Medical Pg Dermatology
1. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Congential
2. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in
(A) Chancroid
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
3. Treatment of choice in nodulo cystic acne is
(A) Systemic Steroids
(B) Retinoic acid
(C) Benzoyl Peroxide
(D) Estrogen
4. Treatment of choice in Pustuar psoriasis
(A) Psorialin + uv therapy
(B) Systematic steroid
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Estrogen
5. Treatment of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E
(A) Dapsone
(B) Steriod
(C) Thalidomide
(D) Incision and Drainage
6. Multidrug therapy is given for
(A) Syphilis
(B) leprosy
(C) Herpetiformis
(D) Icthyosis Vulgaris
7. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in A/E
(A) Penicillin
(B) Phenopthelein
(C) Iodine
(D) Frusemide
8. Mouth Lesion are seen in
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen Planus
(C) Basal Cell CA
(D) Icthyosis Vulgaris
9. Drug of choice in type I Lepra reaction with severe neuritis
(A) Thalidomide
(B) Clofazimine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Systemic Corticosteriod
10. Tinea ungium effects
(A) Nail fold
(B) Nail plate
(C) Joints
(D) Inter digital space
11. Fordyce spots are
(A) Ectopic sebaceous glands
(B) Ectopic eccrine glands
(C) Ectopic apocrine glands
(D) Ectopic mucosal glands
12. Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in
(A) Dermatitis
(B) Pellagra
(C) Marasmus
(D) Kwashiorkar
13. Acantholysis is seen in
(A) Epidermis
(B) Epidermo-Dermal Junction
(C) Dermis
(D) In all the layers of Skin
14. Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E
(A) Syphils 1st Stage
(B) Donovanosis
(C) LGV
(D) Chancroid
15. Pseudo bubo is seen in
(A) Donovanosis
(B) LGV
(C) Chancroid
(D) Syphilis
16. Frie test is done in
(A) Donovanosis
(B) LGV
(C) Syphilis
(D) Leprosy
17. Discharging sinus is seen in
(A) Syphilis
(B) Herpes
(C) Actinomycosis
(D) Molluscum Contagiosum
18. WHO regime for paucibacillary leprosya
(A) 100 mg Daposone daily + Rifampicin monthly (600 mg)
(B) Dapsone daily + Rifampicin daily
(C) Dapsone + Rifampcin + Clofazemine daily
(D) Rifampcin + Clofazamine daily
19. Skin pigmentation & Icthyosis like side effects are seen in
(A) Rifampcin
(B) Clofazimine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Steroid
20. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear
(A) langerhans cells are seen
(B) Acontholysis
(C) leucocytosis
(D) Absens of melanin pigment
21. Gonococcus resistant structure is
(A) Urethra
(B) Testis
(C) Fallopian Tube
(D) Ampulla
22. Underlying internal malignancy is not shown by
(A) Acanthosis nigricans & Annular ertythema
(B) Bullous pyoderma & migratory nectrotizing
(C) Granuloma annlure
(D) Erythema gyratum repens
23. All of the following diseases may be caused by staphylococcus except :
(A) Impetigo
(B) Erysipelas
(C) Ecthyma
(D) Scalded skin syndrome
24. Donovanosis is caused by :
(A) Calymmatobacterium granulomatosis
(B) T. pertunae
(C) Chalmydia trachomatis
(D) Haemophillus-ducreyi
25. Skin biopsy in leprosy is characterized by :
(A) Pariappendegeal bacilli
(B) Pariappendegeal Iymphocytosis
(C) Perivascular lymphocytosis
(D) Any of the above
26. Skin smear reports negative following pattern of leprosy
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Neuritic type leprosy
(C) Lepromatous leprosy
(D) Border line leprosy
27.All of the following lesions may be seen in leprosy except :
(A) Erythematous macules
(B) Vesicles
(C) Hypopigemented patches
(D) Flat & raised patches
28. A 25 year old female has paltal ulcers & skin blisters, most likely diagnosis is : E:
(A) Pemphigus vulgarisis
(B) Pemphigus follacious
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Pemphigoid
29. Target (Iris) lesion seen in :
(A) Urticaria
(B) Erythema multiformae
(C) Scabies
(D) Licken planus
30. A child has hypopigmented patch on the check and no sensory loss & no scale diagnosis is :
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Scabies
(C) Pityriasis alba
(D) Alopecia aeriata
31. Itchy polygonal violaceous papularlesion is seen in :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pitriasis rosea
(D) Pitriasis rubra pilaris
32. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is
(A) Scalp
(B) Nail involvement
(C) CNS involvement
(D) Arthritis
33. Gonococcus is not involved in :
(A) Testis
(B) Fallopian tube
(C) Cervix
(D) Ovary
34. All of the following are true about syphilis except :
(A) VDRL is sensistive but NOT specific
(B) Infection leads to life long immunity
(C) Ig M & IgA
(D) Both b and c
35. Commonest cause of air born dermatitis in India is :
(A) Parthenium
(B) Crysophillous
(C) Calotropis
(D) Rothrangal
36. Patch test is read after :
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2 days
(C) 2 weeks
(D) 4 weeks
37. Atopic dermatitis is diagnosed by :
(A) Patch test
(B) Clinical examination
(C) Wood’s lamp
(D) ↑IgE
38. Cutancous tuberculous secondary to under lying tissue is called as :
(A) Scrofuloderma
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Tuberculous verrucosa cutis
(D) Spina-ventosa
39. Satllite lesion are seen in the following type of leprosy :
(A) Tuberculoid-leprosy
(B) Lepromatous leprosy
(C) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Histoid leprosy
40. Thalidomide is the drug of choice for :
(A) Lepra type I reaction
(B) Lepra type II reaction
(C) Nerve abscess
(D) Nerve-excision
41. Permethrin is used in the treatment of :
(A) Scabies
(B) Leprosy
(C) Body louse
(D) Leishmaniasis
42. Chancroid may be caused by :
(A) T. Pallidium
(B) G. donovari
(C) Chlamydia trachomatis
(D) Herpes virus – hominis
43. Cicaterical alopecia is seen in :
(A) Taenia-capitis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Discoid lupus erethroamatosis
(D) Alopesia-areata
44. True about endotracheal intubation is :
(A) It reduces the normal anatomical dead space
(B) It produces ↓ resistance to respiration
(C) Sub-glattic oedema is the most common complication
(D) All of the above
45. Neither raised nor depressed is:
(A) Macule
(B) Plaque
(C) Nodule
(D) Papule
46. Most common type of leprosy in India:
(A) BT
(B) TT
(C) LL
(D) BL
47. Oral examination is done in case of:
(A) Peutz jegher syndrome
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Plummer Vinson syndrome
48. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Epidermolysis Bullosa
49. Following are signs of internal malignancy except:
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Acanthosis nigricans
(C) Clubbing
(D) Dermatomyositis
50. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anemia
(D) SLE
51. Changes of squamous cell carcinoma are seen in:
(A) Seborrhoeic keratosis
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) DLE
52. In alopecia areata, seen is:
(A) Exclamatory mark hair
(B) Scaring
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Traumatic
53. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are:
(A) High ulnar, low median
(B) High median, low ulnar
(C) Triple nerve palsy
(D) High radial, low median
54. Growth phase of hair is:
(A) Anagen
(B) Metagen
(C) Telogen
(D) None
55. Linear lesion is seen in:
(A) Sporotrichosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
56. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in:
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Molluscum contagiosum
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
57. Jarish herxheimer reaction is seen in early cases of :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) LGV
(D) Granuloma iguinale
58. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :
(A) Condyloma lata
(B) Interstitial keratitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Proteinuria
59. Most characteristic feature of lichen planus is :
(A) Thinning of nail plate is most common
(B) Non scarring alopecia
(C) Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane
(D) Wickham striae
60. syphilis, true about rash is :
(A) Pruritic
(B) Vesicular
(C) Asymptomatic
(D) Tender
61. Leprosy does not involves:
(A) CNS
(B) Testes
(C) Skin
(D) Cornea
62. The most characteristic finding in lichen planus is :
(A) Civatte bodies
(B) Basal cell degeneration
(C) Thinning of nail plate
(D) Violaceous lesions
63. Sub-epidemal splitting is not found in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Burns
64. Lisch nodule is seen in :
(A) Von Recklinghausens disease
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Leprosy
(D) LGV
65. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Pityriasis rosea
(D) Lupus vulgaris
66. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :
(A) Droplet
(B) Feco-oral
(C) Mosquito bite
(D) Contact with animal
67. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :
(A) Abnormal EMG
(B) Voluntary muscle wasting
(C) Decreased Proprioception
(D) Decreased response to tactile sensation
68. A 85 yr old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
69. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement membrane
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Cell nucleus
(D) Keratin
70. Causative factor for acne are following except :
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Bacterial contamination
(D) Hypercornification of duct
71. True about drug induced SLE is :
(A) CNS manifestation are common
(B) Renal involvement is common
(C) Antihistone antibodies are found
(D) All with antibodies progress to lupus
72. Eczema herpeticum is caused by :
(A) Herpes simplex virus
(B) Varicella
(C) CMV
(D) HPV
73. Which of the following statements is true regarding Pityriasis Rubra Pilaris :
(A) Isolated patches of normal skin are found
(B) Cephalocaudal distribution
(C) I.V. cyclosporine is effective
(D) More common in females
74. Basal cell degeneration seen in :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) None
75. Recurrent Balanoposthitis seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Smoking
(D) Alcohol
76. True about corneum lucidum:
(A) Sadwithched b/w s. spinosum& s. granulosum
(B) Sandwitched b/w s. conrneum& s. granulosum
(C) Contain hair follicle
(D) Also K/a prickle cell layer
(E) Contain degenerated cells
77. All statements are true regarding skin except
(A) Skin is stratified squamous epithelium
(B) Melanocyte &merkel cells are immigrant cells
(C) Keratin filaments are a hall m ark of epidermal cells
(D) Keratinization process cause hydration of cells
(E) Spines of spinous cells are formed from house keeping organelle.
78. Which layer of epidermis is underdeveloped in the VLBW infants in the initial 7 days:
(A) Stratum germinativum
(B) Stratum granulosum
(C) Stratum lucidum
(D) Stratum corneum
79. Normal turnover time of epidermis (skin doubling time) is
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks.
80. Melanocytes are present in :
(A) Stratum corneum
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum granulosum
(D) Dermis
81. The correct sequence of cell cycle is:
(A) G0-G1-S-G2-M
(B) G0-G1-G2-S-M
(C) G0-M-G2-S-G1
(D) G0-G1-S-M-G2
82. Lines of Blaschko represents:
(A) lines along lymphatics
(B) Lines along blood vessels
(C) Lines along nerves
(D) Lines of development
83. Neither raised nor depressed is
(A) Macule
(B) Plaque
(C) Nodule
(D) Papule
84. A flat discolouration on skin as 1 cm is called :
(A) Macule
(B) Plague
(C) Boil
(D) Papule
(E) Wheal
85. Which among is not a primary skin lesion of :
(A) Plaque
(B) Macule
(C) Abscess
(D) None
86. Acne vulgaris is caused by-
(A) Staph aureus
(B) Diphtheroids
(C) Sweat gland hyperplasia
(D) Obstruction to pilosebaceous duct
87. Causative factor for acne are all except:
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Bacterial contamination
(D) Hypercornification of duct
(E) Lipophilic yeast
88. Causative factor for acne are following except
(A) Androgen
(B) Only food
(C) Keratin
(D) Cell nucleus
89. Comedones are characteristics of –
(A) Acne vulgaris
(B) Acne rosasea
(C) SLE
(D) Adenoma sebaeceum
90. 19 years old girl has multiple papulopustular erythematous lesions on face and neck, the likely diagnosis is
(A) Acne rosacae
(B) Acne Vulgaris
(C) PityriasisVersicolour
(D) Lupus Vulgaris
91. Treatment of acne –
(A) 13 cisretionol
(B) Minocycline/Tetracycline
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Dapsone
(E) Rifampicin
92. Treatment of acne vulgaris may include all except-
(A) Cryotherapy
(B) Oestrogens
(C) UV light
(D) Androgens
93. A patient presented with multiple nodulocystic lesions on the face. The drug of choice is :
(A) Retinoids
(B) Antibiotics
(C) Steroids
(D) UV light
94. Treatment of nodulocystic acne is
(A) Erythromycin
(B) Tetracycline
(C) Isoretinonine (Retinoic acid)
(D) Steroids
95. Recalcitrant Pustular Acne is treated by
(A) Oral Erythromycin
(B) Oral Tetracycline
(C) Steroid
(D) Retinoid
96. Treatment of choice for Acne vulgaris
(A) Minocycline for inflammatory acne
(B) Retinoids for comedonal acne
(C) Etretinate
(D) Rifampicin
(E) Dapsone
97. A 24- year-old unmarried women has multiple nodular cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be :
(A) Acitretin
(B) Isotretinoin
(C) Doxycycline
(D) Azithromycin
98. Most common side effects of retinoids is
(A) Headache
(B) Skin rashes
(C) Photosensitivity
(D) Diarrhoea
99. A teenager girl with moderate acne is also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be :
(A) Oral isotretinon
(B) Oral acitretin
(C) Oral minocycline
(D) Cyproterone acetate
100. A 17 year old girl with Acne has been taking a drug fro the last two years. Show now presents with blue black pigmentation of nails. The likely medication causing the above pigmentation is
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Minocycline
(C) Doxycycline
(D) Azithromycin
101. Acne vulgaris is due to involvement of:
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Eccrine glands
(C) Pilosebaceous glands
(D) Apocrine glands
(E) Sweat glands
102. Regarding Fordyce spots:
(A) Represent internal maliganancy
(B) Ectopic sebaceous glands
(C) Present in axillae
(D) Found in healthy people
(E) Area erythematous
103. Fordyce’s disease mainly involves :
(A) Lips
(B) Buccal mucosa
(C) Neck
(D) Trunk
104. Rhinophyma is (a complication of) –
(A) Glandular form of acne rosacea
(B) Form of acne vulgaris
(C) Affects the scalp
(D) A form of dermatofibroma
105. Rhnopyma is (Potate nose) –
(A) Septal deviation of nose
(B) Sweat gland hypertrophy
(C) Mucous gland hypertrophy
(D) Sebaceous gland hypertrophy
106. A 40 year old woman presents with a 2 year old h/o erythematous papulopustular lesions on convexities of the face. There in a background of erytherma&telengiec-tasia. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Acne valgris
(B) Rosacea
(C) SLE
(D) Polymorphic light eruption
107. Sweat glands of palm can be differentiated from others by the following:
(A) Apocrine glands
(B) High chloride content
(C) Secretion stimulated by emotional stimuli
(D) Chemical mediators control the secretion.
108. All are false except
(A) Sweat glands are most numerous on back & least on sole
(B) Palm & sole sweat glands are last to appear
(C) Sweat duct produce isotonic sweat
(D) Hypothalmicpreoptic nucleus has key role in sweating
(E) Gonadectomy of adults impair apocrine sweat secretion.
