) Bharat

Show Answer

6. Match the following scholars according to their ideology related to ‘Rasa’ and choose the correct code :

Show Answer

7. Ledger lines are used

(1) to write notes, in addition to the clef

(2) to write key signature

(3) to write bar lines

(4) to write essential key signature

Show Answer

8. Bharat has mentioned how many ‘Vyabhichari Bhavas’ ?

(1) 4

(2) 33

(3) 6

(4) 36

Show Answer

9. According to Bharat, ‘Shanka’ and ‘Glaani’ are included under which ‘Bhava’ ?

(1) Sanchari

(2) Sthai

(3) Vibhav

(4) Anubhav

Show Answer

10. Match the following according to ‘Shruti-Swara’ placement of Bhatkhande and Choose the correct code :

Show Answer

11. Which Raga is not a ‘Ragang-Raga’ ?

(1) Bhairav

(2) Todi

(3) Nat

(4) Bhimpalasi

Show Answer

12. Which two ‘ragas’ are commonly mentioned as male ragas by the four sects – Someshwar, Bharat, Kallinath and Hanumat in their Raga-Ragini classification ?

(1) Shri – Megh

(2) Malkauns – Basant

(3) Pancham – Natnarayan

(4) Natnarayan – Bhairav

Show Answer

13. Choose the odd one :

(1) Kriti

(2) Padam

(3) Varnam

(4) Trivat

Show Answer

14. Choose the odd one :

(1) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan

(2) Barkat Ali Khan

(3) Munavvar Ali Khan

(4) Sadiq Ali Khan

Show Answer

15. ‘Murcchana’ consisting of ‘Antar-Kakli’ is named by Bharat as

(1) Sadharankrita

(2) Asadharana

(3) Mishra

(4) Khand

Show Answer

16. Out of the following, select the ‘ragas’ having ‘Ma-Sa’ Vadi-Samvadi :

I. Khamaj

II. Bahar

III. Bhimpalasi

IV. Bihag

V. Miyan Malhar

(1) II, III, V

(2) I, III, IV, V

(3) I, II, IV

(4) V only

Show Answer

17. If ‘shudha Ga-Ni’ of ‘Raga-Bhairav’ converts into komal ‘Ga-Ni, it will become raga

(1) Paraj

(2) Darbari Kanhda

(3) Ahir Bhairav

(4) Bhairvi

Show Answer

18. Match the following and choose the correct code :

Show Answer

19. Raga Deshkar belongs to which Thata ?

(1) Purvi

(2) Bilawal

(3) Marwa

(4) Khamaj

Show Answer

20. What is the name of 5th chapter of Sangit Samaysar ?

(1) Ragadhyay

(2) Prabandha adhyay

(3) Vadyadhyay

(4) Taladhyay

Show Answer

21. What is the name of 2nd string of sitar ?

(1) Baj ka Tar

(2) Jodi ka tar

(3) Chikari ka tar

(4) Pancham ka tar

Show Answer

22. Which one is not Marga Taal ?

(1) Chachatput

(2) Sampakkestak

(3) Udghatta

(4) Singhavikram

Show Answer

23. Pen name of Firoz Khan is

(1) Adarang

(2) Dilrang

(3) Surrang

(4) Chaturang

Show Answer

24. Which instrument has frets ?

(1) Tanpura

(2) Esraj

(3) Sarod

(4) Ektara

Show Answer

25. Alauddin Sangit Academy is situated at :

(1) Lucknow

(2) Amritsar

(3) Bhopal

(4) Kolkata

Show Answer

26. Which one is the name of a note of Vedic Sangit ?

(1) Chyut Sadja

(2) Shadji

(3) Krusta

(4) Prithula

Show Answer

27. Which one of the following tala is appropriate to accompany withVilambit Khayal ?

(1) Tilwada

(2) Teevra

(3) Choutal

(4) Dadra

Show Answer

28. Who was the father of Ustad Nasir Aminuddin Dagar ?

(1) Ziauddin Dagar

(2) Moinuddin Dagar

(3) Nasiruddin Dagar

(4) Fahimuddin Dagar

Show Answer

29. In which raga of the following ‘Ni’ is not used ?

(1) Bhairav

(2) Bangal Bhairav

(3) Bairagi Bhairav

(4) Ramkali

Show Answer

30. Choose the odd one of the following :

(1) Sitar

(2) Guitar

(3) Sarangi

(4) Tanpura

Show Answer

31. Razakhani baj was introduced by

(1) Raza Ali Khan

(2) Rajras Khan

(3) Ghulam Raza Khan

(4) Masit Khan

Show Answer

32. How many strings were there in ‘Alapini Veena’ ?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 9

(4) 1

Show Answer

33. Who is the Khayal singer of the following ?

(1) Begum Akhtar

(2) Nikhil Banerjee

(3) Nasir Ahmed Khan

(4) Zahoor Ahmed Khan

Show Answer

34. In  ^GR phrase, if you consider the S as P and repeat the same phrase which raga will be revealed ?

(1) Hamir

(2) Chhayanat

(3) Kamod

(4) Kedar

Show Answer

35. Which swara of Karnatak Music is equal to Shuddha Gandhar of Hindustani music ?

(1) Sadharan Gandhar

(2) Chaturshruti Rishabh

(3) Trishruti Rishabh

(4) Antar Gandhar

Show Answer

36. Difference in Anibaddha and Nibaddha is because of

(1) Gamak

(2) Taal

(3) Meend

(4) Sthaya

Show Answer

37. Name of the commentary on Sangeet Ratnakar in ‘Braj-Bhasha’ is :

(1) Setu

(2) Rasikpriya

(3) Hetu

(4) Sangeet Sudhakar

