SSC Junior Engineering Mechanical Online Exam-2018 Held on 23 January, 2018, Time-10.15 am
CPWD/CWC/MES
Mechanical Engineering
REASONING
1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Red : Colour :: ? : ?
(a) Sun : Heat
(b) Earth : Planet
(c) Land : Solid
(d) Water : Drink
2. In the following question, select the related word pair from given alternatives.
Square : Four :: ? : ?
(a) Rectangle : Five
(b) Hexagon : Seven
(c) Rhombus : Six
(d) Triangle : Three
3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Forest : Trees :: Book : ?
(a) Pages
(b) Bind
(c) Writer
(d) Pen
4. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternative.
TRAP : YWFU :: FROG : ?
(a) KHLG
(b) KWTL
(c) WKLH
(d) FGHL
5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
FAN : MZU :: LIP : ?
(a) FGA
(b) KRO
(c) ANP
(d) TSQ
6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
AM : FR :: LQ : ?
(a) HQ
(b) NP
(c) QV
(d) LS
7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
46 : 24 :: 54 : ?
(a) 30
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 36
8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
11 : 24 :: 23 : ?
(a) 42
(b) 36
(c) 54
(d) 58
9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
5 : 15 :: 7 : ?
(a) 28
(b) 21
(c) 37
(d) 25
10. In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.
(a) Pen – Write
(b) Ball – Play
(c) Food – Eat
(d) Pencil – Stationery
11. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Road
(b) Truck
(c) Car
(d) Scooter
12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Crop
13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) GJM
(b) HKN
(c) MPS
(d) NQU
14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) LQVA
(b) AFKQ
(c) CHMR
(d) MRWB
15. In the following question select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) VRNJ
(b) CYUQ
(c) KGCX
(d) SOKG
16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 2 – 12
(b) 5 – 28
(c) 4 – 24
(d) 3 – 18
17. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 11 – 13
(b) 13 – 17
(c) 17 – 19
(d) 11 – 15
18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) 4 – 12
(b) 5 – 15
(c) 6 – 18
(d) 9 – 29
19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
(1) Series (2) Singing
(3) Secure (4) Sickle
(5) Secured
(a) 35142
(b) 53142
(c) 35124
(d) 53124
20. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
(1) Drive (2) Drown
(3) Drain (4) Drink
(5) Drama
(a) 35421
(b) 35412
(c) 35214
(d) 35241
21. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
(1) Price (2) Prize
(3) Police (4) Paint
(5) Prawn
(a) 45123
(b) 45213
(c) 43521
(d) 43512
22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AG, FM, KS, PY, ?
(a) RM
(b) UE
(c) JQ
(d) YA
23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
ALK, VGF, QBA, ?, GRQ
(a) KST
(b) ARP
(c) CXD
(d) LWV
24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
KPD, QVJ, WBP, CHV, ?
(a) INB
(b) GXF
(c) ICM
(d) ZDQ
25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
3, 7, 11, 63, 27, 215, ?, ?
(a) 47, 513
(b) 51, 511
(c) 51, 513
(d) 47, 511
26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
18, 45, 112.5, ?, 703.125
(a) 217.5
(b) 262.25
(c) 281.25
(d) 273.75
27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given alternatives.
30, 68, 130, 222, 350, ?
(a) 504
(b) 520
(c) 476
(d) 448
28. Seg CD is shorter than Seg MN, Seg MN is shorter than Seg TR, Seg AB is shorter than Seg CD and Seg CD and Seg MN is shorter than Seg. PQ. Which segment is the shortest?
(a) CD
(b) MN
(c) PQ
(d) AB
29. A is B’s father’s father’s daughter-in-law’s daughter. If B’s father has no brother the now is A related to B?
(a) grand-daughter
(b) daughter
(c) mother
(d) sister
30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
RECUPERATE
(a) acute
(b) trace
(c) price
(d) erupt
31. If TUESDAY is coded as VWGUFCA, then how will COW be coded as?
(a) EQY
(b) XLD
(c) BNV
(d) DPX
32. In a certain code language, 2369 means’s master class is fun’, 9527 means ‘act is class part’ and 1349 means ‘we have fun class’. Find the code for ‘fun’.
