SSC Junior Engineer Mechanical Online Exam 2018
CPWD/CWC/MES
Mechanical Engineering
Time : 03.15 pm Exam Date : 23 January, 2018
REASONING
1. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Heart : Organ :: ? : ?
(a) Bus : Vehicle
(b) Car : Road
(c) Ship : Sea
(d) Train : Rail
2. In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.
Big : Small : Solid : ?
(a) Metal
(b) Liquid
(c) Smoke
(d) Cold
3. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Calculator : Calculations :: Scale : ?
(a) Inches
(b) Centimeters
(c) Measure
(d) Steel
4. In the following question, selects the related letter from the given alternatives.
MUFT : PXIW :: GONE : ?
MUFT : PXIW : : GONE : ?
(a) HMRL
(b) JSPA
(c) JRQH
(d) HQRF
5. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
MUFT : PXIW :: GONE : ?
PINK : TMRO :: SOLD : ?
(a) HQTX
(b) WSPH
(c) HAQV
(d) AQBH
6. In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.
SW : VA :: LT : ?
(a) NY
(b) LA
(c) OX
(d) OL
7. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
19: 363 :: ? :
(a) 16 : 259
(b) 13 : 171
(c) 14 : 199
(d) 14 : 195
8. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
42 : 105 :: 38 : ?
(a) 111
(b) 135
(c) 95
(d) 83
9. In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
24 : 39 :: 49 : ?
(a) 68
(b) 64
(c) 69
(d) 79
10. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Liver
(b) Intestine
(c) Organ
(d) Lungs
11. In the following question select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Black
(b) Yellow
(c) Rainbow
(d) Pink
12. In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.
(a) Arteries
(b) Veins
(c) Hand
(d) Bones
13. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) RLF
(b) MGA
(c) EYR
(d) HBV
14. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) IR
(b) KP
(c) GT
(d) OV
15. In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.
(a) XTQMJ
(b) FBYUR
(c) GCZVS
(d) TPMIE
16. In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.
(a) 4-21
(b) 7-54
(c) 6-41
(d) 3-16
17. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) 11-17
(b) 23-31
(c) 43-59
(d) 41-47
18. In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.
(a) 12-156
(b) 13-182
(c) 14-210
(d) 15-230
19. Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
(1) Shocking (2) Shiver
(3) Shelter (4) Shorten
(5) Shudder
(a) 23145
(b) 32145
(c) 14523
(d) 41523
20. According to dictionary, which of the following word will come at LAST position?
(1) Operation (2) Orderly
(3) Openly (4) Opulent
(5) Oral
(a) Oral
(b) Orderly
(c) Opulent
(d) Operation
21. From the given alternatives, according to dictionary, which word will come at THIRD position?
(a) Passage
(b) Pastime
(c) Patience
(d) Pathetic
22. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
AGM, FLR, KQW, PVB, ?
(a) UAG
(b) VLC
(c) CGN
(d) PNO
23. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
FROM, CNLI, ZJIE, WFFA, ?
(a) ACNG
(b) TCCX
(c) TBCW
(d) FRIP
24. A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
TRO, PNK, LJG, ?, DBY
(a) FBC
(b) FNB
(c) FRN
(d) HFC
25. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
11, 16, 21, 13, 19, 25, 15, 22, 29, ? 25
(a) 18
(b) 17
(c) 19
(d) 21
26. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
2112, 2328, 2671, 3183, ?, 4912
(a) 3826
(b) 3742
(c) 3912
(d) 3992
27. In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.
21, 22, 34, 5, 71, 180, 543, ?
(a) 1864
(b) 2234
(c) 2336
(d) 1904
28. M is 2 year older than P, L is 2 years older than O, O’s age is the average of the ages of L and N, P’s age is the average of the ages of L and M and L’s age is the average of P and O. Who is the youngest?