Show Answer

38. Total number of texts written by Bhavbhatta are

(1) Four

(2) Five

(3) Three

(4) Nine

Show Answer

39. Which note is changed in Raga Bhimpalasi to obtain Raga Patdeep ?

(1) Rishabh

(2) Gandhar

(3) Nishad

(4) Dhaiwat

Show Answer

40. ‘Parivadini’ is the variety of :

(1) Tatta

(2) Avnadh

(3) Sushir

(4) Ghana

Show Answer

41. What is ‘Chatushkal’ ?

(1) High speed

(2) Slow speed

(3) Gamak variety

(4) Taan variety

Show Answer

42. Choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) : Miyan Malhar, Bahar and Basant are seasonal Ragas.

Reason (R) : Seasonal Ragas can be performed anytime during the respective seson.

Codes :

(1) (A) is true and (R) is false

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false

(3) (A) is false and (R) is true

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true

Show Answer

43. ‘Kalopanta’ is a Murcchana of :

(1) Madhyam Grama

(2) Desi Grama

(3) Pancham Grama

(4) Margi Grama

Show Answer

44. Choose the odd group :

(1) Todi – Multani

(2) Darbari – Adana

(3) Bhupali – Deshkar

(4) Shuddha Kalyan – Shuddha Sarang

Show Answer

45. ‘Jatra’ belongs to which State ?

(1) Punjab

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Bengal

(4) Kerala

Show Answer

46. Choose the correct chronological order of texts :

(1) Sangeet Raj, Sangeet Suddhakar, Anup Sangeet Vilas

(2) Anup Sangeet Vilas, Sangeet Raj, Sangeet Suddhakar

(3) Sangeet Suddhakar, Sangeet Raj, Anup Sangeet Vilas

(4) Sangeet Raj, Anup Sangeet Vilas, Sangeet Suddhakar

Show Answer

47. Ustad Natthan Khan belonged to which Gharana ?

(1) Patiala

(2) Agra

(3) Jaipur

(4) Delhi

Show Answer

48. ‘R G R S’ belongs to which Ang ?

(1) Todi

(2) Kalyan

(3) Purvi

(4) Kafi

Show Answer

49. Match the following and choose the correct code :

Show Answer

50. Which Raga does not belongs to Khamaj Thata ?

(1) Jhinjhoti

(2) Pilu

(3) Tilang

(4) Tilak Kamod

Show Answer

 

POPULATION STUDIES

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which state among the following has highest female age at marriage according to census of India 2011 ?

(1) Goa

(2) Karnataka

(3) West Bengal

(4) Maharashtra

Show Answer

2. Which measure among the following reflect chronic malnutrition of children ?

(1) Height for age

(2) Weight for age

(3) Weight for height

(4) Upper arm circumference

Show Answer

3. Maternal mortality ratio in India has declared from 212 in 2007-09 to 178 in 2011-12.

Which answer below represents the correct percent decline in MMR in these four years ?

(1) About 76%

(2) About 19%

(3) About 16%

(4) About 17%

Show Answer

4. Which of the following is an exact measure of replacement fertility ?

(1) TFR

(2) NRR

(3) GRR

(4) TMFR

Show Answer

5. Given the life table functions q_x, l_x, L_x, J_x for a complete life table. Which of the following expressions will be used to compute e_x (expectation of life at age x) ?

(1) T_x / L_x

(2) T_x / l_x

(3) T_x / q_x

(4) T_x / l_o

Show Answer

6. Which among the following is the highest density area ?

(1) South Africa

(2) South America

(3) North America

(4) West Europe

Show Answer

7. The number of infant deaths in a year ‘y’ is Dy’ and the number of infant deaths in year ‘y + 1’ is D”_{y + 1} occurred to the births in year ‘y’ is By. The adjusted infant mortality rate calculated by cohort probability method is expressed as :

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Show Answer

8. Which one of the following is being used currently as a measure of the goal of population stabilization in India ?

(1) Population growth rate

(2) Crude birth rate

(3) TFR

(4) NRR

Show Answer

9. Which country among the following has the largest share of elderly population in 2015 ?

(1) Korea

(2) United Kingdom

(3) Japan

(4) Italy

Show Answer

10. The place that functionally serves many other places is called ;

(1) City

(2) Central Place

(3) Village

(4) City Centre

Show Answer

11. Which among the following is not included in Human Development Index constructed by UNDP ?

(1) Life expectancy at birth

(2) Mean years of schooling

(3) Livable housing

(4) Per capita income

Show Answer

12. According to NFHS – IV data, which of the following states had highest percentage of underweight children under age of 5 years (weight for age) ?

