Bank of India
Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination
Held on 22-06-2008
Reasoning Ability
1. In a certain code ‘BACK’ is written as ‘5914’ and ‘KITE’ is written as ‘4876’. How is ‘BEAT’ written in that code ?
(1) 5697
(2) 5967
(3) 4697
(4) 5687
(5) None of these
2. If ‘M’ denotes ‘×’, ‘R’ denotes ‘−’, ‘K’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘B’ denotes ‘÷’, then …..
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 52
(4) 50
(5) None of these
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ALEP using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 39
(2) 48
(3) 56
(4) 31
(5) 72
5. In a certain code language, ‘go and come’ is written as ‘na ta ka’ and ‘blck and white’ is written as ‘pa ma ta’. How is ‘go’ written in that code language?
(1) na
(2) ka
(3) pa
(4) na or ka
(5) None of these
6. If ‘red’ means ‘white’, ‘white’ means ‘black’, black’ means ‘yellow’, ‘yellow’ means ‘green’ and ‘green’ means ‘blue’ and ‘blue’ means ‘indigo’, the which of the following will represent the colour of sunflower ?
(1) green
(2) indigo
(3) white
(4) blue
(5) black
7. If each of the odd digits in the number 6234518 is changed to the next even digit and the even digits are kept unchanged, how many digits will appear only once in the new number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
8. How many such digits are there in the number 8243691 each f which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MODERATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
10. In a certain code ABSENT is written as TCBSMD. How is CABLES written in that code ?
(1) CBDTFM
(2) CBDRDK
(3) DBCRDK
(4) CBDKDR
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-13) :
(i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(ii) ‘ P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
11. Which of the following means ‘M is nephew of R’ ?
(1) M × T + J ÷ R
(2) R × K – M × T
(3) R × K – M
(4) R × K + M × T
(5) None of the above
12. Which of the following means ‘D is maternal uncle of T’?
(1) D × J + T
(2) D × J – T
(3) D ÷ J + T
(4) D ÷ J – T
(5) None of these
13. Which of the following means ‘R is grand daughter of B’?
(1) R ÷ M + K – B
(2) K + M ÷ R – B
(3) B – T + R ÷ D
(4) B – T + R
(5) None of the above
14. Praveen correctly remembers that his father’s birthday is after 21st May but before 27th May whereas his sister correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 24th May but before 30th May. On which day in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(1) 25th
(2) 24th
(3) 26th
(4) 25th or 26th
(5) None of these
15. What should come next in the following series of numbers ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4 5 6 7
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 7
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
M, P, J, B, R, T and F are sitting around a circle facing at the center. B is third to the left of J who is second to the left of M. P is third to the left of B and second to the right of R. T is not an immediate neighbour of M.
16. Who is fourth to the right of M ?
(1) B
(2) T
(3) J
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
17. Who is second to the left of T ?
(1) F
(2) M
(3) P
(4) J
(5) Data inadequate
18. In which of the following pairs the second person is sitting to the immediate right of the first person ?
(1) JR
(2) PJ
(3) TR
(4) MP
(5) None of these
19. What is F’s position within respect to R ?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Fourth to the right
(C) Third to the right
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) None of these
20. Who is third to the right of B ?
(1) R
(2) J
(3) M
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-27) : In each of the questions given below are three statements, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and II follows.
21. Statements : Some rings are bangles. Some bangles are hands. Some hands are fingers.
Conclusions : I. Some fingers are bangles.
II. Some hands are rings.
22. Statements : Some trees are jungles. All jungles are stones. All stones are buildings.
Conclusions : I. Some buildings are trees.
II. Some stones are trees.
23. Statements : All pins are hammers. Some hammers are rods. Some rod are desks.
Conclusions : I. Some desks are pins.
II. Some rods are hammers.
24. Statements : All poles are sticks. some sticks are boxes. All boxes are rivers.
Conclusions : I. Some rivers are sticks.
II. Some rivers are poles.
25. Statements : Some benches are roads. No road is mountain. Some mountains are jungles.
Conclusions : I. Some jungles are roads
II. Some jungles are benches.
26. Statements : All tents are houses. All houses are bricks. All bricks are stores.
Conclusions : I. All bricks are houses.