109. True about apocrine gland is A/E
(A) Modified sweat gland
(B) Modified sebaceous gland
(C) Preset in groin & axilla
(D) Infection is k/a hydrdenitis suppurativa
110. Bromhidrosis may be produced by intake of the following except:
(A) Asafoetida
(B) Ginger
(C) Onions
(D) Garlic
111. Crystalinemiliaria is due to obstruction to-
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Sweat glands
(C) Hair roots
(D) Accessory sweat glands
112. Miliaria is a disorder of :
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Apocrine glands
(C) Merocrine glands
(D) Holocrine Glands
(E) Eccrine Glands
113. In Fox Fordyce disease, true is/are:
(A) Common in adult woman
(B) Bullous lesions are common
(C) Common in areola & axilla
(D) Associated with other malignancies
114. Anagen phase of the hair indicates :
(A) The phase of activity and growth
(B) The phase of transition
(C) The phase of resting
(D) The phase of degeneration
115. Growth phase of hair is
(A) Anagen
(B) Metagen
(C) Telogen
(D) None
116. The time period that elapses between the physic emotional stress and the hair loss is about-
(A) 21 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 3 months
(D) 6 months
117. A female patient presents with diffuse alopecia to you. She had suffered from typhoid fever 4 months back. Most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Androgenetic alopecia
(B) Telogen effluvium
(C) Anagen effluvium
(D) Alopecia areata
118. A 30 year old female developed diffuse hair loss 3 months after delivery of her first child. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Androgenic alopecia
(B) Endocrinal alopecia
(C) Telogen effluvium
(D) SLE
119. Cicatrising alopecia with prerifollicular blue-gray patches hyperpigmentation is most commonly associated with:
(A) Pitting of nails
(B) Whitish lesions in the buccal mucosa
(C) Arthritis
(D) Discoid plaques in the face
120. Cicatrisial alopecia is seen in:
(A) DLE
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lichen planus
(E) SLE
121.Cicatrial Alopecia is seen in:
(A) TeniaCapitis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) DLE
(D) Alopecia Aereta
122. Pseudo pelade is synonym of-
(A) Alopeciasteatoides
(B) Premature alopecia
(C) Traction
(D) Cicatricial alopecia
123. Cicatricial alopecia is seen in:
(A) DLE
(B) SLE
(C) Secondary syphilis
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Lichen planus
124. Scarring alopecia is seen in:
(A) T. capitis
(B) Androgenic alopecia
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lichen planus
125. Non cicatrical alopecia is present in-
(A) Scleroderma
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Parva virus
126. All of the following are causes of cicatrizing alopecia except:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Discoid lupus erythematosus
(C) Alopecia areata
(D) Lupus vulgaris
127. Alopecia aerata is :
(A) Cicattricial scar
(B) Non cicatricial scar
(C) Fungal infection
(D) None
128. Non-circatrical alopecia is seen in
(A) Alopecia aerate
(B) Androgeneticalopeia
(C) Pseudopalade
(D) DLE
(E) SLE
129. Alopecia aerate is presumed to be:
(A) Androgenic in nature
(B) Autoimmune in etiology
(C) Infective in etiology
(D) Part of lichenoid in spectrum
130. Exclamation mark hairs is seen in:
(A) Alopecia areata
(B) Traumatic alopecia
(C) Lichen planus
(D) All
131. In alopecia areata, seen is:
(A) Exclamatory mark hair
(B) Scaring
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Traumatic
132. Exclamation mark alopecia is a feature of:
(A) Telogen effluvium
(B) Androgenic alopecia
(C) Alopecia aerata
(D) Alopecia mucinosa
133. Male with patchy loss of scalp hair and grey hair in the eyebrows and beard diagnosis is
(A) Anagen effluvium
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) Telogen effluvium
(D) Androgenic alopecia
134. Alopecia areata is treated by-
(A) Minoxidil
(B) Tranquilizers
(C) Whitfields ointment
(D) Parenternal penicillin
135. Diagnosis of a man with diffuse hair loss involving crown & frontal scalp with maintenance of frontal hair line
(A) Alopecia areata
(B) Anagen effluvium
(C) Male pattern baldness
(D) Female pattern baldness
136. Contraindicated in Androgenic Alopecia :
(A) Testosterone
(B) Minoxidil
(C) Cyproterone
(D) Finasteride
137. Nail are involved in
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pemphgoid
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
138. Nail is involved in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Fungal infection
(D) Alopecia
(E) Viral infection
139. Nail involvement is not a feature of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichenplanus
(C) Dermatophytosis
(D) DLE
140. Nail involvement is not a feature of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Drug induced lupus erythematous
(C) Dermatophytosis/Tenia
(D) Lichen Planus
141. Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Tineaunguium
(D) Alopecia areata
142. Wrong statement is:
(A) Mees line in Arsenic poisoning
(B) Pterygium of nails in Lichen Planus
(C) Oncholysis in Psoriasis
(D) Koilonychia in Megaloblastic Anemia (B12 def.)
143. Pitting of nails is seen in:
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Phemphigus
(D) Arsenic poisoning
(E) Leprosy
144. Pitting nail dystrophy seen in:
(A) Dermatophytic infection
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Seborrhic dermatitis
145. Oil drop is seen in:
(A) Psoriasis of nails
(B) Lichen planus of nails
(C) Clubbing
(D) T. Unguium
146. Which of the following is wrong statements:
(A) Koilonychia in Vit B12 deficiency
(B) Oncholysis in Psoriasis
(C) Mees lines in Arsenic poisoning
(D) Pterygium of nailis in Lichen Planus
147. Koenen’speriungal fibroma is seen in
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Alopecia aerate
148. Tineaungum effects
(A) Nail fold
(B) Nail plate
(C) Joints
(D) Inter digital space
149. A Patient presented with yellowish discoloration and thickening of nails. He also has tunneling of 2 toe and 1 Finger nails. Diagnosis can be done by
(A) Wood’s Lamp
(B) KOH. Mount
(C) Biopsy
(D) Trank Smear
150. Hyperpigmentation is not seen in:
(A) Addision’s disease
(B) Cushing’s Disease
(C) Graves Disease
(D) Hypothyroidism (Myxedema)
151. Hyperpigmented lesions are
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Melanoma
(C) Naevusanaemicus
(D) Dyskeratosis congenital
(E) Lentigines lichen planus
152. Which of the following is/are not the cause of hypopigmentation:
(A) Leprosy
(B) Pinta
(C) Syphilis
(D) Pityriasisalba
(E) None
153. Hypopigmentation is/are seen in:
(A) Vitiligo
(B) Pityriasisversicolor
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Melasma
(E) Scleroderma
154. Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :
(A) Becker naevus
(B) Freckles
(C) Nevus Ito
(D) Nevus Ota
(E) Nevus anemicus
155. Hypo-depigmented lesion seen in:
(A) Naevas Ito
(B) Naevusdepigmentosa
(C) Naevus Ota
(D) Naevusanaemicus
(E) Freckles
156. A newborn child presents with solitary white well defined hypopigmented patch on this right thigh. Diagnosis is:
(A) Piebaldism
(B) Albinism
(C) Nevus achromicus
(D) Acralvitiligo
157. True about vitiligo are all except
(A) Genetic predisposition is known
(B) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
(C) PUVA-B is used for treatment
(D) Topical-steroids give good results.
158. An increased incidence of vitiligo is found in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Nutritional deficiency
(C) Old age
(D) Diabetes mellitus
159. In a patch of vitiligo –
(A) Melanin synthesis is inhibited
(B) Melanosomes are absent
(C) Melanocytes are absent
(D) Melanocytes are reduced
160. Psoralen-A is used in the treatment of –
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Pityriasisalba
(D) Icthyosis
161. Vitiligovulvaris, best treatment is :
(A) PUVA
(B) Steroids
(C) Coaltar
(D) All
162. Vitiligovulvaris, treatment is
(A) PUVA
(B) Steroids
(C) Coaltar
(D) All
163. Pityriasisrosea true
(A) Self limiting
(B) Chronic relapsing
(C) Life threatening infection (autoimmune disease)
(D) Caused by dermatophytes
164. ‘Fir-tree’ type of distribution is seen in-
(A) PityriasisRosea
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Measles
(D) Secondary syphilis
165. Which viral association is found in pityriasisrosea :
(A) HHV 7
(B) CMV
(C) Vericella Zoster
(D) E B V
166. Annular herald (mother) patch is seen in
(A) Psoriasis
(B) P. alba
(C) P. rosea
(D) Nocardiasis
167. A 16 year old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple erythematous annular lesions with a collarette of scales at periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Pityriasisversicolor
(B) Pityriasisalba
(C) ityriasis rosacea
(D) Pityriasisrubrapilaris
168. Photosensitive lichenoid drug eruption is seen in _____therapy :
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Tetracycline (old)
(C) Gold
(D) Streptomycin
169. A patient of hypertension on ACE inhibitors developed rose asking erruptions. True statement regarding this situation is
(A) Drug may be the cause and discontinuation may improve the skin condition
(B) High dose steroids are needed initially
(C) ACE inhibitors are safe and cannot lead to skin erruptions.
(D) Drug may be the cause discontinuation is not required
170. TineaVersicolour is caused by:
(A) E. Flaccosum
(B) Malassezia Furfur
(C) T. rubrum
(D) T. Schonleini
171. An adult presents with oval scaly hypopigmented macules over chest and back. The diagnosis is
(A) Leprosy
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) PityraisisVersicolour
(D) Lichen Planus
172. A 24 year old man had multiple, small hypopigmented macules on the upper chest and back for the last three months. The macules were circular, arranged around follicles and many had coalesced to form large sheets. The surface of the macules showed fine scaling. He had similar lesions one year ago which subsided with treatment. The most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis is;
(A) Potassium hydroxide preparation of scales
(B) Slit skin smear form discrete macules
(C) Tzanck test
(D) Skin biopsy of coalesced macules
173. All of the following is given for the treatment for Pityriasisversicoler Except:
(A) Ketoconazole
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Clotrimazole
(D) Selenium sulphate
174. Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following.
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Tineacruris
(C) Tineaversicolor
(D) Tineapedis
175. Treatment of tineaversicolor –
(A) Clotrimazole
(B) Sod. thiosulphate
(C) Selenium Sulphide
(D) Miconazole
(E) All of the above
176. The following drug is indicated in the treatment of pityriasisversicolar :
(A) Ketoconazole
(B) Meteronidazole
(C) Griseofulvin
(D) Chloroquine
177. Babloo around 5 to 10 year boy presents with multiple small hypopigmented scaly macule patch on check. Some of his classmates also have similar lesions. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Pityriasisversicolour
(C) Indeterinate leprosy
(D) Pityriasisalba
178. A 5 year boy has recurrent multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis is :
(A) Ptyriaisversicolor
(B) Indeterminate leprosy
(C) Ptyriasisalba
(D) Acrofacialvitiligo
179. True about pitryiasis alba :
(A) No active treatment required
(B) Common in elderly
(C) Variant of vitiligo
(D) Common over the face
(E) Presents as scaly, whitish macules
180. Which of the following statements is true regarding PityriasisRubraPilaris :
(A) Isolated patches of normal skin are found
(B) Cephalocaaudal distribution
(C) I.V. cyclosporine is effective and 1st line drug
(D) More common in females
(E) Methotrexate is effective
181. A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmentedatropic patch over face, diagnosis is
(A) P. alba
(B) P. versicolour
(C) Indeterminate leprosy
(D) Borderline leprosy
182. Woods lamp used in diagnosis of :
(A) P. versicolor
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Prophyria
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Lichen Planus
183. Skin pigmentation is caused by:
(A) Methotrexate
(B) Dactinomycin
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Busulphan
184. Rain drop pigmentation is seen in
(A) Chronic lead poisoning
(B) Chronic Arsenic poisoning
(C) Chronic Mercury poisoning
(D) All of the above
185. State like discoloration of the skin is caused by all these drugs except –
(A) Chlorpromazine
(B) Minocycline
(C) Amiodarone
(D) Thiacetazone
186. ‘Itch is disease’ is true for-
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Insect bites
(C) Seborrheic dermatitis
(D) Tineacruris
187. Characteristic feature of atopic dermatitis is
(A) Pruritus
(B) Dennie’s Lines
(C) Scalling skin (Lichenification)
(D) Rash
188. Minor clinical feature in diagnosis of atopic dermatitis A/E-
(A) Dry skin
(B) Pruritus
(C) Morgagnianfold
(D) Pitriasisalba
(E) Dermographism
189. Dennie Morgan fold is seen in –
(A) Mastocytosis
(B) Seborrhoic dermatitis
(C) Sarcoidosis
(D) Atopic dermatitis
190. Commonest site of Atopic dermatitis is-
(A) Scalp
(B) Elbow
(C) Trunk
(D) Ante cubital fossa
191. Spongiosis is seen in :
(A) Acute eczema
(B) Lichen Planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
192. Atopic Dermatitis is diagnosed by:
(A) Patch test
(B) Wood Lamp
(C) Clinical Examination
(D) -IgE
193. A 3yr old child has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of bronchial asthma. Diagnosis could be
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Contact dermatitis
(C) Seborrhic dermatitis
(D) Infantile eczematous dermatitis
194. An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek, extensor aspect of limbs, mother has history of bronchial asthma, the probable diagnosis is
(A) Air borne contact dermatitis
(B) Atopic dermatitis
(C) Seborraehic dermatitis
(D) Infectious eczematous dermatitis
195. Rakesh, a y-year-old boy had itchy, excoriated papules on the forehead and the exposed parts of the arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in the rainy season and improved completely in winter. Most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Insect the hypersensitivity
(B) Scabies
(C) Urticaria
(D) Atopic dermatitis
196. A 25 year old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema contact urticarial, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from :
(A) Seborrheic dermatitis
(B) Atopic dermatitis
(C) Airborne contact dermatitis
(D) Nummular dermatitis
197. Coin shaped eczema is :
(A) Nummular eczema
(B) Atopic eczema
(C) Infantile eczema
(D) Endogenous eczema
198. Eczema herpeticum seen with
(A) HSV
(B) EBV
(C) CMV
(D) VZV
(E) HPV
199. Kaposi’s varicelliform eruption seen in :
(A) Darrier disease
(B) Varicella rosea
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Mumps
200. After hepatitis B vaccination child with allergic family history and pruritis involving face &convexities developed numerous umblicated vesicles; which became pustular&haemorhagic& crusted. After 2 days child developed high fever and lymphadenopathy. The diagnosis is
(A) Secondary infected atopic dermatitis
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Eczema herpaticum
(D) Eczema vaccinatum
201. Most common precipitant of contact dermatitis is
(A) Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Iron
202. Commonest metal causing skin hypersensitivity-
(A) Nickel
(B) Cu
(C) Iron
(D) Brass
203. Most common cause of allergic contact dermatitis in Indian female is
(A) Vegetables
(B) Nail polish
(C) Detergents
(D) Dyes
204. Commonest cause of air borne contact dermatitis in India is:
(A) Parthenium
(B) Garden grass
(C) Calotropis/Crysophillus
(D) Yellow oleander
(E) Dust
205. In India, the plant which causes dermatitis most commonly is:
(A) Parthenium grass
(B) Cotton fibers
(C) Poison Ivy
(D) Ragweed
206. A female has hypopigmented lesion on centre of forehead drug, responsible is:
(A) Hydroquinone
(B) Mono benzene metabolite of hydroquinone
(C) Para tetra butyl catechol
(D) Para tetra butyl phenol
207. Berloque dermatitis is due to contact with-
(A) Metals
(B) Cosmetics
(C) Food
(D) Plants
208. A 55-year-old male, with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and hypertension, developed severe air-borne contact dermatitis. The most appropriate drug for his treatment would be:
(A) Systemic corticosteroids
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Azathioprine
(D) Cyclosporine
209. A 27year old male has itchy, excoriated papules on forehead and exposed parts of arms and legs for 3 years. The disease was most severe in rainy season and improved completely in winters. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Scabies
(B) Urticaria
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Insect bite hypersensitivity
210. Air-borne contact dermatitis can be diagnosed by:
(A) Skin biopsy
(B) Patch test
(C) Prick test
(D) Estimation of serum IgE levels
211. Diagnostic method of choice in contact dermatitis
(A) Clinical examination
(B) Skin Biopsy
(C) Tzank Smear
(D) Patch Test
212. Patch testing is done for :
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) Irritant contact dermatitis
(C) Allergic contact dermatitis
(D) Discoid eczema
213. Patch test is a type of:
(A) Immediate hypersensitivity
(B) Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
(C) Immune complex mediate hypersensitivity
(D) Delayed type hypersensitivity
214. Skin test can be done for which hypersensitivity reactions:
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
215. Patch test is read after:
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2 days
(C) 2 weeks
(D) 2 months
216. All are true/except regarding patch test
(A) Diagnose ABCD
(B) Read after 48 hours
(C) Angry back 1/t false negative test
(D) Reading is delayed in neomycin
(E) T.R.U.E test
217. Morbilliform eruptions is been in:
(A) Scarlet fever
(B) Rubella
(C) Toxic shock syndrome
(D) Measles
(E) Mumps
218. All may lead to hives and wheels except
(A) Cold
(B) Hepatitis C
(C) Serum Sickness
(D) Typhoid Fever
219. A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exertion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Chronic idiopathic utricaria
(B) Heat urticaria
(C) Solar urticaria
(D) Cholinergic urticaria
220. A patient gets recurrent urticarial while doing exercise and on exposure to sunlight. Which of the following is most like cause:
(A) Chronic Idiopathic Utricaria
(B) Heat urticaria
(C) Solar urticaria
(D) Cholinergic urticaria
221. A 9 year-old has multiple itchy erythematous wheals all over the body for 2 days. There is no respiratory difficulty. Which is the best treatment?
