SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 22 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am
CPWD/CWC/MES
Mechanical Engineering
REASONING
1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Rain : Clouds : : ? : ?
(a) Rice : Food
(b) Grey : Colour
(c) Heat : Sun
(d) Snow : Mountains
2. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Cactus : Plant :: Rice : ?
(a) Basmati
(b) Crop
(c) White
(d) Rabi
3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Pink : Colour :: Eagle : ?
(a) Black
(b) Symbol
(c) Bird
(d) Sky
4. In the following question, select the related letter pair from the given alternatives.
TOM : NIG :: ? : ?
(a) EAT : Y UN
(b) EAT : XXM
(c) FAT : LMV
(d) EAT : ZXC
5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
LERI : PJVN :: MONT : ?
(a) WRTY
(b) QTRY
(c) RITY
(d) RQYB
6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SAT : WEX :: MET : ?
(a) AQI
(b) IYX
(c) FHY
(d) QIX
7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
43 : 7 :: 23 : ?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 5
8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
38 : 53 :: 53 : ?
(a) 72
(b) 68
(c) 79
(d) 87
9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
9 : 81 :: 11 : ?
(a) 78
(b) 93
(c) 121
(d) 146
10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Goggle
(b) Purse
(c) Accessories
(d) Belt
11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Grapes
(b) Guava
(c) Cauliflower
(d) Orange
12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Sparrow
(b) Rat
(c) Ostrich
(d) Parrot
13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) GCXTO
(b) KGBXS
(c) RNIEX
(d) QMHDY
14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) SOKG
(b) AWSO
(c) RNJF
(d) CYTP
15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) KNQ
(b) DGJ
(c) WZB
(d) TWZ
16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 7-11
(b) 12-16
(c) 14-18
(d) 9-15
17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternative.
(a) 2-4
(b) 3-9
(c) 4-18
(d) 5-25
18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) 76-42
(b) 92-20
(c) 73-21
(d) 93-27
19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
(a) Flagrant
(b) Flavour
(c) Flatter
(d) Flick
20. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at THIRD position?
(1) Heritage (2) Helpful
(3) Hectic (4) Heroic
(5) Heroism
(a) Hectic
(b) Heritage
(c) Heroic
(d) Helpful
21. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at LAST position?
(a) Juvenile
(b) Justify
(c) Judge
(d) Justice
22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
F, M, T, ?, H, O
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D
23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given that will complete the series.
ROK, LIE, FCY, ZWS, ?
(a) LAQ
(b) SRV
(c) TQM
(d) FMQ
24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones th at will complete the series.
FAQ, LGW, RMC, ?, DYO
(a) VIR
(b) XSI
(c) LSI
(d) MIS
25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 22, 49, 113, 238, ?
(a) 386
(b) 532
(c) 454
(d) 576
26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
42, 21, 21, 31.5, 63, ?
(a) 169.75
(b) 157.5
(c) 152.5
(d) 126.75
27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
14, 44, 135, 409, 1232, ?
(a) 2962
(b) 3340
(c) 3702
(d) 3406
28. E is sitting between and A, B is to the right of A, C is at one of the ends and C and D are sitting next to each other. Who is sitting third?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) B
(d) E
29. Showing a photograph of a married couple B said that the gentleman in it was his father’s father and A said that the lady in it was her mother. How is A related to B?
(a) A is B’s mother’s sister
(b) A is B’s sister
(c) A is B’s Father’s sister
(d) A is B’s mother
30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
MERCANTILE
(a) truce
(b) learn
(c) trace
(d) claim
31. If OLYMPUS is coded as MJWKNSQ, then how will TEN be coded as?
(a) RCL
(b) GVM
(c) SDM
(d) UFO
32. In a certain code language, 1875 mean ‘wound the round watch’, 1643 means ‘a cake is round’ and 7321 means ‘watch a round wheel’. Find the code for ‘wathc’.
(a) 1
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 7
33. In a certain code language ‘+’ represents ‘−’, ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.
96 × 4 ÷ 125 +25 – 5 = ?
