JEE Main (AIEEE) Question Paper 2003 Chemistry

JEE MAIN (AIEEE) Past Exam Paper-2003

Chemistry

1. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which one of the following inner-orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen ?

(1)  3 → 2

(2)  5 → 2

(3)  4 → 1

(4)  2 → 5

Answer: (2)

2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is approximately (Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js)

(1)  10−33 m

(2)  10−31 m

(3)  10−16 m

(4)  10−25 m

Answer: (1)

3. The orbital angular momentum of r an electron revolving in an orbit is given by  This momentum for an s-electron will be given by

(1) 

(2)  zero

(3)  h/2π

(4) 

Answer: (2)

4. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g ? [Atomic masses Na = 23, Cl = 35.5]

(1)  2.57 × 1021

(2)  5.14 × 1021

(3)  1.28 × 1021

(4)  1.71× 1021

Answer: ()

5. Glass is a

(1)  micro-crystalline solid

(2)  super-cooled liquid

(3)  gel

(4)  polymeric mixture

Answer: (2)

6. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1)  Manganese slats give a violet borax-bead test in the reducing flame

(2)  From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl

(3)  Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution

(4)  On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and HCO3 ions we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO32

Answer: (2)

7. According to the periodic law of elements, the variation in properties of elements is related to their

(1)  atomic masses

(2)  nuclear masses

(3)  atomic numbers

(4)  nuclear neutron-proton number ratios

Answer: ()

8. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite

(1)  is a non-crystalline substance

(2)  is an allotropic form o diamond

(3)  has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers

(4)  has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds

Answer: (4)

9. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH(CH3)2 is

(1)  isopropylmethyl ketone

(2)  2-methyl-3-butanone

(3)  4-methylisorpropyl ketone

(4)  3-methyl-2-butanone

Answer: (4)

10. When CH2 = CH—COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the compound obtained will be

(1)  CH3—CH2—COOH

(2)  CH2 = CH—CH2OH

(3)  CH3—CH2—CH2OH

(4)  CH3—CH2—CHO

Answer: (2)

11. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in an ideal gas, between two successive collisions a gas molecule travels

(1)  in a circular path

(2)  in a wavy path

(3)  in a straight line path

(4)  with an accelerate velocity

Answer: (3)

12. Which of the following group of transition metals is called coinage metals?

(1)  Cu, Ag, Au

(2)  Ru, Rh, Pd

(3)  Fe, Co, Ni

(4)  Os, Ir, Pt

Answer: (1)

13. The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain

(1)  diketones

(2)  carboxylic acids

(3)  diols

(4)  dialdehydes

Answer: (2)

14. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to

(1)  dipolar character of ethers

(2)  alcohols having resonance structures

(3)  inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers

(4)  inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols

Answer: (4)

15. Among the following four structures I to IV:

it is true that:

(1)  all four are chiral compounds

(2)  only I and II are chiral compounds

(3)  only III is a chiral compound

(4)  only II and IV are chiral compounds

Answer: (2)

16. Which one of the following process will produce hard water?

(1)  Saturation of water with CaCO3

(2)  Saturation of water with MgCO3

(3)  Saturation of water with CaSO4

(4)  Addition of Na2SO4 to water

Answer: (3)

17. Which one of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule?

(1)  SO2

(2)  OH2

(3)  SH2

(4)  NH3

Answer: (3)

18. Which one of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members?

(1)  SiF4 and NO2

(2)  NO2 and CO2

(3)  NO2 and O3

(4)  SiF4 and CO2

Answer: (3)

19. Which one of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species?

(At. numbers Cs = 55, Br = 35)

(1)  Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+

(2)  N3, F, Na+

(3)  Be, Al3+, Cl

(4)  Ca2+, Cs+, Br

Answer: (2)

20. In the anion HCOO the two carbon-oxygen bonds are found to be of equal What is the reason for it?

(1)  Electronic orbits of carbon atom are hybridized

(2)  The C =O bond is weaker than C—O bond

(3)  The anion HCOO has two resonating structures

(4)  The anion is obtained by removal of a proton from the acid molecule

Answer: (3)