(1) Maharashtra

(2) Madhya Pradesh

(3) West Bengal

(4) Bihar

Show Answer

13. Match the names of the propounder in List – I with the theories they proposed in List – II :

Show Answer

14. Match items in List – I with the associated year of their launch in List – II given below :

Show Answer

15. The demographic balancing equation is represented by which of the following :

(1) natural change and crude birth rates

(2) natural change and dependency ratio

(3) net migration and dependency ratio

(4) net migration and natural change

Show Answer

16. Match List – I, giving names of the scholars associated with some of the population theories given in List – II :

Show Answer

17. Assertion (A) : Most of the states in Southern part of India achieved replacement level of fertility earlier as compared with the states of Northern part of India.

Reason (R) : In Southern states of India, female empowerment and autonomy is higher as compared with the northern states.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Show Answer

18. Among the following combination, which one correctly lists five geographically largest states of India (census – 2011), according to their descending order ranking.

(1) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, UP, J&K.

(2) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, UP, Gujarat.

(3) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, J&K, Gujarat.

(4) UP, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, J&K.

Show Answer

19. Among the following statements, which one correctly lists five most populous countries of the world, according to their ranking in descending order (higher to lower in 2015) ?

(1) China, India, Indonesia, U.S.A., Russia

(2) China, India, U.S.A., Indonesia, Brazil

(3) China, India, U.S.A., Brazil, Indonesia

(4) China, India, U.S.A., Russia, Indonesia

Show Answer

20. Match Millennium Development Goals established by the United Nations in the year 2000, given below in List – I with the number assigned to them given in List – II :

Show Answer

21. According to 2011 census, how many class-I cities with 1,00,000 and above population were in India ?

(1) 303

(2) 403

(3) 503

(4) 603

Show Answer

22. While propagating central place theory of urban system which among the following was not considered by Walter Christaller ?

(1) Isotropic region

(2) Evenly distributed population

(3) Consumers are of same income level

(4) Continuous development and technology change

Show Answer

23. Match the denominators shown in List – II with fertility indicators shown in List – I :

Show Answer

24. Which among the following is the largest megacity of India ?

(1) Delhi

(2) Mumbai

(3) Kolkata

(4) Chennai

Show Answer

25. Match the surveys given in List – I with their year of initiation given in List – II :

Show Answer

26. After reaching Delhi river Yamuna is considered as a dead river. Which of the following is the reason for the same ?

(1) It is chocked with plastic waste and garbage.

(2) It’s water is diverted for irrigation and channel dried up.

(3) It is unable to dissolve oxygen any more.

(4) It is full with industrial effluent.

Show Answer

27. Which among the following is reasons for migration is not covered in the census of India ?

(1) Marriage

(2) Education

(3) Natural Calamities

(4) Work/Employment

Show Answer

28. Which one of the following is not correct about NFHS-IV ?

(1) NFHS-IV has covered 29 states.

(2) NFHS-IV has covered 5,71,660 households.

(3) NFHS-IV has covered 28,583 primary sampling units (PSUs).

(4) NFHS-IV will provide information on HIV prevalence for women age 15-49 and men age 15-54 at national and state levels.

Show Answer

29. Which one among the following is considered as a major factor for female headship in the household ?

(1) Higher level of education of the female member.

(2) Higher income of the female member.

(3) Young age of the female member.

(4) Absence of adult male member.

Show Answer

30. Assertion (A) : Women are more in marriage migration and less in economic migration in India.

Reason (R) : Women’s mobility in India is restricted by socio-cultural reasons.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Show Answer

31. Population growth rate of a country for a well-defined period can be measured by calculating “Arithmetic growth rate” (A), “Geometric growth rate” (G), and “Exponential growth rate” (E). Which one of the following expression is correct ?

(1) A > G > E

(2) A > E > G

(3) E > G > A

(4) E > A > G

Show Answer

32. Which one of the following is not a measure of association for case-control studies ?

(1) Ratio

(2) Odds ratio

(3) Attributable fraction

(4) Population attributable risk percent

Show Answer

33. Which one of the following is not true about Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) ?

(1) PMSMA is part of the Reproductive, Maternal, Neonatal, Child and Adolescent health (RMNCH+A) strategy.

(2) PMSMA will be held on 9th of every month at identified public health facility.

(3) Target beneficiaries will be all pregnant women who are in their 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy.

(4) Health facilities, where obstretics & Gynaecology (OBGY) specialists is not available, services from private practitioner (OBGY) on fixed payment basis are to be arranged.

Show Answer

34. Rapid growth in a population is indicated by which of the following ?

(1) With a smaller proportion of the population in the younger ages.

(2) With a larger percentage of people in the younger ages.

(3) With a larger percentage of people in the adult ages.

(4) All of the above.

Show Answer

35. Match items in List – I with their description in List – II :

Show Answer

36. Assertion (A) : Population projection by component method gives better estimates.

Reason (R) : Component method includes both age and sex composition of the population.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Show Answer

37. Measurement of Singulate Mean Age of Marriage (SMAM) was developed by

(1) A.J. Coale

(2) J. Hajnal

(3) Chandrashekar and Deming

(4) Kingsley Davis

Show Answer

38. Assertion (A) : Investing in Family Planning is a cost-effective method to achieve development goals.

Reason (R) : Family planning ease resource burden leading to availability of higher per capita resources for developmental activities.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Show Answer

39. If a country’s rate of natural increase has declined, then which of the following is correct for the doubling time of its population :

(1) been reduced to zero

(2) decreased

(3) increased

(4) remained the same

Show Answer

40. According to Agenda of sustainable development adopted by 193 countries at the United Nations in 2015, how many goals and targets given below are to be achieved by 2030. 

