CTET Paper-2 2018 Set-M
Child Development and Pedagogy
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
1. The development from central part of the body towards peripheries or extremities denotes the-
(1) principles of radiated development
(2) principles of decentralized development
(3) principles of proximodistal development
(4) principles of cascade development
2. School is an institution of socialization of children where-
(1) schoolchildren occupy the central position
(2) school routines occupy the central position
(3) school activities occupy the central position
(4) schoolteachers occupy the central position
3. If you join a teacher fraternity and choose to dress like most of the others in your group, you are exhibitin-
(1) group identity
(2) obedience
(3) compliance
(4) conformity
4. The concept of object permanence is attained during Piaget’s __ stage of development.
(1) sensorimotor
(2) preoperational
(3) concrete operational
(4) formal operational
5. Individualized Education Programme is planned from the perspective of-
(1) Special Education Programme
(2) Child-centered Education Programme
(3) Open School Education Programme
(4) e-Learning Education Programme
6. Between ______ months of age, most children begin to combine words into short sentences while speaking.
(1) 12 and 18
(2) 18 and 24
(3) 24 and 30
(4) 30 and 36
7. The concept of Intelligence Quotient or IQ was developed by-
(1) Galton
(2) Binet
(3) Stern
(4) Terman
8. Creativity is thought to be related to the concept of-
(1) fluid intelligence
(2) crystallized intelligence
(3) convergent thinking
(4) divergent thinking
9. The acceptable sound combinations of a language are specified in its_____ rules.
(1) phonological
(2) grammatical
(3) syntactic
(4) inflection
10. The position where thought patterns are influenced by language is called-
(1) cultural tendency
(2) linguistic determination
(3) cognitive bias
(4) sociolinguistic genesis
11. Ravi repairs appliances by testing hypothesis about the cause of the malfunction based on his experiences with the symptoms. He uses-
(1) insight
(2) algorithms
(3) mental set
(4) heuristics
12. Dviya often divides the assigned job into small tasks which she can handle easily. She is using-
(1) reductionism
(2) secondary elaboration
(3) subgoal analysis
(4) functional fixedness
13. “Society determines the roles of male and female.” This statement articulates-
(1) gender as an inherent construct
(2) gender as a hereditary endowment
(3) gender as an intuitive construct
(4) gender as a social construct
14. Grading, coding, marking and credit accumulation systems are some of the examples of-
(1) evaluation procedure of answer sheets of the examination
(2) symbolizing position of children in the class
(3) depicting the academic progress in report card
(4) scoring procedure of assessment of learner’s achievement
15. Assessment of learner’s achievement helps the teachers to-
(1) maintain the performance record of learners
(2) evaluate the effectiveness of pedagogy
(3) make ability grouping of learners in the classrooms
(4) prepare activity log for teaching
16. Inclusive Education is based on the principle of-
(1) social equilibrium
(2) equity and equal opportunities
(3) social existence and globalization
(4) world brotherhood
17. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act has been enacted in the year
(1) 1992
(2) 1995
(3) 1999
(4) 2016
18. Children with individual differences should be taught in a school having teachers-
(1) to each in different sections of classrooms based on their individual differences
(2) trained to use different pedagogy to meet their diverse learning needs
(3) trained to teach children with specific individual differences
(4) trained to make them homogeneous learners
19. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 ensures the rights of children with disabilities to free education from-
(1) 6 years to 18 years
(2) 3 years to 18 years
(3) 6 years to 14 years
(4) 6 years to 22 years
20. Providing teaching-learning materials inaccessible formats to the diverse learners implies-
(1) Universal Inclusive Education Ethical Considerate
(2) Universal Code of Teaching Practices
(3) Universal Humanistic Approach of Teaching
(4) Universal Design of Learning
21. ____ involves self-awareness and control of cognitive abilities e.g., planning, reviewing and revising, etc.
(1) Centration
(2) Metacognition
(3) Cognition
(4) Accommodation
22. When children think to interpret the received information according to their experiences, it is called-
(1) reflective thinking
(2) creative thinking
(3) abstract thinking
(4) concrete thinking
23. Teaching learners at varying levels of difficulty based on the ability of individual learner is known as-
(1) differentiated instruction
(2) selective instruction
(3) precision teaching
(4) errorless instruction
24. Maintenance is the specific stage of learning which is antecedent to _______ stage of learning.
(1) acquisition
(2) motivation
(3) independent
(4) generalization
25. Zajonc believes that cognition and emotion are-
(1) interdependent
(2) independent
(3) interrelated
(4) integrated
26. A teacher is teaching children by demonstration of a task to correct the performances of an already learned task. He is using _____ method of teaching.
(1) imitation
(2) observation
(3) correction
(4) modelling
27. According to Mann and Janis, decision maker children analyze the problem, list the alternatives and weigh each option for its advantages and disadvantages. His behavior reflects-
(1) surveillance
(2) vigilant
(3) outgoing
(4) autocratic
28. In ____ thinking, a child as a problem solver evaluates the truth or likelihood of statements.
(1) creative
(2) aesthetic
(3) abstract
(4) logical
29. The task in which the children get experience while enjoying themselves is known as
(1) drill and practice task
(2) consumer type task
(3) producer type task
(4) problem type task
30. Multisensory approach in teaching-learning is the simultaneous use of visual, auditory, tactile and ______ senses to enhance learning.