(a) L
(b) M
(c) N
(d) O
29. X said to Y that mother’s father-in-law’s wife is mother-in-law of my father. How are X and y related?
(a) X is sister’s husband of Y
(b) X is child of Y’s father’s sister
(c) Y is father’s brother of X
(d) Y is sister’s husband of X
30. From the given alternative words select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:
GEOGRAPHIC
(a) Cheap
(b) rogue
(c) price
(d) graph
31. If BANQUET is coded as ZYLOSCR, then how will NEW be coded as?
(a) MVD
(b) MDV
(c) LCU
(d) OFX
32. In a certain code language, 9124 means ‘run around the block’, 2548 means ‘don’t block the path’ and 4763 means ‘chock a block full’. Find the code for ‘the’.
(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) 2
(d) 4
33. In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘−’, ‘−’ represents ‘×’, ‘×’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘+’. Find out the answer to the following question.
90 × 10 ÷ 25 – 5 + 50 = ?
(a) 81
(b) 84
(c) 100
(d) 48
34. If 11 @ 7 = 2, 18 @ 0 = 9 and 22 @ 20 = 1, then find the value of 16 @ 10 = ?
(a) 6
(b) 160
(c) 26
(d) 3
35. If A * B means A is father of B, A + B means A is sister of B and If A% B means A is daughter of B, then what does C * D % E + F mean?
(a) C is F’s husband
(b) C is F’s wife’s brother
(c) C is father of F
(d) C is F’s sister’s husband
36. Select the missing the number from the given responses.
(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) −1
(d) −9
37. Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?
CABABABAB, ACBABABAB, ABCABABAB, ABACBABAB, ABABCABAB, ………
(a) ABABABACB
(b) ABABABCAB
(c) ABABACBAB
(d) ABABABABC
38. A ship starts from the port and sails 43 miles East, then it turns South and sails 17 miles, then it turns West and sails 25 miles, then it turns to its right and sails 17 miles. Where is it with respect to the port from where it started?
(a) 18 miles West
(b) 68 miles East
(c) 18 miles East
(d) 68 miles West
39. Two planes start from the same strip. Plane P files 15 miles West, then turns left flies 22 miles and lands. In the meanwhile plane Q flies 7 miles South, then flies 11 miles East, then turns to its right, flies 15 miles and lands. Where is plane Q with respect to plane P?
(a) 26 miles East
(b) 26 miles West
(c) 4 miles East
(d) 4 miles West
40. In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, from the given statements.
Statements I: All officers are mothers
Statements II: Some doctors are mothers
Conclusion I: All doctors are mothers
Conclusion II: Some mothers are officers
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions I and II follow
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
41. In the question three statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statement I: All deserts is jungle
Statement II: All sand is desert
Statement III: No tree are jungle
Conclusion I: No trees are desert
Conclusion II: No sand is trees
Conclusion III: All jungle is sand
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusions I and II follow
(d) None of the conclusions follow
42. Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure?
43. Which of the following answer figure patterns can be combined to make the question figure?
44. In the following figure, square represents Artists, triangle represents Military officers, circle represents collectors and rectangle represents Fathers. Which set of letters represents collectors who are either military officers or fathers?
(a) H
(b) B
(c) G
(d) F
45. Which of the following Venn diagrams represents the relationship between Women, Mothers and Teachers?
46. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
48. A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
49. If mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?
50. A word is represented by only set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘H’ can be represented by 21, 43 etc and ‘R’ can be represented by 96, 87 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘POEM’.
(a) 76, 69, 01, 33
(b) 56, 88, 23, 41
(c) 89, 56, 44, 02
(d) 75, 68, 44, 33
General Knowledge
51. Depreciation of fixed assets is an example of……….
(a) deferred revenue expenditure
(b) capital expenditure
(c) capital gain
(d) revenue expenditure
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of monopolistic competition?
(a) Large number of buyers and sellers in the market
(b) Differentiated products constitute the market
(c) Product in the market is homogeneous
(d) Selling costs are used for sale promotion
53. What is the maximum loan amount permissible under the MUDRA Yojana?
(a) Rs. 50,000
(b) Rs. 1 lakh
(c) Rs. 5 lakh
(d) Rs. 10 lakh
54. As per a latest classification of countries by the World Bank India now belongs to which of the following category?
(a) Upper-lower income country
(b) Lower-middle income country
(c) Middle-middle income country
(d) Lower-upper income country
55. As per census 2011, which state had the lowest sex ratio?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
56. Pluralist Theory of Sovereignty emphasizes the importance of which of the followings?
(a) Association
(b) Monarch
(c) State
(d) Government
57. In which of the following countries the system of judicial review was originated?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) USA
(d) Britain
58. Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the District Planning Commission constituted?
