JIPMER PG Medical Entrance Examination-2013
ANATOMY
1. One of the following structure develops from 3rd pharyngeal pouch
(a) Superior parathyroid
(b) Thymus
(c) Parafollicular cells
(d) Thyroid gland
2. Vestibule of vagina develops from
(a) Genital ridge
(b) Wolffian duct
(c) Urogenital sinus
(d) Mullerian duct
3. Melanocytes are derived from
(a) Ectoderm
(b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Neural crest
4. The ganglion of one of the following cranial nerve is derived from neural crest cell
(a) VI
(b) VII
(c) VIII
(d) X
5. Superficial branch of ulnar nerve supplies
(a) Adductor pollicis
(b) Abductor digiti minimi
(c) Opponens digiti minimi
(d) Palmaris brevis
6. Root of mesentery crosses all except
(a) Second part to duodenum
(b) Abdominal aorta
(c) Inferior vena cava
(d) Right ureter
7. Common bile duct
(a) Lies right to hepatic artery
(b) Lies left of portal vein
(c) Lies posterior to hepatic artery
(d) Lies left to hepatic artery
8. Not a perineal muscle
(a) Ischiocavernosus
(b) Puborectalis
(c) Bulbospongiosus
(d) Transverse perineii
9. Abductor of vocal cord is
(a) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(b) Cricothyroid
(c) Interarytenoid
(d) Lateral cricoarytenoid
10. Abductor of vocal cord is
(a) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(b) Cricothyroid
(c) Interartytenoid
(d) Lateral cricaorytenoid
11. All the following muscles are closers of jaw except
(a) Medial pterygoid
(b) Masseter
(c) Temporalis
(d) Mylohyoid
12. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
(a) Curse through the groove between oesophagus and trachea
(b) Pure motor nerve
(c) Arises from vagus as it crosses first part of subclavian artery
(d) Supplied cricothyroid
13. True regarding parotid gland
(a) Mucinous gland
(b) Covered by a thick fascia which is derived from deep cervical fascia
(c) Facial nerve exits the gland anteromedially before dividing into 5 branches.
(d) Receives secretomotor fibres from vagus nerve
14. False regarding chorda tympani
(a) Contains motor nerves that supplies facial muscles
(b) Contains scretomotor nerves that supplies salivary gland
(c) Contains sensory neurons that supplies anterior 2/3rd of tongue
(d) Passes through the petrotympanic fissure.
15. All the following veins drain into internal jugular vein except
(a) Facial vein
(b) Lingual vein
(c) Retromandibular vein
(d) Superior thyroid vein
16. 5th cranial nerve-true are all except
(a) Arises from midbrain
(b) Provides sensory innervating to whole face
(c) Innervates muscles of mastication
(d) Supplied parasympathetic fibres to salivary glands
17. The hard calcified part of tooth is called as
(a) Dentine
(b) Enamel
(c) Cementum
(d) Neck
18. Not a part of medial wall of orbit
(a) Frontal bone
(b) Ethmoid bone
(c) Lesser wing of sphenoid
(d) Tip of maxilla
19. The following structure is transmitted via foramen ovale
(a) Greater petrosal nerve
(b) Mandibular nerve
(c) Occulomotor nerve
(d) Sympathetic nerve fibrers
20. CSF
(a) Formed mainly in choroid plexus
(b) 10% drain into cerebral lymphatics
(c) Flow from lateral ventricles through aqueduct to third ventricle
(d) Mostly found in skull bones than in spine
21. Regarding pituitary- false is
(a) 2cmin diameter
(b) Receives blood supply from circle of Willis
(c) Entirely ectodermal in origin
(d) Connected to thalamus by infundibulum.
PHYSIOLOGY
22. The factor that does not affect the diffusion of substance through the cell membrane is
(a) Distribution of channels for the substance in the membrane
(b) Lipid solubility of the membrane
(c) Molecular size of the substance
(d) ATP generating capacity on both sides of membrane
23. True for skeletal muscle
(a) Troponin-I tropomyosin complex stimulates muscle contraction.
(b) Myosin-ADP-Pi complex has low affinity for calcium
(c) ATP hydrolysis to ADP + Pi in resting muscle
(d) Myosin detaches from actin when ATP levels decreases.
24. Not a RBC membrane protein
(a) Spectrin
(b) Ankyrin
(c) Nebulin
(d) Glycophorin
25. Platelet aggregation is promoted b y all except
(a) Thrombospondin
(b) Prostacyclin
(c) Plasmin
(d) Platelet activating factor
Ans: (b)
[/bg_collapse]
26. Bile acids are all except
(a) Lithocholic acid
(b) Taurocholic acid
(c) Deoxy cholic acid
(d) Chenodexycholic acid
27. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased by all except
(a) Decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure
(b) Increased tubular hydrostatic pressure
(c) Decreased effective filtration surface area
(d) decreased plasma protein levels
Ans: (d)
[/bg_collapse]