(1) 18 goals and 130 targets

(2) 21 goals and 151 targets

(3) 15 goals and 170 targets

(4) 17 goals and 169 targets

Show Answer

41. Which of the following is not the health goal for India during 12th Five Year Plan ?

(1) Reduction of IMR to 25

(2) Reduction of MMR to 100 per 1,00,000 live birth

(3) Raising child sex ratio in the 0-6 age group from 914 to 950

(4) Reduction of T.F.R. below 2.0

Show Answer

42. Choose the correct quality of age-data category given below, for which the five point formula used for smoothing data is appropriate ?

(1) Moderate

(2) Accurate

(3) Not accurate

(4) Highly accurate

Show Answer

43. Settlement pattern of a place reflects upon which of the following combination ?

(a) Physical endowment of the place

(b) Social interaction

(c) Infrastructure facility

(d) Gender segregation

Codes :

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b) & (c)

(3) (c) & (d)

(4) (b), (c) & (d)

Show Answer

44. Assertion (A) : The Universal Health Coverage is expected to result in financial protection of the poor.

Reason (R) : Poor will have to spend less on treatment and they will also save catastrophic expenditure on health.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Show Answer

45. During which of the following year, National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) did not collect data on problems of elderly population ?

(1) 52nd Round (July, 1995 to June, 1996)

(2) 55th Round (July, 1999 to June, 2000)

(3) 58th Round (July – December, 2002)

(4) 60th Round (January – June, 2004)

Show Answer

Read the following table and answer questions (46 to 50) :

46. Which continent among the following has low projected population in the year 2150 ?

(1) Asia

(2) Europe

(3) Africa

(4) North America

Show Answer

47. Which sequence of the following continents is correct in ascending order (low to high) for the projected population in the year 2050 ?

(1) North America, Europe, Latin America & Caribbean, Africa.

(2) North America, Latin America & Caribbean, Africa, Europe.

(3) Europe, Latin America & Caribbean, Africa, North America.

(4) Africa, Europe, North America, Latin America and Caribbean.

Show Answer

48. During which period the population doubled in Europe ?

(1) 1800-1900

(2) 1900-1950

(3) 1950-1999

(4) 1999-2012

Show Answer

49. Which continent has shown continuously large size of population ?

(1) Asia

(2) Africa

(3) Europe

(4) North America

Show Answer

50. Which sequence of countries among the following is correct according to descending order of (high to low) projected population for the year 2150 ?

(1) Asia, Africa, Europe, Latin America & Caribbean.

(2) Latin America & Caribbean, Europe, Africa, Asia.

(3) Asia, Africa, Latin America & Caribbean, Europe.

(4) Europe, Latin America & Caribbean, Asia, Africa.

Show Answer

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

Paper – II

 

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Who among the following said ‘that the movement of New Public Administration is a partof the rebellion of Youth and the counter culture of the non-Marxian left’ ?

(1) George Frednickson

(2) Dwight Waldo

(3) Frank Marini

(4) R.T. Golembiewski

Show Answer

2. Consider the following statements regarding Minnowbrook Conferences :

(i) All the conferences were held in Syracuse University.

(ii) Social Equity has remained the thrust area in all the conferences.

(iii) These conferences were held at an interval of 20 years.

(iv) These conferences have emphasized to make Public administration as independent discipline, hence rejected inter-disciplinary studies.

Select correct answer by using the codes given below :

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Show Answer

3. Select the correct steps as suggested by William A. Niskanen for mitigation of evils of bureaucratic monopoly, by using code given below :

(i) Stricter control on bureaucracy through executive or the legislature.

(ii) More competition in the delivery of public services.

(iii) Privatization or contracting-out to reduce wastage.

(iv) Dissemination of more information for public benefits about the availability of alternatives to public services.

Codes :

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Show Answer

5. Which one of the following is not correct regarding principal-agent relationships ?

(1) Modern democratic state is based on principal-agent relationship.

(2) Principal-agent relationships can be reduced to contractual terms.

(3) The relationships are in between ‘population’ and its ‘rulers’.

(4) The ‘rulers’ cannot be the ‘principal’ for the staff engaged for delivering contract.

Show Answer

6. The word hierarchy comes from which of the following ?

(1) Greek word

(2) French word

(3) Latin word

(4) Indian word

Show Answer

7. Cognitive needs in Maslow’s motivational theory mean

(1) Trust and acceptance

(2) Knowledge and understanding

(3) Realizing personal potential

(4) Helping others to achieve self-actualization

Show Answer

8. Who among the following classical thinkers is a pioneer in suggesting the need for systematic training in administration ?

(1) F.W. Taylor

(2) Henri Fayol

(3) Max Weber

(4) Urwick

Show Answer

9. The decision’s which are unstructured and involve major commitments are called

(1) Rational Decisions

(2) Irrational Decisions

(3) Programmed Decisions

(4) Non-programmed Decisions

Show Answer

10. Which of the following is not the component of Transformational Leadership ?

(1) Idealized Influence

(2) Inspirational Motivation

(3) Individualized Consideration

(4) Informational Techniques

Show Answer

11. The caste bureaucracy has a class base and “arises from the class connection of those in the controlling positions”. This statement is made by

(1) F.M. Marx

(2) Max Weber

(3) P.H. Appleby

(4) Karl Marx

Show Answer

12. ‘The examination is nothing but bureaucratic baptism of knowledge, the official recognition of the trans substantiation of profane knowledge into sacred knowledge’ who said it ?