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 9
33. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.
16 – 25 × 40 ÷ 60 + 15 = ?
(a) 14
(b) 72
(c) 55
(d) 63
34. If 72 $ 20 = 46 and 1 $ 27 = 14 then find the value of
(a) 34
(b) 54
(c) 27
(d) 17
35. If A $ B means A is son of B, A # B means A is brother of B and If A * B means A is father of B, then what does Q # Q $ R * S mean?
(a) P is father of S
(b) P is father’s father of S
(c) P is brother of S
(d) P is son of S
36. Select the missing number from the given responses.
(a) 2
(b) 11
(c) 1
(d) 10
37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
AAAAABA, AAAAAAAB, BAAAAAAA, ABAAAAAA, AABAAAA, ………..
(a) AAAAAABA
(b) AAABAAAA
(c) AAAABAAA
(d) AAAAABAA
38. A Shopping mall worker loads his trolley and walks 50 m through an alley which is going North, then he turns to his left and walks 15 m, then he turns South and walks, another 15 m, then he turns East and walks 25 m and then he turns south and walks 35 m. Where is he now with reference to his starting position?
(a) 10 m West
(b) 10 m East
(c) 40 m East
(d) 40 m West
39. Two battle tanks start from the same point. Tank A travels 12 km South, then turns to its left and travels 7 km. Tank B travels 7 km South, then turns West and travels 9 km, then turns to its left and travels 5 km. Where is tank A with respect to tank B?
(a) 16 km West
(b) 2 km East
(c) 2 km West
(d) 16 km East
40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at a variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statements I : No cats are dogs
Statement II: Some cats are carnivores
Conclusions I: All dogs are carnivores
Conclusion II: All carnivores are dogs
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decided which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.
Statement I: No bronze is copper
Statement II: Some alloy is bronze
Statements III: Some zinc is alloy
Conclusion I: Some zinc is bronze
Conclusion II: Some copper is zinc
Conclusion III: Some alloy is copper
(a) Only conclusions I and II follow
(b) Only conclusions II and III follow
(c) All conclusions I, II and III follow
(d) None of the conclusions follow
42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?
44. In the following figure, square represents astronauts, triangle represents swimmers, circle represents women and rectangle represents Indians. Which set of letters represents women who are either astronauts or swimmers?
(a) FHGI
(b) DEIA
(c) IBFG
(d) FHI
45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Pencils, Pen and Writing instruments?
46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column for example ‘C’ can be represented by 31, 43 etc and ‘W’ can be represented by 76, 89 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘SODA’.
(a) 65, 85, 21, 40
(b) 78, 87, 12, 03
(c) 55, 67, 12, 33
(d) 98, 69, 22, 14
General Knowledge
51. By what name is the BRICS banks presently known?
(a) BRICS Development Bank
(b) Afro-Asia Development Bank
(c) New Development Bank
(d) No option is correct
52. What does parallel economy mean?
(a) Black Money
(b) Parallel Business
(c) Illgeal Economy
(d) No option is correct
53. Who implements monetary policy in India?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) RBI
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Parliament
54. The ARDC is a branch of the NABARD. What is the full form of ARDC?
(a) Agricultural Research and Development Corporation
(b) Agriculture and River Development Cooperation
(c) Agricultural Reform and Development Cooperation
(d) Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation
55. Which of the following is a part of machinery that settles industrial disputes?
(a) Labour court
(b) Industrial Tribunal
(c) Work Committee
(d) All options are correct.
56. In which year Nagaland was created separate state?
(a) 1961
(b) 1962
(c) 1963
(d) 1964
57. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget?