(1) kinesthetic
(2) vestibular
(3) perceptual
(4) observational
IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).
Part-II
Mathematics and Science
Directions : Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
31. In a meeting, 4/25 of the members were female. What percent of the members was this?
(1) 40%
(2) 24%
(3) 16%
(4) 4%
32. A shop reduced its prices by 10%. What is the new price of an item which was previously sold for Rs 500?
(1) Rs 510
(2) Rs 550
(3) Rs 450
(4) Rs 400
33. Given below is a data set of temperature (in °C) :
−6, −8, −2, 3, 2, 0, 5, 4, 8
What is the range of the data?
(1) 0°C
(2) 16°C
(3) 18°C
(4) 10°C
34. A coin is tossed 10 times and the outcomes are observed as :
H, T, H, T, T, H, H, T, H, H
(H is Head; T is Tail)
What is the probability of getting Head?
(1) 3/5
(2) 4/5
(3) 2/5
(4) 1/5
35. The numerical expression 
shows that-
(1) rational numbers are closed under addition
(2) rational numbers are closed under subtraction
(3) rational numbers are closed under multiplication
(4) rational numbers are closed under division
36. Which one of the following 3D shapes does not have a vertex?
(1) Pyramid
(2) Prism
(3) Cone
(4) Sphere
37. If 
then x is-
(1) 1/5
(2) 2/5
(3) 3/5
(4) 4/5
38. Let a, b, c be three rational numbers, where a = 3/5, b = 2/3 and c = −5/6. Which one of the following is true?
(1) a × (b + c) = b × (a + c)
(2) a ÷ (b + c) = b ÷ (a +c)
(3) a + (b + c) = c + (a + b)
(4) a – (b – c) = c – (a – b)
39. A geometric representation, showing the relationship between a whole and its part, is-
(1) histogram
(2) pie chart
(3) bar graph
(4) pictograph
40. If q is the square of a natural number p, then p is-
(1) the square of q
(2) the square root of q
(3) equal to q
(4) greater than q
41. The value of 
is-
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12
42. In a park, 784 pants are arranged so that number of plants in a row is same as the number of rows. The number of plants in each row is-
(1) 18
(2) 28
(3) 38
(4) 48
43. If two quantities x and y vary inversely with each other, then which one of the following is true?
(1) Ratio of their corresponding values remains constant.
(2) Product of their corresponding values remains constant.
(3) Summation of their corresponding values remains constant.
(4) Difference of their corresponding values remains constant.
44. Given
Then the value of y is-
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2
45. To fill a rectangular tank of area 700 m2, 140 m3 of water is required. What will be the height of the water level in the tank?
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm
46. Which one of the following is the most suitable strategy to teach the skill of addition of money?
(1) Use of ICT
(2) Role play
(3) Use of models
(4) Doing lots of problems
47. After teaching the concept of multiplication to her class, a teacher asked her children to multiply 48 by 4.
One of her students solved it orally as “To multiply 48 by 4, we first add 48 to 48, which makes 96 and then add another 96 to reach 192. So, the answer is 192”.
What can you say about his/her strategy of multiplication?
(1) The child used a wrong method to multiply. He/She has to use the place value algorithm to multiply the numbers.
(2) He/She has not understood the concept of multiplication.
(3) The given problem is a multiplication problem and not addition problem.
(4) He/She understood multiplication as repeated addition.
48. Which one of the following should be taken up as initial activity in introducing the concept of ‘time’ to young learners?
(1) Discussing about the prior experiences with phrases related to time
(2) Teaching children how to read time in clock
(3) Teaching children how to calculate elapsed time
(4) Conversion of time in different units
49. Which one of the following is not the purpose of assessment?
(A) Monitoring student’s growth
(B) Making instructional decision
(C) Evaluating the effectiveness of curriculum
(D) Ranking the children based on performance
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A
(2) D
(3) B
(4) C
50. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for teaching mathematics at upper primary level?
(1) Demonstration method
(2) Lecture method
(3) Activity-based learning
(4) Problem-solving method
51. Which one of the following is most essential in learning mathematics at upper primary level?
(1) Solving a problem many times
(2) Exploring different way s to solving a problem
(3) Memorizing all formulas
(4) Copying correctly what teacher writes on the board
52. The strategy of questioning used in the mathematics class at upper primary level-
(1) should be discouraged as it demoralizes the child who is unable to answer
(2) makes the classroom noisy as the children would be talking too much
(3) could create stress among children and may lead them to accept the teacher’s authority
(4) helps children to express their thoughts or understanding and think critically
53. A teacher has taught measurement of area to class VIII children, but many of her students are confused between the usage of different units of area and volume. What could be the reason for such a confusion in children?
(1) The children did not know the use of units for area.
(2) The children have not memorized different units.
(3) Different units have been introduced all together without relating them with their daily life.
(4) The concept of measurement of area is a difficult topic for a class VIII learner.
