AIIMS Solved Paper-2018
Physics
1. A wooden wedge of mass M and inclination angle (α) rest on a smooth floor. A block of mass m is kept on wedge. A force F is applied on the wedge as shown in the figure such that block remains stationary with respect to wedge. So, magnitude of force F is
(a) (M + m) g tan α
(b) g tan α
(c) mg cos α
(d) (M + m)g cosec α
2. A piece of ice slides down a rough inclined plane at 45° inclination in twice the time that it takes to slide down an identical but frictionless inclined plane. What is the coefficient of friction between ice and incline?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
3. A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure.
So,, force applied on spring balance is
(a) 50 N
(b) 25 N
(c) 500 N
(d) 10 N
4. In the figure, blocks A and B of masses 2m and m are connected with a string and system is hanged vertically with the help of a spring. Spring has negligible mass. Find out magnitude of acceleration of masses 2m and m just after the instant when the string is cut
(a) g, g
(b) g, g/2
(c) g/2, g
(d) g/2, g/2
5. If the formula, X =3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction. The dimensions of Y in MKSQ system are
(a) [M−3L−2T4Q4]
(b) [ML2T8Q4]
(c) [M−2L−3T2Q4]
(d) [M−2L−2TQ2]
6. the figure shows a mass m on a frictionless surface. It is connected to rigid wall by the mean of a massless spring of its constant k. Initially, the spring is at its natural position. If a force of constant magnitude starts acting on the block towards. right, then the speed of the block when the deformation in spring is x, will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
7. Body of mass M is much heavier than the other body of mass m. The heavier body with speed u collides with the lighter body which was at rest initially elastically. The speed of lighter body after collision is
(a) 2v
(b) 3v
(c) v
(d) v/2
8. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest at a point near the rim of disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc
(a) continuously decreases
(b) continuously increases
(c) first increases and then decrease
(d) remains unchanged
9. Three bodies having masses 5 kg,4 kg and 2 kg is moving at the speed of 5 m/s, 4 m/s and 2 m/s respectively along X-axis. The magnitude of velocity of centre of mass is
(a) 1.0 m/s
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 0.9 m/s
(d) 1.3 m/s
10. Two satellites A and B revolve round the same planet in coplanar circular orbits lying in the same plane. Their periods of revolutions are I h and 8 h, respectively. The radius of the orbit of d is 104 The speed of B is relative to d. When they are closed in km/h is
(a) 3π × 104
(b) zero
(c) 2π × 104
(d) π × 104
11. A planet is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with a radius r. The time period is T. If the force between the planet and star is proportion al to r−3/2, then the square of time period is proportional to
(a) r3/2
(b) r2
(c) r
(d) r5/2
12. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 6l N. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(a) 35 N
(b) 28 N
(c) 18 N
(d) 40 N
13. A block of rectangular size of mass m and area of cross-section ,4, floats in a liquid of density ρ. If we give a small vertical displacement from equilibrium, it undergoes SHM with time period T, then
(a) T2 ∝ 1/p
(b) T2 ∝ p
(c) T2 ∝ m−1
(d) T2 ∝ 1/A−2
14. A steel rod 100 cm long is damped at into middle. The fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibrations of the rod are given to be 2.53 kHz. What is the speed of sound in sound is steel?
(a) 6.2 km/s
(b) 5.06 km/s
(c) 7.23 km/s
(d) 7.45 km/s
15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s,
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4
16. An ideal gas of mass m in a state A. goes to another state B via three different processes as shown in figure. If Q1, Q2 and Q3 denote the heat absorbed by the gas along the three paths, then
(a) Q1 < Q2 < Q3
(b) Q1< Q2 = Q3
(c) Q1 = Q2 > Q3
(d) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
17. A metal wire has a resistance of 15 Ω. If its length is increased to double by drawing it, then its new resistance, will be
(a) 70 Ω
(b) 140 Ω
(c) 105 Ω
(d) 35 Ω
18. A half ring of radius R has a charge of λ per unit length. The electric force on 1 C charged placed at the centre is
(a) zero
(b) kλ/R
(c) 2kλ/R
(d) kπλ/R
19. Positive charge Q is distributed uniformly over a circular ring of radius R. A point particle having a mass (m) and a negative charge -q is placed on its axis at a distance x from the centre. Assuming x < R, find the time period of oscillation of the particle, if it is released from there [neglect gravity].