II. Some stores are tents.
27. Statements : All maps are flowers. No flower is table. All tables are chairs.
Conclusions : I. Some chairs are maps.
II. No chairs are maps.
Directions (Q. Nos. 28-34) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
M 5 R 3 I 8 D % J 2 E P O N L 9 F Q A 4 W @ T © 6 U Z $ 7 H K
28. If all the symbols from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(1) Q
(2) 1
(3) F
(4) 4
(5) None of these
29. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
30. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
31. Which of the following is the sixth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of t he above arrangement ?
(1) ©
(2) %
(3) P
(4) 4
(5) None of these
32. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
33. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 2 P J
(2) A W Q
(3) T 6 @
(4) 7 K $
(5) % 8 J
34. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
5 3 I D J 2 P N L ?
(1) F A 4
(2) F A W
(3) F Q 4
(4) F A @
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 35-40) : In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P # Q” means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) both conclusion I and II are true.
35. Statements : B # F, F $ H, H © K
Conclusions : I. H @ B
II. W $ B
36. Statements : H @ T, T © N, N $ W
Conclusions : I. N $ H
II. W $ H
37. Statements : H $ F, F % M, M © J
Conclusions : I. J $ F
II. M © H
38. Statements : M $ T, T % R, M © N
Conclusions : I. M $ R
II. N $ T
39. Statements : D $ T, T % B, B @ F
Conclusions : I. D # T
II. D @ F
40. Statements : W # H, H © F, F @ K
Conclusions : I. K $ W
II. W @ F
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued ?
41. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
42. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
43. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
44. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
45. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
46. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
47. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
48. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
49. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
50. Problem Figures
Answer Figures
Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-75) : What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?
51. 7 × 17.7 × 7.4 = ?
(1) 6687.746
(2) 6067.746
(3) 6627.746
(4) 6247.746
(5) None of these
52. 2 × 11.7 × 17.1 – 200.20 = ?
(1) 1444.374
(2) 1442.374
(3) 1440.374
(4) 1438.374
(5) None of these
53. 462 ÷ 8 ÷75 = ?
(1) 80
(2) 74
(3) 77
(4) 83
(5) None of these
54. 75 – 73 = ?
(1) 16464
(2) 16644
(3) 16446
(4) 16444
(5) None of these
55. 97896 – 12380 – 55832 = ?
(1) 29684
(2) 31684
(3) 27684
(4) 33684
(5) None of these
56. 45% of 978 = ?
(1) 444.15
(2) 430.3
(3) 449.88
(4) 440.1
(5) None of these
57. 13 + 12 × 60 ÷ 6 = ?
(1) 250
(2) 153
(3) 212
(4) 117
(5) None of these
58. 2184 ÷ (45.5 × 0.75) = ?
(1) 52
(2) 54
(3) 46
(4) 60
(5) None of these
59. 63% of 870 – ? % of 630 = 214.2
(1) 52
(2) 54
(3) 56
(4) 58
(5) None of these
60. 348 × 82 – 20000 = ?
(1) 9456
(2) 8536
(3) 6054
(4) 7782
(5) None of these
61. 553 × 163 – 260002 = ?
(1) 54720
(2) 547200
(3) 5472000
(4) 54720000
(5) None of these
62. 87 + 87.78 + 07.88 = ?
(1) 864.53
(2) 874.53
(3) 884.53
(4) 894.53
(5) None of these
63. 4 × ? = 1023
(1) 74.75
(2) 78.5
(3) 82.5
(4) 85.75
(5) None of these
64. 
(1) 1546
(2) 1128
(3) 1782
(4) 1344
(5) None of these
65. 
(1) 6/7
(2) 5/6
(3) 2/3
(4) 8/9
(5) None of these
66. 39 × ? = 18252 ÷ 26
(1) 16
(2) 18
(3) 22
(4) 24
(5) None of these
67. 66456 ÷ √? = 213 × 6
(1) 2704
(2) 52
(3) 2916
(4) 54
(5) None of these
68. 24 × 513 ÷ 27 – 9 = ?
(1) 445
(2) 475
(3) 495
(4) 515
(5) None of these
69. 45 – 245.21 + 145.67 = ?