28. True regarding insulin
(a) Made of 2 chains linked by 3 disulphide bonds
(b) Synthesized by alpha cells of islet fo Langerhans
(c) Elimination half life is 60 mins after subcutaneous injection
(d) Circulated in blood by binding with globulin
29. True about potassium- All except
(a) Mostly concentrated inside the cells
(b) Plasma concentration increases at time of metabolic acidosis
(c) Leaves the cell in the presence of insulin
(d) Ingestion of acetazolamide results in potassium loss
30. Effects of corticosteroids are all except
(a) Decreases the amount of lymphatic cells in spleen and lymph nodes
(b) Inhibits the peripheral utilization of glucose
(c) Promotes breakdown of proteins
(d) Decreases the catabolism of immunoglobulins
31. Androgen not secreted by testis
(a) Dehydroepiandrostenedione
(b) Dihydrotestosterone
(c) Testosterone
(d) Androstenedione
32. The cardiovascular parameter which is a best indicator off vagal tone?
(a) Ejection fraction
(b) Stroke volume
(c) Heart rate
(d) Diastolic blood pressure
33. False regarding ECG
(a) QRS is due to ventricular repolarization
(b) In normal conditions, QRS is < 0.12 seconds
(c) T wave is due to ventricular repolarization
(d) Prolonged PR interval is seen in second degree heart block
34. The shift of the oxygen dissociation curve to the left is facilitated by all except
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) Decrease in pH
(c) Decrease in 2, 3DPG
(d) Fetal hemoglobin
35. The major role of 2, 3 DPG in RBC is
(a) Acid base balance
(b) Reversal of glycolysis
(c) Release of O2
(d) Binding of O2
36. Carbondioxide in venous blood
(a) Is carried by hemoglobin
(b) Converted to bicarbonate by carbonic anhydrase in plasma
(c) Transported mainly in the form of bicarbonate
(d) Carbondioxide does not cross the blood brain barrier.
37. Myelination has all functions except
(a) Increases speed of conduction
(b) Decreases energy expenditure
(c) Provides protective covering for the axon
(d) Decreases the release of neurotransmitter from the nerve endings
38. Cerebellar white matter is well myelinated at
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
39. Not true regarding withdrawal (flexion) reflex
(a) Polysynaptic reflex
(b) Has long latency
(c) Afferents are Ia fibers
(d) Response is non linear and usually widespread
40. Sympathetic stimulation causes
(a) Pupillary constriction
(b) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction
(c) Vasoconstriction of skin and mucus membranes
(d) Contractions of bladder detrusor
41. Increased neutrophil in acute exercise is due to
(a) Increased secretion of colony stimulating factors
(b) Disruption of margination of leucocytes
(c) Hemoconcentration
(d) Hypoxia induced by exercise
BIOCHEMISTRY
42. Peptidyl transferase is an example for
(a) Enzyme
(b) Catalyst
(c) Ribozyme
(d) Elongation factor
43. Fatty liver in kwashiorkor in children is due to
(a) High fat content in the diet
(b) Lack of substrates fro protein synthesis in liver
(c) Lack of substrates for gluconeogenesis in liver
(d) High carbohydrate content
44. The autocatalytic cleavage enzyme among the following is
(a) Proelastase
(b) Procarboxylase
(c) Pepsinogen
(d) Chymotrypsinogen
45. False regarding cytochrome p450
(a) Found in bone marrow
(b) Responsible for converting lipophilic molecules to hydrophilic molecules
(c) Involved in first pass metabolism
(d) Essential for analgesic effect of codeine
46. Phase-II metabolic reactions are characterized by all except
(a) Involved conjugation reactions
(b) Decreases water solubility
(c) Underdeveloped in neonates
(d) Results in drug excretion by the kidneys or liver
47. All are seen after 24 hours of fasting except
(a) Lipolysis
(b) Muscle break down
(c) Hepatic gluconeogenesis
(d) Blood glucose concentration is maintained
48. The characteristic feature following acute ingestion of alcohol is
(a) Activation of fatty acid oxidation
(b) Lactic acidosis
(c) Inhibition of ketogenesis
(d) Increase in gluconeogenesis
49. Patient with abetalipoproteinemia frequently manifests with delayed blood clotting. This is due to inability to
(a) Produce chylomicrons
(b) Produce VLDL
(c) Synthesize clotting factors
(d) Synthesize fatty acids
50. Most common inherited defect of urea cycle
(a) Ornithine transcarbomylase
(b) Arginase
(c) Arginosuccinate Lyase
(d) Carbamoyl phosphate synthase
51. Northern blotting – true all except
(a) Used to detect DNA molecules
(b) Involves electrophoresis
(c) Requires hybridization probes
(d) Requires restriction endonucleases
PHARMACOLOGY
52. True regarding drug metabolism
(a) Lipid soluble beta antagonists cause bad dreams when compared to water soluble beta antagonists.
(b) Drugs with high affinity for plasma proteins have larger volume of distribution
(c) Converts water soluble drugs to lipid soluble drugs
(d) Renal failure significantly increases the plasma protein binding.
53. Histamine casues
(a) Bronchodilatation
(b) Increases gastric acid secretion
(c) Vasoconstriction
(d) Negative chronotropic effect
54. All are true regarding prostaglandins
(a) Made of 20 carbon unsaturated fatty acids
(b) Thromboxane A2 is involved in vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation
(c) Causes pain when applied directly on nerve endings
(d) Leukotrienes cause vasoconstriction and increases vascular permeability
55. Prostaglandin analogue used to treat postpartum hemorrhage that is not responding to conventional methods is
(a) Alprostadil
(b) Carboprost
(c) Isoprost
(d) Lantanoprost
56. True regarding β-blockers
(a) Negatively ionotropic and chronotropic
(b) Commonly indicated for postural hypotension
(c) Decreases glucagon secretion
(d) Those with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity are less likely to cause bradycardia.