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) None of these
20. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1 μF are connected as shown in the figure. Then, the equivalent capacitance between ,4 and E is
(a) 1 μF
(b) 2 μF
(c) 
(d) ∞
21. In the circuit in the figure, if no current flows through the galvanometer when the key K is closed, the bridge is balanced. The balancing condition for bridge is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
22. In a series R-C circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is l0 V and the voltage across capacitor is found to be 8V. Then, the voltage across R and the phase difference between current and the applied voltage will respectively be
(a) 6V, tan−1(4/3)
(b) 3V, tan−1(3/4)
(c) 6V, tan−1(5/3)
(d) None of these
23. A system S consists of two coils A and B, The coil A carries a steady current I. While the coil .B is suspended nearby as shown in figure. Now, if the system is heated, so as to raise the temperature of two coils steadily, then
(a) the two coils shows attraction
(b) the two coils shows repulsion
(c) there is no change in the position of the two coils
(d) induced current are not possible in coil B
24. A long straight wire, carrying current I is bent at its mid-point to form an angle of 45°. Induction of magnetic field (in tesla) at point P, distant R from point of bending is equal to
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
25. An element 
(where dx = 1 cm) is placed at the origin and carries a large current i = 10 A. What is the magnetic field on the Y-axis at a distance of 0.5 m?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
26. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at any place is 0.36 × 10−4 Wb/m2. If the angle of dip at that place is 60°, then the value of vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field will be (in Wb/m2)
(a) 0.12 × 10−4
(b) 0.24 × 10−4
(c) 0.40 × 10−4
(d) 0.622 × 10−4
27. Consider the following figure, a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along the positive X-axis. The magnetic flux through top surface of the figure.
(a) zero
(b) 0.8 m-Wb
(c) 1.0 m-Wb
(d) −1.8 m-Wb
28. An ideal coil of 10 H is connected in series with a resistance of 5Ω and a battery of 5 V. After 2 s, after the connection is made, the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit is
(a) (1 – e)
(b) e
(c) e−1
(d) (1 – e−1)
29. In the circuit, shown the galvanometer G of resistance 60 Ω is shunted by a resistance r = 0.02 Ω. The current through R is nearly 1A. The value of resistance R (in ohm) is nearly
(a) 1.00 Ω
(b) 5.00 Ω
(c) 11.0 Ω
(d) 6.0 Ω
30. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current leads the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
31. The graph between the energy log E of an electron and its de-Broglie wavelength log λ will be
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
32. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 min. The approximate time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2, when 2/3 of it has decayed and time t2, when 2/3 of it has decayed and time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is
(a) 14 min
(b) 20 min
(c) 28 min
(d) 7 min
33. In the figure, mass of a ball is 9/5 times mass of the rod. Length of rods is 1 m. The level of ball is same as rod level. Find out time taken by the ball to reach at upper end of rod.
(a) 1.4 s
(b) 2.45 s
(c) 3.25 s
(d) 5 s
34. The diode used at a constant potential drop of 0.5 V at al currents and maximum power rating of 100 mW. What resistance must be connected in series diode, so that current in circuit is maximum ?
(a) 200Ω
(b) 6.67Ω
(c) 5Ω
(d) 15Ω
35. An unpolarised beam of intensity 2a2 passes through a tin Polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the Polaroid, the intensity of emergent plane plarised light is
(a) 2a2
(b) a2
(c) √2a2
(d) a2/2
36. A gas consisting of a rigid diatomic molecules was initially under standard condition. Then, gas was compressed adiabatically to one-fifth of its initial volume. What will be the mean kinetic energy of a rotating molecule in the final state ?
(a) 1.44 J
(b) 4.55 J
(c) 787.98 × 10−23 J
(d) 757.3 × 10−23 J
37. A diode detector is used to detect and amplitude modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a condenser of capacity 250 pF in parallel with a load resistance 100 kΩ. Find the maximum modulated frequency which could be detected by it.
(a) 10.62 MHz
(b) 10.61 kHz
(c) 5.31 MHz
(d) 5.31 kHz
38. Red light of wavelength 5400 Å from a distance source falls on a slit 0.80 mm wide. Calculate the distance between first two dark bands on each side of central bright band in the diffraction pattern observed on a screen place 1.4 m from the slit.
(a) 1.89 mm
(b) 4 mm
(c) 1 mm
(d) 3 mm
39. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the small loop on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 20 A flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with bigger drop is
(a) 9.1 × 10−11 Wb
(b) 6 × 10−11 Wb
(c) 3.3 × 10−11 Wb
(d) 6.6 × 10−9 Wb
40. In the adjoining circuit diagram, the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 2 A and 120 V, respectively. If the value of R is 75 Ω, then the voltmeter resistance will be
(a) 100Ω
(b) 150Ω
(c) 300Ω
(d) 75Ω
Direction (Q. Nos. 41-60) Each of these questions contains two statements Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
41. Assertion A body is momentarily at res at the instant, if it reverse the direction.
Reason A body cannot have acceleration, if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
42. Assertion The maximum height of projectile is always 25% of the maximum range.
Reason For maximum range, projectile should be projected at 90°
43. Assertion Angle of repose is equal to angle of limiting friction.
Reason When a body is just at the point of motion. the force of friction of this stage is called as limiting friction.