(1) 584.91
(2) 384.91
(3) 484.91
(4) 684.91
(5) None of these
70. 1617 + 2561 = (37)2 + (?)2
(1) 2809
(2) 3025
(3) 53
(4) 55
(5) None of these
71. 
(1) 39
(2) 49
(3) 1551
(4) 2441
(5) None of these
72. ? ÷ 38 × 23 = 1196
(1) 1979
(2) 1976
(3) 1973
(4) 1970
(5) None of these
73. 80% of 675 – (?)2 = 284
(1) 28
(2) 16
(3) 12
(4) 24
(5) None of these
74. 45387 + 78592 = ? – 54367
(1) 154649
(2) 187654
(3) 166921
(4) 178346
(5) None of these
75. 12607 + 4566 – 1349 = ? × 86
(1) 184
(2) 196
(3) 172
(4) 166
(5) None of these
76. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs 8435 at the rate of 12% per annum after 4 yr?
(1) Rs 4480.8
(2) Rs 4048.8
(3) Rs 4246.8
(4) Rs 4882.8
(5) None of these
77. A car covers a distance of 784 km in 14 h. What is the speed of the car ?
(1) 54 km/h
(2) 56 km /h
(3) 58 km/h
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
78. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question ? 8747 ÷ 165 × (6)2 + 320 = ?
(1) 1790
(2) 2670
(3) 1950
(4) 2410
(5) 2230
79. What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs 12500 at the rate of 6% per annum after 4 yr ?
(1) Rs 3180.962
(2) Rs 3280.962
(3) Rs 3380.962
(4) Rs 3480.962
(5) None of these
80. What is 389 times 147 ?
(1) 57036
(2) 56648
(3) 57572
(4) 57183
(5) None of these
81. What is the least number to be added to 7000 to make it a perfect square ?
(1) 56
(2) 225
(3) 111
(4) 69
(5) None of these
82. If (127)2 is added to the square of a number, the answer to obtained is 28898. What is the number ?
(1) 117
(2) 121
(3) 113
(4) 129
(5) None of these
83. The product of two consecutive even number is 20448. What is the square root of the greater number ?
(1) 144
(2) 20736
(3) 14
(4) 236
(5) None of these
84. If (31)3 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 1893. What is the number ?
(1) 31684
(2) 174
(3) 30276
(4) 178
(5) None of these
85. Shipra Garg deposits an amount of Rs 85812 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 9% per annum for 5 yr. What total amount will Ms. Shipra Garg at the end of 5 yr ?
(1) Rs 145427
(2) Rs 156427.4
(3) Rs 138427
(4) Rs 124427.4
(5) None of these
86. The owner of a gift shop charges his customer 44% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs 648 for one wallet, then what was the cost price of the wallet ?
(1) Rs 575
(2) Rs 435
(3) Rs 450
(4) Rs 515
(5) None of these
87. In an examination it is required to get 210 of the aggregate marks to p ass. A student gets 168 marks and is declared failed by 8% marks. What are the maximum aggregate marks a student can get ?
(1) 635
(2) 575
(3) 445
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
88. The average age of a woman and her daughter is 21 yr. The ratio of their ages is 5 : 1 respectively. What will be ratio of their ages after 5 yr ?
(1) 10 : 3
(2) 5 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 3 : 1
(5) None of these
89. Find the average of the following set of scores 345, 231, 777, 560, 892, 443, 546
(1) 545
(2) 540
(3) 542
(4) 548
(5) None of these
90. The cost of 4 Bowls and 6 Bottles is Rs 142.5. What is the cost of 8 Bowls and 12 Bottles ?
(1) Rs 445
(2) Rs 285
(3) Rs 345
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
91. 63% of a number is 2583. What is 45% of that number ?
(1) 1845
(2) 1763
(3) 2255
(4) 1927
(5) None of these
92. If the fractions 
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
(1) 9/11
(2) 4/5
(3) 3/8
(4) 6/7
(5) None of these
93. In an annual examination Haardik scores a total of 500 marks out of 725. What is his approximate percentage in the annual examination ?
(1) 88
(2) 79
(3) 54
(4) 62
(5) 70
94. A canteen requires 45 kg of rice for 3 days. Totally how many kg of rice will it require for the months of June. July and August 2008 ?