(A) Antihelmithics
(B) Systemic corticosteroids
(C) Antihistamines
(D) Adrenaline
222. Darriers sign is seen in:
(A) Xenodermapigmentosa
(B) Urticariapigmentosa
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Glucogonoma
223. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheat, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Fixed drug eruption
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Urticariapigmentosa
(D) Urticarial vasculitis
224. All are true regarding hereditary angioedema, except?
(A) Dysfunction of enzyme is most common cause
(B) Enzyme involved in C1 INH
(C) CI inhibitor targets Hageman factor
(D) Complement C4 & C2 decrease
(E) Bradykinin level decrease during attack
225. A person present with recurrent swelling on face and lips due to emotional stress, cause is
(A) CI esterase inhibitor deficiency
(B) Allergy
(C) Anaphylaxis
(D) None of the above
226. A patient presents with history of episodic painful edema of face and larynx and abdominal pain associated with stress. Which of the following is likely to be deficient
(A) Complement C3
(B) Complement C5
(C) CI Esterase Inhibitor
(D) Properidin
227. Immediately after eating a man develops swelling of face and lips, respiratory distress, intense pruiritis, hypotension and feeling of impending doom. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Angioneurotic Edema
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Myocardial Infarction
(D) Food stuck in throat
228. Laboratory evaluation of a patient with recurrent lip edema shows decreased C4 and C1INH (quantity & function) with normal C1q. Diagnosis is
(A) Hereditary angioedema type II
(B) Hereditary angioedema type I
(C) Acquired AE type II
(D) Acquired AE type I
229. Not true about angioneurotic edema?
(A) Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membrane
(B) CI Esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it
(C) Extreme temperature exposure can provoke it
(D) Known with ACE inhibitors
230. A man takes peanut and develops, tongue swelling, neck swelling, stridor, hoarseness of voice. What is the probable diagnosis.
(A) Angloneurotic edema
(B) FB bronchus
(C) Parapharyngeal abscess
(D) FB in larynx
231. Quincke’s disease is popularly known as –
(A) Norweigian scabies
(B) Angioneuroticoedema
(C) Seborroheaolesa
(D) Saddle nose
232. All are causes of papulo squamous lesions except
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Para psoriasis
(C) Squamous cell carcinoma
(D) Mycosis fungoides
(E) Congenital syphilis
233. All of the following may lead to plaque formation except
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Pemphigus
234. Exofliative dermatitis is seen in all the following except
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Pityriasisrubrapilaris
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Drug hypersensitivity
(E) Eczema
235. Causes of erythroderma-
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Pityriasisversicolor
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Lichen planus
(E) Eczema
236. Gold poisoning leading to exfoliative dermatitis is treated by:
(A) Chloroquin
(B) Steroid
(C) Antibiotics
(D) Antihistaminics
237. Munro micro abscess is seen in:
(A) Dermal tissue
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum corneum
(D) Stratum Malpighi
238. About micro-munro abscesses which of the following statements are true:
(A) Seen in stratus corneum
(B) Seen in psoriasis
(C) Contain neutrophils & lymphocyte
(D) Contain neutrophils only
(E) Associated pustules are normally seen
239. HPR finding in psoriasis:
(A) Micromunro abscess
(B) Suprapapillarythining
(C) Grenzzonme present
(D) Pautrier’s abscess
(E) Hyperkeratosis
240. Bleeding spots seen on removal of scales in psoriasis is called as:
(A) Auspitz sign
(B) Puntuate hemorrhage
(C) Nikolyski’ sign
(D) Darrier sign
241. “Auspitz” sign is characteristically seen in:
(A) Plaque Psoriasis
(B) Pustular Psoriasis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Inverse Psoriasis
242. A patient presents with erythematous scaly lesions on extensor aspect of elbows and knee. The clinical diagnosis is got by:
(A) Auspitz sign
(B) KOH smear
(C) Tzancksmear
(D) Skin biopsy
243. A 30 years old male presented with silvery scales on elbow and knee, that bleed on removal. The probable diagnosis is:
(A) Pityriasis
(B) Seborrhoeic dermatitis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Secondary syphilis
244. Bulkeley membrane is seen in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Tinea
(D) Pityriasis
245. The important feature of psoriasis is –
(A) Crusting
(B) Scaling
(C) Oozing
(D) Erythema
246. All of the following are seen in psoriasis except :
(A) Auspitz sign present
(B) 10% associated with arthritis
(C) It is premalignant disease
(D) Worsening of disease during winter
247. All are true about psoriasis except:
(A) Very pruritic
(B) Pitting of nails
(C) Joint involvement in 5-10%
(D) Parakeratosis & acanthosis
248. All are true regarding Psoriasis except:
(A) Arthritis in 5%
(B) Abscess is seen
(C) Head, neck and face are not involved
(D) No scaly, red lesions are seen in infra mammary and natal area.
249. Least common site involvement in psoriasis is
(A) Scalp involvement
(B) Nail Involvement
(C) CNS involvement
(D) Arthritis
250. Psoriasis is exacerbated by-
(A) Lithium
(B) B-blockers
(C) Antimalarials
(D) All of the above
251. Chloroquine cause exacerbation of:
(A) Malaria
(B) Psorisasis
(C) DLE
(D) Photosensitivity
252. Vitamin D analogue calcitriol is useful in the treatment of
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Phemphigus
(D) Leprosy
253. Treatment of psoriasis-
(A) PUVA
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Systemic steroids
(D) Femicycline
(E) Terbinafine
254. In psoriticarthropathy TOC is
(A) Mtx
(B) 5FU
(C) PUVA
(D) Steroid
255. The treatment of choice of erythrodermic psoriasis is:
(A) Corticosteroids
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Coaltar topically
(D) Topical corticosteroids
256. The treatment of psoriatic erythroderma is –
(A) Methotrexate
(B) Retinols
(C) Diethrenol
(D) Corticosteroid
257. Treatment of pustular psoriasis is :
(A) Thalidomide
(B) Retinoids
(C) Hydroxyurea
(D) Metholtrexate
(E) Steroid
258. DOC of pustular psoriasis
(A) PUVA
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Steroid
(D) Cyclophosphamide
259. Treatment of choice in Pustuar psoriasis
(A) Psorialin + UV therapy
(B) Systemic steroid
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Estrogen
260. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping the treatment, patient developed universally red scaly skin with plaques losing their margins all over his body. The most likely cause is
(A) Drug induced reaction
(B) Pustular psoriasis
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Erythrodermic Psoriasis
261. A patient with psoriasis was started on systemic steroids. After stopping treatment, the patient developed generalized pustules all over the body. The cause is most likely to be:
(A) Drug induced reaction
(B) Pustular psoriasis
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Septicemia
262. Treatment erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:
(A) Corticosteroids
(B) Retinoids
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Psoralen with PUVA
263. The only indication of giving corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is
(A) Psoriatic ertythroderma with pregnancy
(B) Psoriasis in a pt. with alchoholic cirrhosis
(C) Moderate arthritis
(D) Extensive lesions
264. DOC for a pregnant woman in 2nd trimester with pustular psoriasis is
(A) Prednisolone
(B) Dapsone
(C) Acitretin
(D) Methotrexate
265. Only definitive indication of systemic steroids in psoriasis is
(A) Pustular psoriasis
(B) Erythroderma
(C) Psoriatic arthropathy
(D) Impetigo herpetiformis
266. Koebner’s phenomenon is characteristic of
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Lupus vulgaris
267. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in-
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Pitriasisrubra
(E) Phemphigus
268. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen in –
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Warts
(C) Bechet syndrome
(D) Psoraisis
(E) Vitiligo
269. Pseudo koebner’s phenomenon is/are seen in:
(A) Warts
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Psoriasis
(E) Vitiligo
270. The mechanism of action of psoralen is :
(A) Binding to DNA
(B) Inhibiting protein synthesis
(C) Inhibiting angiogenesis
(D) Inhibiting keratinization
271. Which is not a complication of PUVA therapy :
(A) Premature aging of skin
(B) Cataracts
(C) Skin cancers
(D) Exfoliative
272. Photochemotherapy (Psoralent + UVV) is used in
(A) Pityriasisrosea
(B) Erythroderma
(C) Scabies
(D) Psoriasis
273. PUVA therapy is used in :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Freckles
(D) Melasma
(E) Vitiligo
274. Psoralen – A is used in the treatment of :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Pityriasisalba
(D) Icthyosis
275. Psoralen + ultraviolet light (PUVA) therapy is useful in the treatment of:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Vitiligo
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) All of the above
276. Uses of PUVA –
(A) Pigmented purpuric lesion
(B) Herpes zoster
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Lupus panniculitis
(E) Lichenoid dermatitis of Gougerot & Blum
277. Circulating lymphocytes are most sensitive to :
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C
(D) 760-800 mm
278. The most effective treatment of pruritus in uremia is :
(A) Ultraviolet light
(B) Chloestyramine
(C) Eskazine
(D) Topical benzocaine
279. Mouth Lesion are seen in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen Planus
(C) Basal Cell CA
(D) Icthyosis Vulgaris
280. Mucosa is involved in:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Alopecia
(D) Scabies
(E) Porphyria
281. Features of lichen planus are
(A) Pruritis
(B) Purple color
(C) Papule
(D) Purpura
(E) Petechiae
282. Oral examination is done in case of :
(A) Peutzjegher syndrome
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Beri-beri
(D) Plummer vinson syndrome
283. Necrotic Keratinocyts occur in
(A) DLE
(B) Graft versus host disease
(C) Erythema multiformal
(D) Lichen planus
(E) Psoriasis
284. Joseph’s space is a histopatho-logical feature of:
(A) Psoriasis vulgaris
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Pityrasisrosea
(D) Parapsoriasis
285. Civatte bodies are found in:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Dermatophytosis
(D) Vitiligo
286. True about lichen planus-
(A) Basal cell degeneration
(B) Colloid bodies seen
(C) Epidermal hyperplasia in chronic cases
(D) Wickham’s striae seen
(E) Autoimmune disease
287. Basal cell degeneration characteristically seen in:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) DLE
288. A young lady presents with lacy lesions in oral cavity and genitals, and her proximal nail fold has extended onto the nail bed. What is the likely diagnosis
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Geographic tongue
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Candidiasis
289. A 30 year old male present with pruritic flat-topped polygonal, shiny violaceous papules with flexural distribution. the most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pityriasis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Lichenoid dermatitis
290. Which of the following is pruritic:
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Secondary syphilis
291. Lacy white lesion in mouth with pterygium is seen in :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Ptirysisalba
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Leprosy
292. Regarding Lichen Planus all are true, except :
(A) Hypopigmentation in most residual disease
(B) Lymphatic infiltration in supradermal layer
(C) Itchy polygonal, purple papule
(D) Skin, hair and oral mucosa commonly involved
293. All of the following regarding Lichen planus are true except:
(A) Does not involve mucous membrane
(B) Associated with Hepatitis ‘C’
(C) Topical steroid are the mainstay of therapy
(D) Spontaneous remissions 6mo to 2 years
294. A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hypopigmented macular lesions over the trunk and oral mucosa. The diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Lichenplanus
(D) Pemphigus
295. Characteristic nail finding in lichen planus
(A) Pitting
(B) Pterygium
(C) Beau’s Lines
(D) Hyperpigmentation of nails
296. 10 year old child has violaceous papule and pterygium of nails. The diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Lichen Planus
297. Wickehm’sstria seen in-
(A) Lichen niditus
(B) Lichenoid eruption
(C) Lichen striates
(D) Lichen planus
298. Itchy polygonal violaceous (itchy/prusitic) palpules seen in
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Pitriasiosrosea
299. Features of lichen planus are
(A) Pruritis
(B) Purple
(C) Papule
(D) Purpura
(E) Peterchiae
300. Most characteristic Feature of lichen planus is:
(A) Thinning of nail plate is most common
(B) Non scarring alopecia
(C) Violaceous lesions on skin and mucous membrane
(D) Wickham striae
301. The most characteristic finding In lichen planus is:
(A) Civatte bodies
(B) Basal cell degeneration
(C) Thinning of nail plate
(D) Violaceous lesions
302. In Lichen planus TOC is:
(A) Topical Salicylic acid
(B) UV ray
(C) Systemic steroids
(D) Erythromycin
303. Which of the following are pruritic lesions
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Sun burns
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Psoriasis
(E) SLE
304. All are vesiculo bullous lesions except –
(A) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
(B) Scabies/Atopic dermatitis
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Pemphigoid
305. Subepidermal lesion are
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Hailey-Hailey disease
(D) Darier’s disease
(E) Acanthosisnigricans
306. Subepithelial Bullae are seen in:
(A) Dermatitis herpatiforms
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Pemphigoid
307. Subepidermal bulla are seen in –
(A) Pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pityriasisrosea
(D) Psoriasis
308. Blister formation in burn case is in:
(A) Intraepidermal
(B) Subepidermal
(C) Subdermal
(D) Subfascial
309. Sub-epidermal splitting is not found in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus foliaceus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Burns
310. Subepidermal bistreing is seen in all except –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
(E) Hailey : Hailey disease
311. Intra epidermal blisters are seen in :
(A) Bullous pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus folliaceous
(C) Bullous SLE
(D) Bullous impetigo
(E) Trauma (thermal)
312. Intra-epidermal acantholytic (blisters) vesicles are seen in
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Carinomatous (paraneoplastic) pemphigus
(C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(D) Congenital epidermolysisbullosa
(E) Bullous pemphigoid
313. Acantholytic cell in pemphigus is derived from :