21. The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is

(1)  CF4, SF4

(2)  XeF2, CO2

(3)  BF3, PCl3

(4)  PF5, IF5

Answer: (2)

22. The atomic numbers of vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), manganese (Mn) and iron (Fe) are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26. Which one of these may be expected to have the highest second ionization enthalpy

(1)  V

(2)  Cr

(3)  Mn

(4)  Fe

Answer: (2)

23. Consider the reaction equilibrium,

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g); ∆H° = −198 kJ

(1)  any value of temperature and pressure

(2)  increasing temperature as well as pressure

(3)  lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure

(4)  lowering of  temperature as well as pressure

Answer: (3)

24. What volume of hydrogen gas, at 273K and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in obtaining 21.6g of elemental boron(atomic mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron trichloride by hydrogen?

(1)  89.6 L

(2)  67.2 L

(3)  44.8 L

(4)  22.4 L

Answer: (2)

25. For the reaction equilibrium,

N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 at equilibrium are 4.8 × 10−2 and 1.2 × 10−2 mol L−1 respectively. The value of Kc for the reaction is

(1)  3.3 × 102 mol L−1

(2)  3 × 101 mol L−1

(3)  3 × 103 mol L−1

(4)  3 × 103 mol L−1

Answer: (3)

26. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10−5 mol L−1. Its solubility product number will be

(1)  4 × 10−15

(2)  4 × 10−10

(3)  1 × 10−15

(4)  1 × 10−10

Answer: (1)

27. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3, 9650 C of charge pass through the electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited on the cathode will be

(1)  1.08 g

(2)  10.8 g

(3)  21.6 g

(4)  108 g

Answer: (2)

28. For the redox reaction,

Zn(s) + Cu2+ (0.1 M) → Zn2+ (1M) + Cu(s) taking place in cell E0cell,  is 1.10 volt. Ecell for the cell will be 

(1)  2.14 V

(2)  1.80 V

(3)  1.07 V

(4)  0.82 V

Answer: (3)

29. In a 0.2molal aqueous solution of a weak acid H X, the degree of ionization is 0.3. Taking kf for water as 85, the freezing point of the solution will be nearest to

(1)  −0.480℃

(2)  −0.360℃

(3)  −0.260℃

(4)  +0.480℃

Answer: (1)

30. The rate law for the reaction between the substances A and B is given by rate = k[A]n [B]m. On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of their reaction will be as

(1)  1/2m+n

(2)  (m + n)

(3)  (n – m)

(4)  2(n – m)

Answer: (4)

31. 25 mL of a solution of barium hydroxide on titration with 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a titre value of 35 mL. The molarity of barium hydroxide solution was

(1)  0.07

(2)  0.14

(3)  0.28

(4)  0.35

Answer: (1)

32. The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is

(1)  ∆G = RT ln Kc

(2)  −∆G = RT in Kc

(3)  ∆G° = RT ln Kc

(4)  −∆G° = RT ln Kc

Answer: (4)

33. If a t 298K the bond energies of C—H, C—C, C = C and H—H bonds are respectively 414, 347, 615 and 435 kJ mol−1, the value of enthalpy change for the reaction

H2C = CH2(g) + H2(g) → H3C —CH3(g) at 298K will be

(1)  +250 kJ

(2)  −250 kJ

(3)  +125 kJ

(4)  −125 kJ

Answer: (4)

34. The enthalpy change for a reaction does not depend upon the

(1)  physical state of reactants and products

(2)  use of different reactants for the same product

(3)  nature of intermediate reaction steps

(4)  difference in initial or final temperatures of involved substances

Answer: (3)

35. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because

(1)  heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space

(2)  boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased

(3)  the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material

(4)  cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature

Answer: (2)

36. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, the

(1)  enthalpy of mixing is zero

(2)  entropy of mixing is zero

(3)  free energy of mixing is zero

(4)  free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero

Answer: (1)

37. For the reaction system,

2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)

volume is suddenly reduced to half its value by increasing the pressure on it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and second order with respect to NO; the rate of reaction will