44. Assertion Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in completely inelastic collision.
Reason Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
45. Assertion The angular momentum of system always remain constant.
Reason For a system, 
46. Assertion A pendulum is falling freely its time period becomes zero.
Reason Freely falling body has the acceleration equal to g.
47. Assertion Smaller drop of water resist deformation forces better than the larger drops.
Reason Excess pressure inside drop is inversely proportional to its radius.
48. Assertion In isothermal process, whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is converted into internal energy.
Reason According to the first law of thermodynamics, ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
49. Assertion Internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend on volume of gas.
Reason Internal energy depends only on temperature of gas.
50. Assertion To hear different beats difference of the frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.
Reason More the number of beats more in the confusion.
51. Assertion Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is negatively charged.
Reason Charging is due to transfer of electrons.
52. Assertion A dielectric slab is inserted between plates of an isolated charged capacitor which remain same.
Reason Charge on an isolated system is conserved.
53. Assertion Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than emf of cell during charging of the cell.
Reason The magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.
54. Assertion A magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.
Reason A moving charge produce a magnetic fied.
55. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when they are switched on or off.
Reason When we switch on or off, a circuit current changes in it rapidly.
56. Assertion A convex mirror always make a virtual image.
Reason The ray always diverge after reflection from the convex mirror.
57. Assertion If a glass slab is placed in front of one of the slits, then fringe with will decrease.
Reason Glass slab will produce an additional path difference.
58. Assertion If electrons in an atom were stationary, then they would fall into the nucleus.
Reason Electrostatic force of attraction acts between negatively charged electrons and positive nucleus.
59. Assertion Radioactive nuclei emits β− -particles.
Reason Electrons exists inside the nucleus.
60. Assertion Thickness of depletion layer is fixed inn all semiconductor devices.
Reason No free charge carriers are available in depletion layer.
Chemistry
61. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following
(a) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, W = 0
(b) q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, W = 0
(c) q = 0, ∆T = 0, W = 0
(d) q = 0, ∆T < 0, W = 0
62. Which of the following represents Wurtz-Fittig reaction?
(a) C6H5I + 2Na + CH3I → C6H5CH3 + 2Nal
(b) 2C6H5I + 2Na → C6H5C6H5 + 2Nal
(c) 2CH3CH2I + 2Na → CH3CH2CH2CH3 + 2Nal
(d) CH3Br + AgF → CH3F + AgBr
63. The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV. If radiation of 2000 Å fall on the metal then the kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron is
(a) 1.6 × 10−19 J
(b) 16 × 10−10 J
(c) 3.2 × 10−19 J
(d) 6.4 × 10−10 J
64. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of
(a) acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
(b) ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride
(c) acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride
(d) acid chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide
65. Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives are
(a) C6H5COONa
(b) table salt, sugar
(c) vegetable oils and sodium benzoate
(d) All of the above
66. Among the following statements, the correct statement about the half-life period for a first order reaction is
(a) independent of concentration
(b) proportional to concentration
(c) inversely proportional to concentration
(d) inversely proportional to the square of the concentration
67. The electronic configuration of central metal atom/ion in [Co(CN)6]3− is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
68. A bromoalkane ‘X’ reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form compound ‘Y’. The reaction of ‘Y’ with methanol followed by hydrolysis yield an alcohol having molecular formula, C4H10 The compound ‘X’ is
(a) bromomethane
(b) bromoethane
(c) 1-bromopropane
(d) 2-bromopropane
- The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2− is 5.9 BM. The geometry this complex ion is
(a) tetrahedral
(b) octahedral
(c) trigonal pyramidal
(d) square planar
70. At equilibrium, the concentration of
N2 = 3.0 × 10−3 M
O2 = 4.2 × 10−3 M
and NO = 2.8 × 10−3 M
in a sealed vessel at 800 K and 1 atm pressure. What will be Kp for the given reaction?