54. Which one of t he following can be the most appropriate aim of encouraging mathematical communication in classroom?
(1) Children should be able to use a precise language while talking about mathematical statements and using them
(2) Children who have fear about mathematics should be able to interact in the class
(3) To organize debates in the class regarding topics of mathematics
(4) Children should be able to recite theorems and formulas in mathematics class
55. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is-
(1) to know the gaps in children’s understanding
(2) to give feedback to the parents
(3) to fill the progress report
(4) to plan the question paper for the end term examination
56. Remedial teaching is helpful for-
(1) teaching the whole class
(2) recapitulating the lesson
(3) teaching in play-way method
(4) removing learning difficulties of weak students
57. Which one of the following is not a mathematical process?
(1) Visualization
(2) Memorization
(3) Estimation
(4) Measurement
58. “Errors play a crucial role in learning of mathematics.” This statement is-
(1) false, because errors occur due to carelessness
(2) true, because errors reflect the thinking of child
(3) false, because mathematics is exact
(4) true, because errors provide feedback about the marks they obtained
59. While teaching ‘shapes’, a teacher can plan a trip to historical places, as-
(A) it needs to provide leisure time as most of the syllabus has been completed in time
(B) it would be an opportunity to improve communication skill\
(C) shapes are an integral part of every architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines
(D) field trips are recommended by Education Board, so must be organized
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) A and B
(2) C
(3) B and C
(4) A, C and D
60. A student was asked to calculate the surface area of a cube.
He calculated the volume.
The reason(s) of error in calculation is/are-
(A) the student finds the class boring as he does not like mathematics class
(B) the student is not fit to study in that class
(C) the student is not able to understand the concept of surface area and volume
(D) the student has understood the concept of surface area and volume
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(1) C
(2) B and C
(3) D
(4) A and B
61. The longest snakes found in the word are-
(1) vipers
(2) anacondas
(3) boas
(4) reticulated pythons
62. Yoga is done by the people in the world because-
(1) it is a simple exercise
(2) it keeps people healthy
(3) it increases hunger
(4) it brings happiness
63. The vaccine for smallpox was discovered by-
(1) Ronald Ross
(2) Robert Koch
(3) Edward Jenner
(4) Alexander Fleming
64. Which one of the following is used as preservative?
(1) Copper sulphate
(2) Sodium benzoate
(3) Ammonium sulphate
(4) Sodium chloride
65. Yeast is used for the production of-
(1) alcohol
(2) curd
(3) sugar
(4) common salt
66. Mitochondria : ATP :: Ribosome : ?
(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Fat
(3) Protein
(4) Vitamin
67. If the frequency of a simple pendulum is 2 Hz, how many oscillations will it complete in 16 seconds?
(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64
68. Which one of the following metals burns if kept in air?
(1) Sodium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Zinc
(4) Aluminium
69. Magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)2]j is used as-
(1) oxidizing agent
(2) reducing agent
(3) anti-acid
(4) fermentation agent
70. Which one of the following gases burns with pop sound?
(1) Oxygen
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Nitrogen dioxide
(4) Sulphur dioxide
71. Which of the following is/are example(s) of non-contact force?
(1) Gravitation force
(2) Muscular force
(3) Magnetic force
(4) Both (1) and (2)
72. Diabetes is controlled by ______ hormone.
(1) thyroxine
(2) adrenaline
(3) insulin
(4) thymosin
73. Which one of the following is not a product of petroleum?
(1) Kerosene
(2) CNG
(3) Paraffin wax
(4) Bitumen
74. Red Data Book contains a record of-
(1) endangered species
(2) extinct species
(3) flora
(4) fauna
75. Why are the soles of the shoes treaded?
(1) To give the shoes more protection
(2) To decrease friction
(3) To increase friction
(4) To increase life of the shoes
76. Sarika took distilled water in a bottle and tried to find whether it conducts electricity or not. What is she likely to find?
(1) It is good conductor of electricity.
(2) It is an insulator.
(3) It is poor conductor of electricity.
(4) None of the above
77. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(1) There is a minimum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.
(2) There is a maximum limit of current which can safely flow in the electric circuit.
(3) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all the buildings.
(4) If the proper fuse is inserted in a circuit, it will blow off if the current is more than th e safe limit.
78. Which one of the following places is most likely to be affected by a cyclone?
(1) Porbandar
(2) Puri
(3) Mumbai
(4) Goa
79. The change in seasons on the earth occurs because-
(1) the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its orbit.
(2) the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the plane of its orbit.
(3) the distance between the earth and the s un is not constant
(4) the axis of rotation of the earth is parallel to the plane of its orbit
80. There are two columns, Column-A and Column B :
Column –A
(a) Canopy
(b) Decomposers
(c) Humus
(d) Porcupine
Column – B
(i) Dead plant and animal tissues
(ii) A wild animal
(iii) Microorganism
(iv) Branches of tall tree
Which one of the following is t he correct sequence of Column-B for the given sequence of Column –A?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(3) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(4) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
81. Why is formative assessment important in science?
(1) It is easy to conduct.
(2) It helps in developing scientific temper in students.
(3) It is diagnostic.
(4) It helps in better understanding of science.
82. Why are science fairs organized in schools?
(1) To prepare students for higher education in science
(2) To help the students to score higher in their examination
(3) to nurture creativity and experimentation in science among students
(4) To evaluate students on the basis of their performance
83. As a teacher, which one of the following do you find most appropriate for scientific approach to teaching?
(1) Clarify the students about the concepts in the class
(2) Show the use of technology for teaching concepts
(3) Give projects to the students
(4) Ask the students to perform activities related to the concepts
84. According to NCF-2005, “good science education is true to life”. What does this mean?
(1) Science should prepare the child to the world of work.
(2) Science should be able to engage the child meaningfully.