(1) Hegel

(2) Karl Marx

(3) Philip Selznick

(4) Robert Merton

Show Answer

13. Which of the following is not a feature of Prismatic society as given by F.W. Riggs ?

(1) Heterogeneity

(2) Formalism

(3) Over-lapping

(4) Continuity

Show Answer

14. In which of the following country the provision of ‘Prime Minister’s Question Time’ is available ?

(1) Canada

(2) Japan

(3) France

(4) United Kingdom

Show Answer

15. Consider the following about the administrative system of U.S.A. and select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(i) President is the highest executive authority but budget is approved by the Congress.

(ii) The treaties signed by the President and appointments done by him on the higher posts are to be satisfied by two thirds majority of Senate.

(iii) Any action or order issued by the President, if found contrary to the constitution can be declared ultravirus under the judicial review.

(iv) The President cannot withhold any bill or use Suspensive or Pocket Veto.

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(2) (i), (iii), (iv)

(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

Show Answer

16. Which of the following deals with the matters of Foreign Affairs in U.S.A. ?

(1) Secretary of State

(2) Secretary of Defense

(3) Secretary of Homeland Security

(4) Secretary of Interior

Show Answer

17. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Show Answer

18. Which goal of 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development declared by United Nations covers climate change and its impact ?

(1) Goal 2

(2) Goal 8

(3) Goal 13

(4) Goal 17

Show Answer

19. Central Pollution Board was established under which one of the following Acts ?

(1) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

(2) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

(3) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

(4) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1987.

Show Answer

20. Which of the following are the recommendations of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission relating to the Para States at the district level ?

(i) Merger of DRDA (District Rural Development Agency) with the Zila Parishad.

(ii) Merger of District Water and Sanitation Committee with the respective district Panchayat.

(iii) Establishing an organic relationship between the PRIs and the District Health Society.

(iv) The Union and State governments should continue to set up special committees outside the PRIs.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Show Answer

21. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched as given by Kautilya ?

(1) Dauvarika – Chief to Palace Attendants

(2) Prastar – Magistrate

(3) Samaharta – Collector-General

(4) Paur – Town Guard

Show Answer

22. Chronologically arrange the following in ascending order :

i. Regulating Act

ii. Cornwallis Code

iii. Aitchison Commission

iv. Macaulay Report

Codes :

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, iv, i

(3) ii, i, iv, iii

(4) i, ii, iv, iii

Show Answer

23. Which one of the following committees first recommended for introduction of an essay paper carrying 200 marks in the Civil Service (main) Examination ?

(1) Kothari Committee, 1976

(2) Satish Chandra Committee, 1989

(3) Surendra Nath Committee, 2003

(4) P.C. Hota Committee, 2004

Show Answer

24. Which of the following match/s is/are wrong ? Answer by using codes :

i. Chairman of UPSC – Appointed by President of India

ii. Members of UPSC – Appointed by Chairman, UPSC

iii. Retirement of Chairman and Members of UPSC – 5 years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier

iv. Members of UPSC – Removed by Prime Minister of India

Codes :

(1) i, ii, iv

(2) iii, & iv

(3) ii, iii, iv

(4) ii, & iii

Show Answer

25. Which of the Institution/Ministry of Govt. of India is responsible for presenting Prime Minister’s Award for excellence in Public Administration to Civil Servants ?

(1) Prime Minister’s Office

(2) Cabinet Secretariat, Govt. of India

(3) The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

(4) The Ministry of Home Affairs

Show Answer

26. Yojana Aayog was replaced by National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) on which of the following date ?

(1) 1st January, 2014

(2) 1st January, 2015

(3) 15th August, 2015

(4) 26th January, 2014

Show Answer

27. Which Article of the Constitution authorises the Union or State Government to make grants for any public purpose, even when the purpose is one for which Parliament cannot normally legislate ?

(1) Article 268

(2) Article 269

(3) Article 282

(4) Article 271

Show Answer

28. Assertion (A) : CAG examines propriety, legality and validity of all government expenses.

Reason (R) : CAG exercises effective control over the government accounts.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

29. Who among the following does not have a constitutional safeguard regarding tenure ?

(1) Comptroller and Auditor General

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Prime Minister

(4) Chairperson of Union Public Service Commission

Show Answer

30. Which one of the following Commissions recommended the setting up of an Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution for resolution of conflicts between the Centre and the States ?

(1) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(2) Sarkaria Commission

(3) Punchhi Commission

(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission

Show Answer

31. What is true of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Bill 2016 ? Answer by using codes given below :

(i) It enables the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha in the absence of a recognized leader of opposition to be a member of the Selection Committee for Lokpal.

(ii) It amends Section 44 of the Parent Act and removed the period of limitation of 30 days as to furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants.

(iii) It amends Section 45 of the Parent Act and removed the period of limitation of 30 days as to furnishing of details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants.