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 50
(d) 8
34. If 17 $ 22 = 4 and 56 $ 13 = 7, then find the value of 71 $ 25 = ?
(a) 56
(b) 96
(c) 18
(d)
35. If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does X # Y * Z $ W mean?
(a) W is X’s brother’s wife
(b) W is X’s wife
(c) W is X’s mother
(d) W is X’s sister
36. Select the missing number from the given responses :
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) −3
(d) 11
37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
OOXXXXX, OXOXXXX, OXXOXXX, OXXXOXX, OXXXXOX, ………..
(a) XOXXXXO
(b) XOXXXOX
(c) OXXXOXX
(d) OXXXXXO
38. scientist is studying the behavior of an ant. The ant picks food and walks 5 cm North, then it turns to its right and walks for another 11 cm. Then it turns right and walks 3 cm, then it turns West and walks 15 cm, then finally it turns to its left and walks 2 cm. Where is the ant now with respect to its starting point?
(a) 4 cm East
(b) 26 cm West
(c) 4 cm West
(d) 26 cm East
39. Two football players start running from the same point on the ground. Player A runs 10 km East, then turns to his left and runs 13 km. In the meanwhile Player B runs 6 km South, then he runs 3 km East, the he turns to his left and runs 19 km. Where is Player A with respect to Player B?
(a) 7 km West
(b) 7 km East
(c) 13 km East
(d) 13 km West
40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I : Some chapters are physics.
Statement II : All science is physics.
Conclusion I : All science is chapters
Conclusion II : Some physics is science
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I : All success is victory
Statement II : All luck is success
Statement III : Some hard work is luck
Conclusion I : Some success is hard work
Conclusion II : Some hard work is victory
Conclusion III : No victory is luck
(a) Only conclusions I and II follows
(b) Only conclusions II and III follows
(c) Only conclusions I and III follow
(d) All conclusions I, II and III follow
42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?
44. In the following figure, square represents professors, triangle represents Social Workers, circle represents Dieticians and rectangle represents Men. Which set of letters represents Dieticians who are not men?
(a) EFGI
(b) BDKHJ
(c) IGAC
(d) DEJI
45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Butterflies, Animals and Insects?
46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘C’ can be represented by 97, 78 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set of the word ‘SPAN’.
(a) 66, 87, 33, 56
(b) 59, 78, 42, 31
(c) 86, 89, 32, 55
(d) 78, 43, 22, 98
General Knowledge
51. Preliminary expenses are the examples of ……………
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital gain
(c) revenue expenditure
(d) deferred revenue expenditure
52. Which economic activity cannot be included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Working in a call-centre
(b) Tuition occupation
(c) Bee-keeping
(d) Banking
53. Which of the following statement is true for the Public Sector Unit?
(a) Most of assets is owned by a group of people
(b) Most of assets is owned by big companies
(c) Most of assets is owned by government
(d) Most of assets is owned by an individual
54. The percentage of India’s population in the total population of the world as per 2011 census is : …………..
(a) 17.5%
(b) 18.01%
(c) 19.35%
(d) 20.25%
55. Which of the following five y ear plan of India recognized human development as the core of development efforts?
(a) Eighth five year plan
(b) Ninth five year plan
(c) Tenth five year plan
(d) Eleventh five year plan
56. Which of the following thinker is associated with “the concept of political sovereignty?
(a) Maclver
(b) Socrates
(c) Rousseau
(d) Plato
57. Who said, “A good citizen makes a good state and a bad citizen makes a bad state”?
(a) Plato
(b) Aristotle
(c) G.B. Shaw
(d) Rousseau
58. Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is a/an………….
