JEE MAIN (AIEEE) Past Exam Paper -2005
Chemistry
1. The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+ is
(1) 0
(2) +1
(3) +2
(4) +3
2. Which one of the following types of drugs reduces fever?
(1) Tranquiliser
(2) Antibiotic
(3) Antipyretic
(4) Analgesic
3. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character?
(1) SnO2
(2) CaO
(3) SiO2
(4) CO2
4. Which one of the following species is diamagnetic in nature?
(1) H2−
(2) H2
(3) H2+
(4) He2+
5. If α is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is
(1) 1 − 2α
(2) 1 + α
(3) 1 – α
(4) 1 + 2α
6. Which of the following is a polyamide?
(1) Nylon-66
(2) Terylene
(3) Teflon
(4) Bakelite
7. Due to the presence of an unpaired electron, free radicals are
(1) anions
(2) chemically reactive
(3) chemically inactive
(4) cations
8. For a spontaneous reaction the ∆G, equilibrium constant (K) and E°cell will be respectively
(1) −ve, > 1, −ve
(2) −ve, < 1, −ve
(3) +ve, > 1, −ve
(4) −ve, > 1, +ve
9. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of
(1) nuclear fission
(2) natural radioactivity
(3) nuclear fusion
(4) artificial radioactivity
10. An ionic compound has a unit cell consisting of A ions at the corners of a cube and B ions on the centres of the faces of the cube. The empirical formula for this compound would be
(1) A2B
(2) AB
(3) A3B
(4) AB3
11. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of
(1) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(2) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
(3) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
(4) 0.1 M acetic acid
12. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon
(1) charge on the ion only
(2) size of the ion only
(3) charge on the ion and size of the ion
(4) packing of ions only
13. Consider an endothermic reaction X → Y with the activation energies Eb and Ef for the backward and forward reactions respectively. In general
(1) there is no definite relation between Eb and Ef
(2) Eb = Ef
(3) Eb > Ef
(4) Eb < Ef
14. Aluminium oxide may be electrolysed at 1000℃ to furnish aluminium metal (Atomic mass = 27 u; 1 F = 96, 500 C). The cathode reactions is Al3+ + 3e− → Al0. To prepare 5.12 kg of aluminium metal by this method would require
(1) 5.49 × 101 C of electricity
(2) 5.49 × 104 C of electricity
(3) 1.83 × 107 C of electricity
(4) 5.49 × 107 C of electricity
15. The volume of a colloidal particle, VC as compared to the volume of a solute particle in a true solution VS, could be
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
16. Consider the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 carried out at constant temperature and pressure. If ∆H and ∆U are the enthalpy and internal energy changes for the reaction, which of the following expressions is true?
(1) ∆H > ∆U
(2) ∆H < ∆U
(3) ∆H = ∆U
(4) ∆H = 0
17. The solubility product of a salt having general formula MX2, in water is 4 × 10−12. The concentration of M2+ ions in the aqueous solution of the salt is
(1) 1.0 × 10−4 M
(2) 2.0 × 10−6 M
(3) 1.6 × 10−4 M
(4) 4.0 × 10−10 M
18. Benzene and toluene form nearly ideal solutions. At 20℃, the vapor pressure of benzene is 75 Torr and that of toluene is 22 Torr. The partial vapor pressure of benzene at 20℃ for a solution containing 78 g of benzene and 46 g of toluene in Torr is
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 53.5
(4) 37.5
19. Which one of the following statements is not true about the effect of an increase in temperature on the distribution of molecular speeds in a gas?
(1) The fraction of the molecules with the most probable speed increases
(2) The distribution becomes broader
(3) The most probable speed increases
(4) The area under the distribution curve remains the same as under the lower temperature
20. For reaction
2NO2 (g) ⇌ 2 NO (g) + O2 (g)
(Kc = 1.8 × 10−6 at 184℃)
(R = 0.00831 kJ/(mol. K)
When Kp and Kc are compared at 184℃ it is found that
(1) whether Kp is greater than , less than or equal to Kc depends upon the total gas pressure
(2) Kp = Kc
(3) Kp is less than Kc
(4) Kp is greater than Kc
21. The exothermic formation of ClF3 is represented by the equation
Cl2 (g) + 3 F2(g) ⇌ 2 ClF3 (g); ∆Hr = −329 kJ
Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium of Cl2, F2 and ClF3?
(1) Adding F2
(2) Removing Cl2
(3) Increasing the volume of the container
(4) Increasing the temperature
22. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH = 5.4 will be
(1) 3.98 × 10−6
(2) 3.68 × 10−6
(3) 3.88 × 106
(4) 3.98 × 108
23. A reaction involving two different reactants can never be
(1) first order reaction
(2) bimolecular reaction
(3) second order reaction
(4) unimolecular reaction
24. Two solutions of a substance (non electrolyte) are mixed in the following manner.
480 mL of 1.5 M first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution.