(3) Science should enable the child in learning the processes of acquiring scientific knowledge.
(4) Science should help in living easy life.
85. Which one of the following is not a quality of scientific attitude?
(1) Open-mindedness
(2) Curiosity to learn more
(3) Objectivity in approach to problems
(4) Hard work
86. Hari wants to teach the circular motion to class VI students. Which one of the following will be the best method?
(1) Discussion
(2) Activity-based teaching
(3) Giving examples
(4) Demonstration
87. Which one of the following is an important aim of learning science?
(1) To get knowledge of science
(2) To collect the information of science contents
(3) To imbibe the values of honesty, integrity and cooperation among learners
(4) To help the fellow colleagues in getting knowledge of science
88. The continuous and comprehensive evaluation in science means-
(1) summative and formative assessment
(2) more frequent test and examination
(3) routine activities and exercises to assess learning
(4) evaluation of all aspects of science
89. Which one of the following is not a step of problem-solving approach?
(1) Visualizing the situation
(2) Attempt to solve
(3) Drawing conclusion
(4) Observation
90. Which one of the following is a step of analogy strategy in science?
(1) Map similarities
(2) Presentation of abstraction
(3) Interlinking concepts
(4) Application
IMPORTANT : Candidates have to do Question Nos. 31 to 90 Either from Part-II (Mathematics and Science) Or from Part-III (Social Studies/Social Science).
PART-III
Social Studies/Social Science
31. Wind vane is used for measuring-
(1) wind velocity
(2) air pressure
(3) wind direction
(4) air temperature
32. Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere helps in the transmission of radio waves?
(1) Stratosphere
(2) Mesosphere
(3) Thermosphere
(4) Exosphere
33. Identify the various layers of the earth in order from interior to the outermost layer :
(1) Crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
(2) Mantle, crust, outer core, inner core
(3) Inner core, outer core, crust, mantle
(4) Inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
34. Observe carefully the location o the sun, earth and moon in the given diagram and tell what it depicts :
(1) Solar eclipse
(2) Lunar eclipse
(3) Spring tide
(4) Neap tide
35. When the river enters the plain, it bends and flows forming large bends known as-
(1) levee
(2) floodplain
(3) meander
(4) oxbow lake
36. Which means of transport is extremely useful in most inaccessible areas and in time of calamities for rescuing people and distributing food, water, clothes and medicines?
(1) Airways
(2) Railways
(3) Roadways
(4) Waterways
37. The branch of geography which deals with composition of a particular human population is called-
(1) urban geography
(2) biogeography
(3) demography
(4) human geography
38. Assertion (A) :
The sun sets in Gujarat about two hours after Arunachal Pradesh.
Reason (R) :
Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
39. Which one of the following is a n on-conventional source of energy?
(1) Firewood
(2) Natural gas
(3) Solar energy
(4) Coal
40. The breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is known as-
(1) sericulture
(2) viticulture
(3) horticulture
(4) pisciculture
41. A narrow strip of land joining two landmasses is known as-
(1) strait
(2) isthmus
(3) island
(4) bay
42. Which one of the following continents is smallest in size?
(1) Australia
(2) South America
(3) Africa
(4) Europe
43. At the upper primary stage, Social Science comprises of-
(1) History, Geography, Political Science, Psychology
(2) History, Geography, Economics, Sociology
(3) History, Geography, Political Science, Economics
(4) History, Geography, Political Science, Sociology
44. Inductive learning is contradictory to which one of the following approaches?
(1) Expository teaching
(2) Structure training
(3) Simulation
(4) Mastery learning
45. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer :
(A) Critical thinking promotes the building of concepts, application and expansion of ideas.
(B) It does not help in understanding and evaluating arguments and beliefs of others.
(1) A is true and B is false
(2) A is false and B is true
(3) Both A and B are false
(4) Both A and B are true
46. What is an empirical evidence?
(1) Data gathered in the real world through the senses
(2) A numeric approach for research
(3) Data measured in metric units
(4) Data gathered using reliable methods of data collection
47. The models/replicas of physical features are most suitable for teaching-
(1) History
(2) Economics
(3) Geography
(4) Political Science
48. The collection of weather information from the local newspaper is an example of which type of source?
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Both Primary and tertiary
49. In which type of classroom, the students with learning disabilities learn alongside other students?
(1) Exclusive
(2) Special
(3) Inclusive
(4) Modern
50. Who has given the following theory?
“All children go through the same sequence of development, but at different rates. Therefore teacher must plan activities for individual children and small groups, not just for the class as a whole.
(1) C. L. Ogden
(2) D. Purcell
(3) J. H. Bell
(4) J. Piaget
51. In order to promote cooperative learning in the classroom, a teacher should-
(1) engage students in debate and discussions
(2) given them individual projects
(3) divide the class in small groups for work
(4) provide them various sources to do the project
52. A self-guided, self-disciplined thinking which attempts to reason at the highest level of quality in a fair-minded way is called-
(1) critical thinking
(2) complex thinking
(3) intelligent thinking
(4) abstract thinking
53. The colours used in the Ajanta Caves Paintings have been derived from which of the following materials?
(1) Remains of animal organs
(2) Graphite
(3) Plants and minerals
(4) Slate
54. The earliest manuscripts were written on-
(1) palm leaves
(2) stones
(3) paper
(4) wood
55. Which one of the following periods is longest in the human history?
(1) Palaeolithic
(2) Mesolithic
(3) Neolithic
(4) Megalithic
56. Read the given statements A and B and select the correct answer:
(A) Mehrgarh is located in a fertile plain near Bolan Pass of Pakistan.