(iv) It keeps the provision of recognized leader of opposition to be a member of Selection Committee for Lokpal.

Codes :

(1) (i) & (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(3) (i), (ii)

(4) (i), (iii)

Show Answer

32. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Show Answer

33. In which report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission barriers of Good Governance in India have been identified ?

(1) Right to Information – Master key to Good Governance

(2) Unlocking Human Capital – Entitlements and Governance

(3) Promoting e-Governance – The Smart Way Forward

(4) Citizen Centric Administration – The Heart of Governance

Show Answer

34. Who states that “Gathering knowledge for knowledge’s sake is termed as ‘pure’ or ‘basic’ research” ?

(1) Goode and Halt

(2) Pauline V. Young

(3) D. Slesinger and M. Stephenson

(4) William Healey

Show Answer

35. Which of the following statements are correct regarding factors considered for preparing appropriate research design ?

i. The nature of the research problem to be studied.

ii. The means for obtaining information.

iii. The availability of skills of the researcher.

iv. The availability of time and money for research work.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below :

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) i, ii and iv

(3) ii, iii and iv

(4) i, ii, iii and iv

Show Answer

36. Who defined case study as “a comprehensive study of social unit be a person, a group, a social institution, a district or a community” ?

(1) H. Odum

(2) William Healey

(3) Burgess

(4) Pauline V. Young

Show Answer

37. Which one of the following methods is used by the commissions and committees appointed by government to carry on investigation ?

(1) Observation

(2) Personal interview

(3) Unstructural interview

(4) Focussed interview

Show Answer

38. Which one of the following is correct formula suggested by H.A. Sturges for determining the size of class interval for analyzing data ?

(1) i = R / (1 + 2.3 log N)

(2) i = R / (1 + 3.3 log N)

(3) i = R / (1 + 4.3 log N)

(4) i = R / (1 + 3.3 × N)

Show Answer

39. Which one of the following should not be included in the summary part of the research report ?

(1) Research problem in brief

(2) Research methodology

(3) Description of the study area

(4) Major conclusions

Show Answer

40. Which of the following subjects is not included in the Union List of Indian Constitution ?

(1) Relief for the disabled and unemployable.

(2) Fishing and fisheries beyond territorial water.

(3) Taxes on the sale or purchase of newspapers and on advertisements published therein.

(4) Taxes on income other than agriculture.

Show Answer

41. Consider the following statements regarding Social Administration :

i. It is a sub-field of Public Administration.

ii. It comprises of social policies and programmes meant for preventing the incapabilities of individual and family.

iii. Rehabilitation of criminals and substance users is one of its objectives.

iv. It is a multi-disciplinary field of study.

Select the correct answer by using codes given below :

Codes :

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) ii, iii and iv

(3) i, iii and iv

(4) i, ii, iii and iv

Show Answer

42. Which of the following statements regarding Social Change is not correct ?

(1) It is a natural process taking place in every society.

(2) It is a continuous process having uniform speed.

(3) It comprises of changes in social structure and processes.

(4) This change can be complete or partial.

Show Answer

43. Which Constitutional Amendment bifurcated the combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two separate bodies ?

(1) 52nd Amendment

(2) 89th Amendment

(3) 90th Amendment

(4) 93rd Amendment

Show Answer

44. Which one of the following is the lowest tier of Local Government in France ?

(1) Canton

(2) Chartered Cities

(3) Communes

(4) The Marie

Show Answer

45. Which one of the following is not a type or form of Local Government in U.S.A. ?

(1) The Mayor-Council form

(2) The Commission form

(3) The Council/City Manager Plan

(4) The District Council form

Show Answer

46. Which one of the following statement does not explain a distinct feature of a Departmental form of Organization ?

(1) It is fully owned by the Government.

(2) It is created for regulating activities of the Government.

(3) It is subject to strict accounting and audit controls.

(4) Public undertakings doing business always constitute themselves into and should be seen as, a separate commercial entity.

Show Answer

47. Which of the following subjects is not included in the 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution ?

(1) Drinking Water

(2) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

(3) Libraries

(4) Markets and Fairs

Show Answer

48. Which of the following committee first recommended people’s participation in government programmes through PRIs ?

(1) B.R. Mehta Committee

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee

(3) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(4) G.V.K. Rao Committee

Show Answer

49. Assertion (A) : Domestic economic developments are constrained by loss of policy autonomy in India.

Reason (R) : Globalization has intensified interdependence and competition between economics.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

50. Which of the following areas is not examined by the Expenditure Management Commission ?

(1) Delivery mechanism of programmes of the government

(2) Technology being used to implement the programmes

(3) Pros and Cons of various programmes

(4) The Accounting methods used by the government

Show Answer

HOME SCIENCE

Paper – II

Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. RDA of thiamin (ICMR, 2010) for a moderately active man is