What is the molarity of the final mixture?
(1) 2.70 M
(2) 1.20 M
(3) 1.344 M
(4) 1.50 M
25. During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are
(1) Fe and Ni
(2) Ag and Au
(3) Pb and Zn
(4) Se and Ag
26. 
Calculate 
using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution in H2O at 25℃
(1) 217.5
(2) 390.7
(3) 552.7
(4) 517.2
27. If we consider that 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon atom is taken to be the relative atomic mass unit, the mass of one mole of a substance will
(1) increase two fold
(2) remain unchanged
(3) be a function of the molecular mass of the substance
(4) decrease twice
28. In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum numbers will have the same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields?
(A) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 (B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
(C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
(E) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0
(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (C) and (D)
(3) (D) and (E)
(4) (B) and (C)
29. Based on lattice energy and other considerations which one of the following alkali metal chlorides is expected to have the highest melting point?
(1) RbCl
(2) LiCl
(3) KCl
(4) NaCl
30. A schematic plot of ln Keq versus inverse of temperature for a is shown below
The reaction must be
(1) highly spontaneous at ordinary temperature
(2) endothermic
(3) one with negligible enthalpy change
(4) exothermic
31. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give
(1) Cu2SO3
(2) CuO + CuS
(3) Cu + SO3
(4) Cu + SO2
32. The molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
(1) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively
(2) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively
(3) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons on the central atoms, respectively
(4) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of electrons on the central atom, respectively
33. The disperse phase in colloidal iron (III) hydroxide and colloidal gold is positively and negatively charged, respectively. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Coagulation in both sols can be brought about by electrophoresis
(2) Magnesium chloride solution coagulates, the gold sol more readily than the iron (III) hydroxide sol.
(3) Sodium sulphate solution causes coagulation in both sols
(4) Mixing the sols has no effect
34. The number of hydrogen atom(s) attached to phosphorus atom in hypophosphorous acid is
(1) zero
(2) three
(3) two
(4) one
35. What is the conjugate base of OH−?
(1) O2−
(2) O2
(3) H2O
(4) O−
36. Heating an aqueous solution of aluminium chloride to dryness will give
(1) Al2Cl6
(2) Al(OH)Cl2
(3) AlCl3
(4) Al2O3
37. The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halides (H – X) is
(1) HI > HCl < HF > HBr
(2) HCl < HF > HBr < HI
(3) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
38. Calomel (Hg2Cl2) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives
(1) Hg2O
(2) NH2—Hg—Hg—Cl
(3) HgNH2Cl
(4) HgO
39. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in calcium carbide are
(1) two sigma, two pi
(2) two sigma, one pi
(3) one sigma, one pi
(4) one sigma, two pi
40. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and acidified potassium dichromate solution is
(1) +3
(2) +4
(3) +6
(4) +2
41. In silicon dioxide
(1) there are double bonds between silicon and oxygen atoms
(2) silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms
(3) each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bounded to two silicon atoms
(4) each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon atoms
42. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(1) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
(2) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(3) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(4) Zr and Y have about the same radius
43. The IUPAC name of the coordination compound K3[Fe(CN)6] is
(1) Tripotassium hexacyanoiron (II)
(2) Potassium hexacyanoiron (II)
(3) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(4) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
44. In which of the following arrangements the order is not according to the property indicated against it?
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb: Increasing metallic radius
(2) I < Br < F < Cl: Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
(3) B < C < N < O: Increasing first ionization enthalpy
(4) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F−: Increasing ionic size
45. Of the following sets which one does not contain isoelectronic species?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
46. 2-methylbutane on reacting with bromine in the presence of sunlight gives mainly
(1) 2- bromo -3-methylbutane
(2) 2- bromo -2-methylbutane
(3) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
(4) 1- bromo -2-methylbutane
47. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(2) [ZnCl4]2−
(3) [Co(CN)6 ]3−
(4) [Cr(C2O4)3]3−
48. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behaviour?
(1) [Mn(CN)6] 3−
(2) [Cr(CN)6] 3−
(3) [Fe(CN)6] 3−
(4) [Co(CN)6]3−
49. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into pent-3-en-2-one is
(1) pyridinium chloro-chromate
(2) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(3) acidic dichromate
(4) acidic permanganate
50. A photon of hard gamma radiation knocks a proton out of 
nucleus to form
(1) the isobar of 
(2) the nuclide
(3) the isobar of parent nucleus
(4) the isotope of parent nucleus
51. Reaction of one molecule of HBr with one molecule of 1, 3-butadiene at 40℃ gives predominantly
(1) 1-bromo-2-butene under kinetically controlled conditions
(2) 3-bromobutene under thermodynamically controlled conditions
(3) 1-bromo-2-butene under thermodynamically controlled conditions
(4) 3-bromobutene under kinetically controlled conditions
52. The decreasing order of nucelophilicity among the nucelophiles
(1) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(2) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)
53. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substation by SN2 mechanism because of
(1) steric hindrance
(2) inductive effect
(3) instability
(4) insolubility
54. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at
(1) C’5 and C’1 respectively of the sugar molecule
(2) C’1 and C’5 respectively of the sugar molecule
(3) C2’ and C’5 respectively of the sugar molecule
(4) C’5 and C’2 respectively of the sugar molecule
55. Among the following acids which has the lowest pKa value ?
(1) CH3CH2COOH
(2) (CH3)2CH−COOH
(3) HCOOH
(4) CH3COOH
56. Of the five isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can give two monochlorinated compounds is
(1) 2-methylpentane
(2) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
(3) 2, 3-dimethylbutane
(4) n-hexane
57. Alkyl halides react with dialkyl copper reagents to give
(1) alkenyl halides
(2) alkanes
(3) alkyl copper halides
(4) alkenes
58. Which one of the following methods is neither meant of the synthesis nor for separation of amines?
(1) Curtius reaction
(2) Wurtz reaction
(3) Hofmann method
(4) Hinsberg method
59. Which types of isomerism is shown by 2, 3-dichlorobutane?
(1) Structural
(2) Geometric
(3) Optical
(4) Diastereo
60. Amongst the following the most basic compound is
(1) p-nitroaniline
(2) acetanilide
(3) aniline
(4) benzylamine
61. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(1) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
(2) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
(3) secondary or teritiary alcohol
(4) primary alcohol
62. Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer?
(1) PVC
(2) Thiokol
(3) Teflon
(4) Neoprene
63. Elimination of bromine from 2-bromobutane results in the formation of
(1) predominantly 2-butyne
(2) predominantly 1-butene
(3) predominantly 2-butene
(4) equimolar mixture of 1 and 2-butene
64. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
(1) different boiling and different freezing points
(2) same boiling and same freezing points
(3) same freezing point but different boiling point
(4) same boiling point but different freezing point
65. The reaction
is fastest when X is
(1) OCOR
(2) OC2H5
(3) NH2
(4) Cl
66. The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains
(1) four 2C-2e−bonds and four 3C-2e−bonds
(2) two 2C-2e−bonds and two 3C-3e−bonds
(3) two 2C-2e−bonds and four 3C-2e−bonds
(4) four 2C-2e−bonds and two 3C-2e−bonds
67. Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct ?
(1) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same energy
(2) 3s and 3p orbitals are of lower energy than 3d orbital
(3) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
(4) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
68. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the main cause of lanthanide contraction?
(1) Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons
(2) Poorer shielding of 5d electron by 4f electrons
(3) Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons by another in the sub-shell
(4) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in the sub-shell
69. The value of the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM. The correct one is
(1) d5 ( in strong ligand field)
(2) d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(3) d4 (in weak ligand field)
(4) d4 (in strong ligand field)
70. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a compound. Water during the reaction is continuously removed. The compound formed is generally known as
(1) an amine
(2) an imine
(3) an enamine
(4) a Schiff’s base
71. p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds hydrogen cyanide to form, the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
72. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X2 and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of 1:1:0.5 and ∆Hf for the formation of XY is −200 kJ mol−1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) 400 kJ mol−1
(2) 300 kJ mol−1
(3) 200 kJ mol−1
(4) None of these
73. An amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. Ammonium hydrogen sulphide decomposes to yield NH3 and H2S gases in the flask. When the decomposition reaction reaches equilibrium, the total pressure in the flask rises to 0.84 atm? The equilibrium constant for NH4HS decomposition at this temperature is
(1) 0.11
(2) 0.17
(3) 0.18
(4) 0.30
74. An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is found to contain C = 20%, H = 6.67% and N = 46.67% while rest is oxygen. On heating it gives NH3 alongwith a solid residue. The solid residue give violet color with alkaline copper sulphate solution. The compounds is
(1) CH3CH2CONH2
(2) (NH2)2CO
(3) CH3CONH2
(4) CH3NCO
75. t1/4 can be taken as the time taken for the concentration of a reactant to drop to 3/4 of its initial value. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the t1/4 can be written as
(1) 0.75/k
(2) 0.69/k
(3) 0.29/k
(4) 0.10/k
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