(a) Department of Economic Affairs
(b) Department of Revenue
(c) Department of Expenditure
(d) No option is correct
58. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Dr Rajenra Prasad
(b) Dr Sachchidanand Sinha
(c) B R Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Patel
59. Which of the following was not adopted from the Maurya Dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?
(a) Satyameva Jayate
(b) Bull
(c) Horse
(d) Four Lions
60. The first session of Constituent Assembly of India was held in which of the following cities?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
61. Which of the following is the best example of Vijaynager Art?
(a) Ajanta
(b) Hampi
(c) Puri
(d) Sanchi
62. Taxila was capital of which among the 16 Mahajanpadas?
(a) Kosala
(b) Kuru
(c) Vajji
(d) Gandhara
63. Who was founder of Mughal Empire in India?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir
64. Where did Vasco da Gama arrive in India in 1498?
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Calicut
(d) Bombay
65. According to the treaty of Srirangapattanam, which of the following was ceded to the British?
(a) Mysore
(b) Hampi
(c) Kannur
(d) Malabar
66. By what name is the Ganga known in Bangladesh?
(a) Padma
(b) Ganga
(c) Damodar
(d) Meghna
67. Which of the following are not kharif crops?
(a) Maize and Rice
(b) Arhar and Soyabean
(c) Wheat and Barley
(d) Ragi and Groundnut
68. How many seismic stations are required to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
69. Madhya Pradesh shares its border with how many States?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3
70. Palghat joins which of the following states?
(a) Goa and Maharashtra
(b) Kerala and Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(d) Mizoram and Manipur
71. Which of the following authorities regulates NPS?
(a) IRDA
(b) PFRDA
(c) CAG
(d) SEBI
72. Which of the following is a centrally sponsored scheme to empower adolescent girls?
(a) SAKSHAM
(b) ABLA
(c) SABLA
(d) BBBPS
73. Which among the following has inscribed Kumbh Mela on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
(a) WHO
(b) UNCTAD
(c) ADB
(d) UNESCO
74. Who has been appointed as the General Manager of Board of Control for Cricket in India?
(a) MV Sridhar
(b) Saba Karim
(c) Rahul Johri
(d) Anurag Thakur
75. FIFA World Cup 2002 will be held in which country?
(a) Russia
(b) Spain
(c) Ukraine
(d) Qatar
76. “The Idea of Justice” is written by……..
(a) Ravindra Singh
(b) Mamta Banerjee
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Abhinav Bindra
77. Which author has been made Companion of Honour on December 12, 2017?
(a) J. K. Rowling
(b) Roald Dalh
(c) Charlotte Bronte
(d) Jane Austen
78. 31st Surjkund International Crafts Mela has begun at which of the following city?
(a) Faridabad
(b) Jaipur
(c) New Delhi
(d) Jaisalmer
79. ONGC Videsh has got a two year extension to explore which country’s Oil block-128 in the south China sea?
(a) Cambodia
(b) Vietnam
(c) Taiwan
(d) Philippines
80. The 5th India-Sri Lanka joint training exercise “Mitra Shakti 2017” was held in which state of India?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
81. BIOS is a……….
(I) non-volatile firmware
(II) Volatile firmware
(III) Software stored on a small memory chip on motherboard
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II and III
82. Which of the following is TRUE?
(a) Primary memory is non-volatile
(b) Secondary memory is volatile
(c) ROM is non-volatile memory
(d) RAM is non-volatile memory
83. Which of the following metal remains in liquid form at room temperature?
(a) Cadmium
(b) Mercury
(c) Germanium
(d) Tin
84. Aqua regia is a mixture of………..
(a) dilute hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid.
(b) dilute sulfuric acid and dilute hydrochloric acidic.
(c) concentrated sulfuric acid and dilute nitric acid.
(d) concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid
85. In a concave mirror if object is placed at centre of curvature, then image will be……….
(a) virtual
(b) erect
(c) diminished
(d) at the centre of curvature
86. What is the mass of 4 mole of aluminium atoms?
(a) 120 grams
(b) 108 grams
(c) 136 grams
(d) 140 grams
87. Which of the following particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil by Ernest Rutherford?
(a) Gamma
(b) Beta
(c) Electron
(d) Alpha
88. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
(I) Fuse is generally placed in series with the device.
(II) Fuse is generally placed in parallel with the device.
(III) Fuse wire has high melting point.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II and III
89. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotating in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced current changes once in each?