(1) 1.2 mg/day

(2) 1.4 mg/day

(3) 1.5 mg/day

(4) 1.7 mg/day

Show Answer

2. ‘Allin’ is a compound found in

(1) Garlic

(2) Turmeric

(3) Cinnamon

(4) Cloves

Show Answer

3. Which is the correct danger zone in food production ?

(1) 45° F – 115° F

(2) 41° F – 135° F

(3) 35° F – 120° F

(4) 38°F – 145° F

Show Answer

4. Which of the following is the theory of clothing ?

(1) Individuality

(2) Conformity

(3) Tattooing

(4) Modesty

Show Answer

5. Denier is the weight in gms of :

(1) 9000 metres of yarn

(2) 1000 metres of yarn

(3) 560 metres of yarn

(4) 840 metres of yarn

Show Answer

6. Which of the following is concerned with the functions of management ?

(1) Henri Fayol

(2) Taylor

(3) Gilbreth

(4) Elton Mayo

Show Answer

7. Participant observation of a culture or a distinct social group where a researcher tries to understand the cultures’ values and social processes is called

(1) Experimental observation

(2) Ethnography

(3) Clinical method

(4) Structured observation

Show Answer

8. Who was the initiator of the ‘Gurgaon Experiment’ under Rural Reconstruction ?

(1) Rabindranath Tagore

(2) F.L. Brayne

(3) Daniel Hamilton

(4) Malcom Marshall

Show Answer

9. As per the Aristotle’s model of communication, the three dimensions of persuasive speech are

(1) Ethos, Empathy, Mathos

(2) Ethos, Logos, Pathos

(3) Empathy, Chaos, Pathos

(4) Logos, Ethos, Laos

Show Answer

10. In Symmetrical or Normal Distribution

(1) Median is greater than Mean and Mode.

(2) Mean, Median and Mode have the same value.

(3) Mean is greater than Median and Mode.

(4) Mode is greater than Mean and Median.

Show Answer

11. Following are the symptoms of ascorbic acid deficiency :

I. Symmetrical Dermatitis

II. Gingivitis

III. Oedema

IV. Delayed wound healing

V. Petechiae haemorrhage

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) II, IV and V

(3) II, III and IV

(4) II, III and V

Show Answer

12. Following are the factors that inhibit iron absorption in the body :

I. Low gastric acidity

II. Ascorbic acids

III. Animal proteins

IV. Phytic acid

V. Tannins

Codes :

(1) I, IV and V

(2) I, II and IV

(3) I, III and V

(4) I, II and III

Show Answer

13. Methods used for assessing performance are

I. Chronocycle-graph

II. Work sampling

III. Pathway Chart

IV. PERT

V. HACCP

VI. Micro motion

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, VI

(2) II, III, IV, V

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) IV, V, VI, I

Show Answer

14. Which of the following can be used to remove the grease stain ?

I. Fuller’s Earth

II. Benzene

III. Glycerine

IV. Vinegar

Codes :

(1) II and III

(2) I and II

(3) III and IV

(4) I and IV

Show Answer

15. Which of the following fibers have good resiliency ?

I. Wool

II. Polyester

III. Rayon

IV. Cotton

Codes :

(1) I, III

(2) III, IV

(3) I, II

(4) I, IV

Show Answer

16. Which of the following are the types of human resources ?

I. Knowledge

II. Bank

III. Attitude

IV. Intelligence

V. Soil

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) I, III, IV

(3) II, IV, V

(4) III, IV, V

Show Answer

17. The following are milestones of emotional development during infancy :

I. Separation anxiety

II. Social smile

III. Strange anxiety

IV. Altruistic behaviour

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, III, IV

(3) II, III, IV

(4) I, II, IV

Show Answer

18. The qualities of a receiver, which influence face to face communication are :

I. Positive attitude

II. Active Listening skills

III. Channel vehicle

IV. Decoding skills

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

Show Answer

19. Which of the following approaches indicate the methodology of Extension Education ?

I. Simple to Complex

II. Concrete to Abstract

III. Learning by doing

IV. Learning by listening

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, III and IV

(4) II, IV and I

Show Answer

20. In a Random Sampling distribution of means :

I. The standard error will decrease as the sample size increases.

II. The standard error will increase as the sample size increases.

III. The mean equals the population mean.

IV. The mean is not equal to the population mean.

Codes :

(1) I and III

(2) II and IV

(3) I and IV

(4) II and III

Show Answer

21. Assertion (A) : Complex carbohydrates are recommended in diabetic diets.

Reason (R) : The complex carbohydrates have a low Glycemic Index.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

22. Assertion (A) : Addition of soda-bi-carbonate during cooking of green vegetables makes them bright green.

Reason (R) : The pigment chlorophyll changes to pheophytins in alkaline medium.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

23. Assertion (A) : A cycle menu is a selective menu.

Reason (R) : It is rotated at definite intervals.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

24. Assertion (A) : Collars, seams and texture when put together create structural design.

Reason (R) : Structural design is inherent parts of the garment.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Show Answer

25. Assertion (A) : Microscopic test is a confirmatory test for man-made fibres.

Reason (R) : Man-made fibres have their distinct characteristic microscopic appearance.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

26. Assertion (A) : Indirect light is ideal for general illumination.

Reason (R) : This light is directed to a ceiling from where it is reflected back into the room.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

27. Assertion (A) : For Piaget the most serious deficiency of pre-operational thinking is egocentrism and underlies all others.