(a) Article 243 ZD
(b) Article 244 ZD
(c) Article 242 ZD
(d) Article 243 ZE
59. Which kind of majority is required for constitutional amendment in forming a new state?
(a) Simple
(b) Two-third
(c) Three-fourth
(d) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states
60. Which officer of the Government of India has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a member?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Election Commission
61. The term ‘Stupa’ is associated with which of the following event of Gautam Buddha’s life?
(a) Death
(b) First Sermon
(c) Birth
(d) Renunciation
62. Who was the last ruler of the Gupta Dynasty?
(a) Puru Gupta
(b) Vishnu Gupta
(c) Skanda Gupta
(d) Kumar Gupta
63. Where was Guru Govind Singh educated and learnt Persian?
(a) Lahore
(b) Amritsar
(c) Patna
(d) Anandpur Sahib
64. Which of the following was the precursor of Indian National Congress?
(a) Servants of India Society
(b) Indian Association
(c) Indian National Union
(d) Indian League
65. During which governor general’s time was the annexation of Sindh in British State done?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Chelmesford
(c) Lord Ellenborough
(d) Lord Hastings
66. What is the second most abundant element on Earth’s crust?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
67. What is called a shallow stratch of river that may be crossed on feet?
(a) Fiord
(b) Atoll
(c) Reef
(d) Lagoon
68. Which among the following is a cold-dry wind?
(a) Hurricane
(b) Tornado
(c) Bora
(d) Cyclone
69. The man-made reservoir Gobind Sagar located in Bilaspur is situated in which of the following states?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh
70. Which among the following rivers does not flow from East to West?
(a) Narmada
(b) Tapti
(c) Cauvery
(d) Mahi
71. Which of the following historical monument has been choosen as a “Swachh Bharat Icon” by the Union Government on November 21, 2017.
(a) Haveli Dharampur
(b) Charminar
(c) Amaravati
(d) Vishwa Bharati
72. As per a recent announcement, where will India’s first Electronic Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) come up?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) West Bengal
73. Which of the following is multilevel global campaign to spread awareness about importance of girls’ education?
(a) Girl Rising
(b) Most Important Part of our Life: Girls
(c) Save Girls: Educate Girls
(d) Education of Girls
74. Which country will host the Summer Olympics 2020?
(a) Qatar
(b) Tokyo
(c) Rome
(d) Jakarta
75. Which of the following sportsperson is not correctly matched with their respective discipline?
(a) Jitu Rai : Shooting
(b) P. V. Sindhu : Badminton
(c) Sakshi Malik: Boxing
(d) Deepa Karmakar: Gymnastic
76. “A Better India: A Better World” is written by……..
(a) Arun Jaitley
(b) Aamer Hussein
(c) N. R. Narayan Murthy
(d) C. Raja Mohan
77. Which among the following has won the Nobel Prize for Chemistry in October 2017?
(a) Jacques Dubochet
(b) Joachim Frank
(c) Richard Henderson
(d) All options are correct
78. On birth anniversary of social reformer Basavana how many volumes of Vachana were released by Narendra Modi in April, 2017?
(a) 21
(b) 20
(c) 23
(d) 25
79. In May 2017, with which country India has signed an agreement on Maritime Security?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Mauritius
(d) China
80. Which neighbouring country of India measures prosperity by gauging its citizens’ happiness level?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan
81. In which communication mode, data can be transmitted in both directions at same time?
(a) Simplex
(b) Full duplex
(c) Half duplex
(d) Multiplex
82. The computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is called ……….
(a) Complier
(b) Interpreter
(c) Assembler
(d) Comparator
83. Which is a base metal of amalgam alloy?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Mercury
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
84. Which of the following is the structure of graphite?
(a) Rigid three-dimensional
(b) Hexagonal
(c) like Football
(d) No option is correct
85. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end will ……….