(a) Advisory Body
(b) Coordinating Authority only
(c) Supervisory Authority only
(d) Administrative Authority
59. According to Indian Constitution, who decides the Salary of members of Parliament?
(a) Unions Council of Ministers
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President of India
60. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Eighth Schedule : Languages
(b) Second Schedule : Form of Oath of office
(c) Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in Raiya Sabha
(d) Tenth Schedule : Defection related provisions
61. When did the Chinese traveler ‘Sung Yun’ come to India?
(a) 510 AD
(b) 518 AD
(c) 525 AD
(d) 528 AD
62. Which among the following state ‘Odantpuri’ education center was situated?
(a) Bengal
(b) Gujarat
(c) Bihar
(d) Tamil Nadu
63. Who was the founder of Bahmani Kingdom?
(a) Hasan Gangu
(b) Firoz Shah
(c) Mahmud Gawan
(d) Asaf Khan
64. During whose rule in India did the Khilafat movement begin?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Curzon
65. Who among the following was the founder of the Arya Mahila Samaj in the early 1880s?
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) Ramabai Ranade
(d) Pandita Ramabai
66. Dasht-e Kavir Desert is located in which country?
(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arab
(c) Iraq
(d) Sudan
67. Which of the following layers is called “Barysphere”?
(a) Earth’s most internal layer
(b) Earth’s intermediate layer
(c) Earth’s topmost layer
(d) Lowest part of the atmosphere where climate changes occur
68. The Blue Nile river originasts from which of the following lakes?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Tana
(c) Lake Edward
(d) Lake Albert
69. Which of the following states of India has the largest percentage of geographical area under forest as per the report of the Forest survey of India?
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
70. At which of the following towns the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi combines to form River Ganga?
(a) Haridwar
(b) Rishikesh
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Devprayag
71. ‘Nirvana Fund’ was set up by NSDC for financial help to………….
(a) Entrepreneurs from the bottom rungs of society
(b) Displaced Kashmiri Pandits
(c) Old age people having no means of livelihood
(d) Ventures of selected candidates trained under PMKVY but did not get any job
72. ‘Nakul Swasthya Patra’ is a scheme by the Government for which among the following purposes?
(a) Wellness of animals
(b) Wellness of animal owners
(c) Taking care of lactating mother in the rural areas
(d) Taking care of newborn babies in the rural areas
73. Which mine of India was the news recently for becoming the country’s first iron-ore mine to have a solar plant for reducing carbon footpring?
(a) Talchar mine
(b) Koraput mine
(c) Noamundi mine
(d) Ratnagiri mine
74. Where will the Summer Olympics be held in 2028?
(a) Sydney
(b) Paris
(c) Los Angeles
(d) Copenhagen
75. Which country has won the 2017 Davis Cup Tennis Tournament?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Serbia
(c) France
(d) Belarus
76. “You are Unique” is written by……….
(a) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(b) Khushwant Singh
(c) Taslima Nasrin
(d) Arvid Adiga
77. The third Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) Distinguished Indologist Award for the year 2017 was awarded to Japanese professor…………
(a) Hiroshi Marui
(b) Shimamaru Marui
(c) Nagasaki Marui
(d) Toyota Marui
78. Which of the following city has became first Indian city to get UNESCO’s world heritage city tag?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Gandhi Nagar
(d) Allahabad
79. In June 2017, which of the following countries have signed a protocol of co-operation in the field of archive?
(a) India and Israel
(b) India and Portugal
(c) India and Netherland
(d) India and Iran
80. India has signed an agreement to provide USD 318 million as line of credit for developing railway sector of which of the following country?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Sri Lanka
81. Dot Matrix is a type of …………..
(a) Tape
(b) Disk
(c) Printer
(d) Bus
82. The secondary storage devices can only store data but they cannot perform……….
(a) Arithmetic operations
(b) Logic operations
(c) Fetch
(d) All options are correct
83. In the modern periodic table metals, metalloids and non metals are found in which block?
(a) s-Block
(b) p-block
(c) d-block
(d) f-block
84. Cinnabar is ore of which of the following?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Mercury
(d) Iron
85. In which of the following mirror size of image for med is always equal to the size of object?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Both convex and concave mirror