(B) Evidences of farming and herding are found here.
(1) A is true and B is false
(2) A is false and B is true
(3) Both A and B are false
(4) Both A and B are true
57. In which one of the following States of India, the largest number of Harappan sites have been found?
(1) Punjab
(2) Haryana
(3) Gujarat
(4) Jammu and Kashmir
58. ‘Rig Veda’ was originally composed in which one of the following languages?
(1) Brahmi
(2) Pali
(3) Sanskrit
(4) Prakrit
59. The first ruler of Magadha Mahajanapadas in the sixth century BC was-
(1) Mahavira
(2) Prasenjit
(3) Bimbisara
(4) Ajatashatru
60. Which one of the following is not among the three jewels of Buddhism?
(1) Buddha
(2) Dhamma
(3) Ahimsa
(4) Sangha
61. Who among the following elects the Rajya Sabha Members?
(1) Voters in Assembly Constituencies
(2) Voters in Parliamentary Constituencies
(3) Lok Sabha Members
(4) Members of Legislative Assemblies (MLAs)
62. Which of the following systems of government was adopted by India?
(1) Parliamentary and Unitary
(2) Presidential and Federal
(3) Presidential and Unitary
(4) Parliamentary and Federal
63. How many Parliamentary Constituencies are reserve for the scheduled Castes?
(1) 48
(2) 84
(3) 47
(4) 74
64. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is violated due to practice of untouchability in India?
(1) Right to Equality
(2) Right to Freedom
(3) Right against Exploitation
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
- As per the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(1) Right of Education
(2) Right against Exploitation
(3) Right to Freedom of Religion
(4) Right to Property
66. Untouchability refers to the discrimination on the basis of-
(1) physical disability
(2) gender
(3) caste
(4) race
67. Who appoints the Chief Minister?
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Governor
(4) The Chief Justice of the High Court
68. Who appoints the Governor?
(1) The Prime Minister
(2) The Chief Minister
(3) The Chief Justice of India
(4) The President
69. Who elects the Prime Minister?
(1) The Council of Ministers
(2) The Chief Ministers
(3) MPs
(4) MPs and MLAs
70. Who among the following is called the first citizen of India?
(1) The Chief Justice of India
(2) The Home Minister
(3) The President
(4) The Prime Minister
71. Who among the following is called the first citizen of a State in India?
(1) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(2) The Home Minister
(3) The Governor
(4) The Chief Minister
72. The current Lok Sabha (from 2014 onwards) is the
(1) 13th
(2) 14th
(3) 15th
(4) 16th
73. Who is the current President of India?
(1) Narendra Modi
(2) Pratibha Patil
(3) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(4) Ram Nath Kovind
74. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
(1) Names of the States and Union Territories
(2) Structure of the Government
(3) Names of political parties
(4) Rights of the citizens
75. Who nominates Members to the Rajya Sabha?
(1) The President
(2) The Vice President
(3) The Prime Minister
(4) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
76. Who among the following was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(1) C. Rajagopalachari
(2) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru
77. Who among the following was the only Indian Governor-General of India?
(1) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(2) B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(3) T. T. Krishnamachari
(4) C. Rajagopalachari
78. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(1) August 15, 1947
(2) November 26, 1947
(3) November 26, 1949
(4) January 26, 1950
79. Who among the following played a decisive role in integrating the Princely States of India?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(3) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(4) C. Rajagopalachari
80. Which of the following deal with the matters in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
(1) Union Government and State Governments
(2) State Governments and Local Government Bodies
(3) Union Territories
(4) Local Government Bodies
81. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly of India?
(1) C. Rajagopalachari
(2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru
82. In the 18th century, under whom did Bengal gradually break away from the Mughal control?
(1) Murshid Quli Khan
(2) Nadir Shah
(3) Alivardi Khan
(4) Burhan-ul-Mulk
83. Who among the following Governor Generals decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would be the last Mughal emperor and after his death none of the descendents would be recognized as a ruler?
(1) Lord Dalhousie
(2) William Bentinck
(3) Lord Canning
(4) Lord Cornwallis
84. Which Governor-General declared that Awadh was being misgoverned and British rule was needed to ensure proper administration?
(1) Lord Ripon
(2) Lord Canning
(3) Lord Dalhousie
(4) Lord Mountbatten
85. Which ruler of Kanpur called himself ‘Peshwa’?
(1) Nana Saheb
(2) Bajirao I
(3) Bajirao II
(4) Bahadur Shah Zafar
86. The best methodology to teach the theme ‘Factory’ would be-
(1) to narrate a story
(2) to invite a resource person
(3) to organize a visit to an industrial plant
(4) to screen a documentary film
87. What is EDUSAT?
(1) The rocket that carries man-made satellite to be placed in the orbit around the sun
(2) A newly discovered planet in the solar system
(3) An asteroid found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(4) A man-made Indian satellite
88. The verses and ideas of which one of the following personalities have been preserved in ‘Panchvani’ and ‘Bijak’?
(1) Mirabai
(2) Kabir
(3) Guru Nanak
(4) Ravidas
89. The mural painting from Ellora Caves which shows Vishnu as Narasimha, the man-lion, is a work of which period?
(1) Gurjara-Pratihara period
(2) Rashtrakuta period
(3) Chalukya period
(4) Gupta period
90. Which one of the following organization believes in Upanishads?
(1) Brahma Samaj
(2) Ramakrishna Mission
(3) Satyashodhak Samaj
(4) Seva Samaj
Part-IV
Language-I
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-IV (Q. Nos. 91 to 120), if they have opted for ENGLISH as Language-I only.