(1) 1380 kg
(2) 1365 kg
(3) 1395 kg
(4) 1410 kg
(5) None of these
95. 30% of first number is 75% of the second number. What is the respective ratio of the first number to t he second number ?
(1) 5 : 2
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 25 : 14
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of the above
96. If an amount of Rs 92070 is distributed equally amongst 135 persons. How much amount would each person get ?
(1) Rs 696
(2) Rs 658
(3) Rs 666
(4) Rs 682
(5) None of these
97. The difference between 69% of a number and 45% of the same number is 450. What is 56% of that number ?
(1) 1150
(2) 1250
(3) 1350
(4) 1450
(5) None of these
98. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers P, Q, R, S and T is 57. What is the product of R and T ?
(1) 3135
(2) 3477
(3) 3363
(4) 3355
(5) None of these
99. A single person takes 4 min to type a page. If from 12 noon to 1.00 pm, 1080 pages are to be type, how many persons should be employed on this job ?
(1) 108
(2) 60
(3) 90
(4) 72
(5) None of these
100. Nihal invests Rs 5676, which is 22% of his monthly income, in life insurance. What is his annual income ?
(1) Rs 33606
(2) Rs 309600
(3) Rs 25800
(4) Rs 23980
(5) None of these
General Knowledge & Computer Knowledge
101. Very often we read about financial inclusion in newspapers these days. Financial inclusion means
(1) providing loans to all eligible persons
(2) creating a mechanism of providing financial help to business people of society whenever they are in need of the same
(3) providing banking services to all those who are staying in remote and interior areas of the country
(4) To ensure that each and every person pays tax on his/her income regularly and honestly
(5) None of the above
102. ‘Mid Day Meal’ is a scheme to provide nutritious food to
(1) those taking treatment in hospitals
(2) school going children
(3) daily wage employees/or labourers
(4) labourers engaged in jobs in unorganized sectors
(5) girls who are residing in girls/youth hostels
103. The Govt. of India is running a National Programme to control which of the following diseases ?
(1) Renal Failures
(2) Heart Ailments
(3) Cancer
(4) AIDS
(5) None of these
104. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is aimed at the education of which of the following ?
(1) Engineering and technical education
(2) Education of girls upto graduation level
(3) College education
(4) Adult education
(5) Education of children between 6-14 years
105. Five Year Plans in India re designed and launched by which of the following organizations ?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Agriculture
(3) Panchayat Raj Samitees of each state
(4) Planning Commission of India
(5) Ministry of Home Affairs
106. Which of the following Ministries prepares its own budget and presents it in the Parliament every year ?
(1) Finance Ministry
(2) Railway Ministry
(3) Ministry of Defense
(4) Ministry of Home Affairs
(5) None of the above
107. Which of the following banks is a nationalized bank ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) Yes Bank
(3) Saraswat Co-operative Bank
(4) Reserve Bank of India
(5) Bank of India
108. Which of the following types of accounts are known as ‘Demat Accounts’ ?
(1) Accounts which are Zero Balance Accounts
(2) Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank No other business can be conducted from there
(3) Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form
(4) Accounts which are operated through internet banking facility
(5) None of the above
109. Which of the following is definitely a major indication of the state of the economy of a country ?
(1) Rate of GDP growth
(2) Rate of inflation
(3) Number of Banks in a country
(4) Stock of food grains in a country
(5) None of the above
110. Which of the following taxes levied by the Govt. of India is withdrawn now ? (As announced in Union Budget 2008-09)
(1) Income Tax
(2) VAT
(3) Corporate Tax
(4) Banking Cash Transaction Tax
(5) None of the above
111. Sakhalin oilfields are located in
(1) China
(2) Russia
(3) France
(4) USA
(5) None of these
112. Twenty-20 Cricket Matches are very popular these days. What is the format of the game ?
(1) Every player has to play 20 balls only
(2) Every team has to play 20 overs only
(3) Every team will now have twenty players
(4) The team who makes maximum runs in 20 hours will be the winner
(5) None of the above
113. Which of the following countries won the finals of Under-19 Cricket World Cup held in March 2008 ?
(1) South Africa
(2) India
(3) England
(4) New Zealand
(5) None of these
114. Who amongst the following presented the Union Budget 2008-09 in the Parliament ?
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(2) Mr. Lalu Prasad Yadav
(3) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(4) Mr. Arjun Singh
(5) None of the above
115. Late Benazir Bhutto was the
(1) present President of Pakistan
(2) former President of Pakistan
(3) present Prime Minister of Pakistan
(4) former Prime Minister of Pakistan
(5) present Foreign Minister of Pakistan
116. If you visit the branch of a bank you will normally not see a department / section/ counter names as
(1) cash
(2) credit
(3) customer care
(4) housekeeping
(5) retail banking
117. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the National Knowledge Commission ?
(1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(2) Mr. Arjun Singh
(3) Dr. Pranav Mukherjee
(4) Justice Arjit Pasayat
(5) Mr. Sam Pitroda
118. Which of the following phenomenon has created a state of anxiety in the economic and financial sector in India these days ?
(1) Rate of inflation
(2) Sub-prime crisis in USA
(3) High level of fluctuation in Sensex
(4) Population growth in Metro Cities in India
(5) None of the above
119. Name of Ishant Sharma is associated with game of
(1) Hockey
(2) Chess
(3) Cricket
(4) Football
(5) Badminton
120. Which of the following programmes is launched to develop basic infrastructure in the country ?
(1) Bharat Nirman Programme
(2) Technology Mission
(3) Special Economic Zones
(4) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(5) None of the above
121. Which of the following is permanent venue of International Film Festivals in India ?
(1) Goa
(2) Pune (Maharashtra)
(3) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(4) Hyderabad (Ardhra Pradesh)
(5) None of the above
122. Foreign investments in India are normally known as
(1) CII
(2) FDI
(3) SFI
(4) SME
(5) MDI
123. Which of the following is a computer package for preparing/typing letters/documents ?
(1) Word
(2) Excel
(3) Power Point
(4) Windows
(5) Unix
124. ‘Duleep Trophy’ is associated with the game of
(1) Badminton
(2) Hockey
(3) Football
(4) Cricket
(5) Chess
125. Jnanpith Award is given for excellence in the field of
(1) Social Service
(2) Sports
(3) Classical Dance
(4) Music
(5) Literature
126. Which of the following organization is a popular name in the field of computer & softwares ?
(1) Rotman
(2) Henley
(3) Microsoft
(4) Louis Vuitton
(5) DLA Piper
127. King of which of the following countries has to leave as the country has adopted parliamentary form of democratic government and first election has taken place ?
(1) Jordan
(2) Bhutan
(3) Nepal
(4) Myanmar
(5) None of these
128. For applying for this project, the applicants were required to
(1) send physical applications
(2) apply one-line
(3) buy scannable form and send after filling
(4) send only Demand Draft
(5) apply in employment exchange
129. ‘Dhyanchand Trophy’ is associated with the game of
(1) Golf
(2) Cricket
(3) Football
(4) Tennis
(5) Hockey
130. Who amongst the following is a famous Lawn Tennis player ?
(1) Irfan Khan
(2) Sania Mirza
(3) Sujata Sharma
(4) Kiran Desai
(5) None of these
131. Which of the following bills was placed in the Parliament recently after a waiting period of several years ?
(1) Women’s Reservation Bill
(2) Financial Inclusion Bill
(3) Income Tax Amendment Bill
(4) Companies Amendment Bill
(5) None of the above
132. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Business at the Speed of Thought’?
(1) V S Naipaul
(2) Jaswant Singh
(3) Ritu Beri
(4) Bill Gates
(5) None of the above
133. Government normally does not announce the support price of
(1) Wheat
(2) Paddy
(3) Mango
(4) Sugarcane
(5) Cotton
134. Dmitry Medvedev has become the new
(1) Prime Minister of Russia
(2) President of Russia
(3) Prime Minister of France
(4) President of France
(5) Prime Minister of Italy
135. If you visit USA you have to make all your payments in
(1) Euro
(2) Dollar
(3) Rupee
(4) Pound Sterling
(5) Any one of these
136. Census in India is done after a period of
(1) 5 years
(2) 7 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 10 years
(5) 12 years
137. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following services ?