86. Mass of a hydrogen atom is how many time the mass of an electron?
(a) 1000
(b) 8000
(c) 1837
(d) 5000
87. Which of the following are Fabrics that may contain polyester?
(I) Polycot
(II) Polywool
(III) Terrycot
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All I, II and III
88. Which of the following term does NOT represent electrical power in circuit?
(a) I2R
(b) IR2
(c) VI
(d) V2/R
89. A positively charged particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic field?
(a) toward south
(b) toward east
(c) downward
(d) upward
90. Which of the following is NOT positively charged?
(a) Alpha particle
(b) Proton
(c) Helium nucleus
(d) Electron
91. Which is a water soluble Vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
92. Match the items given in column (A) with those in column (B).
Column-A Column-B
(I) Frog 1. Skiin
(II) Leaves 2.Stomata
(III) Earthworm 3. Lungs and skin
(a) I-3, II-2, III-1
(b) I-1, II-2, III-3
(c) I-3, II,-1, III-2
(d) I-2, II-1, III-3
93. How many number of chambers are there in human heart?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
94. Which of the following is NOT present in a matured stomata?
(a) Plasmodesma
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Cell wall
(d) Vacuole
95. What is/are the cause(s) of arise hypermetropia?
(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
(b) Elongation of the eye ball.
(c) Focal length of the eye lens is too long.
(d) No option is correct.
96. Antibiotics are useful for which type of infections?
(a) Only bacteria
(b) Only virus
(c) Both bacteria and virus
(d) Neither bacteria nor virus
97. Which one of the following is NOT responsible for water shortage?
(a) Rapid growth of industries
(b) Increasing population
(c) Forestation
(d) Mismanagement of water resources
98. Which gas is major contributor to greenhouse effect?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Chloroflurocarbon
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
99. Which of the following is NOT a major problem in development of resources?
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands.
(c) An equitable distribution of resources.
(d) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources.
100. Which of the following is NOT man made ecosystem?
(a) Orchards
(b) Home aquarium
(c) Botanical gardens
(d) Grassland
TECHNICAL : Mechanical
101. The number of links (l) which is required to form a kinematic chain can be expressed in term of the number of pairs(p) as______
(a) l= 2p – 4
(b) l = 2p – 3
(c) l = 2p – 2
(d) l = 2p – 5
102. What is the total number of links and joints in the mechanism as shown in the figure?
(a) 3 and 3
(b) 3 and 2
(c) 4 and 3
(d) 4 and 4
103. What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
104. The graph of turning moment diagram is drawn between-
(a) crank angle and crank radius
(b) crank angle and crank effort
(c) crank effort and crank angle
(d) crank radius and crank angle
105. The mass of flywheel of a steam engine is 3250 kg with the radius of gyration of 1 m. The starting torque of the engine is 4500 N-m, what is the angular acceleration (rad/s2) of the flywheel?
(a) 3.4
(b) 2
(c) 2.48
(d) 1.38
106. A pulley is driven by a flat belt and the maximum tension produced in the belt is of 1400N. The belt has the density of 1000 kg/m3, 100 mm wide and 5 mm thick. What is the speed (m/sec) of the belt for the maximum power?
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 30.55
(d) 3.05
107. The rotary internal combustion engine is the inversion of_____
(a) four bar link chain
(b) double slider crank chain
(c) single slider crank mechanism
(d) Rocker crank mechanism
108. The pressure distribution in the uniform wear theory is______
(a) directly proportional to radius
(b) directly proportional to the square of radius
(c) inversely proportional to radius
(d) inversely proportional to the square of radius
109. When the friction lining is new, the wear varies_______
(a) directly to radius
(b) inversely to radius
(c) directly to the square of radius
(d) inversely to the square of radius
110. What is the radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of the tooth known as?
(a) Dedendum
(b) Addendum
(c) Pitch circle diameter
(d) Module
111. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the contact ratio?