Directions : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 91 to 99) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Born out of the forces of globalization, India’s IT sector is undertaking some globalization of its own. In search of new sources of rapid growth, the country’s outsourcing giants are aggressively expanding beyond their usual stomping grounds into the developing world; setting up programming centres. chasing new clients and hiring local talent. Through geographic diversification, Indian companies hop to regain some momentum after the recession. This shift is being driven by a global economy in which the US is no longer the undisputed engine of growth. India’s IT powers rose to prominence largely on the decisions made by American executives, who were quick to capitalize on the cost savings to be gained by outsourcing noncore operations, such as systems programming and call centres, to specialists overseas.
Revenues in India’s IT sector surged from $4 billion in 1998 to $59 billion last fiscal, but with the recession NASSCOM forecasts that the growth rate of India’s exports of IT and other business services to the US and Europe will drop to at most 7% in the current fiscal year, down from 16% last year and 29% in 2007-08.
Factors other than the crisis are driving India’s IT firm into the emerging world. Although the US still accounts for 60% of the export revenue of India’s IT sector, emerging markets are growing faster. Tapping these more dynamic economies won’t be easy, however. The goal of Indian IT firms for the past 30 years has been to wood clients outside India and transfer as much of the actual work as possible back home where lower wages for highly skilled programmers allowed them to offer significant cost savings. With costs in other emerging economies equally low, Indian firms can’t compete on price alone.
To adapt, Indian companies which are relatively unknown in these emerging national are establishing major local operations around the world, in the process hiring thousands of locals. Cultural conflicts arise at times while training new recruits. In addition, IT firms also have to work extra hard to woo business from emerging-market companies still unaccustomed to the concept of outsourcing. If successful, the future of India’s outsourcing sector could prove at bright as its past.
91. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase “India’s IT sector is undertaking some globalization of its own”?
(1) India has usurped American position as the leader in IT.
(2) The Indian IT sectors is competing with other emerging nations for American business
(3) The Indian IT sector it considering outsourcing to developing economies.
(4) Indian IT firms are engaging in expanding their presence internationally.
92. Which of the following factors made the services offered by the Indian IT attractive to the US?
(A) Indian IT companies had expertise in rare core operations
(B) The US lacked the necessary infrastructure and personnel to handle mass call centre operations
(C) Inability of other equally cost-efficient developing countries to comply with their strict policies
(1) None
(2) Only A
(3) Only A and B
(4) Only C
93. What has caused Indian IT firms to change the way they conduct business in developing countries?
(1) The volume of work being awarded cannot be handled by Indian firms
(2) The demands of these markets are different from those of India’s traditional customers
(3) Wages demanded by local workers are far higher than what they pay their Indian employees
(4) Stringent laws which are not conducive to outsourcing
94. What do the NASSCOM statistics about Indian IT exports indicate?
(1) Drop in demand for IT services by Europe and the US
(2) Indian IT firms charge exorbitantly for their services
(3) India has lost out to other emerging IT hubs
(4) The Indian IT sector should undergo restructuring
95. According to the passage, which one of the following is not a difficulty that Indian IT firms will face in emerging markets?
(1) Mindset resistant to outsourcing
(2) Local IT services are equally cost-effective
(3) The US is their preferred outsourcing destination
(4) Conflict arising during the training of local talent
96. Which of the following is/are not true in the context of the passage?
(A) The recession severely impacted the US but not India.
(B) India is trying to depend less on the US as a source of growth.
(C) The future success of Indian IT firms depends on emerging markets.
(1) Only B and C
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C
97. Which one of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word ‘chasing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Running
(2) Harassing
(3) Pestering
(4) Pursuing
98. Which one of the following words is most opposite to the meaning of t he word ‘undisputed’ as used in the passage?
(1) Challenging
(2) Doubtful
(3) Deprived
(4) Emphasized
99. Other than crisis, what is driving IT companies to seek other options?
(1) The US makes more than 60% of India’s export revenue
(2) Emerging markets
(3) None of the above
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Directions : Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 100 to 105) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Break, Break, Break,
On thy cold gray stones, O Sea !
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.
O, well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play !
O, well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay !
And the stately ships go on
To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanish’d hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still ~
Break, Break, Break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea !
But the tender grace of a day that is dead
Will never come back to me.