57. The anti cholinergic agent used for overactive bladder treatment which is associated with increased incidence of xerostomia is
(a) Trospium
(b) Tolterodine
(c) Oxybutynin
(d) Solifenacin
58. Proton pump inhibitors decreases the antiplatelet action of which of the following anti platelet agents when co administered together?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ticlopidine
(c) Clopidogrel
(d) Prasugrel
59. GI motility is inhibited by all except
(a) Nitroglycerine
(b) Verapamil
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Botulinum toxin
60. Glucagon hydrochloride is used as a antidote in the poisoning of
(a) Calcium channel blockers
(b) Sodium channel blockers
(c) Cardiac glycosides
(d) Beta blockers
61. Fentanyl at a dose of 50-150mcg/kg causes
(a) Potent cardiac depression
(b) Ciliary body contraction
(c) Causes paralysis of iris dilator muscle
(d) Decreases sweating
62. False regarding cocaine
(a) Causes tachycardia and hypertension
(b) Does not cause muscle rigidity
(c) Elimination half life is more than 3 hours
(d) Not enough to relieve stress response to surgery
63. Enthanol is used in ethylene glycol poisoning because ethanol is a
(a) Competitive inhibitor of NADPH oxidase
(b) Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
(c) Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase
(d) Non competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase
64. The drug used in the Rx of both type-I & type-II diabetes mellitus is
(a) Exenatide
(b) Liraglutide
(c) Pioglitazone
(d) Pramlintide
65. Action of antibiotics are all except
(a) Sulphonamides interfere with folic acid synthesis
(b) Metronidazole interferes with DNA synthesis
(c) Chloramphenicol inhibits protein synthesis
(d) Tetracyclines inhibit cell wall synthesis
66. The antimicrobial agent that potentiates the effect of neuro muscular blocker as like curare is
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Clindamycin
(c) Daptomycin
(d) Vancomycin
MICROBIOLOGY
67. In Gram’s staining, all are used except
(a) Congo red
(b) Iodine
(c) Crystal violet
(d) Alcohol
68. Wrong statement regarding culture media in microbiology
(a) Blood sugar is best for anaerobic organism
(b) Chocolate agar is best for hemophilic organism
(c) Lowenstein-Jenson media is best for mycobacteria
(d) McConkey agar is best for gram negative enteric pathogens
69. All are live vaccines except
(a) Measles vaccine
(b) BCG vaccine
(c) Salk’s vaccine
(d) Yellow fever vaccine
70. Macrophages – false statement
(a) Derived from blood monocytes
(b) Can harbor mycobacteria
(c) Involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions
(d) Produce Tumor necrosis factor and interleukins
71. Antibody that is produced rapidly and in high amounts during secondary response
(a) IgM
(b) IgG
(c) IgA
(d) IgM and IgG
72. Cells that are identified by the presence of immunoglobulins on the surface are
(a) Neutrophils
(b) B cells
(c) Nk cells
(d) Monocytes
73. Not true regarding NK cells
(a) Active against malignant cells
(b) Involve MHC antigen for killing microorganisms
(c) First line defence against viral infections
(d) No prior sensitization required
74. Class II MHC protein is expressed in all except
(a) Activated T cells
(b) Dendritic cells
(c) Langerhan’s cells
(d) Neutrophils
75. Type 2 lepra reaction is an example of
(a) Type I Hypersensitivity
(b) Type II Hypersensitivity
(c) Type III Hypersensitivity
(d) Type IV Hypersensitivity
76. Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(a) Causes deeper infections more frequently than skin & soft tissue infections
(b) Transmitted via the air-conditioning system
(c) Pulse field gel electrophoresis is useful in the investigation of an outbreak
(d) Resistant to iodine solution
77. Non motile bacteria
(a) Salmonella
(b) Klebsiella
(c) Citrobacter
(d) Escherichia
78. Aerogenic variants of Shigella are seen in the biotypes of
(a) Shigella dysentriae
(b) Shigell flexneri
(c) Shigella sonnei
(d) Shigella boydii
79. In tuberculosis, the cytokine playing major role in the conversion of tissue macrophages into epithelioid cells
(a) Interferon γ
(b) Tumor necrosis factor
(c) Interleukin 12
(d) Macrophage chemoattractant protein
80. Exclusive skin pathogen among Mycobacteria
(a) M. xenopi
(b) M. fortuitum
(c) M. szulgai
(d) M. marinum
81. Not a feature of Hutchinson’s triad
(a) Interstitial keratitis
(b) Notched incisors
(c) Deafness
(d) Cataract
82. All are true regarding CMV except
(a) Double stranded DNA virus
(b) Rarely causes problems inn immunecompetent persons
(c) Foscarnet can eliminate CMV
(d) Retinitis rare when CD4 countd > 200/mm3
83. The following viruses are transmitted via blood transfusion except
(a) Parvovirus B-19
(b) Dengue virus
(c) CMV
(d) Hepatitis G virus
84. Pathogenic cryptococci differ from non pathogenic strains by all the following criteria except
(a) Produces urease
(b) Grow at 37℃
(c) Pathogenic for mice
(d) Ferment carbohydrates
PATHOLOGY
85. Apoptosis- all are true except
(a) Normal physiological process of programmed cell death
(b) Results in products that are removed by phagocytosis
(c) Plasma membrane undergoes zeiosis
(d) Causes inflammation that damage the surrounding cells
86. Caspases are involved in
(a) Necrosis
(b) Apoptosis
(c) Cell injury
(d) Phagocytosis
87. The following mediators of acute inflammation are derived from cells except
(a) Kinins
(b) Leukotriene
(c) Cytokine
(d) Histamine
88. Inheritance of familial hypercholesterolemia is