(a) Varies directly to the length of the arc of contact
(b) Inversely proportional to the module
(c) Inversely proportional to the circular pitch
(d) All options are correct
112. Which of the following is the type of pendulum governor?
(a) Hartnell governor
(b) Proell governor
(c) Porter governor
(d) Watt governor
113. Which of the following governors does not have central load attached to their sleeves?
(a) Porter governor
(b) Watt governor
(c) Proell governor
(d) None of these
114. What will be the vertical height (m) of a watt governor, if the speed of rotation is 80 rpm?
(a) 1.4
(b) 1.14
(c) 0.14
(d) 0.11
115. Which of the following term defines the size of the cam?
(a) Base circle
(b) Prime circle
(c) Pitch circle
(d) Pitch curve
116. What term is used for the combined effect of all the forces on a body?
(a) Load
(b) Stress
(c) Strain
(d) None of the above
117. Which of the following load does not act on the considerable length of the beam?
(a) Uniformly distributed
(b) Triangular
(c) Point
(d) Uniformly varying
118. Which term states the S.I. unit of stress?
(a) kN/mm
(b) N/mm2
(c) N/mm3
(d) m3/sec
119. Maximum shear stress theory was postulated by___
(a) ST Venant
(b) Mohr
(c) Rankine
(d) Tresca
120. The equivalent length of the column when both the ends are fixed is_____
(a) l
(b) l/2
(c) l/4
(d) 2l
121. The slenderness ratio of the column is____.
(a) directly proportional to the effective length
(b) directly proportional to the least radius of gyration
(c) directly proportional to the square of effective length
(d) directly proportional to the square of least radius of gyration
122. Rankine theory is applicable to the______
(a) Short strut/column
(b) Long column
(c) Both short long column
(d) None of these
123. Which of the following assumptions is INCORRECT about the long column?
(a) The column behaves elastically
(b) The load acts perfectly axial and passes through the centroid of the column section.
(c) The weight of the column is neglected
(d) The material is non-homogenous and anisotropic.
124. What is the maximum shear stress on the wall of a thin cylinder, if it has a diameter of d, thickness of t and the gauge pressure in the cylinder is p?
(a) pd/t
(b) pd/4t
(c) pd/2t
(d) pd/8t
125. What is the volumetric strain in the thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure having hoop stress of 200 MPa, modulus of elasticity, E = 200 GPa and poisons ratio = 0.25?
(a) 20/1000
(b) 2/1000
(c) 0.2/1000
(d) 0.02/1000
126. The property of the material to regain its original shape after deformation when the external forces are removed is_______
(a) plasticity
(b) elasticity
(c) durability
(d) none of these
127. The correct shear force diagram for the cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load over the whole length of the beam is.
128. Which of the following is the CORRECT bending moment diagram for the cantilever beam carrying uniformly varying load from zero at free and m/unit length at the fixed end?
129. A rod of dimension 20 mm × 20 mm is carrying an axial tensile load of 10 kN. The tensile stress developed is______
(a) 0.025 MPa
(b) 0.25 MPa
(c) 25 MPa
(d) 250 MPa
130. Which is the CORRECT option for the polar moment of inertia of the solid shaft?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
131. The triple point on a P-V diagram is_____
(a) a line
(b) a point
(c) a triangle
(d) not present
132. Which of the following statement related to entropy is true.
(a) Minimum entropy is observed when the system is in equilibrium with the surrounding
(b) At absolute zero temperature, the solid solutions have non-zero entropy
(c) Substance in solid phase has the least entropy.
(d) Entropy conservation takes place in all irreversible processes.
133. If the COP of Carnot refrigerator is 4, then the thermal efficiency of the Carnot engine would be_______
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.2
(d) 0.18
134. While working between temperatures 150 K and 300 K, the entropy change experienced by the Carnot engine during the heat addition is 1 kJ/K, the work produced (kJ) by the engine is______.
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 300
(d) 600
135. A heat engine working between the source at 200°C and rejects heat at 25°C receives 5 kW of heat. Work done for this engine is equal to 0 kW. Does this satisfy the inequality of Clausius?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) None of these
136. An ideal gas with heat capacity ratio of 2 is used in an ideal Otto-cycle which operates between minimum and maximum temperatures of 200K and 1800 K. What is the compression ratio of the cycle for maximum work output?
(a) 1.5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
137. In an Otto cycle, air is compressed from 3 liters to 2.4 liters from a starting pressure of 1.5 kg/cm2. The net output per cycle is 400 kJ. What is the mean of effective pressure (MPa) of the cycle?