N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)
(a) 0.328 atm
(b) 0.622 atm
(c) 0.483 atm
(d) 0.712 atm
71. Which of the following is an example of network solid?
(a) SO2(solid)
(b) I2
(c) Diamond
(d) H2O(ice)
72. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI
73. Which of the following compound has same oxidation state of the central metal atom in the cationic and anionic part?
(a) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]
(b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4]
(c) [Pt(Py)4] [PtCl4]
(d) K4[Ni(CN)6]
74. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is described by the equation 
The energy of activation for this reaction is
(a) 1.26 × 104 cal mol−1
(b) 4.29 × 104 cal mol−1
(c) 3.12 × 104 cal mol−1
(d) 2.50 × 104 cal mol−1
75. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not strictly according to the property written against it?
(a) CO2 < SiO2 < SnO2 < PbO2 (oxidizing power)
(b) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (acidic strength)
(c) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 < SbH3 (basic strength)
(d) B < C < O < N (first ionization enthalpy)
76. For a Ag-Zn button cell, net reaction is
Zn(s) + Ag2O (s) → ZnO(s) + 2Ag(s)
∆G°f (Ag2O) = −11.21 kJ mol−1
∆G°f (ZNO) = −318.3 kJ mol−1
Then, E°cell of the button cell is
(a) 3.182 V
(b) −1.621 V
(c) 1.591 V
(d) −1.591 V
77. Which of the following oxyacid does not contain P−O−P bond?
(a) Isohypophosphoric acid
(b) Pyrophosphorus acid
(c) Diphosphoric acid
(d) Hypophosphoric acid
78. Nioibium crystallizes in body centred cubic structure. If density is 8.55 g cm−3, then the atomic radius of niobium is (atomic mass of niobium = 93 u)
(a) 163 pm
(b) 143 pm
(c) 182 Å
(d) 152 Å
79. The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is
(a) triamine chloridobromidonitro platinum (IV) chloride
(b) triamine bromidochloridonitro platinum (IV) chloride
(c) triamine bromidochloridonitro platinum (II) chloride
(d) triamine chloridobromidonitro platinum (II) chloride
80. When an excess and a very dilute aqueous solution of KI is added to very dilute aqueous solution of silver nitrate. The colloidal particles of silver iodide which are associated with the Helmholtz double layer in the form of
(a) Agl/Ag+ : I−
(b) Agl/K+ : NO3−
(c) Agl/NO3− : Ag+
(d) Agl/I− : K+
81. 8NH3 + 3Cl2 → X
(Excess)
NH3 + 3Cl2 → Y
(Excess)
What is X and Y in the above reaction ?
(a) X = 6NH4Cl + N2; Y = NCl3 + 3HCl
(b) X = NCl3 + 3HCl; Y = 6NH4Cl + N2
(c) X = NCl3 + N2; Y = 6NH4Cl + 3HCl
(d) X = 6NH4Cl + 3HCl; Y = NCl3 + N2
82. The ionic radii (Å) of C4− and O2− respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the isoelectronic ion N3− would be
(a) 1.31 Å
(b) 2.83 Å
(c) 1.71 Å
(d) 2.63 Å
83. Which of the following products will be obtained when copper metal is reacted with HNO3?
(a) NO and N2O5
(b) NO and NO2
(c) NO2 and N2O5
(d) HNO2 and N2
84. A gas ‘X’ is used in filling balloons for meterological observations. It is also used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors. Here, the gas X is
(a) neon
(b) argon
(c) krypton
(d) helium
85. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. O atoms at the centre of edges and Na atom at centre of the cube. The formula for the compound is
(a) NaWO2
(b) NaWO3
(c) Na2WO3
(d) NaWO4
86. Benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution. The van’t Hoff factor (i) is related to the degree of association ‘x’ of the acid as
(a) i = (1 – x)
(b) i = (1 + x)
(c) i = (1 – x/2)
(d) i = (1 + x/2)
87. 
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
88. At 25°C, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl and BaCl2 are 248 × 10−4, 126 × 10−4 and 280 × 10−4 Sm2mol−1 λ°m Ba(OH)2 in Sm2mol−1 is
(a) 362 × 10−4
(b) 402× 10−4
(c) 524× 10−4
(d) 568 × 10−4
89. 