(A) Stratum granulosum
(B) Stratum basale
(C) Stratum spinosum
(D) Langerhan’s cell
314. Acantholysis is seen in:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid/SSS
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis/Impetigo
(C) Hailey-Hailey disease
(D) Darrier’s disease
(E) Pemphigus vulgaris
315. Acantholysis is characteristic of:
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Erythema multoforme
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
316. Acantholysis is seen in all of the following except :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Steven-Johnson syndrome
(D) Toxic epidermonecrolysis
317. Acantholysis is due to destruction of
(A) Epidermis
(B) Subepidermis
(C) Basement membrane
(D) Intercellular substance
318. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement member
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Keratin
(D) Cell nucleus
319. Acantholysis involves (is seen in) :
(A) Epidermis
(B) Dermis
(C) Epidermis-Dermis junction
(D) Subcutaneous tissue
(E) Adipose tissue
(F) All layers
320. Acantholytic cells are :
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Plasma cells
(C) Keratinocytes
(D) Giant cells
321. Acantolytic cells in pemphigus is –
(A) Cell with hyperchromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo
(B) Cell with hypochromatic nuclei and perinuclear halo
(C) Multinucleted cells
(D) None of the above
322. A 40 year old male reported with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin and flaccid vesiculo-bullous eruptions. Which is the most important bed-side investigation helpful in establishing the diagnosis –
(A) Gram staining of the blister fluid
(B) Culture and sensitivity
(C) Skin biopsy and immunoflurescence
(D) Tzanksmear from the floor of bulla
323. A 50 years old man has a 2 year history of facial bullae & oral ulcers. Microscpic smear from skin lesions is most likely to disclose –
(A) Tzanck cells
(B) Acantholytic cells
(C) Necrosis
(D) Koilogytosis
324. Tzank cell is a –
(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Monocyte
(C) Neutrophil
(D) Keratinocyte
(E) Eosinophil
325. A patient has Bullous Lesion; on Tzank smear
(A) Langerhans cells are seen
(B) Acontholysis
(C) Leucocytosis
(D) Absence of melanin pigment
326. Tzank smear helps in the diagnosis of :
(A) Herpes viral infection
(B) Bullous pemphigoids
(C) Carcinoma of cervix
(D) None
327. In Tzank smear multinucleated cells are seen in :
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Molluscumcontagiosum
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
328. Nikolsky sign ins positive in all of the following except :
(A) Staphylococal scalded skin syndrome
(B) Toxic epidermonecrolysis
(C) Bullous pemphigoid
(D) Pemphigus
329. Nikolsky sign is seen in –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Herpes zoster
(C) Herpes simlex
(D) Leukemia
(E) All
330. Nikolsky sing not present in :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Vitiligo
(D) Staphylococcal scalded syndrome
331. An auto immune disease is :
(A) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Acne Vulgaris
332. Genetic predisposition is seen in which disease :
(A) Lichen Planus
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Epidermolysis Bullosa
333. Hailey-hailey disease is :
(A) Benign familial chronic pemphigus
(B) Pemphigus acutus
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Lyell’s syndrome
334. Dyskeratosis is characteristic feature of:
(A) Darrier’s ds
(B) Pemphigus vulgaris
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Boweli’s disease
(E) Haikey-Hailey ds
335. Etiology of Epidermolysisbullosa is –
(A) Genetic
(B) Infections
(C) Senile
(D) Malignant
(E) Metabolic
336. In congenital dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa defect is seen in :
(A) Laminin 4
(B) Collagen type 7
(C) Collagen 4
(D) Collagen 3
337. In a 8 day old child with no history of consanguinity in the parents. The mother reports blisters and peeling off of skin at the site of handling and pressure. There was a similar history in previous child which proved to be fatal. The diagnosis :
(A) Bullous pemphigod
(B) Congenital Syphillis
(C) Congenital Epidermolysis bullosa
(D) Letterrersiwe disease
338. A 2 day old newborn girl born out of non-consanguinous marriage was evaluated for tense blister and areas of denuded skin that had ben pre3sent since birth. The child develops while mother handles for bathing and feeding. The sibling of child also had h/o developing similar lesions.
(A) Congenital syphilis
(B) Congenital epidermolysis bullosa
(C) LCH
(D) Congenital bullous icthyosiform erythroderma
339. A patient developed bullae without erythema on elbows, knee & sacral area f/b crust formation, scarring &milia. He had no photo sensitivity and negative family history for bullous diseases. On DIF IgG deposition at DEJ with no blood vessel involvement is seen probable diagnosis is
(A) EB dystrophic
(B) EB acquisita
(C) Porphyria CT
(D) Pemphigoid bullous
340. Commonest/rarest veriety of Pemphigus –
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris/vegetans
(B) Pemphigus vegetans/vulgaris
(C) Pemphigus fliaceus/erythematosis
(D) Pemphigus erythematosia/foliaceous
341. ‘Row of tombstones’ appearance is seen in :
(A) Irritant dermatitis
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Harpes zoster
342. In pemphigus vulgaris, antibodies are present against :
(A) Basement membrane
(B) Intercellular substance
(C) Cell nucleus
(D) Keratin
(E) Cell membrane
343. True about pemphigus vulgaris A/E :
(A) Subepidermal
(B) Autoimmune disease
(C) Tzanck smear shows acanthoyltic cells
(D) Antibody are formed against desmogleins
(E) Blister on skin & mucosa
344. A patient with Bullous eruption on lower limb and trunk, biopsy show epidermal bullae. The correct diagnosis is:
(A) Pemphigoid
(B) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(C) Impetigo
(D) Internal Malignany
345. A 24 years old (middle aged) female has faccid bullae in the skin and persistent painful oral erosions (palatal & vestibular lesions in buccal mucosa). Histopathology shows intraepidermalacantholytic blister. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Bullous Pemphigoid
(B) Erythema multiforme
(C) Pemphigus vulgaris
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(E) Epidermolysis bullosa acquista
346. A 40 year old male developed persistant oral ulcers followed by multiple flaccid bullae on trunk and extermities. Direct examination of a skin biopsy immunofluorescence showed intercellular IgG deposits in the epidermis. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous Pemphigoid
(C) Bullous Lupus erythematosus
(D) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
347. A 50 year old male known case of myasthe-nia with erythemated shallow erosions with few blisters and scales. Oral mucosa is not involved. Immunopathology demonstrates IgG deposition on keratinocytes and auto antibodies against Dsg-1.The diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus foliaceus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
348. Drug induced pemphigus is seen in all except
(A) Penicillin
(B) Phenopthelein
(C) Iodine
(D) Frusemide
349. All are associated with pemphigus except :
(A) Thymoma
(B) CLL
(C) Myasthenia gravis
(D) Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
(E) Atrophic gastritis
350. Mucous lesions are seen in :
(A) Sec. syphilis
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
(E) Porphyria
351. A 56 year old male lallu presents with painful bullous lesion in lower extremity, the most likely diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus Vulgaris
(B) Bulllouspemphigoid
(C) Necrotic Pemphigus
(D) Contact eczema
352. A 85 year old woman with Nikolsky sign-ve, blisters on thigh & trunk, lesions come on & off. What is the cause :
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
353. A young boy with multiple flaccid bullous lesions over trunk with oral mucosal lesions. Most likely finding on biopsy would be :
(A) ‘Fishnet’ IgG deposits in epidermis
(B) Linear IgG in Deposits
(C) Linear IgA in dermal papillae
(D) Granular IgA in reticular dermis
354. Inter cellular IgG deposition in epidermis is seen in :
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Sub corneal pustulardermatosis
(C) Bulluspemphigoid
(D) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
355. Direct immunofluorescence is positive in
(A) Atopic dermatitis
(B) SLE
(C) Pemphigus
(D) Secondary syphilis
356. A 40 year old male had multiple blisters over the trunk & Extremities. Direct Immuno fluoresce studies showed linear IgG deposits along the Basement membrane, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bullous pemphigoid
(C) Pemphigus foliaceous
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
357. Granular IgA deposit at dermal papilla are found in:
(A) Dermatitis Herpetiformis
(B) IgA disease of childhood
(C) Herpetic gestation
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
358. Skin disease not showing DIF (Direct immunofluorescence) :
(A) Darrier’s disease
(B) Hailey-Hailey disease
(C) Cictricialpemphigoid
(D) Dermatitis herpatiformis
(E) Pemphigus
359. Spontaneous remission is most frequent with
(A) Herpes labialis
(B) Herpes genitalis
(C) Herpetic chancroid
(D) Herpes gestationis
360. Commonest site of herpes Gestationis is-
(A) Perimumbilical region
(B) Flanks of abdomen
(C) Vulva
(D) Infraorbital
361. HLA associated with dermatitis Herpetiformis –
(A) HLA A5
(B) HLB B8
(C) HLA B27
(D) HLA A28
362. All are true about dermatitis herpetformis except
(A) More common in young adult
(B) Intense pruritus
(C) Deposit of IgG at the epidermodermal lesion
(D) None
363. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papula-vesicular lesions on both knees, elbows, upper back and buttocks for one year. Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesion showed IgA deposition at dermoepidermal junction and dermal papilla. The most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Pemphigus vulagris
(B) Bullous permphigoid
(C) Dermatitis herpetiforms
(D) Nummular eczema
364. Extermely pruritic excoriation & papules on buttocks with autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase and IgA deposition in dermis on immuno-histological examination of normal perilesional skin. Diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Pemphigoid
(C) Linear IgA disease
(D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
365. DOC for dermatitis herpetiformis is :
(A) Steroids
(B) Dapsone
(C) PUVA
(D) Antihistaminic
366. The treatment of Dermatitis herpetiformis is –
(A) Gluten free diet with mineral and vitamins
(B) Carbamazepine
(C) Acyclovir
(D) Corticosteroids
367. What can patient with gluten sensitive hypersensitivity consume as food :
(A) Rice
(B) Barley
(C) Oat
(D) Corn
(E) Rye
368. All are true about linear IgA disease except
(A) Subepidermal involvement
(B) Severe itching
(C) Granular deposition of IgA
(D) Are candidates for gluten free diet
(E) A variant of dermatitis herpetiformis
369. Commonest etiology of erythema multiforme is –
(A) Viral
(B) Bacterial
(C) Food
(D) Drugs
370. All are true about erythema multiformis except :
(A) Due to herpes simplex
(B) Duet to sulphonamide
(C) Lesion are symmetrical
(D) Mucous membrane is involved in all
371. Target or Iris lesion seen in
(A) Urticaria
(B) Erythema mutiformae
(C) Scabies
(D) Lichen Planus
372. Regarding Erythema multiforme all are true except :
(A) No vesicles
(B) Target lesion are seen
(C) Involves face and neck regions
(D) Sign of internal malignancy
373. A 60-year-old patient presented with several bullous lesions for the last 3 days; each bull was surrounded by an erythematous halo. There were multiple target lesions. Patient also had oral erosions. The most likely
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Steven-Johnson syndrome
374. Toxic epidermonercrolysis is caused by :
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Penicillin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gold
375. All are considered to be high risk agents for TEN except
(A) Sulfonamide
(B) Sulfonyl urea
(C) Aspirin
(D) Oxicam
(E) Phenytoin
376. A 3 months old male infant developed otitis media for which he was given a course of Co-trimoxazole. A few days later, he developed extensive peeling of the skin; there were no mucosal lesions and the baby was not toxic. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(B) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
(C) Steven Johnson syndrome
(D) Infantile pemphigus
377. Which layer of skin causes vesicular change in case of burn :
(A) Basal layer
(B) Papillary layer
(C) Epidermis
(D) Dermis
378. Causative organism of molluscumcontagiosum is –
(A) Papova virus
(B) Pox virus
(C) Orthomyxo virus
(D) Parvo virus
379. An eight year old boy presents with multiple umbilicated pearly white papules on trunk & face following a trivial infection. Diagnosis is :
(A) MolluscumContagiosum
(B) Chicken pox
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Dermatophytosis
380. Which of the following is true of molluscumcontagiosum –
(A) Treatment is extirption
(B) Is an STD
(C) Virall infection
(D) Central umbilication
(E) All are correct
381. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a :
(A) Cervical region
(B) Thoracic region
(C) Lumbar region
(D) Geniculate ganglion
382. Ballooning is characteristic of :
(A) Harpes zoster
(B) Pemphigus
(C) Pemphigoid
(D) Insect bite
383. A 45 year old male has multiple grouped vesicular lesions present on the T10 segment dermatome associated with pain. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Herpes zoster
(B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) Scabies
384. Most common site of affection of herpes simplex –
(A) Thorax
(B) Abdomen
(C) Face
(D) Extremities
385. The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is
(A) Herpes genitalis
(B) Aphthous ulcer
(C) Syphilis
(D) Chancroid
386. Drug of choice in Herpes zoster
(A) Acyclovir
(B) Vidarabine
(C) Idoxuridine
(D) Actinomycin
387. Herpes resistant to acyclovir is treated by
(A) Foscarnet
(B) Lamivudine
(C) Ganiclovir
(D) Valocyclovir
388. Which of the following not a feature of dermatomyositis?
(A) Gottren’s papules
(B) Periungua telangiectasia
(C) Salmon rash
(D) Mechanic’s hand
389. True about dermatomyositis
(A) Gottron papules
(B) ANA a/w all cases
(C) All cases a/w malignancy
(D) Proximal muscle wasting
390. Gottron’s papules or sign seen in :
(A) Dermatomyositis
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Acute myeloid leukemia
(D) Psoriasis
391. A 40 year old woman presented with a 8 month history of erythema and swelling of the periorbital region & papules & plaques on the dorsolateral aspect of forearms & knuckles with ragged cuticles. There was no muscle weakness. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) SLE
(B) Dermatomyositis
(C) Systemic sclerosis
(D) Mixed connective tissue disorder
392. Antibody that is strongly associated with polymyositis?
(A) Anti-jo1
(B) Anti-ku
(C) Anti-Scl-70
(D) Anti-sm
393. Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with?