(a) 500
(b) 567
(c) 667
(d) 700
138. The combustion in a compression ignition engine is_____
(a) heterogeneous
(b) homogeneous
(c) laminar
(d) turbulent
139. Which relation is the basis of Mollier Diagram?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
140. Which of the following formula holds TRUE for dryness fraction?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
141. Which gas will produce the highest efficiency in an ideal Otto cycle for same compression ratio?
(a) Air
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Helium
(d) Oxygen
142. A Mollier diagram, the isotherm in the superheated region at low pressure becomes_____
(a) diverge from one another
(b) horizontal
(c) parallel
(d) vertical
143. If the heat rejected from the system is zero, then which of the following statements will hold TRUE?
(a) When net work is equal to the heat absorbed, work efficiency is 100%
(b) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only.
(c) It violates Kelvin-Plank statement.
(d) All options are correct
144. Clausius’ statement and Kelvin-Planck’s statement are_____
(a) not connected
(b) two parallel statements of the second law
(c) violation of one does not violates the other
(d) false statements
145. For the same heat added and the same compression ratio,____
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than diesel cycle.
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
(c) Both Diesel and Otto cycle are equally efficient.
(d) Cannot be determined.
146. A reversible engine operates between temperature T1 and T2. The energy rejected by this engine acts as an input for another reversible engine at temperature T2, which rejects to a reservoir at temperature T3. What is relation between T1, T2 and T3?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
147. Which equation defines the enthalpy (h) of a system?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) U Jpv
148. Which gas can attain be highest efficiency for the same compression ratio?
(a) Any of the gases
(b) Diatomic gases
(c) Mono atomic gases
(d) Tri-atomic gases
149. In Clausius theorem the reversible path is substituted by_____
(a) reversible isobars
(b) reversible isotherms
(c) reversible isochoric
(d) None of these
150. Which of the relation represents an irreversible and possible process?
151. _______ does not certain tin as alloying element.
(a) Babbitt metal
(b) White metal
(c) Solder
(d) All options are correct
152. Under microscope ferrite appears as
(a) White
(b) Light
(c) Dark
(d) None of these
153. ______ structure is obtained by austempering process of heat treatment.
(a) Sorbite
(b) Bainite
(c) Martensite
(d) Troostite
154. Preheating is essential in welding
(a) high speed steel
(b) cast iron
(c) all non-ferrous materials
(d) None of these
155. The melting point is the lowest for
(a) low carbon steel
(b) high carbon steel
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
156. ______ is commonly used for making household utensils.
(a) Duralumin
(b) Hindalium
(c) γ-alloy
(d) Magnalium
157. Ball bearing are generally made up of
(a) carbons teel
(b) carbon chrome steel
(c) stainless steel
(d) grey cast iron
158. _______ has high tendency to get work hardened.
(a) Lead
(b) Aluminium
(c) Brass
(d) Silver
159. _______ is the hardest known material.
(a) Cemented carbide
(b) Ceramic
(c) Diamond
(d) Alloy steel
160. ______ is obtained by isothermal hardening operation.
(a) Cementite
(b) Sorbite
(c) Acicular troosite
(d) Bainite
161. Fluid is substance which offers no resistance to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
162. Density of water is maximum at
(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
163. A perfect gas
(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) None of these
164. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain
(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
165. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having.
(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
166. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called.
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) centre of pressure
(d) none of these
167. 
is the equation to determine kinematic viscosity of liquids by.
(a) Redwood viscometer
(b) Engler Viscometer
(c) Saybott universal viscometer
(d) Newton viscometer
168. The capillary rise at 20 degree Celsius in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
(a) 3 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 30 mm
169. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension with increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
170. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
171. The magnitude of rise of pressure due to water hammer in a rigid and non-elastic pipe carrying water of density ρ and bulk modules (k) will be equal to