In the above reaction sequence, X is
(a) cyclohexanone
(b) caprolactam
(c) hexamethylene di-isocyanate
(d) HO(CH2)6NH2
90. The correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) for Mn2+, Cr2+ and Ti2+ ions is
(a) Mn2+ > Ti2+ > Cr2+
(b) Ti2+ > Cr2+ > Mn2+
(c) Mn2+ > Cr2+ > Ti2+
(d) Cr2+ > Ti2+ > Mn2+
91. Which of the following compounds do not undergo aldol condensation ?
(a) 
(b) CH3 – CHO
(c) 
(d) CH3CH2CHO
92. A green yellow gas reacts with an alkali metal hydroxide to form a halite which can be used in fireworks and safety matches. The gas and halite are, respectively
(a) Br2, KBrO3
(b) Cl2, KClO3
(c) I2, NalO3
(d) Cl2, NaClO3
93. The correct order of decreasing stability of the following carbocation is
(a) II > I > III
(b) II > III > I
(c) III > I > II
(d) I > II > III
94. Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields
(a) 1 : 2 D-(+)-glucose; D-(−)-fructose
(b) 1 : 2 D-(−)-glucose; D-(+)-fructose
(c) 1 : 1 D-(−)-glucose; D-(+)-fructose
(d) 1 : 1 D-(+)-glucose; D-(−)-fructose
95. Among the following complex ions, the one which shows geometrical isomerism will be
(a) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+
(b) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]
(c) [CO(NH3)6]3+
(d) [CO(CN)5(NC)]3−
96. ∆H and ∆E for the reaction,
Fe2O3 (s) + 3H3(s) → 2Fe(s) + H0O(l)
at constant temperature are related as
(a) ∆H = ∆E
(b) ∆H = ∆E + RT
(c) ∆H = ∆E + 3R
(d) ∆H = ∆E – 3RT
97. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is
(a) 7-hydroxy cyclohex-5-en-1-one
(b) 3-hydroxy cyclohex-5-en-1-one
(c) 8-hydroxy cyclohex -3-en-1-one
(d) 5-hydroxy cyclohex-3-en-1-one
98. Among the following rules, the one which is applied in the given reaction is
I. CH3CH = CHCH3 (major product)
II. CH2 = CHCH2CH3 (minor product)
(a) Saytzeff’s rule
(b) Hofmann’s rule
(c) Markownikoff’s rule
(d) Kharasch effect
99. The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 × 10−11. Its solubility (in mol/L) is
(a) 5.6 × 10−6
(b) 3.1 × 10−4
(c) 2 × 10−4
(d) 4 × 10−4
100. The structure of IF7 is
(a) square pyramidal
(b) trigonal bipyramidal
(c) octahedral
(d) pentagonal bipyramidal
Chemistry
Direction (Q. Nos. 101-120) In the questions that following two statements (Assertion and Reason) are given. Statement II (R) is purported to be the explanation for statement I (A). Study both the statements carefully and then mark your answers, according to the codes given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
101. Assertion (A) Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micellar concentration (CMC).
Reason (R) The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at the CMC.
- Assertion (A) The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.
Reason (R) Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere dissolves in rain water and becomes carbonic acid.
103. Assertion (A) Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R) Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be farther away from the nucleus.
104. Assertion (A) Among the two O―H bonds in H2O molecule, the energy required to break the first O―H bond and the other O―H bond is same.
Reason (R) This because the electronic environment around oxygen is the same even after breakage of one O―H bond.
105. Assertion (A) Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated sulphuric acid.
Reason (R) The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid produces the electrophile, NO2+.
106. Assertion (A) Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of carbon dioxide.
Reason (R) Beryllium carbonate is unstable and decomposes to give beryllium oxide and carbon dioxide.
107. Assertion (A) Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.
Reason (R) Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.
109. Assertion (A) IUPAC name of the compound 
is
Reason (R) In IUPAC nomenclature, ether is regarded as hydrocarbon derivative in which a hydrogen atom is replaced by-OR or-Oar group [where, R = alkyl group and Ar = aryl group].
- Assertion (A) The reaction
2NO + O2 → 2 NO2
and 2CO + O2 → 2CO2
proceeds at the same rate because they are similar.
Reason (R) Both the reactions have same activation energy.
111. Assertion (A) The boiling points of alkyl halides decreases in the order RI > RBr > RCl > RF.
Reason (R) The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably higher than that of the hydrocarbon of comparable molecular mass
112. Assertion (A) N2 is less reactive than P4/
Reason (R) Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.
113. Assertion (A) The molecular mass of the polymers cannot be calculate using the boiling point or freezing point method.
Reason (R) The freezing point method is used for determining the molecular mass of small molecules.
114. Assertion (A) NaCl reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give colouless fumes with pungent smell. But on adding MnO2 the fume become greenish yellow.
Reason (R) MnO2 oxidises HCl to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow
115. Assertion (A) Kp can be equal to or less than or even greater than the value of KC.
Reason (R) Kp = KC (RT)∆n
Relation between Kp and KC depends on the change in the number of moles of gaseous reactants and products.
116. Assertion (A) CH4 does not react with Cl2 in dark.
Reason (R) Chlorination of CH4 takes place in sunlight.
117. Assertion (A) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH can be distinguished by haloform test.
Reason (R)Haloform test is given by 2° alcohol.