(a) Two revolutions
(b) One revolutions
(c) Half revolution
(d) One fourth revolution
90. Noise is measured in which unit?
(a) Watt
(b) Faraday
(c) Pascal
(d) Decibel
91. Which of the following vitamin helps in clotting of blood?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
92. During heavy exercise, breathing rate in an average adult person can increase upto …….. per minute.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30
93. Why is the colour of human blood red?
(a) Because of myoglobin
(b) Because of haemoglobin
(c) Because of immunoglobin
(d) Because of heptoglobin
94. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
(a) Oviparous animal does not give birth to young ones.
(b) Each sperm is a single cell.
(c) External fertilization takes place in frog
(d) Fertilization is necessary even in asexual reproduction.
95. What is the cause of arise of myopia?
(a) Excessive curvature of the eye lens.
(b) Eye ball becomes too small
(c) Focal length of the eye lens becomes too long
(d) Lack of sleep
96. Which of following multiplies very slowly in comparison to others?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) Worms
97. The accumulation of non-degradable chemicals progressively at each trophic level is called …………
(a) biological magnification
(b) chemical magnification
(c) residue magnification
(d) No option is correct
98. Why Taj Mahal is suffering from “Marble Cancer”?
(a) Because of sulphur dioxide
(b) Because of nitrogen dioxide
(c) Because of chloroflurocarbon
(d) Because of carbon dioxide
99. Cancer treatment is done by which of the following noble gas?
(a) Helium
(b) Radon
(c) Krypton
(d) Neon
100. How many types of ecological pyramids are present in ecosystem?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
TECHNICAL: Mechanical
101. Choose the option which does NOT belong to the category of simple machine?
(a) Spring
(b) Screw
(c) Wedge
(d) Pulley
102. What are the numbers of binary and ternary links in the following kinematic chain?
(a) 3 binary and 4 ternary joints
(b) 3 binary and 3 ternary joints
(c) 3 binary and 2 ternary joints
(d) 4 binary and 2 ternary joints
103. How many degrees of freedom does the below mechanism have?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
104. Which of the following is TRUE for four bar mechanism?
(a) All sliding pairs
(b) One is sliding pair and other is turning pair
(c) All turning pairs
(d) None of these
105. Which of the following is the CORRECT method for the conversion of spring controlled governor from unstable to stable?
(a) Increasing the ball weight
(b) Decreasing the spring stiffness
(c) Decreasing the ball weight
(d) Increasing the spring stiffness
106. The power transmission takes place in shaft rotating at 400 rpm and this rotating shaft drives another shaft at 600 rpm. The smaller pulley has the diameter of 0.5 m. The centre distance between pulleys is 4m. If the angle of contact on the smaller pulley for the pen belt drive is 1.8° then calculate the diameter of larger pulley (in m) and angle of contact (in rad)?
(a) 0.5 and 2.00
(b) 0.75 and 2.00
(c) 0.50 and 3.08
(d) 0.75 and 3.08
107. Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the bull engine?
(a) Obtained by fixing the cylinder or sliding pair
(b) Obtaining by fixing the crank
(c) Obtained by fixing the piston rod
(d) None of these
108. Which of the following condition is CORRECT about the inversion of a mechanism?
(a) Conversion of higher pair to lower pair
(b) Turning is upside down
(c) Obtained by fixing different links in a kinetic chain
(d) Obtained by reversing the input and output motion of the mechanism
109. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about the dry clutch and wet clutch?