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) −
172. The flow of any fluid, real or ideal, must fulfill the following.
(a) Newton’s law of viscosity
(b) Newton’s second law of viscosity
(c) Velocity at boundary must be zero relative to the boundary
(d) the continuity equation
173. The most economical section of circular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when (where, d, is the diameter of circular section)
(a) depth of water = 0.95d
(b) water perimeter = 2.6d
(c) hydraulic mean depth = 0.29 d
(d) Any one of these
174. Borda’s mouthpiece is
(a) a short cylindrical tube projecting inward, having length of ½ diameter
(b) a convergent tube having length of 2-3 diameters
(c) most commonly used
(d) rarely used
175. The critical velocity is
(a) maximum attainable velocity
(b) terminal velocity
(c) velocity when hydraulic jump occurs
(d) velocity above which the flow ceases to be streamlined
176. Reynolds numbers for non-circular cross section is :
[V = mean velocity
ν = kinematics viscosity
P = Ratio of cross section area to the water perimeter]
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) c only
(d) d only
177. In case of two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by, the streamlines will consist of a series of
(a) circular arcs
(b) parabolic arcs
(c) hyperbolic arcs
(d) elliptical arcs
178. Friction factor of pipes depends on
(a) rate of flow
(b) fluid density
(c) viscosity
(d) all options are correct
179. Time of flow from one tank in which water level is h1 to another tank having level h2 will be proportional to
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) D only
180. Which of the following represents steady uniform flow?
(a) flow through an expanding tube at an increasing rate
(b) flow through an expanding tube at constant rate
(c) flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate
(d) flow through a long pipe at constant rate
181. Chezy’s equation is sued to determine
(a) velocity of flow in open channel
(b) velocity of flow in pipe
(c) flow over weirs
(d) discharge through notch
182. Bluff body is the body of such a shape that pressure drag as compared to friction drag is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) zero
183. For best hydraulic rectangular cross-section of an open channel, its depth should be equal to
(a) width
(b) two times the width
(c) half of the width
(d) three-eight of the width
184. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice is of the order of
(a) 0.45
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.62
(d) None of these
185. The discharge over a sharp-edged rectangular notch of width w depth h is equal to
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
186. When a liquid rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis as a rigid body, the pressure
(a) increases linearly as its radial distance
(b) varies inversely as the altitude along any vertical line
(c) varies as the square of the radial distance
(d) decreases as the square of the radial distance
187. The discharge through a semi-circular weir is proportional
(a) H(−1/2)
(b) H(1/2)
(c) H(3/2)
(d) None of these
188. The rate of change of moment of momentum represents the
(a) force exerted by fluid
(b) torque applied by the fluid
(c) work done by the fluid
(d) power developed by the fluid
189. Separation of flow occurs when pressure gradient
(a) tends to approach zero
(b) becomes negative
(c) reduces to a value when vapor formation starts
(d) None of these
190. The ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge through an orifice is
(A) Cc/Cd (B) Cd/Cv
(C) Cv/Cd (D) Cc.Cv
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) D only
191. Coke is produced by
(a) pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating wood in limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
(c) strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
(d) binding the pulverized coal into briquetts
192. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it’s dryness fraction is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.5
193. At which pressure (in kg/cm2) the properties of water and steam become identical
(a) 0.1
(b) 1
(c) 100
(d) 225.6
194. Cochran boiler is a
(a) horizontal fire-tube boiler
(b) horizontal water-tube boiler
(c) vertical water-tube boiler
(d) vertical fire tube boiler
195. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation boilers is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) could be more or less depending on other factors
196. Supercharging is the process of
(a) supply the intake of an engine with air at density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced colling air
(c) injecting excess fuel of raising more bad
(d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
197. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of
(a) clearance volume
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) ignition time
(d) effective compression ratio
198. Which of the following is a false statement? Excess quantities of Sulphur in diesel fuel are objectionable because it may cause the following?
(a) piston ring and cylinder wear
(b) formation of hard coating on piston skirts
(c) oil sludge in the engine crank case
(d) detonation
199. Installation of supercharger on a four-stroke cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage increase in power
(a) upto 25%
(b) upto 35%
(c) upto 50%
(d) none of these
200. In order to prevent formation of carbon on the injector, the temperature (in°C) of nozzle tip should be
(a) less than 100
(b) between 100-250
(c) between 250-300
(d) between 400-500
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