118. Assertion (A) For a Daniell cell Zn/Zn2+||Cu2+|Cu with Ecell = 1.1 V, the application of opposite potential greater than 1.1 V results into the flow of electrons from cathode to anode.
Reason (R) Zn is deposited at zinc electrode and Cu is dissolved at copper electrode.
119. Assertion (A) Most of the synthetic polymers are not biodegradable.
Reason (R) Polymerisation process induces toxic polymerisation.
120. Assertion (A) Graphite an example of tetragonal crystal system.
Reason (R) For a tetragonal system, a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°, γ = 120°.
Biology
121. Biomagnification can be defined as
(a) Decomposition of organic waste in water by the action of microbes
(b) Breeding of crops that are rich in minerals and vitamins good proteins and healthier fats
(c) Increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels
(d) Exploring the products of economic importance at molecular, genetic and species level diversity
122. Leaf tendrils are found in
(a) grapevine
(b) peas
(c) cucumber
(d) All of the above
123. Diagram of large intestine is given below. Identify the parts A, B, C, D, E and F.
(a) A-Sigmoid colon B-Vermiform appendix, C-Ascending colon, D-Transverse colon, E-Descending colon, F-Caecum
(b) A-Caecum, B-Vermiform appendix, C-Sigmoid colon, D-Ascending colon, E-Transverse colon, F-Descending colon
(c) A-Caecum, B-Vermiform appendix, C-Ascending colon, D-Transverse colon,
(d) A-Sigmoid colon, B – Vermiform appendix, C-Descending colon, D-Transverse colon, E-Ascending colon, F-Caecum
124. Select the incorrect statement(s) from options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
(I) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.
(II) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
(III) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations.
(a) I and II
(b) III and II
(c) I and III
(d) All of these
125. Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic features in column II and select the correct option using the codes given
126. Read the following statements
(I) Species diversity decreases as we move away from the quator towards the poles.
(II) Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to overexploitation by man.
(III) Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed in India.
(IV) The historic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992.
Choose the option containing correct statements.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
127. Characteristics of cancer are
(a) All viruses are oncogenic
(b) All tumours are cancers
(c) Cancerous cells show properly of contact inhibtion
(d) Cancer cells show metastasis
128. Select the incorrect match.
(I) Sedimentary nutrient cycle-Nitrogen cycle
(II) Pioneer species-Lichens
(III) Secondary succession-Burned forests
(IV) Pyramid of biomass in sea – Upright
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) II and IV
129. Apical dominance is caused by
(a) auxin
(b) ethylene
(c) gibberellin
(d) cytokinin
130. Consider the following four measures (I-IV) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight is common.
(I) Spray with Bordeaux mixture.
(II) Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen.
(III) Use of disease-free seeds only.
(IV) Use of varieties resistant to the disease.
Which of the above measures can control the diseases?
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
131. Match the organisms given in Column I to their functions given in Column II and choose the correct option.
132. A plant has a butterfly-shaped flower with one standard, two wing like and two keel petals. To which family, this plant belongs?
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Papilionaceae
(c) Rubiaceae
(d) Compositate
133. Identify the permanent tissues shown in the following figures.
(a) A-Collenchyma, B-Parenchyma, C-Sclerenchyma
(b) A-Sclerenchyma, B-Collenchyma, C-Parenchyma
(c) A-Collenchyma, B-Sclerenchyma, C-Parenchyma
(d) A-Parenchya, B-Collenchyma, C-Sclerenchyma
134. Find the correct statements from the following
(I) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat diseases at molecular level.
(II) Calcitonin is medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility.
(III) Bt toxin is a biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and III
(d) I and II
135. A mutant plant is unable to produce materials or precursors that form Casparian strip. This plan would be
(a) unable to transport water from roots to the leaves
(b) able to exert greater root pressure than the normal plant
(c) unable to transport food from leaves to roots
(d) unable to control amount of water and solute it absorbs
136. Cell A has osmotic pressure of −20 bars and pressure potential of 5 bars, whereas cell B has osmotic pressure of −18 bars and pressure potential of 2 bars.
The direction of flow of water will be
(a) from cell B to cell A
(b) fro cell A to B
(c) no flow of water
(d) in both the directions
137. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin resistance is transferred into E.coli cells and the host cells are spread on agar plates containing ampicillin, then
(a) both transformed and untransformed recipient cells will die
(b) both transformed and untransformed recipient cells will grow
(c) transformed recipient cells will grow and untransformed recipient cells will die
(d) transformed recipient cells will die and untransformed recipient cells will grow
138. Adults of Wuchereria bancrofti attack
(a) excretory system
(b) digestive system
(c) lymphatic system
(d) nervous system
139. Which of the following pathways occurs through cell wall?
(a) Apoplast pathway
(b) Vascular pathway
(c) Symplast pathway
(d) Non-vacuolar pathway
140. Which of the following plants are used to treat bone fractures?
(a) Digitalin purpea
(b) Hevea brasiliensis
(c) Cissus quadrangularis
(d) Lowsomia inemis
141. C4 pathway is advantageous over C3 pathway in plants, because it
(a) occurs in relatively low CO2 concentration
(b) uses more amount of water
(c) occurs in relatively low O2 concentration
(d) is less efficient in energy utilization
142. Production of human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because
(a) the human chromosomes can replicate in the bacterial cell
(b) the mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
(c) bacterial cells can carry out RNA splicing reactions
(d) the genetic code is universal
143. Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution.
(I) Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy.
(II) Wings of butterfly and wings of bird exhibit homology.
(III) Organs with dissimilar structure are called analogous organs.
(IV) Organs with similar structure and origin are called homologous organs.
(a) I and IV
(b) I and III
(c) III and IV
(d) II and IV
144. Triticale is the first man-made cereal crop. Mention the type of hybridization through which it produced.
(a) Intervarietal hyrbidisation
(b) Interspecific hybridisation
(c) Intergeneric hybridisation
(d) Intavarietal hybridisation
145. Azolla is used as a biofertiliser because it
(a) has association of mycorrhiza
(b) multiplies at faster rate to produce massive biomass
(c) has association of nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium
(d) has association of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
146. Person ‘A’ cannot step out of his house. He has to spend his entire life in sterile isolation otherwise, he would quickly contract a fatal infection. This person has almost no effective immune system. This disease is also called as baby in a bubble syndrome. Identify the disease, this person ‘A’ is suffering from
(a) Cystic fibrosis
(b) Diabetes
(c) AIDS
(d) SCID
147. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form becomes dominant over the light-coloured form of month in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of
(a) appearance of the darker-coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
(b) protective mimicry
(c) inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
(d) natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
148. A normal woman whose father was colourblind, marries a normal man. What kinds of children can be expected and in what proportion?
(a) All daughters normal, 50% of sons colourblind
(b) All daughters normal, all sons colourblind
(c) 50% daughters colourblind, all sons normal
(d) All daughters colourblind, all sons normal
149. From the graph of population growth, select the correct option having correct value of ‘r’ and bar graph.
- What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?
(a) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their lifetime pass this character on their progeny
(b) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
(c) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(d) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
151. Codons of glycine are
(a) CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG
(b) CGU, CGC, CGA, CGG
(c) GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG
(d) ACU, ACC, ACA, ACG
152. Which one of the following organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis?
(a) Blue-green algae
(b) Red algae
(c) Photosynthetic bacteria
(d) C4 plants
153. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
(a) Glucose-6-phosphate
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Fructose-1, 6 biophosphate
(d) Acetyl Co-A
154. Match Column I (Antibiotic) with Column II (Source) and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
155. Arrange in correct order according to the given figures.
(a) A-Imbricate, B-Quincuncial, C – Valvate, D-Twisted, E – Vexillary
(b) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate, E-Quincuncial
(c) A-Quincuncial, B-Twisted, C-Vexillary, D-lmbricate, E-Valvate
(d) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Quincuncial, E-Vexillary
156. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively
(b) corn borer and cotton bollworms, respectively
(c) tobacco budworms and nematodes, respectively
(d) nematodes and tobacco budworms, respectively
157. Match the following columns.
158. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex?
(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds
(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
(c) XO condition in humans as found in Turner’s syndrome determines female sex
(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce males in Drosophila
159. Read the following statements
(I) Colostrum is recommended for the new borns because it is rich in antigens.
(II) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(III) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants
(IV) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grapes.
How many of the statement(s) is/are correct
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four
160. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of
(a) stock
(b) scion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor ( b)
Direction (Q. Nos. 161-180) In each of the following questions a statement of assertion is given followed by the corresponding statement of reason. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A and R are false
161. Assertion Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of legume root nodules survive in oxygen depleted cells.
Reason Leghaemoglobin completely removes oxygen from nodule cells.
162. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.
Reason Cyanide combines with copper of cytochroe oxide and prevents oxygen to combine with it.
163. Assertion In females, parturition is the act of giving birth to a baby.
Reason Signals for parturition originate from a fully developed foetus.
164. Assertion Meiotic division occurs in reproductive cells.
Reason Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.
165. Assertion Peptide and polypeptide hormones directly pass across the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane.