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive
89. Genetic conditions with increased risk for cancers are all except
(a) Neurofibromatosis 1
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Down syndrome
(d) Chromosome 13 deletion
90. Pathogenetic mechanism of HPV in cervical carcinoma
(a) Downregulation of p16INK4 protein
(b) Degradation of cylcin D1
(c) Genomic instability of E6 an dE7
(d) UP regulation of BCL2
91. Paraneoplastic syndrome not associated with any kind of antibody
(a) Limbic encephalopathy
(b) Necrotizing myelopathy
(c) Eaton Lambert syndrome
(d) Stiff Pearson syndrome
92. Amyloidosis – false statement
(a) Extracellular eosinophilic hyaline material
(b) Made of calcified proteins
(c) Apple green birefringence in polarized light
(d) Complication of chronic infections
93. The following are used in the treatment of Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura a/e
(a) Plasmapheresis
(b) Corticosteroids
(c) Immunotherapy
(d) Platelet transfusion
94. Lymphoma associated with translocation of c-myc gene on chromosome 8 is
(a) Burkitt lymphoma
(b) Follicular lymphoma
(c) Mantle cell lymphoma
(d) Anaplastic large cell lymphoma
95. The following are good prognostic factors for childhood ALL except
(a) Hyperdiploidy
(b) Female sex
(c) Pre B cell ALL
(d) +(12:21) translocation
96. Multiple myeloma – all are true except
(a) Proteinuria
(b) Visual disturbances
(c) Bleeding tendency
(d) Dystrophic calcification
97. Bence-Jones proteins are derived from
(a) Alpha globulins
(b) Beta globulins
(c) Gamma globulins
(d) Delta Globulins
98. Malignancy associated with Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
(a) Mycosis fungoides
(b) Smouldering myeloma
(c) Primary effusion lymphoma
(d) Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
99. Mac Callam plaques in rheumatic heart disease are seen in
(a) Right atrium
(b) Right ventricle
(c) Left atrium
(d) Left ventricle
100. Typical histological change in benign hypertension
(a) Intimal proliferation and hyalinization of muscular media of medium sized arteries/arterioles
(b) Fibrinoid necrosis of small sized arteries/arterioles
(c) Loss of endothelial cells of arterioles
(d) Formation of new vessels
101. Adenocarcinoma is the most common type of lung cancer in females and in nonsmokers. The immunohistochemical marker used for detection adenocarcinoma of lung is
(a) Thyroid transcription factor
(b) Glial fibrillary acidic protein
(c) Progesterone receptor
(d) Alpha fetoprotein
102. Paraneoplastic syndromes are most commonly associated with
(a) Bronchial adenocarcinoma
(b) Broncho-alveolar carcinoma
(c) Small cell carcinoma
(d) Bronchial carcinoid
103. Glomerulonephritis which is least likely to cause chronic renal failure
(a) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
(b) Membranous glomerulonephritis
(c) Membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis
(d) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
104. Demonstration of the following histological finding in the resected kidney indicate the presence of Wilms tumor in the contralateral kidney
(a) Blastemal component
(b) Nephrogenic rests
(c) Skeletal muscle differentiation
(d) Abnormal mitotic figures
FORNESIC MEDICINE
105. As per MCI regulations, a medical practitioner should maintain the records of in patients for a minimum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
106. Florence test for seminal stains tests for the presence of
(a) Spermine
(b) Choline
(c) Inositol
(d) Aluminium molybdate
107. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue line on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and loss of appetite. Diagnosis
(a) Arsenic poisoning
(b) Lead poisoning
(c) Mercury poisoning
(d) Phosphorus poisoning
108. Drug used for Narcoanalysis
(a) Atropine
(b) Pethidine
(c) Phenobarbitone
(d) Scopolamine
ENT
109. In Tympanometry, tone used is _____ Hz
(a) 220
(b) 320
(c) 120
(d) 256
110. The artery which is not a part of Kiesselbach plexus
(a) Superior labial
(b) Anterior ethmoidal
(c) Greater palatine
(d) Infraorbital
111. Osteomas are most commonly seen in
(a) Maxillary sinus
(b) Frontal sinus
(c) Sphenoid sinus
(d) Ethmoid sinus
112. Extent of retropharyngeal space
(a) Base of skull to diaphragm
(b) Base of skull to thoracic inlet
(c) Base of skull to bifurcation of trachea
(d) Base of skull to post cricoids cartilage
113. Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cords is seen in
(a) Malignancy
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Rhinoscleroma
114. Mid tracheostomy is done through the ______ tracheal rings
(a) 1st and 2nd
(b) 2nd and 3rd
(c) 3rd and 4th
(d) 5th and 6th
OPHTHALMOLOGY
115. Laser in situ keratomilieusis (LASIK) uses
(a) Ns-YAG laser
(b) Excimer laser
(c) CO2 laser
(d) Frequency doubled YAG laser
116. Posterior staphyloma is associated with
(a) Closed angle glaucoma
(b) Uveoscleritis
(c) Pseudocornea
(d) Pathological myopia
117. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is usually due to
(a) Rigid gas permeable contact lens
(b) Soft hydrophilic contact lens
(c) Acrylic ball implants
(d) Pegged implants
118. Goniotomy is most effective in
(a) Juvenile primary open angle glaucoma
(b) Adult primary open angle glaucoma
(c) Congenital glaucoma
(d) Adult primary closed angle glaucoma
119. In diabetic retinopathy
(a) Thinning of capillary basement membrane
(b) Increased number of pericytes
(c) Lipofuscin in retinal pigment epithelium