Reason (R) : Young children ego-centrically assign human purposes to physical events and magical thinking is common.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Show Answer

28. Assertion (A) : Mass communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R) : In most of the mass communication situations, the communicator and the audience are in asynchronous relationship.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

29. Assertion (A) : Result demonstration refers to the showing net worth of a practice or a product.

Reason (R) : Result demonstrations do not only establish the value of a practice but also prove the feasibility of the practice under local conditions.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Show Answer

30. Assertion (A) : The power of a statistical test is the probability, given that null hypothesis is false, of obtaining sample results that will lead to its rejection.

Reason (R) : The larger the sample size, the greater is the power of the statistical test.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Show Answer

31. Arrange the steps involved in conducting 24 hour dietary recall in correct sequence :

I. Convert the amount of food & beverages consumed into amounts of raw foods.

II. Standardize the recipes.

III. Preparation and pretesting of questionnaire.

IV. Compare energy and nutrient intake with RDA.

V. Collect information on all foods and beverages eaten by respondent in previous 24 hours using standardized equipment.

VI. Calculate energy and nutrients using food composition tables.

Codes :

(1) II, V, III, I, VI, IV

(2) V, II, III, I, VI, IV

(3) III, V, II, I, VI, IV

(4) III, V, I, II, IV, VI

Show Answer

32. Arrange the steps of processing of wheat in the correct sequence :

I. Purifying        II. Washing

III. Aspirating   IV. Bleaching

V. Grinding       VI. Tempering

Codes :

(1) I, II, V, III, IV, VI

(2) II, I, IV, III, V, VI

(3) III, II, VI, V, I, IV

(4) I, III, VI, II, IV, V

Show Answer

33. Write in the right sequence the steps taken in an orientation program :

I. Introduction to facilities

II. Introduction to job

III. Review of company policies & practice

IV. Breaking Ice

V. Introduction to fellow workers

VI. Setting Employees expectation

Codes :

(1) III, VI, I, II, V, IV

(2) IV, III, VI, V, I, II

(3) I, II, III, VI, V, IV

(4) II, IV, VI, I, V, III

Show Answer

34. Give the correct path of the upper thread in the sewing machine :

I. Tension discs   II. Needle

III. Spool              IV. Thread guide

V. Thread take up lever

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) I, III, II, V, IV

(3) III, IV, I, V, II

(4) IV, II, III, I, V

Show Answer

35. Give the correct sequence of making woollen felts :

I. Layering of wool fibers

II. Cleaning, blending and carding of wool fibres

III. Beating, compressing and squeezing the web

IV. Application of heat and moisture

V. Imparting required finish to the felt

VI. Scouring, rinsing and drying

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

(2) II, I, IV, III, V, VI

(3) III, IV, II, I, V, VI

(4) II, I, IV, III, VI, V

Show Answer

36. Arrange in correct sequence the steps involved in decision-making :

I. Selecting the best alternative

II. Identifying the problem

III. Searching alternative solutions

IV. Thinking through alternatives

V. Feedback

Codes :

(1) I, III, II, V, IV

(2) V, III, I, II, IV

(3) II, III, IV, I, V

(4) III, V, I, IV, II

Show Answer

37. Arrange according to the stages of child birth :

I. Placenta delivery

II. Transition

III. Dilation and effacement of cervix

IV. Pushing

V. Birth of baby

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) III, II, IV, V, I

(3) III, IV, II, V, I

(4) IV, III, II, V, I

Show Answer

38. Arrange the steps of Extension Campaign Planning in their sequential order :

I. Draw a concrete plan

II. Identify the local needs

III. Arrange for supplies and support

IV. Choose the Appropriate Methods and Media

V. Decide the dates and time

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, V, I

(2) II, III, IV, I, V

(3) II, III, I, V, IV

(4) II, III, I, IV, V

Show Answer

39. Arrange the following stages of ‘Coming Together’ in developing relationships through communication as presented by Mark Knapp :

I. Experimenting   II. Bonding

III. Integrating      IV. Initiating

V. Intensifying

Codes :

(1) I, IV, II, III, V

(2) II, III, IV, V, I

(3) III, II, IV, I, V

(4) IV, I, V, III, II

Show Answer

40. Arrange the steps in the construction of grouped data frequency distribution in correct sequence :

I. Find the range

II. Determine the point at which lowest interval should begin.

III. Divide the range by 10 and by 20 to determine acceptable and convenient interval width.

IV. Enter the frequency of raw scores in appropriate class interval.

V. Record limits of all class intervals, placing the highest score class interval at top.

VI. Find the value of the lowest and the highest score.

Codes :

(1) VI, II, I, III, IV, V

(2) VI, I, II, III, IV, V

(3) VI, I, III, II, V, IV

(4) VI, II, I, III, V, IV

Show Answer

41. Match the nutrients in List – I with their deficiency symptoms with List – II :

Show Answer

42. Match the laboratory tests given in List – I with their chemical compound given in List – II :

Show Answer

43. Match the given names in List – I with Theories of Management in List – II :

Show Answer

44. Match the terms given in List – I with their description given in List – II :

Show Answer

45. Match the items given in List – I with the items given in List – II :

Show Answer

46. Match the items given under List – I with the appropriate items under List – II :

Show Answer

47. Match the concepts in List – I with their characteristics in List – II :

Show Answer

48. Match the programmes given in List – I with the year of their inception given in List – II :

Show Answer

49. Match the functions of communication given in List – I with their related activities given in List – II : 

Show Answer

50. Match the items in List – I with items in List – II :

Show Answer