(a) Heat dissipation is more difficult in dry clutch
(b) Rate of wear is very less in wet clutches as compare to dry clutches
(c) Torque transmitting capacity of dry clutch is less than wet clutch
(d) Engagement in wet clutch is smoother than dry clutch
110. Which of the following theory is/are used for the determination of torque quantities in one clutch?
(a) Uniform pressure theory
(b) Uniform strain theory
(c) Uniform stress theory
(d) None of these
111. Which of the following toothed wheels does not come under the classification according to the type of gearing?
(a) External gearing
(b) Internal gearing
(c) Rack and pinion
(d) Parallel gearing
112. The profile of the gears is involutes with 20°. If the length of path of approach and length of path of recess are 28 mm and 25 mm respectively. What is the length of arch of contact? (cos 20° = 0.94)
(a) 54
(b) 54.4
(c) 56
(d) 56.4
113. The governor in which the displacement of the sleeve is high for the small change of speed is known as________
(a) hunting
(b) sensitive
(c) stable
(d) isochronous
114. The point of contact which is common between the two pitch circles is known as______
(a) base line
(b) addendum
(c) dedendum
(d) pitch point
115. The tensile strength for the plate per pitch length of the outer row of the rivet is _______
(a) Pt=(pdtσt/2)
(b) Pt = 2(pdtσt)
(c) Pt = (pdtσt)
(d) Pt = (pdt2σt)
116. Choose the option which is INCORRECT about the term friction.
(a) Friction produces heat
(b) It leads to the decrease in the velocity of object
(c) It leads to the increase in the velocity of object
(d) It can stop the moving object
117. Which of the following formula is CORRECT for calculating the angle of static friction ϕs?
(a) tan−1μs
(b) sin−1μs
(c) cos−1μs
(d) None of these
118. Which of the following statement is CORRECT for the modulus of resilience?
(a) It is the ratio of maximum stress energy and unit volume
(b) It is the ratio of maximum strain energy and unit volume
(c) It is the ratio of proof resilience and unit volume
(d) It is the ratio of proof resilience and unit area
119. Calculate the value of modulus of elasticity (N/mm2), if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and modulus of rigidity of the material is 80 N/mm2.
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 250
(d) 300
120. Which of the following is CORRECT option for validation of Hooke’s law in simple tension test?
(a) Ultimate stress
(b) Breaking point
(c) Elastic Limit
(d) Limit of proportionally
121. A steel rod whose diameter is 2 cm and is 2 m long, experience heating from 30°C to 150° The coefficient of thermal expansion is α = 12 × 10−6/°C and the rod has been restricted in its original position. The thermal stress developed in 288 MPa. What is the value of Young’s modulus (GPa)
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
122. Choose the INCORRECT conditions for the thermal stress in a body.
(a) It is the function of coefficient of thermal expansion.
(b) It is the function of temperature rise
(c) It is the function of modulus of elasticity
(d) It is the function of modulus of rigidity.
123. The formula for the Euler’s buckling load is given as 
This is TRUE for which of the following columns?
(a) Column with one end fixed and other end free
(b) Column with one end fixed and other end hinged
(c) Column with both ends fixed
(d) Column with both hinged ends
124. Determine the shape of the elastic curve between the supports B and C for the beam is shown in the figure below.
(a) A straight line
(b) Elliptical
(c) Parabolic
(d) Circular
125. The elongation (mm) in a steel bar having a square cross section of dimension 40 mm × 40 mm is 2.5 mm and is subjected to an axial compressible load of P (kN). If the length of the bar is 4 m and modulus of elasticity is E = 250 GPa. What is the value of P(kN)?
(a) 100
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 250
126. The property of a material states that it is rigid. The value of Poisson’s ratio for this particle is_____
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of these
127. Consider the loaded beam as shown in the figure below
Choose the CORRECT option for the bending moment diagram of the beam above.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) None of these
128. Calculate the total angle of twist for a stepped shaft which is subjected to the torque (T) as shown in the figure below.
(a) T/πGd4
(b) 66T/πGd4
(c) T/66Gd2
(d) 36T/πGd4
129. A cross sectional bar of area 700 mm2 is subjected to an axial load as shown in the figure below. What is the value of stress (MPa) in the section QR?
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60
130. Choose the CORRECT equation which defines the relationship between the Young’s Modulus (E), Bulk modulus (K) and Poisson’s ratio (u).