(d) Macroaneurysm in the areas of ischemia
120. Gas used for tamponading retina
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Sulfur heaxfluoride
(d) Ethylene oxide
121. Harmonious diplopia is a feature of
(a) Exotropia
(b) Hypertropia
(c) Hypotropia
(d) Esotropia
122. Dalen Fuch’s nodule is pathognomic of
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Sarcoidosis
(c) Sympathetic ophthalmitis
(d) Retinitis pigmentosa
PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE
123. Human development index includes all except
(a) Adult literacy rate
(b) Life expectancy at birth
(c) Per capita income
(d) Infant mortality rate
124. Infectivity of an organism is measured by
(a) Incidence rate
(b) Prevalence rate
(c) Secondary attack rate
(d) Case fatality rate
125. In cyclo-propagative transmission, the disease agent undergoes
(a) Only development
(b) Only multiplication
(c) Change in form and numbers
(d) No change
126. Measure of risk calculated from case control study is
(a) Odds ratio
(b) Relative risk
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Population attributable risk
[/bg_collapse]
127. Positive predictive value of a screening test is measured by
(a) True positive × 100(True positive + False negative)
(b) True negative × 100/(False positive + True negative)
(c) True positive × 100/(True positive + False positive)
(d) True negative × 100/(rue negative + False negative)
128. Most cost effective approach for the prevention of non communicable disease
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
(c) Specific protection
(d) Primordial prevention
129. Target for case finding under RNTCP is
(a) 60%
(b) 70%
(c) 85%
(d) 95%
130. Low birth weight baby is the one with birth weight less than
(a) 1000 grams
(b) 1500 grams
(c) 2000 grams
(d) 2500 grams
131. All are major causes of early neonatal mortality in India except
(a) Prematurity
(b) Asphyxia
(c) Low birth weight
(d) Diarrhea
132. Protein content of breast milk
(a) 0.55 gm/100mL
(b) 1.10 gm/100mL
(c) 2.20 gm/100mL
(d) 3.30 gm/100mL
133. Recommended content of iodine in salt of consumer level
(a) 25 ppm
(b) 20 ppm
(c) 15 ppm
(d) 10 ppm
134. Most extensively used insecticide for ultra low volume (ULV) fogging
(a) DDT
(b) Malathion
(c) Pyrethroids
(d) Abate
135. Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine in drinking water at the end of 1 hour is
(a) 0.1 mg/L
(b) 0.5 mg/L
(c) 1.0 mg/L
(d) 1.5 mg/L
136. Wastes that are not to be incinerated
(a) With high heating volume
(b) Content of combustible matter > 60%
(c) Content of non combustible matter < 5%
(d) Moisture content < 30%
137. Under ESI, the duration not sickness benefit arising out of confinement is for
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 42 days
(d) 60 days
138. Method of sampling when the population is not homogenous
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Systemic random sampling
(c) Stratified random sampling
(d) Cluster sampling
MEDICINE
- Giant a wave in JVP is seen in
(a) Junctional rhythm
(b) Pulmonary hypertension
(c) Tricuspid regurgitation
(d) Complete heart block
140. Exercise testing is absolutely contraindicated
(a) One week after MI
(b) Unstable angina
(c) Aortic stenosis
(d) Peripheral vascular disease
141. Aneurysms- false statement
(a) True aneurysm contains all the 3 layers
(b) Saccular aneurysm involves the entire circumference
(c) In dissecting aneurysms media is defective
(d) Charcot Bouchard aneurysms are seen in brain
142. Rasmussen’s aneurysm arises from
(a) Bronchial artery
(b) Pulmonary artery
(c) Vertebral artery
(d) Posterior intercostals artery
143. Pulmonary embolism – true statement
(a) Known risk factors include gastric cancer, AIDS
(b) Prompt heparin therapy will dissolve thrombi
(c) Most patients manifest dyspnea, pain, hemoptysis
(d) Free floating ileofemoral thrombi are an indication for a caval filter
144. Feature of restrictive lung disease
(a) ↓FEV1/FVC and ↑ compliance
(b) ↑FEV1/FVC and ↓ compliance
(c) ↓ FEV1/FVC and ↓ compliance
(d) ↑FEV1/FVC and ↑Compliance
145. All are seen in ARDS except
(a) Pulmonary edema
(b) Hypercapnea
(c) Hypoxemia
(d) Decreased tidal volume
146. The following parameter is consistent with pleural transudate
(a) RBC – 1000/mm3
(b) WB – 1500/ mm3
(c) Specific gravity – 1.120
(d) Protein – 3.5 gram/dl
147. In morbidly obese patients obstructive sleep often results in all the following except
(a) Right ventricular failure
(b) Hypoxemia
(c) Hypercapnea
(d) Left ventricular failure
148. All the following signs are seen in thalamic hemorrhage except
(a) Hemianopia
(b) Gaze palsy
(c) Miosis
(d) Ocular bobbing
149. Xanthochromia of CSF is seen in all except
(a) Traumatic or bloody tap
(b) Hyperbilirubinemia
(c) Carotinemia
(d) Markedly elevated CSF proteins
150. All the following cause proximal muscle weakness except
(a) Duchene muscular dystrophy
(b) Myotonic dystrophy
(c) Polymyositis
(d) Becker muscular dystrophy
151. In Cushing’s disease
(a) ↑ACTH and ↓ Cortisol
(b) ↑ ACTH and ↑ Cortisol
(c) ↑ ADH
(d) ↑ urinary catecholamines
152. Joint erosion is not a feature of
(a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Psoriatic arthritis
(d) Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
153. Defective function of the following enzyme results in gout
(a) PRPP synthetase
(b) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase
(c) Glucose 6 phosphatase
(d) Purine nucleotide phosphorylase
154. Not a feature of APLA (Anti-Phospholipid Antibody) syndrome