(1)  diminish to one-fourth of its initial value

(2)  diminish to one-eighth of its initial value

(3)  increase to eight times of its initial value

(4)  increase to four times of its initial value

Answer: (3)

38. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25℃. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25℃ will be

(1)  1 × 10−10

(2)  29.5 × 10−2

(3)  10

(4)  1 × 1010

Answer: (4)

39. In an irreversible process taking place at constant T and p and in which only pressure-volume work is being done, the change in Gibbs free energy (dG) and change in entropy (dS), satisfy the criteria

(1)  (dS)V, E <0, (dG)T, p < 0

(2)  (dS)V, E >0, (dG)T, p < 0

(3)  (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, p = 0

(4)  (dS)V, E = 0, (dG)T, p > 0

Answer: (2)

40. Which one of the following characteristics is not correct for physical adsorption?

(1)  Adsorption on solids is reversible

(2)  Adsorption increase with increase in temperature

(3)  Adsorption is spontaneous

(4)  Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative

Answer: (2)

41. In the respect of the equation  in chemical kinetics. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(1)  k is equilibrium constant

(2)  A is adsorption factor

(3)  Ea is energy of activation

(4)  R is Rydberg constant

Answer: (3)

42. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three metals A, B and C are +0.5V, −3.0 V and −1.2 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals are

(1)  B > C > A

(2)  A > B > C

(3)  C > B > A

(4)  A > C > B

Answer: (1)

43. Which one of the following substances has the highest proton affinity?

(1)  H2O

(2)  H2S

(3)  NH3

(4)  PH3

Answer: (3)

44. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

(1)  ZnO

(2)  Na2O

(3)  SO2

(4)  B2O3

Answer: (1)

45. A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet colored fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is

(1)  (NH4)2Cr2O7

(2)  HgI2

(3)  HgO

(4)  Pb3O4

Answer: (2)

46. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The explanation for it is that

(1)  concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCl gas all the time

(2)  oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCl gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas

(3)  strong affinity of HCl gas for moisture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears like a cloudy smoke

(4)  due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrochloric acid pulls moisture of air towards itself.  This moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud

Answer: (2)

47. The substance used in Holmes signals of the ship is a mixture of

(1)  CaC2 + Ca3P2

(2)  Ca3(PO4)2 + Pb3O4

(3)  H3PO4 + CaCl2

(4)  NH3 + HOCl

Answer: (1)

48. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. Fe = 26) ions is

(1)  3

(2)  4

(3)  5

(4)  6

Answer: (4)

49. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric acid?

(1)  Cr3 + and Cr2O72 are formed

(2)  Cr2O72− and H2O are formed

(3)  CrO42− is reduced to +3 state of Cr

(4)  None of the above

Answer: (2)

50. In the coordination compound, K4[Ni(CN)4], the oxidation state of nickel is

(1)  −1

(2)  0

(3)  +1

(4)  +2

Answer: (2)

51. Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with copper ions in the alkaline solutions but not in acidic solutions. What is the reason for it?

(1)  In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions

(2)  In acidic solutions proton coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH4+ ions and NH3 molecules are not available

(3)  In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali

(4)  Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance

Answer: (2)

52. One mole of the complex compound Co(NH3)5Cl3, gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in water. One mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO3 solution to yield two moles of AgCl(s). The structure of the complex is

(1)  [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(2)  [Co(NH3)3Cl2]∙2NH3

(3)  [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl ∙ NH3

(4)  [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2 ∙ NH3

Answer: (1)

53. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La = 57) is 1.06 Å . Which one of the following given values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ (Atomic number of Lu = 71)?