(1) Telecom
(2) Trade
(3) Port
(4) Transport
(5) None of the above
138. Firewalls are used to protect against
(1) Unauthorised Attacks
(2) Virus Attacks
(3) Data Driven Attacks
(4) Fire Attacks
(5) None of the above
139. The …….. directory is mandatory for every disk.
(1) Root
(2) Base
(3) Sub
(4) Case
(5) None of these
140. ‘WWW’ stands for
(1) World Word Web
(2) World Wide Web
(3) World White Web
(4) World Work Web
(5) None of the above
141. For applying for this project, the applicants were required to
(1) pay fee by cheque
(2) pay fee by Demand Draft
(3) pay fee by Postal Order
(4) no fee/postage was required to be paid
(5) None of the above
142. Which of the following is NOT associated with Computers ?
(1) Bit
(2) Binary
(3) Pencil
(4) Mouse
(5) Screen
143. ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of the above
144. Modern Computers represent characters and numbers internally using one of the following number systems
(1) Penta
(2) Octal
(3) Hexa
(4) Septa
(5) Binary
145. Smallest storage unit of a computer is
(1) Bit
(2) Byte
(3) Nibble
(4) Pixel
(5) None of these
146. A MODEM is connected in between a telephone line and a
(1) Network
(2) Computer
(3) Communication Adapter
(4) Serial Port
(5) All of the above
147. Window is ………. and Window 95, Window 98 are …….. .
(1) Graphical User Interface, Operating System
(2) Graphics Useful Interface, Executing Systems
(3) Graph User Interval, Expert Systems
(4) Graphical Use Interphase, Excel Systems
(5) None of the above
148. Which of the following best explains e-governance ?
(1) Improving the functioning of Government
(2) Teaching Government employees the basics of computing
(3) Delivery of public services through internet
(4) Framing of cyber-laws of chatting on internet
(5) Convergence of e-mail and video-conferencing
149. ‘Buy Now – Pay Now’ is commonly used for
(1) Visa Cards
(2) Vault Cards
(3) Credit Cards
(4) E-purse
(5) Debit Cards
150. Smart Card is
(1) special purpose Cards
(2) microprocessor Cards
(3) processing unit contains memory for storing data
(4) processing unit for software handling
(5) None of the above
English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 151-165) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in battle The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat They would be a part of the victory parade for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what they are playing.”
The children had lined up two rows of clays dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi”. The king asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.
The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were will immersed in their game. The King commanded, “Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naïve, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp.
That evening the commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been save.” The priest said, “The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”
151. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(1) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(2) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(3) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a sign of victory
(4) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(5) None of the above
152. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(1) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
(2) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(3) To show other devotes that he was king
(4) To priest requested him to do so
(5) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple
153. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?
(A) He was not a loyal subject of the king.
(B) He was afraid of the king’s temper.
(C) He did not support the king’s war against Karnat
(1) Both (A) an (C)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
(5) None of these
154. What excuse was given for the children’s behaviour ?
(1) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes
(2) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(3) They were upset that their army had lost
(4) They were in the habit of lying
(5) None of the above
155. Why did jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
(A) They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.
(B) Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
(C) He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Both (A) and (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Both (B) and (C)
(5) None of the above
156. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(2) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king
(3) The commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children
(4) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(5) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple
157. Why did the jester resign from his post ?
(1) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
(2) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(3) He did not want to a accompany the king on his war campaign
(4) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
(5) None of the above
158. Which of the following describes the Minister ?
(A) He was jealous of the jester.
(B) He was the king’s most valuable advisor.
(C) He did not have a good sense of humour.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Both (A) and (C)
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(5) None of these
159. Which of the following was/were the outcome/s of the soldiers beating the children ?
(A) The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.\
(B) The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
(C) The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(1) Only (A)
(2) All (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of the above
160. Why was the king angry with the children ?
(1) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
(2) They had lied to him
(3) They did not recognize him as king
(4) They had unknowingly insulted him
(5) They were rude to him
Directions (Q. Nos. 161-163) : Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
161. froze
(1) cold
(2) numb
(3) shivered
(4) stood still
(5) chill
162. leave
(1) holiday
(2) transfer
(3) exit
(4) permission
(5) farewell
163. spied
(1) noticed
(2) keep watch
(3) followed
(4) spot
(5) caught
Directions (Q. Nos. 164-165) : Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
164. immersed in
(1) safe from
(2) distracted from
(3) boring
(4) drowning in
(5) entertained by
165. pardon
(1) punishment
(2) excuse
(3) convict
(4) intolerance
(5) imprison
Directions (Q. Nos. 166-170) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.
166. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.
(1) is dependable
(2) depends on
(3) being dependent
(4) going to depend
(5) No correction required
167. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(1) was fearful of
(2) was feared to
(3) was afraid to
(4) had been afraid to
(5) No correction required
168. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.
(1) any of the place convenient
(2) at places convenient
(3) from a place of convenience
(4) to a place convenient
(5) No correction required
169. As compared to last year there was been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(1) sharper rise of
(2) as sharp a rise
(3) sharp rises in
(4) sharply rising
(5) No correction required
170. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(1) were required to submit
(2) required for submission
(3) are required to submit
(4) requirement of submitting
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 171-175) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.
(A) I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?
(B) “Yes”, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet them.”
(C) I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?
(D) During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.
(E) I have never forgotten this lesson.
(F) I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.
171. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
172. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) F
(5) E
173. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
174. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
175. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 176-180) : In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (5), ie, ‘All correct’.
176. My gole is to acquire a position of authority and respect within the
(1) (2) (3) (4)
and respect within the organization. All correct
(5)
177. The refusal of the Ministry to clear pending dues is a course for concern.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
All correct
(5)
178. He was convinced that discipline and hard work would result
(1) (2) (3)
in dividends in the long run. All correct
(4) (5)
179. This is a company which believes in
(1)
transparency and appointment is done strictly on merit. All correct
(2) (3) (4) (5)
180. There will be a decline in the probability of oil companies because of the
(1) (2)
hike in oil prices. All correct
(3) (4) (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 181-190) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) ie, ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
181. The revised government’s (1) / guidelines have reduced (2) / the number of mergers (3) / taking place among banks. (4) / No error. (5)
182. I do not know (1) / who of the (2) / new trainees should (3) / be confirmed. (4) / No error. (5)
183. To promote India as (1) / a tourist destination (2) / the government has organized (3) / many cultural programmes. (4) / No error. (5)
184. Banks of India (1) / cannot open ATMs (2) / except obtaining (3) / approval from RBI. (4) / No error. (5)
185. Today the success of (1) / companies depends on the (2) / quality of their products and (3) / efficient managing staff. (4) / No error. (5)
186. Ashok has managed to (1) / achieve his sales targets (2) / for the quarter very easily (3) / than we expected. (4) / No error. (5)
187. He did not grant (1) / their request for a loan (2) / although it would (3) / litre of petrol that they sell. (4) / No error. (5)
188. At present oil companies (1) / are making a loss of (2) / rupees five on all (3) / litre of petrol that they sell. (4) / No error. (5)
189. The manager’s belief that (1) / Ramesh is (2) / incompetent is not (3) / in marketing management. (4) / No error. (5)
190. Since I was doing (1) / my MBA I initially (2) / chose to specialize (3) / in marketing management. (4) / No error. (5)
Directions (Q. Nos. 191-200) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader. an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he (191) the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never (192) focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. (193) to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned and additional plant in (194) time. He was (195) that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was (196) the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich (197) when the plant was commissioned.
Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also (198) all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of Management, which allows its professors to (199) their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the (200) of the Institute’s success.
191.
(1) achieved
(2) implemented
(3) visualized
(4) persevered
(5) aimed
192.
(1) moved
(2) shifts
(3) missed
(4) changes
(5) lost
193.
(1) Contrary
(2) Opposite
(3) Yet
(4) Obedient
(5) Different
194.
(1) any
(2) mean
(3) short
(4) no
(5) less
195.
(1) known
(2) calculating
(3) certain
(4) dreamt
(5) surely
196.
(1) operational
(2) install
(3) use
(4) produced
(5) new
197.
(1) supply
(2) diversity
(3) rewards
(4) pay
(5) knowledge
198.
(1) thought
(2) tried
(3) wished
(4) encourage
(5) wanted
199.
(1) expand
(2) function
(3) chose
(4) run
(5) risk
200.
(1) responsibility
(2) secret
(3) guarantee
(4) prize
(5) value
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