(A) Scleroderma
(B) Leukemia
(C) Lung infections
(D) Hepatosplenomegaly
394. All are manifestations of SLE except :
(A) Lesions resembling Chr. DLE
(B) Butterfly rash
(C) Photosensitivity
(D) Constitutional symptom
(E) Sex ratio is nearly equal
395. True about drug induced SLE is :
(A) CNS manifestation are common
(B) Renal involvement is common
(C) Antihistone antibodies are found in many
(D) All with antibodies progress to lupus
(E) Sex ratio is nearly equal
396. Lupus like picture is causes by all except :
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Procanamide
(C) Hydralazine
(D) Isoniazid
397. Chloroquin is indicated in treatment of
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pempigoid
(C) Psoriasis
(D) DLE
398. 23 year old lady sony develops brown macular lesions over bridge of nose and cheek following exposure to light. The probable diagnosis is
(A) SLE
(B) Acne Rosacea
(C) Chloasma
(D) Photodermatitis
399. A girl of 19 years with arthritis and photosensitive rash on cheeks, likely diagnosis is
(A) SLE
(B) Chlosma
(C) Steveris Johnson Syndrome
(D) Lyme’s Disease
400. The concentration of hydroquinone for treating cholasma should be –
(A) 1%
(B) 1 to 2%
(C) 2 to 5%
(D) 10%
401. Photosensitive dermatitis is/are :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pemphigus
(D) SLE
(E) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
402. Which of the following are photosensitive diseases:
(A) SLE
(B) Liver spots
(C) Calcinosis cutis
(D) Morphea
(E) Prophyriacutaneatarda
403. Which of the following not photosensitive:
(A) Porphyria
(B) DLE
(C) SLE
(D) Lichen Planus
404. Exposure to sunlight can precipitate :
(A) Chlosma
(B) Discoid lupus erytyhematosus
(C) Dermatitis herpatiformis
(D) Lupus vulgaris
405. A 45-year-old farmer has itchy ertythematous popular lesions on face, neck, ‘V’ area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be :
(A) Skin biopsy
(B) Estimation of IgE levels in blood
(C) Patch test
(D) Intradermal prick test
406. Chandu 32 years male presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. He also complain of some psychiatric symptoms & visual hallucination. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Hysteria
(D) Intermittent Porphyria
407. A girl on sulphonamides developed abdominal pain and presented to emergency with seizure. What is the probable cause?
(A) Acute intermittent porphyria
(B) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
(C) Infectious mononucleosis
(D) Kawasaki’s disease
408. A 40 year old farmer with history of recurrent attack of porphyria complains of itching when exposed to the sun and maculopapular rashes on sun exposed area. His symptoms are exaggerated in summer. The diagnosis is:
(A) Seborrheic dermatitis
(B) Contact dermatitis
(C) Psoriasis
(D) PorphyreaCutaneatarda
409. Porphyrins are synthesized mainly in
(A) Spleen
(B) Liver and spleen
(C) Bonemarrow and spleen
(D) Liver and Bone marrow
410. Porphyria cutaneatarda can be treated by :
(A) Phelobotomy
(B) Heme
(C) Low dose chlotoquine
(D) Metronidazole
411. Treatment of choice in the cutaneous complication of porphyria is:
(A) I. V dextrose
(B) I. V Haematin
(C) Beta carotene
(D) Calamine
412. Non Palpable purpura is seen in A/E
(A) H. S. Purpura
(B) Drug induced vasculitis
(C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenicpurpura
(D) Amyloid
413. Palpable purpura is seen in all except :
(A) Wegeners GN
(B) ITP
(C) HSP
(D) Serum sickness
414. Palpable pupura is seen in all condition except
(A) Cryoglobulinuria
(B) H.S. Pupura
(C) Giant cell arteritis
(D) Drug induced vasculitis
415. A-42-year-old female has palpable purpura with rash over buttocks, pain in abdomen, and arthropathy diagnosis is
(A) Sweet syndrome
(B) HSP
(C) Purpurafulminans
(D) Meningococcemia
416. IgA deposits on skin biopsy
(A) HenochSchouleilnpuspura
(B) Giant cell arteritis
(C) Microscopic polyangitis
(D) Wegener’s granulomatosis
417. A 5 year old child develops non blanching macules, papules and petechial hemorrhage on lower extremities, mild abdominal pain, and skin biopsy showed IgA deposition along blood vessels perivascular neutrophilic infiltrate. Most probably diagnosis is
(A) Wegner’s granulomatosis
(B) Poly artiritisnodosa
(C) HenochSchonleinpurpura
(D) Kawasaki disease
418. Which of following is/are not the feature of HenochSchnleinPurpura (HSP) :
(A) Abdominal pain
(B) Splinter haemorrhage
(C) Thrombocytopenia
(D) Epistaxis
(E) Arthritis
419. All regarding, HSP is true except
(A) Hematuria resolve without treatment
(B) Steroids best treat skin lesions
(C) Self limiting arthralgia
(D) Excellent prognosis
(E) Purpurafulminans
420. ‘Pinch purpura’ is diagnostic of
(A) Systemic 1° amyloidosis
(B) 2° systemic anyloidosis
(C) ITP
(D) Drug induced purpura
421. Treatment of Kawasaki’s disease?
(A) IVI g
(B) Steroids
(C) Thalidomide
(D) Dapsone
422. A 4 year old child with high fever developed toxic look, eruptions on trunk & proximal extremities, bilateral bulbar conjunctivitis without discharge and fissuring-crusting-red lips. Due to limb edema walking became difficult. She also had desquamation in perineum & finger tips with cervical adenopathy. Diagnosis is
(A) PAN
(B) HSP
(C) Kawasaki syndrome
(D) Erythema infectosum
423. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
(A) Kimura’s disease
(B) Hodgkin’s disease
(C) Castleman’s disease
(D) Kikuchi disease
424. Which of the following organisms most commonly causes reactive arthritis?
(A) Urea plasmaurealyticum
(B) Group A beta hemolytic streptococci
(C) Borreliaburgdorferi
(D) Chlamydia
425. A patient gives h/o recurrent oral ulcers. The ulcers are small with a yellow floor surrounded by an erythematous halo on lips. He also has multiple, tender nodules on shin. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Pemphigus vulgaris
(B) Bechet’s syndrome
(C) Herpes Labialis
(D) Fixed drug eruption
426. A 27-year-old male had burning micturition & urethral discharge. After 4 weeks he developed joint pains involving both the knees & ankles, redness of the eyes & skin lesions. The most probable clinical diagnosis:
(A) Psoriasis vulgaris
(B) Reiter’s synd
(C) Bechet’ssynd
(D) Sarcoidosis
427. Which of the following is not included in the triad of Reiter’s syndrome:
(A) Conjunctivetis
(B) Urethritis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Keratodermab lenorrhagica
428. A 29 years old male with a history of long leisure trip presented with right knee pain and swollen join with foreign body sensation in eye. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Reiter’s disease
(D) Bechet’s disease
429. What is not seen in Reiters syndrome?
(A) Subcutaneous nodules
(B) Keratodermab lennorrhagicum
(C) Circinatebalantis
(D) Oral ulcers
430. True regarding reactive arthritis is all except
(A) HLA B27 & HIV affects severity
(B) Dactylitis & enthesitis
(C) Keratoderma mostly on glans
(D) Asymmetrical sacroilitis
(E) Onycholysis& hyperkeratosis of nails
431. Recurrent orogenital ulceration with arthritis is seen in
(A) Bechets syndrome
(B) Gonorrhoea
(C) Reiters syndrome
(D) Syphills
432. All the following are primary cutaneous diseases except :
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Reiter’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Kcthiosis/Bowen’s disease
433. All are neutrophilic dermatosis except :
(A) Subcorneal pustular dermatosis
(B) Kimura disease
(C) Granuloma facial
(D) Sweet’s syndrome
(E) Pyoderma gungrenosum
434. False about sweet syndrome
(A) May be a/w high fever
(B) Neutrophilia not present
(C) May be a/w hematological malignancy
(D) Pseudovesication
(E) Tender erythematous nodule / plaque.
435. A child with fever had multiple skin lesions, an on microscopic examination the skin lesions are seen to have neutrophilic and histiocytic infiltration in the dermis. What is the diagnosis?
(A) Sweet syndrome
(B) Behchet’s syndrome
(C) Pyodermagangrenosum
(D) Juvenile dermatosis.
436. Pyoderma gangrenoum is seen in :
(A) Crohns disease
(B) Divertuculosis
(C) Ulcerative colitis
(D) Ca. Colon.
437. A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesicobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tab paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyper pigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Bechet’s syndrome
(B) Herpes genitalis
(C) Fixed drug eruption
(D) Pemphigus vulgaris
438. Recurrent erythematous plaques on glans penis in a 19 yrs old sexually active male which heals with residual hyperpigmentation, is suggestive of?
(A) ApthousBalanitica
(B) Fixed Drug Eruption
(C) Herpes Gestations
(D) Chlamydial infective
439. Neonatal fat necrosis : (subcutaneous fat necrosis of newborn) resembles :
(A) Erythema induratum
(B) Post-steroidal panniculitis
(C) Lupus panniculitis
(D) Lipodermatosclerosis
440. Erythema nodosum is seen in all of the following except:
(A) Pregnancy
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) SLE
(D) Chronic pancreatitis
441. Erythema nodosum is seen in all, Except:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Aspirin therapy
442. Erythema nodosum is seen in A/E
(A) Salicylate poisoning
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Leprosy
443. Erythema nodosum is due to A/E :
(A) Contraceptive pilles
(B) Barbiturates
(C) Penicillin
(D) Sulphonamides
444. Erythema nodosum is not seen in :
(A) Primary TB
(B) Sulfonamides
(C) Giant cell arteritis
(D) Streptococcal Infection
445. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is:
(A) Erythema nodosum
(B) Hansen’s disease
(C) Weber-Christian disease
(D) Nodular Vasculitis
446. Which of these statements is false for lesions of Erythema nodosum :
(A) They are considered as hypersensitivity reaction
(B) The skin overlying the lesions is red, smooth and shiny
(C) They are usually non tender
(D) They can be associated with tuberculosis
447. A young female presents with a history of fever and nodular lesion over the shin. Histopathology reveals foamy histiocytes with nuetrophilicinfiltration. There is no evidence of vasculitis. Most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Sweet’s Syndrome
(B) Erythema nodosum
(C) Erythema nodosumleprosum
(D) Behcet’s syndrome
448. Normal commensal of skin are
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Candida
(C) Propioni bacterium acnes
(D) Diptheria
(E) Streptopyogenes
449. Most common type of leprosy in India :
(A) BT
(B) TT
(C) LL
(D) BL
450. Skin smear is negative in which leprosy
(A) Indeterminate
(B) Neuritic
(C) Lepromatous
(D) Borderline
451. Single lesion in skin is seen in which type of leprosy :
(A) TT
(B) BT
(C) BL
(D) LL
452. A single hypopigmented anesthetic patch with satellite lesion on forearm, likely diagnosis is :
(A) Indeterminate leprosy
(B) Tuberculoid leprosy
(C) Neuritic leprosy
(D) Lupus Vulgaris
453. Satellite Lesion are seen in :
(A) Tuberculoid Leprosy
(B) Lepromatous Leprosy
(C) Borderline Tuberculoid Leprosy
(D) Histoid Leprosy
454. Inverted saucer shaped lesion is found in
(A) Lepromatous leprosy
(B) Tuberculoid leprosy
(C) Borderline leprosy
(D) Indeterminate leprosy
455. Characteristic feature of borderline leprosy
(A) Inverted saucer lesion
(B) ENL
(C) Hypopigmented macule & plaques all over body
(D) Glove & stocking anesthesia
456. A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is :
(A) Lepromatous leprosy
(B) Borderline leprosy
(C) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Borderline lepromatous leprosy
457. A patient with multiple hypopigmented&hypesthetic patches on lateral aspect of forearm with abundance of AFB and granulomatous inflammation on histology. The diagnosis is
(A) Tuberculoid leprosy
(B) Indetermediate leprosy
(C) Borderline leprosy
(D) Lepromatous leprosy
458. An 8-year old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 month h/o an ill definedhypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is :
(A) Ptyriasisalba
(B) Indeterminate leprosy
(C) Morphacea
(D) Calcium deficiency
459. 8 year old boy from Tamil Nadu presents with a white, non anaesthetic, non scalyhypopigmented macule on his face, likely diagnosis is:
(A) Pityriasisalba
(B) Pityriasisversicolour
(C) Indeterminate leprosy
(D) Neuritic leprosy
460. All lesions are seen in leprosy except
(A) Erythematous Macule
(B) Hypopigmented patch
(C) Vesicles
(D) Flat & raised patches
461. All are features of lepromatous leprosy except :
(A) Gynaecomastia
(B) Madarosis
(C) Saddle nose
(D) Perforating Ulcer
462. Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is
(A) Ulnar
(B) Median
(C) Radial
(D) Sciatic
463. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are :
(A) High ulnar, low median
(B) High median, low ulnar
(C) Triple nerve palsy
(D) High radial, low median
464. Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is :
(A) Pain
(B) Touch
(C) Vibration
(D) Temperature
465. In leprosy which of the following is not seen :
(A) Abnormal EMG
(B) Voluntary muscle wasting
(C) Decreased Proprioception
(D) Decreased response to tactile sensation
(E) Increased response to tactile sensation
466. Leprosy do not involve :
(A) CNS
(B) Testis
(C) Skin
(D) Cornea
467. Leprosy affects all organs except
(A) Eyes
(B) Nerves
(C) Uterus
(D) Ovary
468. Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by –
(A) Non caseating granuloma in nerve
(B) Sub epidermal free zone
(C) Bacilli in skin
(D) Skin caseation
469. All are true lepromatous leprosy except –
(A) Presence of globi
(B) Subepidermal free zone
(C) Decreased cell mediated immunity
(D) Presence of granulomas subdermally.
470. Skin biopsy in leprosy in characterized by :
(A) Pariappendegial bacilli
(B) Pariappendegeal lymphocytosis
(C) Perivascular lymphocytosis
471. Cell mediated immunity is maximum suppressed in
(A) BT
(B) LL
(C) TT
(D) Indeterminate
472. Virhow’s cells are seen in:
(A) Henochscholeinpurpura
(B) Toxic Epidermal necrolysis
(C) Congenital Syphilis
(D) Leprosy
473. Lepromin test is used for :
(A) Diagnosis
(B) Treatment
(C) Prognosis
(D) Epidemiological investigation
475. Not true about lepromin test is
(A) It is diagnostic
(B) Negative in infants < 6 months
(C) Used to classify
(D) BCG vaccination may convert negative to positive
476. Lepromin test is positive in which leprosy
(A) Lepromatous
(B) Indeterminate
(C) Histoid
(D) Tuberculoid
477. A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs. All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy, except :
(A) Sensation testing
(B) Lepromin test
(C) Slit smears
(D) Skin biopsy
478. A 27-year-old patient was diagnosed to have borderline leprosy and started on multibacillary multi-drug therapy. Six weeks later, he developed pain in the nerves and redness and swelling of the skin lesions. The management of his illness should include all of the following except :
(A) Stop anti-leprosy drugs
(B) Systemic corticosteroids
(C) Rest to the limbs affected
(D) Analgesics
479. Reversal lepra reaction shown in response to :
(A) Cloafazimine
(B) Chloroquine
(C) Glucocorticoids
(D) Thalidomide
480. DOC in type I lepra reaction with severe neuritis
(A) Thalidomide
(B) Clafazamine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Systemic Corticosteroid
481. Treatment of Acute neuritis in Lepra I reaction is A/E:
(A) Dapsone
(B) Steroid
(C) Thalidomide
(D) Incision and Drainage
482. Best method of treatment of ulner never abscess in case of leprosy is:
(A) High dose of steroid
(B) Incision and drainage
(C) Thalidomide
(D) High dose of clofazamine
483. The main cytokine, involved in erythema nodusumleprosum (ENL) reaction is :
(A) Interleukin – 2
(B) Interferon-gamma
(C) Tumor necrosis factor – alpha
(D) Macrophage colony stimulating factor
484. ENL is seen in which form of leprosy :
(A) Indeterminate
(B) BT
(C) LL (lepromatous leprosy)
(D) BL
(E) TT
485. Manifestation of ENL includes all of the following except :
(A) Pancreatistis
(B) Fever
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Arthritis
(E) Cutaneous nodules
486. Drug of choice in Erythema NodosumLeprosum (Type II lepra reaction) :
(A) Steroid
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Aspirin
487. Thalidomide is drug of choice for :
(A) Lepra I reaction
(B) Lepra II reaction
(C) Both
(D) Nerve Abscess
488. The daily dose of thalidomide for controlling E.N.L. is :
(A) 100 mg
(B) 200 – 300 mg
(C) 500 mg
(D) 1000 mg only
489. The following drug is not used for the treatment of type II lepra reaction
(A) Chloroquin
(B) Thalidomide
(C) Cyclosporine
(D) Corticosteroids
490. The most effective drug against M. leprae is:
(A) Dapsone
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Clofazamine
(D) Prothionamide
491. Most potent anti-leprotic drug is :
(A) Rifampcin
(B) Dapsone
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Norflox
492. The first line antileprosy drugs include all except-
(A) Dapsone
(B) Thiacetazone
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Rifampicin
493. Antileprotc drug also used in lepra reaction is :
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Dapsone
(C) Cirprofloxacin
(D) Clofazimine
494. Dose of Dapsone is –
(A) 1-2 mg/kg
(B) 5 mg/kg
(C) 10 mg/kg
(D) 20 mg/kg
495. One of the following is a side effect of clofazimine used in leprosy therapy –
(A) Hyperpigmentation
(B) Erythema
(C) Discoloration of body secretions
(D) Macular rash
496. Skin pigmentation &icthyosis like side effects are seen in :
(A) Rifampicin
(B) Clofazimine
(C) Dapsone
(D) Steroid
497. Control of TB and leprosy is by :
(A) Isolation of cases
(B) Specific protection
(C) Early diagnosis and treatment
(D) Elimination of reservoirs
498. Multidrug therapy is given for
(A) Syphilis
(B) Leprosy
(C) Herpetiformis
(D) Icthyosis Vulgaris
499. WHO regime for paucibacillary leprosy:
(A) 100 mg Dapsone daily + Rifampicin monthly (600 mg)
(B) Dapsone daily + Rifampicin daily
(C) Dapsone + Rifampicin + Clofazemine daily
(D) Rifampicin + Clofazamine daily
500. Duration of treatment in pauci bacillary leprosy is
(A) 6 months
(B) 9 months
(C) 2 years
(D) Till symptoms subside
501. Average duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy is
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 year
(C) 3 year
(D) Life long
502. Thalidomide is not used in
(A) ENL
(B) Bechet’s syndrome
(C) HIV associated Oral ulcers
(D) HIV associated neuropathy
503. Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis is a form of:
(A) Tuberculid
(B) Primary tuberculosis
(C) Postprimary tuberculosis with good resistance
(D) Post primary tuberculosis with poor resistance
504. Most common type of cutaneous T.B. is:
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) T.B. verruca cutis
(D) Erythema induratum
505. Skin manifestations of T.B.
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Lupus pernio
(C) Scrofuloderma
(D) Butcher warts
506. Tuberculosis of skin is called as
(A) Lupus Vulgaris
(B) Lupus Pernio
(C) Lupus profundus
(D) Scrofuloderma
507. True about lupus vulgaris-
(A) Apple jelly nodule at root of nose
(B) TB of skin & mucosa
(C) Also known as scrofuloderma
(D) ATT is helpful
508. A 12 year old boy had a gradually progressive plaque on a buttock for the last 3 years. The plaque was 15 cm in diameter, annular in shape, with crusting and induration at the periphery and scarring at the center. The most likely diagnosis.
(A) Tineacorporis
(B) Granuloma annulare
(C) Lupus vulgaris
(D) Borderline leprosy.
509. An 8 year old boy present with well defined annular lesion over the buttock with central scarring that is gradually progressive over the last 8 months. The diagnosis is:
(A) Annular psoriasis
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) TineaCorporis
(D) Chronic granulomatous disease
510. A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be:
(A) Tzanksmear
(B) KOH preparation
(C) Biopsy
(D) Sabourad’s agar
511. Apple-jelly nodules is/are seen in :
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) DLE
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Psoriasis
512. 20 year old male from Jaipur with erythermatous lesion on cheek with central crusting likely diagnosis is:
(A) SLE
(B) Lupus Vulgaris
(C) Chillblain
(D) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
513. A farmer h as a single warty lesion on leg. Which of the following could be most likely lesion :
(A) Verruca vulgaris
(B) Tuberculosis verrucosa cutis
(C) Mycetoma
(D) Lichen planushypertrophicus
514. Cutaneous (skin) Tuberculosis secondary to underlying tissue eg lymph node is called as
(A) Lupus Vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) SpinaVentosa
(D) TuberculousVerrucosa Cutis
515. Tuberculides are seen in
(A) Lupus vulgaris
(B) Scrofuloderma
(C) Lichen scrofulososum
(D) Erythema nodosum
516. Which of the following is/are tuberculides
(A) Lichen scrofulosorum
(B) Lichen nichidus
(C) Lichen aureus
(D) Erythema nodosum.
517. Involvement of sweat gland, dermal appendages, and hair follicles with epitheloid granuloma are typical features of which of the following?
(A) Lichen Scrofulosum
(B) Miliary TB
(C) Papulonecrotic type
(D) Lupus vulgaris
518. Mycobacterium causing skin ulcer :
(A) M.smegmatis
(B) M.scrofulaceum
(C) M.ulcerans
(D) M.fortiutum
(E) M.marinum
Answer: (C)
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519. Skin hazards of swimming are :
(A) Verrucae
(B) Pyodermagangrenosum
(C) M. marinum infection
(D) M. ulcerans infection
520. Epitheloid granuloma is characteristic of
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Eosinohilia
(C) T.B.
(D) Mycosis Fungoides
521. Staphylococcla infection causes all disease except :
(A) Impetigo
(B) Erysipelas
(C) Ecthyma
(D) Scaldy Skin Syndrome
522. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
(A) Staphylococcal infection
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Pseudomonas
(D) E. Coli
523. False statement about impetigo
(A) Mostly caused by staphylococcus or streptococcus or both
(B) It predisposes to glomerulonephritis
(C) Produces scar on healing
(D) Erythromycin is drug of choice
(E) It is infectious lesion
524. Commonest skin infection in children is –
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetgocontagiosa
(C) Molluscumcontagiosa
(D) Warts
525. Impetigo contageosa most commonly due to :
(A) Group B Streptococcus
(B) Staphylococcus
(C) Moniliasis
(D) Streptococcus Viridans
526. ‘Honey colored’ crusts are characteristic of :
(A) Nummular eczema
(B) Impetigo
(C) Herpes zoster
(D) Cutaneous diphtheria
527. True about Impetigo is :
(A) Contagious
(B) Bacterial infection
(C) Non contagious
(D) Honey coloured cast
(E) Viral infection
528. Erysipeloid is transmitted by :
(A) Droplet
(B) Feco-oral
(C) Mosquito bite
(D) Contact with animal
529. Staphylococcus causes A/E :
(A) Scarlet fever
(B) TSS
(C) Carbuncle
(D) Sycosisbarbae
530. Desquamation of skin occurs in
(A) Erythema infectiosum
(B) Kawasaki disease
(C) Scarlet fever
(D) Toxic shock syndrome
(E) Infectious mononucleosis
531. Which of these statements is false for Erythermamarginatum :
(A) Lesions are serpiginous
(B) Characteristically it is an evanescent
(C) Rash worsens on application of heart
(D) Rash is itchy
532. After 3 days of fever patient developed maculo erythematous rash lasting for 48 hrs diagnosis is:
(A) Fifth disease
(B) Rubella
(C) Measles
(D) Roseolainfantum
533. Primary pyodermas are:
(A) Impetigo contagiosa
(B) Ecthyma
(C) Furncle
(D) Pyodermagangrenosa
(E) Impetigo herpetiformes
534. Which of the following are bacterial infection of skin-
(A) Pyodermagangrenosum
(B) Piedra
(C) Impetigo contagiosa
(D) Ecthyma
535. Which of the following are fungal infection of skin –
(A) Sporothrichosis
(B) Molluscumcontagiousm
(C) Madura foot
(D) Tinea
536. Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections
(A) PAS
(B) Von-kossa
(C) Alizarin Red
(D) Masson’s Trichrome
537. Dermatophytes are :
(A) Sporothrix
(B) Tineaversicularis
(C) Microsporidium
(D) Trichophytonrubrum
(E) All of the above
538. Dermatophytes infection to:
(A) Superficial
(B) Subdermal
(C) Subfascial
(D) Muscular
539. Ring worm fungi live in
(A) Stratum Corneum
(B) Dermis
(C) Prickel Cell layer
(D) Basal Cell layer
540. Which does not cause TineaCapitis
(A) Epidermophyton
(B) Microsporum
(C) TrichophytonRubrum
(D) TrichophytonViolaceum/Schoenleiniii
541. Most common organism causing T. capitis is
(A) Trichophytontonsurans
(B) Microsporum
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Candida albicans
542. Black dot ring worm is caused by-
(A) Microsporon
(B) Trichophyton
(C) Epiermophyton
(D) Candida
543. Karion is seen in
(A) Candida infection
(B) Trichomoniasis
(C) Pityraisis
(D) Dermatophystosis
544. An 8 yr old boy presents with boggy swelling and easily pluckable hair, Diagnosis is
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) Tuberculoid leprosy
(D) Pityriasisalba
545. A 8 year old child has localized non cicatrial alopecia over scalp with itching and scales. The diagnosis is :
(A) TineaBarbae
(B) Alopecia areata
(C) TineaCapitis
(D) Lichen planus
546. A 10-yr-old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hair, and lymph nodes enlarged in occipital region. Which one of the following would be most help full for diagnostic evaluation?
(A) Biopsy and Giemsa staining
(B) Bacterial culture
(C) KOH amount
(D) Patch test, Gram staining &Tzank smear
547. An eleven year old boy is having tineacapitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:
(A) Oral griseofulvin therapy
(B) Topical griseofulvin therapy
(C) Shaving of the scalp
(D) Selenium sulphide shampoo
548. Tineaungum effects
(A) Nail fold
(B) Nail plate
(C) Joints
(D) Inter digital space
549. Treatment of tineaunguium –
(A) Fluticasone
(B) Itraconazole
(C) Oleamine oil
(D) Turbinafin
(E) Neomycin
550. CiclipiroxOleaine is used in :
(A) Dermatophytosis
(B) Acne
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Lichen Planus
551. DOC for TeniaUngum
(A) Ampthotericin B
(B) Miconazole
(C) Gresiofulvin
(D) Nystatin
552. Grisefulvin given for the treatment of fungal infection in the figure nail dermatophytosis for how much duration
(A) 4 weeks
(B) 6 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 3 months
553. Not used topically
(A) Nystatin
(B) Ketoconazole
(C) Griseofulvin
(D) Micronazole
554. Grisofulvin is used in all except
(A) TineaCaptitis
(B) TineaVersicolor& Candida
(C) TineaCorporis
(D) TineaUngium
555. Regarding Athelete’s foot which us correct:
(A) 4th tow web is commonly involved
(B) Severe itching
(C) Caused by trichophytonmentagrophyte
(D) Hyperhydrosis is present
(E) All of the above
556. Dhobi’s itch is :
(A) Tineacorfioris
(B) Tineacruris
(C) Tineabarbae
(D) Tineacapitis
557. Most common age group to suffer from T. Cruris
(A) Infant
(B) Male child
(C) Adult male
(D) Adult female
558. A 22 year sold male patient presents with a complaints of severe itching and white scaly lesions in the groin for past month. Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent.
(A) Trichophytonrubrum
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Candida glabrata
(D) Malassezia furfur
559. A 36 years old factory worker developed itchy annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Erythema annularecentrifugam
(B) Granuloma annulare
(C) Annular lichen planus
(D) Teniacruris
560. Tinea incognito is seen with :
(A) Steroid treatment
(B) 1% BHi3
(C) 5% permethrin
(D) Antibiotics
561. A 30 yr old female presents with history of itching under right breast. On examination annular ring lesion was present under the breast. The diagnosis is:
(A) Trichophytonrubrum
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Epidermophyton
(D) Microsporum
562. The test likely to help in diagnosis of a patient who presents with an itchy annular paque on the face is :
(A) Gram’s stain
(B) Potassium hydroxide mount
(C) Tissue smear
(D) Wood’s lamp examination
563. Which of the following drugs is not antifungal?
(A) Capofungin
(B) Undecylenic acid
(C) Ciclopirox
(D) Clofazimine
564. An otherwise healthy male presents with a creamy curd like white patch on the tongue. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Candidiasis
(B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Lichen Planus
(D) Aspergillosis
565. Commonest fungal infection of the female genitalia in diabetes is :
(A) Cryptococcal
(B) Madura mycosis
(C) Candidial
(D) Aspergellosis
566. A washerman presents with thickness erosion &discolouration of web spaces of toes diagnosis is:
(A) Psoriasis
(B) TineaUnguum
(C) Both
(D) Candidiasis
567. Drug of choice in systemic candidiasis is :
(A) Amphotericin
(B) Griseofulvin
(C) Nystatin
(D) Ketoconazole
568. About dematophytes all are true except
(A) Candida albicans usually cause systemic infection
(B) Dermatophytes involve superficial layers of skin
(C) Microsporum doesn’t involve nail
(D) Epidermophyte doesn’t involve hair
569. Discharging sinus is seen in
(A) Syphillis
(B) Herpes
(C) Actinomycosis
(D) MolluscumContagiosum
570. Linear lesion is seen in:
(A) Sporotrichosis
(B) Lichen planus
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Pemphigus
571. Wavelength of light produced by wood’s Lamp is –
(A) 320 nm
(B) 360 nm
(C) 400 nm
(D) 480 nm
(E) 760-800 nm
572. The range of light which causes maximum skin damage
(A) 360-400 nm
(B) 290-360 nm
(C) 240-290 nm
(D) 760-800 n m
573. Medically most important form of UV radiation is –
(A) UV-A
(B) UV-B
(C) UV-C
(D) None of the above
574. The wood’s lamp filter is made of –
(A) Tin and chromium oxide
(B) Nickel oxide and silica
(C) Copper oxide and Barium oxide
(D) Zinc oxide
575. A pinkish red Fluorescence of urine with wood’s lamp is
(A) Lead poisoning
(B) Porphyria cutaneatarda
(C) Erythromelagia
(D) Acrocyanosis
576. Coral red-fluorescence wood’s Lamp seen in-
(A) Porphyria cutaneatarda
(B) Erythrasma
(C) Livedo-reticulris
(D) Hypomelanosis
577. Wood’s lam light is used in the diagnosis of :
(A) Tineacapitis
(B) Candida albicans
(C) Histoplasma
(D) Cryptococcos
578. Uses of woods light includes :
(A) Urine examination in porphyria
(B) Examination of hair in T. capitis
(C) Selerema
(D) All
579. Scabies, an infection of the skin caused by Sarcoptes scabiet, is an example of
(A) Water borne disease
(B) Water washed disease
(C) Water based disease
(D) Water related disease
580. Incubation period of scabies is
(A) 7 days
(B) 2 weeks
(C) 4 weeks
(D) 2-3 days
581. Characteristic lesion of scabies is-
(A) Burrow
(B) Fissure
(C) Vesicle
(D) Papule
582. The burrows in scabies is in the
(A) Straum germination
(B) Straum corneum
(C) Malphigian layer
(D) Dermis
583. Most severe form of scabies-
(A) Norwegian scabies
(B) Neular scabies
(C) Animal scabies
(D) Genital
(E) Generalized scabies
584. Nodular scabies is found in
(A) Web space of finger
(B) Axilla
(C) Abdomen
(D) Scrotum
585. Circle of hebra is associated with :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Scabies
(C) Leprosy
(D) Lichen planus
586. Scabies in children differs from that in adults in that it affects
(A) Web space
(B) Face
(C) Genitalia
(D) Axilla
587. Adult scabies is characterized by –
(A) Involve palm & soles
(B) Involve face
(C) Involve anterior abdomen
(D) Involve web space
(E) Involve genitalia
588. A 9 month old child as multiple itchy papulovesicular lesion on face, trunk, palm & sole. Similar lesions are also seen in the younger brother. Which of the following is most possible diagnosis?
(A) Papular urticaria
(B) Scabies
(C) Atopic dermatitis
(D) Allergic contact dermatitis
589. An infant presented with itchy eczematous crusted lesions with exudation on palm, sole glans penis and face. All are true except :
(A) Family should be examined
(B) Only patient needs drug treatment
(C) Only patient needs drug treatment
(D) Distribution of lesion help in diagnosis making
(E) Drug should be applied to affected areas for whole day
590. An infant presenting with itchy lesions over groin and prepuce all is indicated except
(A) Bathe & apply scabicidal solution
(B) Treatment of all family members
(C) Dispose all clothes by burning
(D) IV antibiotics
591. An 8-month old child presented with itchy, exudative lesions on the face, palms and soles. The siblings also have similar complaints. The treatment of choice is such a patient is :
(A) Systemic ampicillin
(B) Topical betamethasone
(C) Systemic prednisolone
(D) Topical permethrin
592. The drug used for scabies is/are
(A) Sulphur ointment
(B) Benzyle benzoate
(C) Gamma benzene hexachloride
(D) Crotamiton
(E) All of the above
593. Ivermectin in indicated in the treatment of :
(A) Syphilis
(B) Scabies
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Dermatophytosis
594. Permethrin is used in treatment of
(A) Scabies
(B) Leprosy
(C) Body Louse
(D) Leishmaniaris
595. Drugs/treatment used in scabies are
(A) Crotamiton
(B) Permethrin
(C) Lindane
(D) Gammexene
(E) Washing of body clothing
596. A 6 month old infant presented with multiple erythematous papules & exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk few vesicles on palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother has H/o itchy lesions. The most likely diag is :
(A) Scabies
(B) Infantile eczema (atopic dermatitis)
(C) Infantile sebornheic dermatitis
(D) Impetigo contagiosa
(E) Seborrheic dermatitis
597. Vagabond’s disease is
(A) Pediculosiscorposis
(B) Scabies
(C) Eczema
(D) Ringworm
598. TOC for pediculosiscorporis is
(A) 3 application of BHC
(B) 4 application of BHC
(C) Disinfection of all clothes and beddings
(D) DDT application
599. TOC in pediaculosiscorporis is
(A) 3 applications of Gama Benzene Hexa Chloride
(B) One applications of Benzyl Benzoate
(C) 4 application of Benzyl Benzoate
(D) Disinfection of Clothes only
600. Verrucosa Vulgaris is caused by :
(A) HPV
(B) EBV
(C) CMV
(D) HIV
601. Genital Warts (condylomaaccuminata) are most commonly caused by which of the following serotypes of HPV?
(A) HPV 6
(B) HPV 16
(C) HPV 18
(D) HPV 33
602. Myrmecia warts are –
(A) Planer wart
(B) Plantar wart
(C) Verrucous wart
(D) Palmer wart
603. All are true regarding viral warts except
(A) Basophilic stippling
(B) Koilocytes are characteristic
(C) Spontaneous regression common in children
(D) Perinucear vacuolization.
(E) Verruca vulgaris is associated with HPV
604. Immunomodulator used in treatment of genital warts is
(A) ATRA
(B) Podophyllin
(C) Imiquimod
(D) Prednisolone
605. Podophylline is used in treatment of
(A) Plantar warts
(B) Palmar warts
(C) Comdylomataaccuminata (Genital wart)
(D) Condylomatalata
606. Regarding podophylin resin which of following statement is true :
(A) Dervied from plant source
(B) Safe in pregnancy
(C) Teratogenic
(D) High recurrence rate of wart after podophyllin resin treatment
(E) Individual variation in response rate
607. Treatment of choice for genital warts in pregnancy?
(A) Salicylic Acid with Lactic Acid solution
(B) Podopylin
(C) Imiqimod
(D) Cryotherapy
608. HPV vaccine is :
(A) Monovalent
(B) Bivalent
(C) Quadrivalent
(D) Bivalent and quadrivalent
609. Gonococcus is –
(A) Extracellular gram positive
(B) Intracytoplasmic gram positive
(C) Intracytoplasmic gram negative
(D) Intra nuclear gram positive
610. The commonest venereal disease in India is –
(A) Gonorrhoea
(B) Syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) LGV
611. The main feature of gonorrhea is –
(A) Purulent discharge per urethra
(B) Inguinal adenitis
(C) Ulcer over glans penis
(D) Rashes
612. Gonococcus resistant structure is
(A) Urethra
(B) Testis
(C) Fallopian Tube
(D) Ampulla of cervix
613. C. cause of Nongonococcal Urethritis
(A) Chlamydia
(B) Mycoplasma
(C) Trichomonas
(D) Gram negative rod
614. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of :
(A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis
(B) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes ganitalis
(C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
(D) Syphilis and chancroid
615. TOC for penicillin resistant gonorrhea
(A) Ciprofloxacin
(B) Ceftriaxone
(C) Streptomycine
(D) Erythromycin
616. LGV is caused by
(A) Chalamydia trachomatis
(B) Haemophylusducrei
(C) HTLV type II
(D) Donovanosisgranulomatis
617. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in:
(A) Chancroid
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
618. Bubos with multiple sinuses discharging into inguinal lymph nodes are seen in :
(A) Chancroid
(B) Granuloma Inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
619. Sign of Groove is found in –
(A) Chancoid
(B) Granuloma inguinale
(C) LGV
(D) Syphilis
620. Genital elephantiasis is caused by :
(A) Donovanosis
(B) Congenital syphilis
(C) Herpes genaitalis
(D) Lymphogranulomavenerum
621. Esthiomine is seen in-
(A) Chancroid
(B) Syphilis
(C) LGV
(D) Gonorrhoea
622. Frie test is done in
(A) Donovanosis
(B) LGV
(C) Syphilis
(D) Leprosy
623. DOC for LGV
(A) Doxycycline
(B) Ampicillin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Ceftriaxone
624. Donovanosis/granuloma venerum is caused by
(A) Calymatobactergranulomatis
(B) T. pertenue
(C) Chlamydia Trachomatis
(D) H. ducreyl
625. Pseudo Bubo is seen in
(A) Chancroid
(B) LGV
(C) Donovanois
(D) Syphilis
626. Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E
(A) Syphilis 1st Stage
(B) Donovanosis
(C) LGV
(D) Chancroid
627. A 30 year old male patient has a large, spreading and exuberant ulcer with bright red granulation tissue over the glands penis. There was no lymphadenopathy. The most likely causative organism is;
(A) Treponemapallidum
(B) Herpes simplex virus type 1
(C) Herpes simplex virus type 2
(D) Calymmatobacteriumgranulomatis
628. Safety pin appearance is shown by-
(A) Hemophhilusducreyi
(B) Chalmydia
(C) Donovanigranulomatis
(D) Mycoplasma
629. Treatment of granuloma inguinale is-
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Sulphanomide
(C) Streptomycin
(D) Penicillin
630. Drug of choice for Granuloma venereum –
(A) Sulphomamides
(B) Streptomycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Erythromycin
(E) Gentamycin
631. Streptomycin is useful in treatment of
(A) Granuloma venerum
(B) LGV
(C) Syphilis
(D) Chancoid
632. Chanroid is caused by-
(A) Hemophilusducrey’s
(B) Hemojphilusvaginalis
(C) Trachoma virus
(D) Treponimapallidum
633. Chancroid may be caused by:
(A) T. pallidium
(B) G. donovani
(C) Chlamydia Trachomatis
(D) Herpes Hominis Virus
634. Reliable test for chancroid detection-
(A) Skin test
(B) Biopsy
(C) Grams stained smear
(D) Clinical examination
635. School of fish appearance is shown by :
(A) Hemophilusducreyi
(B) Gonococcus
(C) Chlamydia
(D) Donovaniagranulomatis
636. DOC in chancroid is
(A) Tetracycline
(B) Doxycycline
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Streptomycin
637. 20 year old male lalu develops multiple tender bleeding, nonindurated ulcer over prepuce and glans which are painful along with suppurative lymphadenopathy, 5 days after having sexual interc-ourse with a sex worker, most probable disease is
(A) LGV
(B) Herpes genitials
(C) MolluscumContagiousm
(D) Chancroid
(E) Donovanosis
638. Multiple necrotic ulcers in prepuce of penis with tender, suppurative inguinal nodes is caused by-
(A) Chalmydia
(B) Hemophilusducreyi
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) Syphilis
639. A man having multiple, painful, indurated, undermined, sloughed edged glans which occurred 5days after exposures; most likely diagnosis is
(A) Chancroid
(B) Primary chancre
(C) Herpes genitalis
(D) LGV
640. Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:
(A) Donovanosis
(B) Syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) Herpes simplex
(E) Gonorrhea
641. A 30 year old male presented with ulcerative lesion on glans penis. Wright-Giemsa stain showed 1-2 rounded structure in macrophage vacuoles. What is the etiology
(A) Chlamydia trachomatis
(B) N. gonorrhoea
(C) H. ducreyi
(D) Calymatobacterium granulomatis
642. 19 years male develops painless penile ulcers 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker likely diagnosis is:
(A) Chancroid
(B) Herpes
(C) Chancre
(D) Traumatic ulcer
643. A 23-year-old male had unprotectd sexual intercourse with a commercial sex worker. Two weeks later, he developed a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans which exuded clear serum on pressure. Inguinal lymph nodes in both groins were enlarged an not tender. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :
(A) Gram’s stain of ulcer discharge
(B) Dark field microscopy of ulcer discharge
(C) Giemsa stain of lymph node aspirate
(D) ELISA for HIV infection
644. A 24 year old male presents to a STC clinic with a single painless ulcer on external genitalia. The choice of laboratory test to look for the etiological agent would be
(A) Scrappings from ulcer for culture on chocolate agar with antibiotic supplement.
(B) Serology for detection of specific IgM antibodies.
(C) Scrappings from ulcer for dark field microscopy.
(D) Scrappings from ulcer for tissue culture
645. ‘Chancre redux’ is a clinical feature of
(A) Early relapsing syphilis
(B) Late syphilis
(C) Chancroid
(D) Recurrent herpes simplex infection
646. Primary bullous lesions is seen in which type of syphilis
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Congenital
647. Characteristic feature of early congenital syphilis is:
(A) Microcephaly
(B) Saddle nose
(C) Interstitial keratitis with saber skin
(D) Vesicular rash with bulla over palms and soles
648. Hutchison’s syphilitic traid includes all except
(A) Associated with congenital syphilis
(B) Notched incisor teeth
(C) Nerve deafness
(D) Interstitial Keratitis
(E) Associated with CVS anomalies
649. Sabre Tibia
(A) Scury
(B) Rickets
(C) Leprosy
(D) Syphilis
650. A boy with multiple bullous lesions over trunk and periostitis on x-rays. What should be the next investigation
(A) VDRL of mother & child
(B) PCR for maternal TB
(C) HBsAg screening
(D) ELISA of mother and Child
651. A 40 year old female presented with numerous nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Psoriasis
(B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Lichen planus
(D) Disseminated candidiasis
652. In secondary syphilis all are seen except :
(A) Condylomalata
(B) Interstitial keratitis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Proteinuria
653. Early eruption of secondary syphilis are all except-
(A) Intensely pruritic
(B) Papular/maculo popular eruption
(C) Symmetrical
(D) Plemorphic
654. Not true of secondary syphilis
(A) May be asymptomatic
(B) Usually involve palms & soles
(C) Lymphadenopathy
(D) Vesicular Bullous lesions
655. Condylomatalatae are seen in
(A) Congenital syphilis
(B) Primary syphilis
(C) Secondary syphilis
(D) Tertiary syphilis
656. In secondary syphilis, true about rash is
(A) Pruritic
(B) Vesicular
(C) Asymptomatic
(D) Tender
657. Secondary syphilis manifested by
(A) Painless lymphadenopathy
(B) Pruritic rash
(C) Mucosal erosion
(D) Mostly asymptomatic
658. A 23-year-old college student has asymptomatic and hyperpigmened macules on both palms for three week. The most appropriate diagnostic test is :
(A) Veneral Diseases research Laboratory (VDRL) test
(B) Skin biopsy
(C) Serum cortisol levels
(D) Assay for arsenic in skin, hair & nails
659. Treponemapallidum isolation from CSF is maximum in which stage of syphilis?
(A) Primary syphilis
(B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Tertiary syphilis
(D) Tabesdorsalis
660. True about syphilis is A/E :
(A) VDRL is sensitive but not specific
(B) Infection leads to life long immunity
(C) IgM& IgA
(D) T. palladium when inoculated in rabbit produce progressive disease.
661. A patient has syphilis since 2 year. CSF examination was done & treatment started. Which of the following test is most useful in monitoring treatment
(A) TPI
(B) VDRL
(C) FTA
(D) Dark ground microscopy
662. Most specific test for syphilis
(A) VDRL
(B) RPR
(C) FTA-Abs
(D) Kahn’s test
663. Test not used for diagnosis of syphilis
(A) VDRL
(B) TPI
(C) Reagin Test
(D) Frei Test
664. DOC in primary syphilis is
(A) Corticosteroid
(B) Oral Penicilline
(C) Benzathine Penicillin
(D) Crystalline Penicillin
665. JarischHerxheimer reaction is commonly seen in :
(A) Early syphilis
(B) Late congenital syphilis
(C) Latent syphilis
(D) Syphilis of cardiovascular system
666. Not transmitted sexually
(A) Syphilis
(B) T. pertenue
(C) C. Candida
(D) Gonorrhoea
667. Incorrect statement is
(A) VDRL titre decreases with treatment
(B) VDRL becomes
(C) FTA-ABS is earliest & most sensitive test
(D) Yaws &Pinta can be differentiated by serological tests
668. A young man presents to the emergency department with a maculopapular rash 2 weeks after healing of a painless genital ulcer. The most likely etiological agent is
(A) Treponemapallidum
(B) Treponemapertunae
(C) Chalmydia Trachomatis
(D) Calymatobactergranulomatis
669. Drug of choice for syphilis in a pregnant women
(A) Azithromycin
(B) Penicillin
(C) Tetracycline
(D) Ceftriaxone
670. All is true about syphilis except
(A) Seropositive infant not treated at birth if mother received penicillin in 3rd trimester
(B) For neurosyphilis FTA-ABS is sensitive; VDRL diagnostic but CSF pleocylosis is best treatment response guide.
(C) HIV patients are less likely to become VDRL nonreactive after treatment
(D) ELA+, RPR+, indicate past or current infection
671. Treatment of both partners is recommended in A/E:
(A) Candida infection
(B) Gardenella
(C) Herpes
(D) Trichomonasvaginalis
672. Recurrent balanoposthitis seen in :
(A) DM
(B) Herpes simplex
(C) Smoking
(D) Alcohol
(E) Bad hygiene
673. Genital ulcer is/are caused by :
(A) Human papilloma virus
(B) Herpes simplex virus
(C) HIV
(D) Treponemapallidum
(E) Lymphogranulomavenereum
674. Syndromic Management of genital ulcer syndrome in India includes
(A) Chancroid and Primary chancre
(B) Chancroid and herpes simplex
(C) Chancroid, Primary Chancre and herpes simplex
(D) Herpes simplex and primary chancre
675. Defective DNA repair is a/w
(A) Albinism
(B) Xerodermapigmentosa
(C) Vitiligo
(D) Icthyosis
676. disease that can cause skin malignancy are
(A) Xerodermapogmentosa
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Actinic keratosis
(D) Porphyria cutaneatarda
677. Cells cultured from patients with this disorder exhibit low activity for the nucleotide excision repair process. This autosomal recessive genetic disease includes marked sensitivity to sunlight (Ultra violet light) with subsequent formation of multiple skin cancers and premature death, the disorder is:
(A) Acute intermittent Porphyria
(B) Alkaptonuria
(C) XerodermaPigmentosa
(D) Ataxia – Telangiectasa
678. A girl child with veerrucous lesions at an age of 2 weeks later on developed linear brands of hyperkeratotic papules and nodules followed by whorled pigmentation. Her mother had history of in utero child death and hypopigmented atrophic linear lesions. The diagnosis is
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Xerodermapirmentosa
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Incontinentiapigmenti
679. 2-month-old girl present with verrucous plaque on the trunk. What is your most probable diagnosis?
(A) Incontinentiapigmentosa
(B) Darier disease
(C) Congenital naevus
(D) Icthyosis
680. The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is :
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) X-linked dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
681. True about incontinentapigmenti include the following except:
(A) X-linked dominant
(B) Primary skin abnormality
(C) Avascularity of peripheral retina
(D) Ocular involvement is seen in almost 100% case and is typically unilateral
682. Neurofibromatosis all are true except :
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) Scoliosis
(C) Neurofibroma
(D) Association with cataract
683. The pathognomonic sign of a neurofibromatosis is :
(A) Café-au-lait macules
(B) Axillary frekling
(C) Shagreen patch
(D) None of the above
684. Lisch nodule is seen in:
(A) Von Reclinghausens disease
(B) Lupus vulgaris
(C) Leprosy
(D) LGV
685. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?
(A) Slit lamp examination of eye
(B) Measurement of intraocular tension
(C) Examination of fundus
(D) Retinal artery angiography
686. Child with h/o hypopigmented macule on back, infantile spasm and delayed milestone has
(A) NF
(B) Sturge weber syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Nevus anemicus.
687. All are seen in Tuberous sclerosis except
(A) Iris Nodule
(B) Renal Cortical Cyst
(C) Rhabdomyoma of heart and lung
(D) Adenoma Sebaceum
688. Adenoma sebaceum is a feature of:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Tubercous sclerosis
(C) Xanthomatosis
(D) Incontinenetiapigmenti
689. Babloo a 4 year male presents with history of seizures. On examination there is hypopigmented patches on face & mental retardation. Most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Tuberous sclerosis
(C) Sturge Weber Syndrome
(D) IncontinentaPigmenti
690. Ash leaf maculate is found in :
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Neurofibromatosis
(C) Lymphangioma
(D) None
691. Koenen’speriungual fibromas are seen in > 50% of cases with:
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Sturge weber syndrome
(C) Alaxia telangiectasia
(D) Neurofibroatosis
692. All are true regarding tuberous sclerosis except
(A) Autosomal dominant sporadic transmission
(B) Vogt triad of epiloia
(C) Cafe au lait macules exclude the diagnosis
(D) Fibrous facial plaque
(E) Stippled confetti spots.
693. Inheritance of ichthyosis vulgaris is :
(A) X linked dominant
(B) X linked recessive
(C) Autosomal dominant
(D) Autosomal recessive
694. Crocodile skin or sauroderma is seen in:
(A) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Darier’s disease
(D) Ichthyosis vulgaris
695. Granular layer is absent in :
(A) Ichtyosis vulgaris
(B) X linked ichthyosis
(C) Epidermolytic hyper keratosis
(D) Lamellar ichthyosis
696. A male child with cryptorchidism presents with large black scales on body flexures. Skin biopsy showed hyper granulosis& steroid sulfatase deficiency. Probable diagnosis is
(A) Icthysois vulgaris
(B) Icthyosis-lamellar
(C) X linked icthyosisnigra
(D) Nonbullousicthyosiformerythroderma
697. Icthyosis is associated with :
(A) Hodgkins disease
(B) AIDS
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) All
698. Ichthysis is caused by :
(A) Hemosiderosis
(B) Refsum disease
(C) Niacin deficiency
(D) Steven Johnson syndrome
699. Keratomdrma is/are seen in
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Pityriasisrosea
(C) Pityriasisherpetiformis
(D) Reiter’s syndrome
700. Casal’s paint necklace is caused by :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Pellagra
(C) Pernicious anemia
(D) SLE
701. Flaky pain appearance of skin is seen in
(A) Dermatitis
(B) Pellagra
(C) Marasmus
(D) Kwashiorkar
702. Recurrent oral ulcers with pain and erythematous halo around them, diagnosis is
(A) Apthus ulcer
(B) Herpes
(C) Chicken pox
(D) Measles
703. All are true about Achrodermatitisenteropathica except :
(A) ↓Zn level (low serum zinc level)
(B) Reverse with Zn suppement
(C) Triad of acral dermatitis, dementia & diarrhea
(D) AR
704. Dermatitis and alopecia are due to deficiency of :
(A) Zinc
(B) Molybodenum
(C) Magnesium
(D) Calcium
705. Acrodermatitisenteropathica is d/t deficiency of :
(A) Zn
(B) Se
(C) Cu
(D) Cr
706. The rash in measles occurs first in occurs first in the –
(A) Forehead
(B) Post auricular
(C) Chest
(D) Neck
707. Erythema marginatum is seen in :
(A) Drug reactions
(B) Typhoid fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Rheumatic fever
708. Rose spot are seen in :
(A) Typhus fever
(B) Typhoid fever
(C) Enteric fever
(D) Rheumatic fever
709. ‘Slapped cheeks’ appearance is seen in
(A) Roseloainfantum
(B) Erythema subitum
(C) Erythema infectiosum
(D) Erythema multiforme
710. Phrynoderma is a cutaneous manifestation of severe deficiency of vitamin :
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
711. Veldt sore is most common in –
(A) Hilly areas
(B) Tropical climate
(C) Rainy areas
(D) Deserts
712. ‘Cayenne pepper’ stippling due to hemosiderin is found in :
(A) Erythroplasia of Queyrat
(B) Pagets disease
(C) Plasma cell balantitis of zoon
(D) Metronidazole
713. Common sites of Mongolian spot are :
(A) Face
(B) Neck
(C) Lumbo sacral area
(D) Leg
(E) Thigh
714. Which of the following condition resolves spontaneously in an infant :
(A) Erythema toxicum
(B) Mongolian spot
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Milia
(E) Port wine stain
715. Erythema toxicum in a neonate indicates –
(A) Staphylococcal sepsis
(B) Pneumococcemia
(C) Drug hypersensitivity
(D) Is not of any significance
716. Riehl’smelanosis mainly involves –
(A) Face and Neck
(B) Trunk
(C) Extremities
(D) Palms only
717. C. site of Atopic dermatitis
(A) Scalp
(B) Elbow
(C) Antecubital fossa
(D) Trunk
718. Monogolian spots is usually seen at region –
(A) Cervicofacial
(B) Lumbosacral
(C) Deltoid
(D) Thoraco lumbar
719. Shagreen patch is usually found in –
(A) Face
(B) Cervical region
(C) Limbs
(D) Lumbosacral region
720. Morphea occurs usually in :
(A) Forehead
(B) Sternum
(C) Limbs
(D) Back
721. Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits are seen in :
(A) Dowling-Degos disease
(B) Rothmund Thomson syndrome
(C) Cockyane syndrome
(D) Bloom’s syndrome
722. Underlying internal malignancy is not shown by
(A) Acanthosisnigricans&Annular erythema
(B) Bullous pyoderma& migratory necrotizing
(C) Granuloma annulare
(D) Erythema gyratumrepens
723. Following are signs of internal malignancy except :
(A) Tuberous sclerosis
(B) Acanthosisnigricans
(C) Clubbing
(D) Dermatomyositis
(E) None
724. Skin markers of internal malignancy are/is
(A) Acanthosisnigricans
(B) Migratory necrolytic erythema
(C) Necrobiosislipodica
(D) Bullous pemphigoid
(E) Dermatomyositis
725. Multiple sebaceous tumors are seen in
(A) Gardner’s syndrome
(B) Cowden’s syndrome
(C) Carney complex
(D) Muir-Torr syndrome
726. Predisposing factors for skin ca are :
(A) Lichen planus
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Behcet’s disease
(E) U V rays
727. Changes of squamous cell carcinoma are seen in :
(A) Seborrhoeic keratosis
(B) Bowen’s disease
(C) Lichen planus
(D) DLE
728. Actinic keratosis is seen in :
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(B) Squamous cell carcinoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Epithelial cell carcinoma
729. Which is related to sunlight exposure
(A) Actinic keratosis
(B) Molluscumcontagiosum
(C) Icthyosis
(D) Basal cell carcinoma
730. Acanthosisnigricans is indicative of :
(A) Internal malignancy
(B) Endocrine disorder
(C) Blooms syndrome
(D) Pigmentation of face, neck etc.
(E) All are correct
731. AcanthosisNigricans in old patient usually indicate :
(A) Skin Disorder
(B) Malignancy
(C) Senile Brain
(D) Usually found in negro
732. False regarding acanthosisnigricans is
(A) Prognostic indicator
(B) Velvety plaques on dirty hyperpigmentation
(C) Gastric adenocarcinoma is commonest malignant association
(D) Indicate hyper androgenic state
733. True about acanthosisnigricans
(A) Most commonly seen in obesity
(B) Seen in axilla
(C) It signifies internal malignancy
(D) It is associated with insulin resistance
(E) Seen in old age
734. Mycosis cells are altered :
(A) T. Lymphocytes
(B) Monocytes
(C) lymphocytes
(D) Eosinophils
735. Mycosis fungoides which is not true :
(A) It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma
(B) Pautriersmicroabscess
(C) Indolent course and good prognosis, easily amenable to treatment
(D) Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral
736. Pautrier’s micro-abscess is a histological feature of :
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) TB
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Ptyriasislichenoideschronica
737. Which of the following statements about mycosis fungoides is not true?
(A) It is the most common skin lymphoma
(B) Pautriers micro abscesses are common
(C) It has a indolent course and good prognosis
(D) It presents with diffuse erythroderma.
738. TOC in mycosis fungoides
(A) 5 – FU
(B) Radiotherapy
(C) Full skin electron Therapy
(D) I/V Adriamycin
739. Total skin electron irradiation is used for treatment of
(A) Sezary syndrome
(B) Mycoses fungoides
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Brain metastasis of skin cancer
740. Langerhans cells in skin are :
(A) Antigen presenting cells
(B) Pigment producing cells
(C) Keratin synthesizing cells
(D) Sensory neurons
741. All are true about Langerhans’ histocytosis except?
(A) Common before 3 years of age
(B) Letterer Siwe disease is systemic manifestation
(C) Radio sensitive
(D) Testis is commonly involved
742. All are true regarding LCH except
(A) Papular trunk lesions with scaling & crusting
(B) Ulcerative nodules on mucosa
(C) Calvarial defect with ma lesions & floating teeth
(D) CD-68 positive
(E) Polyostotis bone lesions t/t by polychemotherapy
743. Rx of refractory histicytosis ?
(A) Cladarabine
(B) High dose MTX
(C) High dose cytosine arabinoside
(D) Fludarabine
744. Child presents with linear verrucous plaques on the trunk with vacuolization of keratinocytes in s. spinosum and s. granulosum. Diagnosis is:
(A) In continentapigmenti
(B) Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
(C) Linear / Verrucous epidermal nevus
(D) Linear Darier’s disease
745. Chemical peeling is done by all except :
(A) Trichloroaccetic acid
(B) Phosphoric acid
(C) Carbolic acid
(D) Kojic acid
746. A mother brought her child which has got a vascular plaque like lesion over the lateral aspect of forehead mainly involving ophthalmic and maxillary division of trigeminal nerve. Mother says that the lesion remains unchanged since birth. Also mother gives a history that the child is on valproate for seizure disorder. The probable diagnosis is
(A) Tubernous sclerosis
(B) Infantile hemangioma
(C) Sturage weber syndrome
(D) Incontinentia pigment
747. Child with erythematous non blanching bosselated lesion on right side of face, Rx is :
(A) Erbium laser
(B) Nd-YAG laser
(C) Flash light pumped dye laser
(D) Q ruby laser
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