100. What is ‘breaking’ in ‘Break, Break, Break’?
(1) The sea
(2) Poet’s heart
(3) The wind
(4) The sunshine through the clouds
101. The mood of the speaker in ‘Break, Break, Break’ is-
(1) The sea
(2) Poet’s heart
(3) The wind
(4) The sunshine through the clouds
102. The speaker in ‘Break, Break, observes all the following, except–
(1) children playing
(2) a sailor boy singing
(3) a lady in a tower
(4) ships coming in
103. The speaker of Break, Break, cannot–
(1) feel
(2) see
(3) speak
(4) hear
104. In the first two lines of the poem, the poet uses-
(1) apostrophe
(2) assonance
(3) metaphor
(4) simile
105. The phrase ‘haven under the hill’ is an example of-
(1) simile
(2) metaphor
(3) alliteration
(4) personafication
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 106 to 120) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
106. Which one of the following does not come under the principle of selection and gradation?
(1) Accuracy
(2) Availability
(3) Coverage
(4) Frequency
107. The phenomenon, where a single word is associated with two or several related meanings, is known as-
(1) homonyms
(2) homograph
(3) polysemy
(4) homonymy
108. “The dog lived in the garden, but the cat, who was smarter, lived inside the house” is an example of-
(1) simple sentence
(2) complex compound sentence
(3) complex sentence
(4) compound sentence
109. If a student of language is cramming his/her answers, then he/she would not be able to-
(1) attempt question answers
(2) attempt vocabulary-based exercise
(3) attempt structural questions
(4) attempt creative writing
110. During reading, if a student is piercing information together as they read a text keeping track of what is happening, he/she is-
(1) inferring
(2) skimming
(3) paraphrasing
(4) synthesizing
111. Which one of the following does not affect the intonation?
(1) Voice/Pronunciation
(2) Tone
(3) Rhythm
(4) Loudness
112. _______ are involved in thinking.
(1) Image, language, imagination, proposition
(2) Image, imagination, concept, proposition
(3) Imagination, language, concept, proposition
(4) Image, language, concept, proposition
113. Language laboratory is the place where the learners have to listen on headphone. The language labs are set up with a view to provide listening activities in order to develop-
(1) analysis habit
(2) speech habit
(3) criticizing habit
(4) listening activities
114. Grammar-translation method is basically used to teach-
(1) grammar
(2) foreign language
(3) rules of any language usage
(4) classical language
115. Which one of the following can be used as rubric for the assessment of fluency and coherence of language?
(1) Can express with some flexibility and appropriacy on variety of topics
(2) Can initiate and logically develop simple conversation on a familiar topic
(3) Is always comprehensible, uses appropriate intonation
(4) Demonstrates hesitation to find words or use correct grammatical structures
116. Which one of the following is not the objective defined by NCF-2005 for teaching English at upper primary level?
(1) To negotiate their own learning goals and evaluate their own progress; edit, revise, review their own work
(2) To use dictionary suitable to their needs
(3) To be able to articulate individual/personal reponses effectively
(4) To promote learners’ conceptualization of printed texts in ters of heading, paragraph and horizontal lines
117. If you are listening to the description of how to reach a specific location, then you are doing-
(1) casual listening
(2) focused listening
(3) intensive listening
(4) extensive listening
118. If a language teacher has put the words ‘school, teacher, headmaster, peon’ in a group, then she is following-
(1) lexical grouping
(2) semantic grouping
(3) phonetic grouping
(4) grammatical grouping
119. “At the initial stages of language learning _____ may be one of the languages for learning activities that create the child’s awareness to the world.” (NCF-2005)
(1) English
(2) Vernacular language
(3) Second language
(4) Hindi
120. Little or no attention is given to pronunciation in _______ method.
(1) audio-lingual
(2) grammar-translation
(3) CLT
(4) SLT
Part-V
Language-II
English
IMPORTANT : Candidates should attempt questions from Part-V (Q. Nos. 121 to 150),if they have opted for English as Language-II only.
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 121 to 129) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence which was characteristic of the Indian national movement long before independence. Although the British retained supreme authority over India until 1947, the provincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice before national independence. During the Pacific War, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the War was over the transfer of power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned. By 1947, ‘Indianization’ had already gone far in the Indian Civil Service and army, so that the new government could start with effective instruments of central control.
After independence, however, India was faced with two vast problems, the first, that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of subnationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite which had rebelled not only against the British Raj, but also against India’s social order; they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalists who had led a struggle against alien rule on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic, division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic States was conceded as the basis of a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted by the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult.
Land reforms remained under the control of the States and many large-scale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre; when a Congress government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the States, it became much harder.
121. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.
(1) Opposed
(2) Implemented
(3) Accepted
(4) Diverted
122. Choose the word which is mot opposite in meaning of the word ‘conceded’ as used in the passage.
(1) Criticized
(2) Rejected
(3) Denounced
(4) Withdrawn
123. Why was central economic planning found to be difficult?
(1) Multiplicity of States and Union Territories
(2) Lack of coordination in different government departments
(3) Autonomy given to the States in certain matters
(4) Lack of will in implementing land reforms
124. Which one of the following problems was India faced with after independence?
(1) Military attack from across the border
(2) Lack of coordination between the Central and State Governments
(3) Improper coordination of various government policies
(4) Increasing the production for a very low level
125. Which one of the following issues was not appropriately realized by the Central Government?
(1) Ethnic diversity of the people
(2) A national language for the country
(3) Implementation of the formulated policies
(4) Centre-State relations
126. Which, according to the passage, can be cited as exercise in democratic practice in India before independence?
(1) The handling over of the power by British to India
(2) The Indianization of the Indian Civil Service
(3) Several democratic institutions created by the Indian National Congress
(4) None of the above
127. Which one of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
(1) The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of division of States on linguistic basis.
(2) Economic development and social reforms were initiated soon after independence
(3) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj.