Reason Oxytocin hormone can pass across the plasma membrane.
166. Assertion In apomixis, the plants of new genetic sequence are produced.
Reason In apomixis, two organisms of same genetic sequence meet.
167. Assertion The quiescent centre acts as a reservoir of relatively resistance cells, which constitute a permanent source of active initials.
Reason The cells of the inactive region of quiescent centre become active, when the previous active initials get damaged.
168. Assertion Two turns of Kreb’s cycle occur per glucose molecule used.
Reason Each turn of Kreb’s cycle produces 3 NADH2 and 1 ATP molecule.
169. Assertion Alcoholics may show deficiency symptoms of Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s syndromes.
Reason Alcohol acts as depressant.
170. Assertion BOD is an indicator of pollution in water.
Reason High BOD is observed in highly polluted water.
171. Assertion Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia
Reason Pork of pig contains hexacanth and cystiercus larvae.
172. Assertion Magnesium is important in photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism.
Reason Mg2+ is involved in the synthesis of nucleic acids.
173. Assertion Phenylketonuria is recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidize can amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine, because of defective enzyme.
Reason It is characterized by in the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine.
174. Assertion Caryopsis fruits differ from typical achenes with respect to the fusion of pericarp with the seed-caot (testa)
Reason Caryopsis fruits commonly occur in the members of family-Poaceae.
175. Assertion The collenchymas is a thick-walled living tissue.
Reason The collenchymas is thickened due to deposition of pectin.
176. Assertion In mitosis, two identical cells are produced from a single cell and karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis.
Reason Cytokinesis is of two types, i.e. by cell-furrow method and cell-plate method.
177. Assertion Non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts.
Reason There is discontinuous flow of electrons in this process.
178. Assertion Taenia solium and Dugesia belong to Patyhelminthes.
Reason Platyhelminthes are coelomates.
179. Assertion The non-allelic genes for red hair and prickles are usually inherited together.
Reason The genes for red hair and prickles are located on the same chromosome in close association.
180. Assertion Photomodulation of flowr is phytochrome regulated process.
Reason Active form of phytochrome (Pfr) directly induces floral inducation in shoot buds.
General Knowledge
181. Identify this famous personality?
(a) Vladimir Putin
(b) Donald Trump
(c) George W Bush
(d) Barack Obama
182. The Parliament of Japan is known as
(a) Assembly
(b) Key
(c) Senate
(d) Diet
183. Name the person given in the figure.
(a) Ban-Ki-Moon
(b) Kim Jong-Un
(c) Haan Myeong-Sook
(d) Win Mying
184. Pruning is an essential part in cultivation of
(a) rubber
(b) tobacco
(c) coffee
(d) tea
185. An Ordinary Bill passed by the State Assembly can be delayed by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
186. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern ghats and the Western ghats
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevoroy Hills
187. The transition zone between two ecosystems is called
(a) biome
(b) biotope
(c) ecotone
(d) sere
188. The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) six months
189. The Fundamental Right which has been described by Dr. B R Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’ is the right to
(a) Equality
(b) Property
(c) Freedom of Religion
(d) Constitutional Remedies
190. One of the leaders who founded the Swaraj Party was
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) B G Tilak
(c) K Kamaraj
(d) Chittaranjan Das
191. The policy of price control in markets was launched by
(a) Sher Shah
(b) Ashoka
(c) Akbar
(d) Alauddin Khalji
192. The place which has the longest day and the shortest night on 22nd December, is
(a) Chennai
(b) Madrid
(c) Melbourne
(d) Moscow
193. From which sports ‘Gary Player’ is associated with?
(a) Cricket
(b) Golf
(c) Hockey
(d) Table Tennis
194. Rashid khan has become the youngest captain in international cricket history. He belong to which country?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Afghanistan
(d) Sri Lanka
195. Who among the following is/are the recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2017?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Devendra Jhajharia
(c) Saradara Singh
(d) Both (b) and (c)
196. Which of the following acts gave representation to the Indians for the first time in legislation ?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
197. How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire from the house every 2 years?
(a) 1/6 of the total members
(b) 1/3 of the total members
(c) 1/12 of the total members
(d) 5/6 of the total members
198. The depiction of the stories of the previous lives of Gautam Buddha was firstly done in the art of
(a) Sarnath Pillar of Ashoka
(b) Bharat Stupa
(c) Ajanta Caves
(d) Ellora Caves
199. The earliest Surat factories were established by the
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) English
(d) French
200. In which year Gandhiji established Sabarmati Asharm in Gujarat?
(a) 1916
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
(d) 1929
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