(a) become cold by the process of conduction
(b) become cold by the process of convection
(c) become cold by the process of radiation
(d) not become cold
86. Which acid is the most abundant acid found in grapes?
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Tartaric acid
(d) Formic acid
87. The splitting of white light into its component colours is called………..
(a) diffraction
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) scattering
88. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?
(I) Change in magnetic filed produces induced current.
(II) Flow of current in a conductor produces magnetic filed.
(III) Magnetic filed related to coil can be produced by motion between conductor and coil.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only II and III
(d) All statements are correct.
89. Which gas is used as a fuel in a rocket?
(a) Radon
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Chlorine
(d) Nitrogen
90. Which of the following is good insulator?
(a) Mercury
(b) Cadmium
(c) Germanium
(d) Glass
91. Which is the most abundant Vitamin found in carrot?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
92. How the rate of absorption of water through roots can be increased?
(a) Keeping the plants in the shade
(b) Keeping the plants in the dim light
(c) Keeping the plants under the fan
(d) Covering the plants with a polythene bag
93. A spore producing plant is ……..
(a) rose
(b) bread mould
(c) potato
(d) ginger
94. Which chromosome is responsible for manliness in man?
(a) XO
(b) YO
(c) XX
(d) XY
95. The human eye forms the image of an object at its……….
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) pupil
(d) retina
96. Which of the following is NOT a multicellular organism?
(a) Fungi
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Hydra
(d) Paramecium
97. Which disease is caused by cadmium metal pollution?
(a) Minamata
(b) Itai-Itai
(c) Asthma
(d) Dermatitis
98. Which of the following is an organic gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Ethylene dichloride
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
99. Basel Protocol is related to which of the following?
(a) Ozone layer
(b) Burning of forests
(c) Sea water pollution
(d) Trans-boundary hazardous dumping
100. Which of the following is parasitic food chain?
(a) Tees → Fruits eating birds → Lice and bugs
(b) Grass → Rabbit → Fox → Tiger
(c) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(d) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish → Hawk
TECHNICAL : Mechanical
101. The number of joints (j) which constitutes a kinematic chain can be expressed in terms of number of links (l) as ______.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
102. Which of the following will lead to the formation of higher pair?
(a) Sliding pair
(b) Turning pair
(c) Rolling pair
(d) None of these
103. What is the degree of freedom of the mechanism shown below?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
104. Which of the following statement is TRUE regarding work done per cycle?
(a) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque
(b) Work done per cycle is directly proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
(c) Work done per cycle is inversely proportional to the angle turned in one revolution
(d) Both work done per cycle is directly proportional to the mean torque and work done per cycle is directly proportional the angle turned in one revolution.
105. The angular acceleration and the moment of inertia of the flywheel is 0.6 rad/s2 and 2500 kg-m2 What is the kinetic energy (in kN-m) of the flywheel after 10 seconds from the start?
(a) 45
(b) 450
(c) 4.5
(d) 4500
106. The power transmission takes place from a pulley of diameter 1 m running at the speed of 250 rpm to a pulley of 2.50 m diameter by means of a belt. Determine the speed (in rpm) of the driven pulley?
(a) 110
(b) 150
(c) 100
(d) 625
107. The scotch yoke mechanism is the inversion of___
(a) four bar link chain
(b) double slider crank chain
(c) single slider crank chain
(d) none of these
108. Which of the following is NOT the inversion of single slider crank chain?
(a) Pendulum pump
(b) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
(c) Oscillating cylinder engine
(d) Elliptical trammel
109. Which of the following theory is used in the design of clutches, when the friction linings get worn out?
(a) Uniform pressure theory
(b) Uniform wear theory
(c) Uniform friction theory
(d) None of these
110. The equation for the calculation of torque transmitting capacity in the conical clutch as per uniform wear theory is ________.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
111. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the length of are of contact?
(a) Inversely proportional to the module
(b) varies directly to the length of the path of contact
(c) Inversely proportional to the circular pitch
(d) All option are correct
112. The profile of gears having module of 12 mm and length of arc of contact is 60 mm. What is the contact ratio of the gear profile?