(a) E = 3K(1 – 2μ)
(b) E = 3K(1 – μ)
(c) K = 3E(1 – 2μ)
(d) K = 3E(1 – μ)
131. In a P-V diagram for pure substance, the constant temperature line in superheated region is _______.
(a) converging
(b) diverging
(c) intersecting
(d) parallel
132. Which equation clearly defines the entropy change during the isothermal process for a system with m kg of gas at pressure P1, volume V1, temperature T1 and entropy S1 is heated to state points of pressure P2, volume V2, temperature T2 and entropy S2?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
133. The entropy change of the system and the surrounding during a process between two equilibrium states is_______.
(a) equal to zero
(b) greater than zero
(c) less than zero
(d) greater than or equal to zero
134. A Carnot heat pump is used to maintain a room at a temperature of 30° If the power requirements to of the pump is 20 kW. What is the heat pumped (in kW) to the room?
(a) 3
(b) 17
(c) 154
(d) 174
135. Which equation best represents the net entropy change(s) for an irreversible process?
(a) s = 0
(b) s = 1
(c) s < 0
(d) s > 0
136. Which of the engine has a spark plug used for igniting the fuel?
(a) Petrol engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Steam engine
(d) Gas engine
137. What happens to the efficiency. When the temperature of intake air is lowered in an I.C. engine?
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Increases to a certain limit, then decreases
138. For a process which is non-flow (U is the internal energy, Q is the heat and W is the work done) the first law of thermodynamics : states _______.
(a) dU Q W
(b) 
(c) dQ ≠ dW
(d) du Q
139. Which equation represents the steady flow system?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
140. In a P-T diagram for pure substance, the melting line has highest inclination with respect to the positive horizontal axis representing temperature for which type of substance?
(a) Substance that contract on freezing
(b) Substance that expands on freezing
(c) Substance that has same volume on freezing
(d) None of these
141. Which of the following graphs represents working of an ideal Diesel cycle on P-V scale?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
142. The work done by a system is 45 kJ. If the internal energy of the system is decreased by 15 kJ. What is the heat received (in kJ) by the system?
(a) −60
(b) −30
(c) 30
(d) 60
143. A reversible adiabatic process in a T-S diagram is a____.
(a) point
(b) vertical line
(c) horizontal line
(d) parabolic curve
144. Specific enthalpy is an _____ on a system and its unit is____.
(a) extensive property, kJ
(b) extensive property, kJ/kg
(c) Intensive property, kJ
(d) Intensive property, kJ/kg
145. The internal energy of the system is a function of temperature only U = 30 + 0.5t kJ. If the system does the work of 0.5 kJ/K, What is the increase interaction per degree/temperature?
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) cannot be determined
146. 2500 kJ/min heat is supplied to heat engine at 727° It rejects heat at 900 kJ/min at 223°C. This type of engine is______.
(a) Ideal
(b) Irreversible
(c) impossible
(d) practical
147. What happens to the COP of a heat pump, when the temperature difference between source and sink is decreased?
(a) Decreases
(b) First decreases, then increases
(c) First increases, then decreases
(d) Increases
148. If two Carnot engine CE1 and CE2 are connected in a series such that the heat rejected by CE1 is used as the input as the input for the CE2 cycle with the intermediate temperature being the geometric mean of the extreme temperature. Which of the following statement is TRUE for this efficient of the Carnot engine?
(a) ηCE1 > ηCE2
(b) ηCE1 > ηCE2
(c) ηCE1 = ηCE2
(d) Insufficient data
149. What type of sloes does constant pressure line have in the superheated region of the Mollier diagram?
(a) Positive slope
(b) Negative slope
(c) Zero slope
(d) First positive than negative slope
150. For a gas with n degree of freedom, what will be the value of Cp/Cv?
(a) n+1
(b) n – 1
(c) 1 – 2/n
(d) 1+2/n
151. With which of the following age hardening is related?
(a) Cast iron
(b) Gun metal
(c) Duralumin
(d) German silver
152. Monel metal is an alloy of
(a) Cu and Cr
(b) Ni and Cu
(c) Ni and Cr
(d) Cu, Ni and Cr
153. _______ iron is the magnetic allotrope of iron.