(1)  1.60 Å

(2)  1.40 Å

(3)  1.06 Å

(4)  0.85 Å

Answer: (4)

54. The radionuclide  undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decays. The atomic number and the mass number respectively of the resulting radionuclide are

(1)  92 and 234

(2)  94 and 230

(3)  90 and 230

(4)  92 and 230

Answer: (3)

55. The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 3 h. If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 h would be

(1)  4.0 g

(2)  8.0 g

(3)  12.0 g

(4)  16.0 g

Answer: (1)

56. Several blocks of magnesium are fixed to the bottom of a ship to

(1)  keep away the sharks

(2)  make the ship lighter

(3)  prevent action of water and salt

(4)  prevent puncturing by under-sea rocks

Answer: (2)

57. In curing cement plasters water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in

(1)  keeping it cool

(2)  developing interlocking needle-like crystals of hydrated silicates

(3)  hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement

(4)  converting sand into silicic acid

Answer: (2)

58. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(1)  The conjugate base of H2PO4 is HPO42

(2)  pH + pOH = 14 for all aqueous solutions

(3)  The pH of 1 × 10−8 M HCl is 8

(4)  96,500 C of electricity when passed through a CuSO4 solution deposit 1g equivalent of copper at the cathode

Answer: (3)

59. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH is

(1)  CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH

(2)  (CH3)2NH < NH3 < CH3NH2

(3)  NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH

(4)  CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3

Answer: (3)

60. Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with

(1)  Zn-HCl

(2)  Sn-HCl

(3)  Zn-Hg

(4)  Pd/H2

Answer: (4)

61. The solubilities of carbonates decrease down the magnesium group due to a decrease in

(1)  lattice energies of solids

(2)  hydration energies of cations

(3)  inter-ionic attraction

(4)  entropy of solution formation

Answer: (2)

62. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with concentrated H2SO4 the initiation step is

(1)  protonation of alcohol molecule

(2)  formation of carbocation

(3)  elimination of water

(4)  formation of an ester

Answer: (1)

63. Which one of the following nitrates will leave behind a metal on strong heating?

(1)  Ferric nitrate

(2)  Copper nitrate

(3)  Manganese nitrate

(4)  Silver nitrate

Answer: (4)

64. When rain is accompanied is by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have a pH value

(1)  slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm

(2)  slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there

(3)  uninfluenced by occurrence of thunderstorm

(4)  which depends on the amount of dust in air

Answer: (1)

65. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives

(1)  D-fructose

(2)  D-ribose

(3)  D-glucose

(4)  L-glucose

Answer: (3)

66. For making good quality mirrors, plates of float glass are used. These are obtained by floating molten glass over a liquid metal which does not solidify before glass. The metal used can be

(1)  mercury

(2)  tin

(3)  sodium

(4)  magnesium

Answer: (1)

67. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is

(1)  a marble statue

(2)  calcined gypsum

(3)  sea shells

(4)  dolomite

Answer: (2)

68. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

(1)  van der Waal’s forces

(2)  dipole-dipole interaction

(3)  hydrogen bonding

(4)  electrostatic attractions

Answer: (3)

69. Bottles containing C6H5I and C6H5CH2I lost their original labels. They were labelled A and B for testing. A and B were separately taken in a test tube and boiled with NaOH solution. The end solution in each tube was made acidic with dilute HNO3 and then some AgNO3 solution was added. Substance B gave a yellow precipitate. Which one of the following statements is true for this experiment?

(1)  A was C6H5I

(2)  A was C6H5CH2I

(3)  B was C6H5I

(4)  Addition of HNO3 was necessary

Answer: (1)

70. Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates

(1)  ethylamine salt and methanoic acid

(2)  propanoic acid and ammonium salt

(3)  ethanoic acid and ammonium salt

(4)  methylamide salt and ethanoic acid

Answer: (1)

71. The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/ mol. If the system goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path, what would be the net change in internal energy

(1)  40 kJ

(2)  > 40 kJ

(3)  < 40 kJ

(4)  zero

Answer: (4)

72. The reaction of chloroform with alcoholic KOH and p-toluidine form

(1) 

(2) 

(3) 

(4) 

Answer: (4)

73. Nylon threads are made of

(1)  polyvinyl polymer

(2)  polyester polymer

(3)  polyamide polymer

(4)  polyethylene polymer

Answer: (3)

74. On mixing a certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, it forms only one monochloroalkane. This alkane could be

(1)  propane

(2)  pentane

(3)  isopentane

(4)  neopentane

Answer: (4)

75. Which of the following could act as a propellant for rockets?

(1)  Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen

(2)  Liquid oxygen + liquid argon

(3)  Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen

(4)  Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen

Answer: (3)

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