(a) 2
(b) 1.2
(c) 1.6
(d) 5
113. Which of the following is NOT the type of loaded type governor?
(a) Dead weight governor
(b) Spring controller governor
(c) Watt governor
(d) Porter governor
114. The type of failure involved in the analysis of the riveted joints are?
(1) Shear failure of rivet
(2) Tensile failure of the plate
(3) Crushing failure of the plate
Which of the following statements are is correct for the analysis of the riveted joints?
(a) (1) and (2) only
(b) (2) and (3) only
(c) (1) (2) and (3) only
(d) (1) and (3) only
115. Which of the following options is correct about the motion of the follower?
(a) Uniform velocity
(b) Simple harmonic motion
(c) Uniform acceleration
(d) All option are correct
116. When a body is said to be in dynamic equilibrium?
(a) When the body is moving with non uniform accelerations
(b) When the body is in uniform motion along a circular path
(c) When the body is in uniform motion along a straight line
(d) When the body is moving with instantaneous velocity
117. Which of the following term can also be used to state the dynamic equilibrium?
(a) Translatory equilibrium
(b) Static equilibrium
(c) Kinetic equilibrium
(d) Rotational equilibrium
118. What is the direction of application of friction force with respect to the direction of motion of an object?
(a) Same
(b) Perpendicular
(c) Opposite
(d) Downward
119. What is the S.I. unit of Poisson’s ratio?
(a) kN/mm2
(b) N/mm2
(c) mm
(d) Unitless
120. Maximum principal stress theory was postulated by_____
(a) ST Venant
(b) Mohr
(c) Rankine
(d) Tresca
121. The equivalent length of the column, when both the ends are hinged as_____.
(a) l
(b) l/2
(c) l/4
(d) 2l
122. The expression for the slenderness Ratio of the columns is given as____
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
123. The expression for the Rankine’s crippling load is given as_______.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
124. What is the ratio of the Euler’s Bucking loads of column having (i) both end fixed and (ii) one end fixed and other end free is?
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 16 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 2 : 1
125. The thin walled cylindrical vessel has the wall thickness t and diameter d is subjected to the gauge pressure of p. If the diameter of the vessel is doubled, then what is the ratio of hoop stress as compared to initial value?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 4
126. A metal pipe is subjected to internal pressure of 10 kgf/cm2, If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 200 kgf/cm2 and the thickness of the pipe is 2.5 cm. What is the diameter of the metal pipe?
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 200
(d) 20
127. A power transmission shaft of diameter d rotating at the speed of N rpm. The power P is related to diameter d and N as______.
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
128. Which is the correct option for the stress experienced by the shaft when the power transmission in shaft place through the gears?
(a) Varying bending and constant torsional stresses
(b) Constant bending and varying torsional stresses
(c) Torsional stress
(d) Bending stress only
129. A beam of diameter 75 mm has a span length of 10 m is subjected to uniform distributed load of w kN/m. The maximum value of bending moment produced is 6.75 kN-m. What is the value of distributed load, if the beam is simply supported?
(a) 1.5
(b) 0.54
(c) 2
(d) 5.4
130. A steel bar of dimension 10 mm × 1 mm × 1 mm is free to expand is heated from 15°C to 25°C What stress shall be developed?
(a) Tensile stress
(b) No stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) Compressive stress
131. For a pure substance in gaseous phase to be liquefied, the gas has to undergo initial cooling below the ______
(a) critical state
(b) saturated liquid line
(c) saturated vapor line
(d) triple point line
132. What is the CORRECT order of decrease in entropy?
(a) solid phase (b) liquid phase (c) Gaseous phase
(a) (a) > (b) > (c)
(b) (c) > (b) > (a)
(c) (c) > (a) > (b)
(d) (a) > (c) > (b)
133. The entropy always increases for an isolated system and when the equilibrium is reached, it is_____
(a) maximum
(b) same as the initial starting state
(c) more than initial starting state
(d) zero
134. A Carnot engine operates between T1 and T2. If there is an increase in source temperature by t and a decrease in sink temperature by t. How is the efficiency in both cases is related?
(a) η1 > η2
(b) η1 < η2
(c) η1 = η2
(d) None of these
135. In a surrounding, the amount of irreversibility of a process undergone by a system is determined by____
(a) entropy change of the system
(b) entropy change of the surrounding
(c) entropy increase of the universe
(d) entropy decrease of the universe
136. In an Otto cycle, r is the compression ratio and γ is the adiabatic index. Which relation defines the air standard efficiency?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
137. For the same operating maximum pressure and temperature, which cycle will have the highest efficiency?
(a) Diesel cycle
(b) Dual cycle
(c) Otto cycle
(d) None of these
138. The mean of effective pressure of Otto cycle is given by _____
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
139. What is the state at which phase change occurs without a change in pressure and temperature is known as?
(a) Critical state
(b) Saturation state
(c) Equilibrium state
(d) none of these
140. What value of the dryness fraction (in%) represents the dry saturated state of vapour?
(a) 0
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) 100
141. Which factor contributes to the efficiency of the Otto cycle?
(a) Compression ratio
(b) Operating pressure
(c) Operating temperature
(d) None of these
142. If a Carnot refrigerator has a COP of 6. What is the ratio of the lower to the higher absolute temperature?
(a) 1/6
(b) 7/8
(c) 6/7
(d) 1/7
143. Which of the below stated are properties of a PMM-2?
(1) When network is equal to the heat absorbed and work efficiency is 100%
(2) Heat is exchanged from one heat reservoir only
(3) It violates Kelvin-Planck statement
(4) It is a hypothetical machine
(a) (1), (2) and (4)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
(c) (2), (3) and (4)
(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
144. Tonnes of refrigeration mean____
(a) the weight of the machine is one tonne.
(b) the weight of the refrigerant is one tonne.
(c) the rate of the heat extraction is one tonne.
(d) None of these
145. What is the ratio W/Q (W= work transfer from cycle, Q = heat transfer to the cycle) known as?
(a) Air standard efficiency
(b) Specific consumption
(c) Specific work transfer
(d) Work ratio
146. What process does Carnot cycle consist of?
(a) Two isothermal and two adiabatic process
(b) Two isothermal and two constant volume process
(c) Two isothermal and two constant pressure process
(d) Two constant pressure and two constant volume process
147. What is the temperature at which a system goes under a reversible isothermal process without heat transfer?
(a) Absolute zero temperature
(b) Critical temperature
(c) Reversible temperature
(d) Boiling temperature
148. How is the thermal efficiency of an IC engine related to compression ratio?
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) May increase or decrease
(d) Remains same
149. All the processes in an air standard cycle are assumed to be_____
(a) adiabatic
(b) irreversible
(c) isothermal
(d) reversible
150. Water flows through a turbine in which due to friction there is a temperature from 30°C to 35° If there is no heat transfer taking place during the process. What is the change in the entropy of water?
(a) 0.077
(b) 0.079
(c) 0.406
(d) 0.496
151. In 18-4-1 HSS (high speed steel) the percentage of chromium is
(a) 1%
(b) 4%
(c) 18%
(d) 20%
152. The pH value of neutral solution is
(a) Equal to 7
(b) Less than 7
(c) Greater than 7
(d) None of these
153. ______ is better suited for lighter duty bearings?
(a) Phosphorus Bronze
(b) Plastic
(c) White metal
(d) Monel metal
154. ______ is not the neutral refractory material.
(a) Graphite
(b) Karnetile
(c) Chromite
(d) Dolomite
155. ______ structure has maximum hardness.
(a) Troostite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
(d) Sorbite
156. ______ has least coefficient of expansion
(a) Manganin
(b) Invar
(c) Constantan
(d) Duralumin
157. _____ is the essential gradient of any hardened steel.
(a) Carbon
(b) Pearlite
(c) Austenite
(d) Martensite
158. ______ structure can be studied by naked eye.
(a) Atomic
(b) Grain
(c) Micro
(d) Macro
159. _______ is used for bearing liner.
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Gun metal
(d) Babbitt metal
160. _______is the most important element which controls the physical properties of steel.
(a) Carbon
(b) Chromium
(c) Vanadium
(d) Tungsten
161. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
162. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called.
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
163. For very great pressure, viscosity of most gases and liquids.
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) show erratic behavior
164. The bulk modulus of elasticity
(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
165. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
166. The conditions of the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(a) the meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity
(b) the centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) All options are correct
167. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(a) the meal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
168. If the surface of the liquid is convex, then
(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) none of these
169. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Archimedes law
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Newton’s formula
170. Mercury is often used in barometer because
(A) It is the best liquid
(B) The height of barometer will be less
(C) Its vapor pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Both B and C
(d) Neither A nor B
171. The losses due to sudden contraction are expressed by
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(a) A Only
(b) B Only
(c) C Only
(d) None of these
172. Cipolletti notch is designed as trapezoid with its sides sloping at 1 horizontal and
(a) 1 verticle
(b) 2 verticle
(c) 3 verticle
(d) 4 verticle
173. The flow in venture flume takes place at
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) at pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(c) vacuum
(d) high pressure
174. A hydraulic ram acts like
(a) a centrifugal pump
(b) a rotary pump
(c) a reciprocating pump
(d) an impulse pump
175. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder as compared to depression at the centre with respect to initial level is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on speed
176. The most economical section of a rectangular channel for maximum discharge is obtained when its depth is equal to
(a) half the breadth
(b) twice the breadth
(c) same as the breadth
(d) three-fourth of the breadth
177. In case of a two dimensional flow the components of velocity are given by u = ax; v = by. the point where no motion occurs, is known as
(a) critical point
(b) neutral point
(c) stagnation point
(d) None of these
178. The head loss in case of hot water flow through a pipe compared to cold water flow will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on range of tempertures
179. Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.333
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.6667
180. In the case of turbulent flow
(a) It occurs in open channel
(b) Losses are proportional to square of velocity
(c) velocity at boundary is zero
(d) shear stresses are more compared to laminar flow
181. Hydraulic grade line for any flow system is compared to energy line is
(a) above
(b) below
(c) at same level
(d) may be below or above depending upon velocity of flow
182. For maximum discharge through a circular open channel, the ratio of depth of flow to diameter of channel should be
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.65
(d) none of these
183. A triangular section in open channel flow will be most economical when the vertex angle at the triangle base point is
(a) 30 degree
(b) 50 degree
(c) 20 degree
(d) none of these
184. The value of coefficient of velocity depends upon
(a) slope of orifice
(b) size of orifice
(c) head to liquid above orifice
(d) friction at the orifice surface
185. The discharge through an orifice fitted in a tank can be increased by
(a) fitting a short length of pipe to the outside
(b) sharpening the edges of orifice
(c) fitting a long length of pipe to the outside
(d) fitting a long length of pipe to the inside
186. Total pressure on the top of closed cylindrical vessel completely filled with liquid, is directly proportional to
(a) radius
(b) square of radius
(c) cube of radius
(d) none of these
187. If flow in an open channel is gradually varied, then the flow will be
(a) steady uniform flow
(b) unsteady uniform flow
(c) steady non-uniform flow
(d) unsteady non-uniform flow
188. The energy loss in flow through nozzle as compared to venturimeter is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) unpredictable
189. Orifice is an opening
(a) with closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows
(b) with prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameter of opening in thick wall
(c) with partially full flow
(d) in hydraulic structure with regulation provision
190. The value of coefficient of discharged in comparison to coefficient of velocity is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) unpredictable
191. Heating of dry stem above saturation temperature is known as
(a) enthalpy
(b) superheating
(c) super saturation
(d) latent heat
192. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.8
193. Adiabatic process is
(a) essentially as isentropic process
(b) non-heat transfer process
(c) reversible process
(d) constant temperature process
194. The diameter (in meter) of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 1 to 2
(b) 1.5 to 2.5
(c) 2 to 3
(d) 2.5 to 3.5
195. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands?
(a) Babock and wilcox
(b) Locomotive
(c) Lancashire
(d) Cochran
196. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) none of these
197. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
(a) less difficult to ignite
(b) just about the same difficult to ignite
(c) more difficult to ignite
(d) highly ignitable
198. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburetor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter will be
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) remain unaffected
(d) unpredictable
199. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
(A) 6 : 1 (B) 9 : 1
(C) 12 : 1 (D) 15 : 1
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) Only D
200. Ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
(a) octane number
(b) cetane number
(c) calorific value
(d) self-ignition temperature
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