(a) α
(b) β
(c) γ
(d) δ
154. The bonding of rubber sheet with a metal is done by
(a) Welding
(b) High frequency dielectric heating
(c) Induction welding
(d) Adhesive bonding
155. Plain and butt welds may be used on material upto approximately.
(a) 25 mm thick
(b) 40 mm thick
(c) 50 mm thick
(d) 75 mm thick
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157. Generally, the strongest form in which metals can be used as
(a) hot rolling
(b) cold rolling
(c) extrusion
(d) forging
158. Thermite is a mixture of
(a) Aluminium and iron oxide in the ratio of 1:3
(b) Iron and aluminium oxide in the ratio of 3:1
(c) Aluminium an iron oxide in the ratio of 3:1, with traces of sulphur, phosphorus and manganese
(d) molten iron and aluminium, with the ratio depending upon the type of the surface to be welded
159. The process of enlarging a hole is known as
(a) counter boarding
(b) counter sinking
(c) boring
(d) drilling
160. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Crater wear is predominant in ceramic tools
(b) Crater wear is predominant in carbon tool steel
(c) Crater wear is predominant in tungsten carbide tools
(d) Crater wear is predominant in high speed steel tools
161. The bomb calorimeter is an apparatus to measure the
(a) calorific value of a gaseous fuel
(b) calorific value of solid and gaseous fuels
(c) calorimetric composition of any solid bomb
(d) calorific value of a solid or liquid fuel
162. In metric system the unit of heat is given as
(a) CHU
(b) BTU
(c) kcal
(d) Kelvin
163. Centrifugal pump is an example of
(a) isolated system
(b) closed system
(c) steady flow system
(d) None of these
164. A refrigeration system works on
(a) second law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(d) None of these
165. Liquids have
(a) No specific heat
(b) different values of specific heat at same temperature
(c) only one value of specific heat
(d) two distinct value of specific heat
166. The volume of the universal gas constant (Rμ) is equal to
(a) 848 m kgf.kg-mol/K
(b) 8.48 m kgf.kg-mol/K
(c) 84.8 m kgf.kg-mol/K
(d) 0.848 m kgf.kg-mol/K
167. The solid fuel having the highest calorific value is
(a) wood
(b) ignite
(c) coke
(d) anthracite
168. The heat transfer Q, the work done W and the change in internal energy U are all zero in the case of
(a) a rigid vessel containing steam at 150°C left in the atmosphere which is at 25°C/150°C
(b) 1 kg of gas contained in an insulted cylinder expanding as the piston moves slowly outwards
(c) a rigid vessel containing ammonia gas connected through a valve to an evacuated rigid vessel, the vessel, the valve and the connecting pipes being well insulated and the valve being opened and after a time, condition through the two vessels becoming uniform
(d) 1 kg of air flowing adiabatically from the atmosphere a previously evacuated bottle
169. A reversible engine operates between temperatures T1 and T2. The energy rejected by this engine is received by a second reversible engine at temperature T2 and rejected to a reservoir at temperature T3. If the efficiencies of the engines are same then, the relationship between T1, T2 and T3 is given by
(a) T2 = (T1 + T3)/3
(b) T2 = sqrt {(T1)2 + (T3)2}
(c) T2 = sqrt (T1 * T3
(d) None of these
170. Efficiency of aCarnot engine is 75%. If the cycle direction is reversed, COP of the reversed Carnot cycle is
(a) 1.33
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.33
(d) 1.75
171. The channel section considered to have the highest efficiency is
(a) Quadrant
(b) Square
(c) Trapezoid
(d) Triangular
172. Any liquid flow, obeys the following
(a) Capillary, action
(b) Bernoulli’s equation
(c) Continuity equation
(d) Newton’s law of viscosity
173. According to principle of floatation, the weight of liquid displaced as compared to the weight of the body is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) depending upon the shape of the body
174. The wetted perimeter for a pipe running full of water is equal to : Where d is the diameter of the pipe.
(a) πd/2
(b) 2πd
(c) πd
(d) δ
175. Metacentric height is the distance between
(a) CG of body and centre of pressure
(b) CG of body and the metacentre
(c) CG of body and centre of buoyancy
(d) None of these
176. Surface tension is caused by the force of………… at the free surface.
(a) Cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) both cohesion and adhesion
(d) None of these
177. The intensity of pressure in a liquid due its depth will, vary with depth:
(a) directly
(b) indirectly
(c) both directly and indirectly
(d) None of these
178. The metacentric height of sailing ships is
(a) 0.45 m to 1.25 m/0.45 m to 1.25 m
(b) 1.5 m to 3.5 m/1.5 m to 3.5 m
(c) 0.25 m to 0.35m/0.25 m to 0.35 m
(d) 5 m to 7.5 m/5 m to 7.5 m
179. The discharge through a pipe measured with
(a) a venturimeter
(b) an orificemeter
(c) a flow nozzle
(d) All option are correct
180. According to Nikuradse’s the boundary behaves hydrodynamically smooth when
(a) (k/δ) > 10
(b) (k/δ) > 0.25
(c) (k/δ) < 0.25
(d) (k/δ) < 8
181. The coefficient of friction in term or Reynold’s number is
(a) 16/Re
(b) 32/Re
(c) 8/Re
(d) 10/Re
182. The maximum velocity of an airplane in steady level flight will occur at an angle of attack of
(a) 20.5°
(b) 18.5°
(c) 22.5°
(d) 26.5°
183. The wave produced due to surface tension in a shallow channel is known as
(a) gravity wave
(b) capillary wave
(c) elastic wave
(d) None of these
184. Which one of the following is an axial flow turbine?
(a) Pelton wheel
(b) Francis turbine
(c) Kaplan turbine
(d) None of these
185. The unit power of a turbine is equal to
(a) P/H5/2
(b) P/H1/2
(c) P/H3/2
(d) P/H2/5 – 1/2
186. Pseudo plastic is a fluid for which
(a) dynamic viscosity decreases as the rate of shear increases
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity holds good
(c) dynamic viscosity increases as the rate of shear increases
(d) dynamic viscosity increases with the time for which shearing forces are applied
187. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists.
(a) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
(b) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-4
(c) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
(d) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
188. Centrifugal pumps have which of the following advantages?
(1) Low initial cost
(2) Compact, occupying less floor space
(3) Easy handling of highly viscous fluids
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
189. What is the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid termed ‘poise’ equivalent to?
(a) dyne/cm2
(b) gs/cm
(c) dyne-s/cm2
(d) g-cm/sec
190. Which one of the following conditions will linearize the Navier-Stokes equations to make it amenable for analytical solutions?
(a) Low Reynolds number (Re < < 1)
(b) High Reynolds number (Re >> 1)
(c) Low Mach number (M < < 1)
(d) High Mach number (M >> 1)
191. Which of the following advantages is/are possessed by a Kaplan turbine over a Francis turbine?
(1) Low frictional losses
(2) Part load efficiency is considerably high
(3) More compact and smaller in size
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
192. The stream function Ψ = x3 – y3 is observed for a two dimensional flow field. What is the magnitude of the velocity at point (1, −1)?
(a) 4.24
(b) 2.83
(c) 0
(d) −2.83
193. Non uniform flow occurs when
(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(d) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
194. The length of divergent portion of venturimeter in comparison to convergent portion is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on capacity
195. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between these points must be more then
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all option are correct
196. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on …………
(a) impeller diameter
(b) speed
(c) fluid density
(d) Both impeller and speed
197. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is
(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) None of these
198. The figure below shows the relationship between power (P) and discharge (Q) for different vane exit angles of centrifugal pump. In the figure given below, curve B holds good for :
(a) vane exit angle of 90°
(b) vane exit angle of less than 90°
(c) vane exit angle of more than 90°
(d) any vane exit angle
199. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of such a turbine, identical with a given turbine which
(a) develops unit power under unit head
(b) develops unit power under unit discharge
(c) develops unit speed under unit head
(d) delivers unit discharge under unit head
200. In reaction turbine
(a) Kinetic energy is appreciable as the fluid leaves the runner and enters draft tube
(b) the vanes are partly filled
(c) total energy of fluid is converted to kinetic energy in the runner
(d) it is not exposed to atmosphere
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