(4) The Congress leadership was fully aware of the problems of ethnic diversity in India at the time of independence.
128. Why was the linguistic reorganization of the States accepted?
(1) The States were not cooperating with the Central Government.
(2) Non-Congress governments in and State demanded such a reorganization of the States
(3) No common national language could be emerged.
(4) Strong pressures from the States were exerted on the Central Government to create such States.
129. India was not overrun by the Japanese during the Pacific War because-
(1) Japan had friendly relations with Britain
(2) Japan was interested in India’s freedom
(3) Japan was skeptical about its success in War
(4) None of the above
Directions : Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. Nos. 130 to 135) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
“A principal fruit of friendship”, Francis Bacon wrote in his timeless meditation on the subject, “is the ease and discharge of the fullness and swellings of the heart, which passions of all kinds do cause and induce.” For Thoreau, friendship was one life’s great reward. But in today’s cultural landscape of muddled relationships scattered across various platforms for connecting, amidst constant debates about whether our Facebook ‘friendships’ are making use more or less happy, it pays to consider what friendship actually is. That’s precisely what CUNY Philosophy professor Massimo Pigliucci explores in Answers for Aristotle : How Science and Philosophy Can Lead Us to a More Meaningful Life (public library), which also gave us this provocative read on the science of what we call ‘intuition’.
Philosophers and cognitive scientists agree that friendship is an essential ingredient of human happiness. But beyond the dry academic definitions-like, say, “voluntary interdependence between two persons over time, which is intended to facilitate socio-emotional goals of the participants, and may involve varying types and degrees of companionship, intimacy, affection and mutual assistance”-lies a body of compelling research that sheds light on how, precisely, friendship augments happiness. The way friendship enhances well-being, it turns out, has nothing to do with quantity and everything to do with quality-researchers confirm that it isn’t the number of friends (or, in the case of Facebook, ‘friends’).
130. The change in the present situation which has forced us to rethink the concept of friendship is-
(1) Bacon and Thoreau’s theories are longer available to read
(2) the arrival of social media on the scene
(3) there is more interest in the sciences
(4) friendships are not possible in the real world anymore, due to over-competition
131. Friendship leads to happiness. Is it true?
(1) Yes, researchers have proven that friendship does lead to happiness
(2) No, there is no relationship between friendship and happiness
(3) Friends cannot make each other happy
(4) One needs to find one’s happiness alone, with peace of mind
132. Did Pigliucci’s book discuss intuition too?
(1) No, it only discussed friendship
(2) It just explained science and philosophy
(3) It discussed Aristotle’s theories
(4) Yes
133. Is the quality of friends important?
(1) No, it is important to have more number of friends, quality does not matter
(2) No, number of comments on social networking sites is important, not the quality of friends
(3) Yes, it matters
(4) No, quality comes automatically with quantity
134. As per the first paragraph, what are the debates about?
(1) They are centered around whether our Facebook friends are helping us become more or less happy.
(2) There are no debates around friendship.
(3) The quality of comments of social media is debatable
(4) Thoreau and Aristotle’s thinking is at loggerheads.
135. The word that is opposite in meaning to the word ‘muddled’ is-
(1) confused
(2) chaotic
(3) ordered
(4) rumpled
Directions : Answer the following questions (Q. Nos. 136 to 150) by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
136. Positive interference is a kind of-
(1) target language
(2) foreign language
(3) pictorial language
(4) native language
137. In learning the new language, multilingualism is-
(1) a methodology
(2) an asset
(3) an interference
(4) a burden
138. Note taking is done-
(1) during a lecture
(2) while reading a review
(3) during extensive reference work
(4) while writing an essay
139. The method of teaching foreign language without using the pupil’s first language is-
(1) direct method
(2) classical method
(3) grammar-translation
(4) old method
140. Two words have identical sound and spelling, but not related in meaning. It is know as
(1) homophone
(2) homonymy
(3) homograph
(4) polysemy
141. Language of word is not necessary for-
(1) imaginative thinking
(2) conceptual thinking
(3) associative thinking
(4) perceptual thinking
142. Communicative Language Teaching replaced basically-
(1) Natural Language Processing
(2) Structural Teaching
(3) Situational Language
(4) Motivational Teaching
143. Students are not organisms. Which one of the following methods sees them as a whole person?
(1) CLT
(2) SLT
(3) Silent way
(4) CLL
144. Writing is the _______ representation of speech sounds.
(1) alphabetical
(2) graphical
(3) phonetic
(4) systematic
145. When a teacher uses realia to teach vocabulary and grammar, she is-
(1) using role play as a learning device
(2) using real objects, actions and real-life situations
(3) using computer technology
(4) teaching through true stories
146. A poem whose first letters of each line spell out a word is called-
(1) alliterative
(2) epic
(3) acrostic
(4) haiku
147. Decorum in spoken English pertains to-
(1) appropriate gestures
(2) clarity and purity of style
(3) correct grammatical usage
(4) voice quality
148. Inquiry-based curriculum is based on-
(1) deductive reasoning
(2) inductive reasoning
(3) heuristic reasoning
(4) analogical reasoning
149. Which of the following are structural words?
(1) Auxiliaries
(2) Prepositions
(3) Conjunctions
(4) All of the above
150. Convention of writing include-
(1) story ideas
(2) proper punctuation
(3) imagination
(4) good vocabulary
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