(a) Bleeding disorder
(b) Thrombotic disorder
(c) Coagulation disorder
(d) Recurrent fetal loss
155. All are seen in Kawasaki’s disease except
(a) Pedal edema
(b) Cervical lymphadenopathy
(c) Strawberry tongue
(d) Exudative conjunctivitis
156. Metabolic alkalosis with hypertension is seen in all the following conditions except
(a) Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Liddle’s syndrome
(c) Fanconi syndrome
(d) Adrenal hyperplasia
157. A 70 kg man with pyloric stenosis resulting from ulcer disease is admitted for resuscitation after 1 week of prolonged vomiting. The metabolic disturbance seen is
(a) Hypokalemic hyperchoremic metabolic acidosis
(b) Hypokalemic hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis
(c) Hypokalemic hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
(d) Hypokalemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
158. Not a feature of tumor lysis syndrome
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Hyperuricemia
(d) Hyperphosphatemia
159. Current permissible maximum storage time and temperature for platelets
(a) 5 days at 1 – 6℃
(b) 5 days at 25 – 27℃
(c) 5 days at 20 – 24℃
(d) 7 days at 22 – 24℃
SURGERY
160. A 45 year old lady is having persistent reflux symptoms. Most accurate investigations in establishing diagnosis before surgical treatment is
(a) An UGI series
(b) Endoscopy
(c) Esophageal manometry
161. Barrett’s esophagus – true statement
(a) Endoscopic surveillance with biopsy every 2 years
(b) Helicobacter pylori triple therapy
(c) Proton pump inhibitor
(d) Histamine antagonist
162. Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy used in esophageal carcinoma
(a) Doxorubicin
(b) Cisplatin
(c) 5-Fu-Leucovarin
(d) Mitomycin C
163. Benign small bowel tumors most commonly present as
(a) Gastrointestinal bleeding
(b) Incidental finding on laparotomy
(c) Small bowel obstruction
(d) Persistent loss of weight
164. The layer responsible for strength of an intestinal anastamosis is
(a) Mucosa
(b) Submucosa
(c) Muscularis propria
(d) Serosa
165. Least common site of volvulus in children
(a) Midgut
(b) Small bowel
(c) Ileocolic
(d) Large bowel
166. True fact regarding Crohn’s disease
(a) Enteroenteric fistula is an indication for urgent surgery
(b) Medical management includes antibiotics, immunosuppressive agents and biologic agents
(c) No increased risk for colonic cancer
(d) No effect on fertility
167. A patient with abdominal wall desmoids tumor should be screened for
(a) Lung cancer
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Colonic polyps
(d) Pancreatic cancer
168. Initial investigation for obstructive jaundice
(a) USG
(b) CT scan
(c) ERCP
(d) MRCP
169. Colovesical fistula
(a) Most commonly presents with pneumaturia
(b) More common in females
(c) Most commonly caused by colon cancer
(d) Readily diagnosed on barium enema\
170. Induration of seminal vesicle is seen most often in
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Gonorrhea
(c) Syphilis
(d) Lymphogranuloma venereum
171. The following statement is false regarding Grave’s disease
(a) Hypertrophy/hyperplasia is due to TSH-RAbs
(b) Cardiac failure is common
(c) Goiter is diffuse and vascular
(d) Remissions and exacerbations are not infrequent
172. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid – all are true except
(a) It is tumor arising from C cells
(b) Secrete high levels of calcitonin
(c) It is not dependent on TSH
(d) Most cases are familial
173. Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
(a) The most common thyroid cancer
(b) Readily diagnosed by FNAC
(c) Spreads through hematogenous route
(d) Commonly multifocal
174. Hernia, most likely to recur after primary surgery
(a) Epigastric hernia
(b) Spigelian hernia
(c) Incisional hernia
(d) Femoral hernia
175. Burns with injury to epidermis and superficial dermis is categorized as
(a) First degree burns
(b) Second degree superficial burns
(c) Second degree deep burns
(d) Third degree burns
176. Transplantation that requires all cellular components to be irradiated prior to transfusion
(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Bone marrow
(d) Lung
177. Not a complication of total parenteral nutrition
(a) Hyperammonemia
(b) Hypercholesterolemia
(c) Neutrophil dysfunction
(d) Hyperphosphatemia
PEDIATRICS
179. Risk factors for pulmonary hemorrhage are all except
(a) PDA
(b) Exogenous surfactant
(c) Diaphragmatic hernia
(d) Sepsis
180. Enuresis is diagnosed in a child after the age of
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
181. Severe dehydration in an older child occurs when the fluid loss is
(a) 1% of body weight
(b) 4% of body weight
(c) 6% of body weight
(d) 9% of weight
182. One month old body is referred for failure to thrive. On examination there are features of congestive cardiac failure. Femoral pulses are feeble compared to brachial pulses. Likely diagnosis
(a) Congenital aortic stenosis
(b) Patent ductus arteriosus
(c) Coarctation of aorta
(d) Congenital aorta-iliac disease
183. A child having nocturnal asthmatic attacks 2 times in a week, day time attacks 3 times or more is categorized to be having
(a) Severe persistent asthma
(b) Moderate persistent asthma
(c) Mild intermittent asthma
(d) Mild persistent asthma
184. A new born baby is brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelles. CT scan showed a midline lesion with hypoechogenicity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis
(a) Teratomas
(b) Vein of Galen malformation
(c) Arachnoid cyst
(d) Encephalocele
185. Most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism
(a) Defective hormone synthesis
(b) Thyroid dysgenesis
(c) Antithyroid drugs
(d) Excessive iodine consumption
186. A new born infant is diagnosed with phenylketonuria. The enzyme that is deficient is
(a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(b) Phenylalanine oxidase
(c) Dihydropteridine reductase
(d) Tyrosine hydroxylase
187. Non immune hydrops fetalis is caused by
(a) CMV
(b) Parvovirus B19
(c) HSV
(d) HIV
188. The following is not a radiological feature of scurvy
(a) Pencil line cortex
(b) Whit line of Frankel
(c) Cupping of bone ends
(d) Zone of rarefaction
OBSTERTICS
189. Gonadal differentiation is completed by what weeks of gestation?
(a) 9 weeks
(b) 12 weeks
(c) 16 weeks
(d) 20 weeks
190. Longest diameter of fetal skull is
(a) Submento bregmatic
(b) Mentovertical
(c) Sub occipito frontal
(d) Occipito fronta
191. Deep transverse arrest is most commonly encountered in
(a) Android pelvis
(b) Gynecoid pelvis
(c) Anthropoid pelvis
(d) Platypelloid pelvis
192. For Down’s syndrome, 2nd trimester quadruple test includes all except
(a) Alfa fetal protein
(b) HCG
(c) Inhibin-A
(d) PAPP
193. Drug of choice for chalmydia infection in pregnancy
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Azithromycin
194. Maneuvrs done for shoulders dystocia area all except
(a) Wood’s corkscrew maneuver
(b) McRobert’s maneuver
(c) Suprapubic pressure
(d) Mauriceau Smellie VEit maneuver
195. Most important factor that affects the outcome of twin gestation is
(a) Lie of first twin
(b) Lie of second twin
(c) Lie of second twin
(d) Placental position
196. Least chance for cord prolapsed among the following is
(a) Frank breech
(b) Complete breech
(c) Footing breech
(d) Knee presentation
197. The type of placenta in which vessels separate before reaching the margin is
(a) Battledore placenta
(b) Velamentous placenta
(c) Circumvallate placenta
(d) Placenta marginata
GYNECOLOGY
198. Snow storm appearance is seen in
(a) Abdominal pregnancy
(b) Tubal pregnancy
(c) Hydatidiform mole
(d) Multiple fibroids
199. Whiff test is done to diagnose
(a) Bacterial vaginosis
(b) Candidiasis
(c) Syphilis
(d) Genital tuberculosis
200. Primary amenorrhea with absent uterus, normal breast and scant pubic hair is seen in
(a) Meyer Rokitansky Kuster Houser syndrome
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Noonan syndrome
(d) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
201. Hirsutism is caused by all except
(a) Testicular feminization syndrome
(b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
(c) Cushing’s disease
(d) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
202. In Halban’s disease, the type of defect in endomerium is
(a) Proliferative phase
(b) Cystoglanudular hyperplasia
(c) Irregular ripening
(d) Irregular shedding
203. Barrier method of contraception includes
(a) IUCD
(b) Combined oral pills
(c) Spermicidal agents
(d) Symptothermal methods
204. The IUCD, Mirena is effective for
(a) 1 year
(b) 3 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years
205. Contraception of choice in a recently delivered lactating women
(a) Oral contraceptive pills
(b) Depot provera
(c) Copper-T
(d) Safe period
206. Virus most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix is
(a) HPV 16
(b) HPV 19
(c) HPV 33
(d) HPV 35
207. Sentinel lymph node biopsy is most useful in the following gynecological malignancy
(a) Endometrial cancer
(b) Cervical cancer
(c) Ovarain cancer
(d) Vulval cancer
208. Carcinoma endometrium is associated with all except
(a) Fibromyoma
(b) Endometrial hyperplasia
(c) Dysgerminoma
(d) Granulosa cell tumor
209. Schiller Duval bodies are seen in
(a) Dysgerminoma
(b) Seminoma
(c) Teratoma
(d) Endodermal sinus tumor
ORTHOPEDICS
210. Anterior shoulder dislocation is caused by vigorous
(a) Flexion and internal rotation
(b) Flexion and external rotation
(c) Abduction and external rotation
(d) Abduction and internal rotation
211. Inferior shoulder dislocation results in the damage of
(a) Axillary nerve
(b) Median nerve
(c) Radial nerve
(d) Ulnar nerve
212. Cause of gunstock deformity is
(a) Supracondylar fracture
(b) Fracture both bones of forearm
(c) Fracture surgical head of humerus
(d) Fracture fibula
213. Causes for carpal tunnel syndrome are all except
(a) Pregnancy
(b) Acromegaly
(c) Hypothyroidism
(d) Tuberculosis
214. Siffer Kart sign is seen in
(a) Legg Calve Perthe’s disease
(b) Blount’s disease
(c) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(d) Pulled elbow
ANESTHESIA
215. Local anesthetics
(a) Inhibit sodium pump
(b) Are weak acids
(c) Degraded by plasma cholinesterases
(d) Becomes less potent if combined with sodium bicarbonate
216. In spinal anesthesia, the drug is deposited between
(a) Dura & Pia mater
(b) Pia mater & archnoid
(c) Dura mater & ventricle
(d) Epidural space
217. The most cardiotoxic local anesthetic agent is
(a) Lignocaine
(b) Bupivacaine
(c) Prilocaine
(d) Procaine
218. The concentration of adrenaline used with lidocaine in local anesthesia is
(a) 1 : 200
(b) 1:2000
(c) 1:20000
(d) 1:200000
219. The muscle relaxant that exhibits phase-II blockade after prolonged administration is
(a) Atracurium
(b) Vecuronium
(c) Recuronium
(d) Succinyl choline
220. The intravenous agent causing temporary inhibition is steroid system is
(a) Propofol
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Etomidate
(d) Midazolam
221. Anesthetic agent that does not suppress cerebral metabolic rate
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Sevoflurane
(d) Isoflurane
222. Increased intracranial tension is a feature of
(a) Ketamine
(b) Thiopentone
(c) Etomidate
(d) Propofol
223. Magnitude of carbon monoxide production is least with
(a) Sevoflurane
(b) Isoflurane
(c) Desflurane
(d) Enflurane
224. The inhalational agent that is maximally metabolized is
(a) Xenon
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Desflurane
(d) Halothane
225. The intravenous induction agent suitable for day care surgery is
(a) Morphine
(b) Ketamine
(c) Propofol
(d) Diazepam
226. Mendelson’s syndrome is due to
(a) Increased sensitivity to anesthetic agent
(b) Gastric aspiration
(c) Faulty intubation
(d) Asphyxia due to tracheal intubation
227. Agent causing malignant hyperthermia is
(a) Succinyl choline
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ether
(d) Verapamil
RADIODIAGNOSIS & RADIOTHERAPY
228. Bragg’s peak occurs in
(a) X-ray
(b) Gamma ray
(c) Proton beam therapy
(d) Electron beam therapy
229. Bamboo spine is seen in
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Ochronosis
(d) Ankylosing spondylitis
230. Predominant osteoblastic metastasis is seen in
(a) Renal cell carcinoma
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Prostate cancer
(d) Non small cell cancer of lung
231. Cold lesion in bone scan in suggestive of
(a) Osteomyelitis
(b) Fracture
(c) Sequestrum
(d) Purely lytic metastasis
232. Pneumoperitoneum –best investigation is
(a) X ray -left lateral decubitus view
(b) Plain X ray abdomen- erect
(c) CT abdomen
(d) Plain X ray chest- erect
233. Retro cardiac shadow showing air fluid level is seen in
(a) Pleural effusion
(b) Pericardial effusion
(c) Hiatus hernia
(d) Ca. Colon
234. Drooping Lily water sign is seen in
(a) Splenic tumor
(b) Liver tumor
(c) Supra renal mass
(d) Upper pole renal mass
235. Earliest sign of increased intracranial tension is
(a) Erosion of dorsal sella
(b) Pineal displacement
(c) Widening of sella
(d) Copper beaten appearance
236. Technitium-99 tagged RBC’s are used in all except
(a) To assess Left ventricular function
(b) To assess GI bleed
(c) Diagnosis of liver heamngiomas
(d) Diagnosis of Hepatoma
237. The tracer that best assesses effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is
(a) 131I-Hippuran
(b) 99mTc-MAG-3
(c) 99mTc-DTPA
(d) 14C-Inulin
238. The imaging modality continued to be gold standard for assessing myocardial viability is
(a) 201- Th perfusion SPECT
(b) 99m Tc M1B1 perfusion SPECT
(c) Dobutamine ECHO
(d) 18 F-FDG PET-CT
DERMATOLOGY
239. Wickham’s straie are white lines seen on papules of the following dermatosis
(a) Lichen planus
(b) Lichen Amyloidosis
(c) Lichen simplex chronicus
(d) Prurigo nodularis
240. Keratoderma blenorrhagica is a feature of
(a) Reiter’s syndrome
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Ptyrus rubrapilaris
(d) Atopic dermatitis
241. Not true regarding tinea versicolor is
(a) Causative agent is malasezzia furfur
(b) KOH mount shows meat ball and spaghetti appearance
(c) Wood lamp shows yellow fluorescence
(d) Drug of choice is griseofulvin
242. Denovan bodies are seen in the smear taken from genital region of a person suffering from
(a) LGV
(b) Syphilis
(c) Granuloma inguinale
(d) Herpes genitalis
PSYCHIATRY
243. A culture bound characterized by “a brief period of brooding, followed by outburst of violent & homicidal behavior” is called as
(a) Boufee delirante
(b) Amok
(c) Dhat syndrome
(d) Qi-Gong psychosis
244. Post traumatic stress disorder
(a) Repeated recollection such as night mares
(b) Firm belief that a group of people are trying to kill
(c) Sustained sad mood for more than 2 weeks
(d) Motor hyperactivity and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities.
245. Not true regarding kleptomania is
(a) Recurrent impulse to steal
(b) Feels tense before committing the theft
(c) Object stolen are usually expensive
(d) Most common in women
246. Cataplexy is
(a) Complex partial epilepsy
(b) Modified form of electro convulsive therapy
(c) Sudden brief loss of muscle tone
(d) Tendency to maintain unusual posture.
247. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is definitely indicated in
(a) Chronic, low grade depression for more than 2 years
(b) Severe depression with high risk of suicide
(c) Depression following death of loved ones
(d) Depression in young children
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: