Medical PG Radiology
1. Best investigation for cardiac temponade is
(A) 2-D Echocardiography
(B) M-Mode Echocardiography
(C) Real time echocardiography
(D) USG
2. Earliest congential malformation that may be detected on USG is
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Hydrocephalous
(C) Anencephaly
(D) Sacral Agenesis
3. Earliest sign of fetal life is best detected by
(A) X-Ray
(B) Feto scopy
(C) Real time USG
(D) Doppler
4. Acoustic shadow in USG is due to
(A) Artefact
(B) Absorption
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction
5. Half life of I131 is
(A) 4 hours
(B) 8 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 10 days
6. Best view for visualizing sella turcica on X-Ray
(A) A P View
(B) Town’s view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Open mouth view
7. Investigation of choice in parathyroid pathology is
(A) CT Scan
(B) Gallium Scan
(C) Thallium Scan
(D) Tc-Thallium substraction scan
8. Renal GFR is estimated by
(A) TC⁹⁹ DMCA
(B) TC⁹⁹ DMSA
(C) Tc⁹⁹ DTPA
(D) Tc⁹⁹ – Gallium
9. Right side of mediastinum shadow is not formed by
(A) Superior venacava
(B) Right innominates
(C) Right atrium
(D) Right ventricle
10. Tc labeled RBC’s are used for
(A) Biliary tree
(B) Renal disease
(C) Pulmonary embolism
(D) Spleenic disease
11. Earliest evidence of healing in rickets is provided by
(A) S. Ca⁺⁺
(B) S.PO43−
(C) Radiological examination of growing bone ends
(D) S. Alkaline Phosphate level
12. Neural tube defect is best detected by
(A) USG
(B) Chromosomal analysis
(C) Aminocentesis
(D) Placentography
13. Investigation of choice in aortic dissection is
(A) USG
(B) CT Scan
(C) MRI
(D) Digital substraction Angiography
14. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is
(A) Acute Pancreatitis
(B) Chronic Pancreatitis
(C) Carcinoma Pancreas
(D) Ductal Adenoma
15. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by
(A) USG
(B) X -Ray Chest
(C)Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) CT Scan
16. Most Radio sensitive stage
(A) S₂ phase
(B) G₁ phase
(C) G₂ phase
(D) G₂M phase
17. Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
(A) Carbon
(B) Mercury
(C) H⁺
(D) Ca⁺⁺
18. Principle used in radiotherapy is
(A) Cytoplasmic coagulation
(B) Ionization of molecules
(C) DNA damage
(D) Necrosis of tissue
19. In MRI the field used is :
(A) .05 tesla
(B) 1.1 tesla
(C) 5 tesla
(D) 11 tesla
20. Ion which scatters X-ray most is :
(A) H⁺
(B) Ca⁺⁺
(C) Hg
(D) Pb
21. Most common presentation of radiation carditis is
(A) Pericardial effusion
(B) Atheromatous plaques
(C) Myocardial fibrosis
(D) Pyogenic pericarditis
22. Most important investigation for pericardial effusion is :
(A) Cardiac catheterisation
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Echocardiograph
(D) Lateral view of X-ray chest
23. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is :
(A) ERCP
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Cholecystography
(D) X-ray
24. Popcorn calcification is characteristically seen in :
(A) Pulmonary hemartoma
(B) Fungal infection
(C) Metastasis
(D) Tuberculosis
25. Which investigation should not be done in a patient suspected of brain tumor :
(A) CT Scan
(B) Lumbar puncture
(C) MRI
(D) X ray-skull
26. Most common skin manifestation seen after 2 days of radiation therapy is :
(A) Erythema
(B) Atopy
(C) Hyperpigmentation
(D) Dermatitis
27. Ionization radiation acts on tissues leading to :
(A) Linear acceleration injury
(B) Excitation of electron form orbit
(C) Formation at pyrimidine diamers
(D) Thermal injury
28. Most sensitive stage for radiotherapy is :
(A) S
(B) S1
(C) G2
(D)G2M
29. Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism is :
(A) CT-scan
(B) MRI
(C) Contrast-MRI
(D) Ventilation perfusion scan
30. ‘Hot spot’ in acute myocardial infarction is :
(A) Thallium
(B) Stroncium
(C) Tc⁹⁹ stronicum-pyrophosphate
(D) Gallium-citrate
31. Investigation of choice for acute subarachnoid haemorrhage is :
(A) MRI
(B) Enhanced MRI
(C) CT-scan
(D) Angiography
32. In X-ray’ right border of mediastinum is formed by all except :
(A) SVC
(B) Right atrium
(C) Right ventricle
(D) Right branchiocephalic vein
33. NMR based on the principle of :
(A) Proton beam
(B) Electron beam
(C) Neutron beam
(D) Magnetic field
34. Impaired renal function is assessed by :
(A) DTPA
(B) DMSA scan
(C) Iodohippurate
(D) MAGS
35. A patient presented with ARF with complete anuria, but a normal ultrasound. Next investigation is :
(A) IVP
(B) Antegrade pyelography
(C) Retrograde pyelography
(D) Radio renogram
36. Most common complication of myelography is :
(A) Allergic reaction
(B) Headache
(C) Focal Neurological deficite
(D) Arachanoiditis
37. In cerebral angiography the dye is injected through :
(A) Femoral-artery
(B) Brachial artery
(C) Axillary artery
(D) Radial artery
38. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is :
(A) Decrease tidal volume of CO₂
(B) Decrease tidal volume of NO₂
(C)Doppler ultrasound
(D) Central venous pressure
39. All may be used in interstitial brachytherapy except :
(A) Co⁶⁰
(B) Ir1⁹²
(C) Au¹⁹⁸
(D) Cs¹³⁷
40. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy & chemotherapy is best detected by
(A) ECHO
(B) Endomyocardial biopsy
(C) BCG
(D) Radionucleide scan
41. Ultrasonography of umbilical artery is done to know about
(A) Heart beat
(B) Gastational age
(C) Fetal weight
(D) Fetal maturity
42. Which one is non-ionising radition:
(A) MRI
(B) CT scan
(C) X-ray
(D) position emission scintigraphy
43. In rt. sided hemithorax on chest X-ray PA view what can be excluded:
(A) CCF
(B) TB
(C) Pulmonary infarct
(D) None of the above
44. In lung X-ray heterogenous shadow is due to:
(A) Haemangioma
(B) Pulmonary infarction
(C) Metastatic lesion
(D) TB
45. Curie is unit of:
(A) Radiation exposure
(B) Radiation absorption
(C) Radioactivity
(D) All of the above
46. Best method to diagnose pulmonary embolism:
(A) Pulmonary angiography
(B) Scintillation perfusion scan
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray chest
47. Lytic lesion in skull are seen in following except:
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Metastasis ca bronchus
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Ca prostate
48. Tumor responding best to radiation include following:
(A) Melanoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Teratoma
(D) Choriocarcinoma
49. Functional analysis of kidney is best done by:
(A) Radionuclide scanning
(B) IVP
(C) Ultrasound
(D) MRI
50. Cell phase susceptible to radiotherapy:
(A) Cell phase susceptible to radiotherapy:G₁ phase
(B) G₂ phase
(C) S phase
(D) G₂M
51. Finding in meningioma are all except:
(A) Vascular markings around falx cerebri
(B) Calcification
(C) Erosion
(D) Osteoscelrosis
52. Contrast material used in the diagnosis of esophageal atresia is
(A) Gastrograffin
(B) Conray 420
(C) Dianosil
(D) Myodil
53. True about chest X-ray is all except:
(A) Left hilum is higher
(B) Left dome is higher
(C) All fissures are clearly seen on lateral film
(D) None
54. Spring water cyst is another name for:
(A) Hydatid cyst of lung
(B) Lung amoebic cyst
(C) Pleuro pericardial cyst
(D) Enterogenous cyst
55. Periventricular calcification is often due to:
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Cytomegalic infection
(C) Congenital syphilis
(D) All of the above
56. Parameters used to estimate gestational age in last trimester:
(A) CR length
(B)Abdominal circumference
(C) BPD
(D) Femur length
57. USG done at 1820 weeks mainly to:
(A) Detect fetal abnormality
(B) Determine sex
(C) Estimate liquor
(D) Determine maturity
58. Best for unruptured ectopic pregnancy is:
(A) Per abdominal US
(B) HCG
(C) Trans vaginal US
(D) Amniocentesis
59. Flask shaped heart is seen in following except:
(A) Ebstein anomaly
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) TOF
(D) TAPVC
60. Gold standard for diagnosting pulm embolism:
(A) X-ray chest
(B) Ventilation perfusion scan
(C) Blood gas analysis
(D) Doppler
61. Ion used both in brachy and teletherapy is:
(A) Iridium
(B) Chromium
(C) Selenium
(D) Cobalt
62. Most harmful to individual cell :
(A) X-rays
(B) α Particles
(C) B Particles
(D) X-rays (gamma rays)
63. Best view to diagnose pneumothorax :
(A) Lateral oblique
(B) PA view in full expiration
(C) PA view in full inspiration
(D) AP view in full expiration
64. First sign of hydrocephalus in children is :
(A) Post clinoid erosion
(B) Large head
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Thinned out vault
65. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in:
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
66. Uremic lung most often results due to :
(A) Pulmonary edema
(B) Fibrosis
(C) Alveolar injury
(D) CVC liver
67. The intensity of colour in Doppler is determined by:
(A) Direction flow
(B) Velocity of flow
(C) Strength of returning echo
(D) None of the above
68. Schober’s sign is for :
(A) Flexion of lumbar spine
(B) Chest expansion
(C) Pain with motion of hip
(D) Neck pain and stiffness
69. Invertogram to be done in a new born:
(A) Immediately
(B) After 2 hours
(C) After 4 hours
(D) After 6 hours
70. Piezoelectric crystals are made use of in:
(A) MRI
(B) US
(C) CT
(D) All
71. In X-ray loops of bowel on left side of hemithorax and shift of heart shadow:
(A) Eventration of diaphragm
(B) Foraman of bochdalek hernia
(C) Morganian hernia
(D) Any of the above
72. Spider leg appearance is found in :
(A) Polycystic kidney
(B) Pyelonephritis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Renal artery stenosis
73. Splaying and cupping of the metaphysic is seen in :
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Lead poisoning
74. Bulging fissures in lungs is seen in :
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia
(B) Staph, pneumonia
(C) Pulmonary oedema
(D) Pneumoconiosis
75. Slice of tissue X-rays is :
(A) Tomography
(B) Mammography
(C) Contrast studies
(D) All of the above
76. Feathery appearance in jejunum is due to :
(A) Valvulae conniventes
(B) Haustrations
(C) Luminal gas
(D) Vascular network
77. Radiological findings of scurvy are A/E:
(A) Epiphyseal widening
(B) Metaphyseal porosis
(C) Metapyseal infarction
(D) Pelkan spur
78. In radiation therapy rays used are:
(A) α, β
(B) α, χ
(C) β, χ
(D) γ, α, β
79. Calcification around the joint is seen in:
(A) Pseudogout
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Rh. arthritis
(D) Gout
80. X-ray finding of ostemyelitis within 8 days is:
(A) Cystic swelling
(B) Soft tissue swelling
(C) New bone formation
(D) Sequesterum formation
81. Miliary shadow in chest X-ray is seen in A/E:
(A) TB
(B) Loeffler’s pneumonia
(C) Klebsiella
(D) Varicella pneumonia
82. Contrast used in CT :
(A) Gadolinium
(B) Technitium
(C) Iodine
(D) Chromium
83. Hpertranslucency of lung unilaterally is seen on all except :
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Resection of mammary gland
(C) Pulm art. obstruction
(D) Pneumonectomy
84. Enhancement in MRI in basal ganglia & thalamus is seen in :
(A) Rabies
(B) Herpes simplex encephalitis
(C) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
(D) Creutz feldt Jakob disease
85. Basal skull view (submentovertical view) X-ray is best to visualize :
(A) Ethmoid sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Sphenoid sinus
(D) Maxillary sinus
86. Investigation to diagnose stage-I carcinoma breast :
(A) B/L mammogram
(B) X-ray chest
(C) Bone scan
(D) Liver scan
87. Contrast used for MRI :
(A) Iodine
(B) Gadolinium
(C) Metrazamide
(D) omnipaque
88. ERCP in pancreatitis is done to know about :
(A) Gall stones
(B) Associated cholangitis
(C) Ascites
(D) Pancreatic divisum
89. What is atomic number :
(A) Proton
(B) Electrons + protons
(C) Protons + neutrons
(D) Protons + protons
90. Ultrasound frequency used for diagnostic purposes in obstetrics :
(A) 1-20 MHz
(B) 20-40 MHz
(C) 40-60 MHz
(D) 60-80 MHz
91. Most sensitive structure in cell for radiotherapy is :
(A) Cell membrane
(B) Mitochondrial membrane
(C) DNA
(D) Enzymes
92. The investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis is :
(A) USG
(B) HIDA-scan
(C) CT-scan
(D) OCG
93. Looser’s zones is seen in :
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Multiple myeloma
94. X-ray feature of spondylisthesis :
(A) Sunbrust appearance
(B) ‘Scot’ dog
(C) ‘Napolian hat’
(D) Hairy rope sign
95. Local cerebral lesion with ring on CT scan is caused by :
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Intracranial halmorphage
(C) Cysts
(D) Hamartoma
96. In cerebral angiography the due is injected through:
(A) Femoral Artery
(B) Brachial Artery
(C) Axillary Artery
(D) Radial Artery
97. Which artery is dissected most frequently following arteriography by femoral route:
(A) Celica trunk
(B) Superior mesenteric artery
(C) Inferior mesenteric artery
(D) Gastroduodenal artery
98. Which of the following contrast agent is non iodinated:
(A) Iohexol
(B) Diatrizoate
(C) Gadolinium
(D) Visipaque
99. Contrast used in CT:
(A) Gadolinium
(B) Technitium
(C) Iodine
(D) Chromium
100. Contrast used for MRI:
(A) Iodine
(B) Gadolinium
(C) Metavazamide
(D) Omnipaque
101. Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true:
(A) Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per particles in solution
(B) Osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or non ionic
(C) Gadolinum may cross the blood brain barrier
(D) Iohexol is a high osmolar contrast media
102. Contrast material used in the diagnosis of esophageal artresia is
(A) Gastrograffin
(B) Conray 420
(C) Dianosil
(D) Myodii
103. Contrast media of choice for myelogram is
(A) Urografin 75%
(B) Conray 470
(C) Iohexol
(D) Biligrafin
104. Most common complication of myelography is
(A) Allergic reaction
(B) Headache
(C) Focal neurological deficit
(D) Arachanoiditis
105. Radio-contrast is contraindicated in all except-
(A) Renal failure
(B) Patient on metformin
(C) Dehydration
(D) Obesity
106. Which of the following contrast agents is preferred in a patient with decreased renal function to avoid contrast nephropathy:
(A) Acetylcystine
(B) Fenoldapam
(C) Mannitol
(D) Low osmolar contrast
107. Excretory urography should be cautiously performed in
(A) Bone 2°
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Neuroblastoma
(D) Leukemia
108. True about OCG is:
(A) First done by Graham Cole in 1942
(B) Dye ingested at rate of 1 ml/kg
(C) USG has replaced it
(D) Dye used is telepaque
109. Which is Not required for visualization of gall bladder in oral cholecystography:
(A) Functioning liver
(B) Motor mechanisms of gall bladder
(C) Patency of cystic duct
(D) Ability to absorb water
110. Contrasts used in USG:
(A) Urograffin
(B) Ultragraffin
(C) Sonvavist
(D) Conray
(E) Barium
111. Which of the following techniques piezoelectric crystals?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) X-ray diffraction
(C) NMR imaging
(D) Xeroradiography
112. Radiation hazard is absent in:
(A) MRI
(B) Doppler USG
(C) Digital substraction Angiography
(D) Tc 99 scan
113. Acoustic shadow in USG is due to
(A) Artefact
(B) Absorption
(C) Reflection
(D) Refraction
114. Ultrasound frequency used for diagnostic purposes in obstetrics :
(A) 1-20 MHz
(B) 20-40MHz
(C) 40-60 MHz
(D) 60-80 MHz
(E) 80-100 MHz
115. USG is sensitive in
(A) Ureteric colic
(B) Gall stone
(C) Blunt abdominal trauma
(D) Appendicitis
(E) Pancreatic pathology
116. Piezoelectric crystals are made use of in which modality that is safe from radiation also:
(A) MRI
(B) US
(C) CT
(D) All
117. The intensity of colour in Doppler is determined by:
(A) Direction flow
(B) Velocity of flow
(C) Strength of returning echo
(D) None of the above
118. All of them use non-ionizing radiation except:
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Thermography
(C) MRI
(D) Radiography
119. Radiation exposure occurs in all except
(A) CT scan, PET scan
(B) MRI
(C) Fluroscopy
(D) Plain X-ray
120. NMR based in the principle of –
(A) Electron beam
(B) Proton beam
(C) Magnetic field
(D) Neutron beam
121. In MRI, images are produced due to
(A) H+ (proton)
(B) CO2
(C) N2O
(D) K+
122. In MRI the field used is
(A) 0.05 tesla
(B) 100 tesla
(C) 1.1 tesla
(D) 11 tesla
123. MRI is not better than CT for detection of :
(A) Ligament injury
(B) Soft tissue tumors
(C) Meningeal pathology
(D) Calcified lesions
124. All of the following about MRI are correct except:
(A) MRI is contraindicated in patients with pacemakers
(B) MRI is useful for evaluating bone marrow
(C) MRI is better for calcified lesions
(D) MRI is useful for localizing small lesion of the brain
125. An absolute contraindication of MRI is:
(A) Pacemaker wires
(B) Intravascular stents
(C) Prosthetic cardiac valves
(D) Severe hypertension
126. Absolute C/I of MRI is-
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Pregnancy at 1st trimester
(C) Aneurysmal clip
(D) Phobia
127. Patient with a metallic foreign body in eye, which investigation is not done.
(A) MRI
(B) USG
(C) X-ray
(D) CT
128. The EEG cabins should be completely shielded by a continuous sheet of wire mesh of copper to avoid the picking of noise from external electromagnetic disturbances. Such a shielding is called as :
(A) Maxwell cage
(B) Edison’s cage
(C) Faraday cage
(D) Ohm’s cage
129. MRI rooms are shielded completely by a continuous sheet or wire mesh of copper or aluminum to shield the imager from external electromagnetic radiations, etc. It is called
(A) Maxwell cage
(B) Faraday cage
(C) Edison’s cage
(D) Ohms cage
130. Hounsfield Units depends on:
(A) Electron density
(B) Mass density
(C) Effective atomic number
(D) Attenuation coefficient
131. In computed tomography (CT), the attenuation value are measured in Hounsfield units (HU). An attenuation value of ‘0’ (zero) HV corresponds to:
(A) Water
(B) Very dense bone structure
(C) AIR
(D) Fat
132. Attenuation Value (Hounsfield Unit) of < Zero (I.e. negative) on CT is seen in :
(A) Muscle
(B) Bone
(C) Fat
(D) Air
133. Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with:
(A) Lead
(B) Glass
(C) Tungsten
(D) Iron
134. High – resolution CT of lung is a specialized CT technique for greater detail of lung parenchyma and it utilizes:
(A) Special lung filters
(B) Thick collimation
(C) Bone algorithm for image reconstruction
(D) Large filed of view
135. Slice of tissue X-rays is
(A) Tomography
(B) Mammography
(C) Contrast studies
(D) All of the above
136. CT dose index, True is:
(A) By reducing KVP by 50% radiation dose is reduced to half
(B) In pediatric patients dose should be reduced
(C) CT dose index is not useful for control exposure in multi-slice CT
(D) KV has no control over CT dose index
137. Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
(A) Chest X-ray
(B) MRI
(C) CT scan
(D) Bone scan
138. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Interstitial lung disease
(C) Lung mass
(D) Mediastinaladenopathy
139. True about virtual colonscopy
(A) Provide endoluminal view
(B) Biopsy can be taken
(C) CT and MRI use
(D) Used even when conventional colonoscopy fails
(E) Used for screening of ca colon
140. PACS in medical imaging stands for :
(A) Portal Archiving Common System
(B) Photo Archiving Computerized System
(C) Picture archieving communication system
(D) Pianning archiving communication scheme
141. Insult during neuronal migration results in delayed neuronal migration and organization, which results in certain disorders. The least likely possibility is:
(A) Polymicrogyria
(B) Schizencephaly
(C) Lissencephaly
(D) Focal cortical dysplasia without balloon cells.
142. J-shaped sella is/are seen in:
(A) Mucopolysaccharidoses
(B) Achondroplasia
(C) Optic chiasm glioma
(D) Hydrocephalus
143. A middle aged man presents with progressive atrophy & weakness of hand & forearms. On examination he is found to have slight spasticity of the leg, generalized hyperreflexia and increased signal in the cortico-spinal tracts on T2 weighted MRI. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Multiple Sclerosis
(B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
(C) Subacute combined degeneration
(D) Progressive spinal muscular atrophy
144. All/except are true about MS
(A) Corpus callosum lesions are characteristic
(B) Periventricular white matter distribution with decreased CT attenuation
(C) T1WI are most diagnostic for acute plaques
(D) 4th ventricle, 5th nerve entry site & brachium pontis involved
(E) Hyper intense T2WI
145. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in:
(A) White matter
(B) Grey matter
(C) Thalamus
(D) Basal ganglia
146. A child presented with clinical features of demyelination. The chances of progression to MS is least with which of the following:
(A) Absent oligoclonal band
(B) Bilateral visual loss
(C) Poor recovery
(D) Cord complete transaction
147. Extensive involvement of deep white matter with bilateral hyperdense thalami on non-contrast CT scan of the brain is virtually diagnostic of:
(A) Alexander’s disease
(B) Krabbe’s disease
(C) Canavan’s disease
(D) Metachromatic leukodystrophy
148. Which of the following is not a MRI feature of Mesial temporal sclerosis?
(A) Atrophy of mammillary body
(B) Atrophy of fornix
(C) Blurring of Grey white matter junction of ipsilateral temporal lobe
(D) Atrophy of hippocampus
149. A new born presents with congestive heart failure resistant to treatment, on examination has bulging anterior fontanelle with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanellar USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dialted lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is
(A) Encephalocele
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Arachnoid cyst
(D) Vein of Galen malformation
150. All are the characteristics of raised ICT on a plain radiology except:
(A) Erosion of dorsum sellae
(B) Ballooning of sella
(C) Increased convolutions
(D) Sutural diastasis
151. A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT shows no midline shift, but basal cisterns were full (compressed) with multiple small haemorrhage. The most probable diagnosis is
(A) Brain contusion
(B) Diffuse axonal injury
(C) Subdural hemorrhage
(D) Multiple infarct
152. A 15 year old boy had 10-12 partial complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. What should be the best non-invasive strategy to make a definite diagnosis so that he can be prepared to undergo epilepsy surgery.
(A) Interictal scalp EEG
(B) Video EEG
(C) Interictal 18F-FDg PET
(D) Video EEG with Ictal 99m Tc-HMPAO Brain SPECT.
153. Investigation which should not be done in a patient with brain tumor:
(A) CT scan
(B) Lumber Puncture
(C) MRI
(D) X – Ray
154. Basal exudates, infarcts and hydrocephalus on computed tomography are seen in:
(A) Tuberculosis meningitis
(B) Viral meningitis
(C) Herpes simplex encephalitis
(D) Cerebral malaria / Neurocysticerocosis
155. Local cerebral lesion with ring on CT scan is caused by
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Intracranial haemorrhage
(C) Cysts
(D) Hamartoma
156. Epidermoids can be differentiated from arachnoid cyst on MRI by:
(A) Contrast enhancement
(B) Smooth margins
(C) Restricted diffusion
(D) CSF signal on FLAIR
157. Physiological calcification of Skull in X ray is seen in:
(A) Pineal gland
(B) Choroid plexus
(C) Red nucleus
(D) Basal ganglion
158. Which one of the following tumor shows calcification on CT Scan:
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Meduloblastoma
(C) Meningioma
(D) CNS lymphoma
159. Periventricular calcification is often due to
(A) Toxoplasmosis
(B) Cytomegalic infection
(C) Congenital syphilis
(D) All of the above
160. Intracranial calcification with cystic lesion in plain X-Ray skull is seen in
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meduloblastoma
161. Suprasellar calcification is characteristic of:
(A) Toxoplasmosis, CMV, Cysticercosis
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meningioma
(E) Ependymoma
162. Bracket calcification in skull X-ray is seen in:
(A) Meningioma
(B) Lipoma of carpus callosum
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Sturge weber syndrome
163. Calcification of basal ganglia is seen in A/E:
(A) Berry’s aneurysm
(B) Cysticercosis
(C) Idiopathic hyperparathroidism
(D) Wilson’s disease
164. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except:
(A) Hypoparathyroidism
(B) Wilson’s disease
(C) Perinatal hypoxia
(D) Fahr’s syndrome
165. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in
(A) Hyperparathyrodism
(B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Hypoparathroidism
(D) Hypothyroidism
(E) Acromegaly
166. Suprasellar calcification with growth retardation is seen in
(A) Pineal body tumor
(B) Pituitory tumor
(C) Thalmic tumor
(D) Craniopharyngioma
167. Commonest calcifying brain tumor in a child is:
(A) Medulloblastoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Glioma
(D) Meningioma
168. Which of the following is the most common cause of a mixed cystic and solid suprasellar mass seen on cranial MR scan of a 10 years old child:
(A) Pituitary Adenoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Optic chiasma glioma
(D) Germinoma
169. A 6 year old boy has been complaining of headache ignoring to see the object on the side for 4 months. On Examination, he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good & visual acuity is diminished in both the eyes, visual charting showed significant field defect. CT scan of the head showed supraselllar mass with calcification. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Astrocytoma
(B) Craniopharyngioma
(C) Pituitary adenoma
(D) Meningioma
170. Intracranial calcification with cystic lesion in plain X-Ray skull is seen in
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Craniopharyngioma
(D) Meduloblastoma
171. Cavernous hemangioma is characterized by:
(A) Reticulated popcorn like configuration
(B) Well defined nidus
(C) Well defined arterial feeder
(D) Phlebectasis
172. A 40-years-old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Meningioma
(B) Glioma
(C) Schwannoma
(D) Pituitary adenoma
173. A 45 year old female presented with progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy and middorsal (thoracic) extra axial, dural based, intradural enhancing mass in MRI. What is the diagnosis-
(A) Intradural lipoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Neuroepithelial cyst.
174. A 48 ye old woman comes with b/1 progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural middorsal midline enhancing lesion. What is the likely diagnosis
(A) Intradural lipoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Neuroenteric cyst
(D) Dermoid cyst
175. Finding in meningioma are all except:
(A) Vascular markings around falx
(B) Calcification
(C) Erosion
(D) Osteosclerosis
176. Meningioma on plain radiography reveals:
(A) Calcification
(B) Erosion
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Osteosclerosis
(E) Vascular erosion
177. A 20 yr female come with a mass in the cavernous sinus & 6th cranial nerve palsy. In T2W MRI Hyperintense shadow is present which shows homogenous contrast enhancement. Diagnosis is
(A) Schwannoma
(B) Meningioma
(C) Astrocytoma
(D) Cavernous sinus hemangioma
178. Tumor associated with extracranial spread
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Glioblastoma multiformae
(D) Choroid plexus papilloma
179. In 7 year old posterior fossa mass with cyst formation, hypodense on CT, hyper intense on T2WI and showing post gadolinium nodule enhancement is
(A) Medulloblastoma
(B) Ependymoma
(C) Astrocytoma
(D) Cysticercous
180. 35 years old patients presents with complaints of headache, vomiting (raised ICT) and ataxia. MRI findings are well – demarcated cysric lesion with a mural nodule in the right cerebellar hemisphere with homogenous contrast enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Ependymoma
(B) Hemangioblastoma
(C) Pilocytic-Astrocytoma
(D) Medulloblastoma
181. Which of the following tumor is typically a/w VLH:
(A) Hemangioblastoma
(B) Hemangioendothelioma
(C) Neurofibroma
(D) Glioma
182. Al is true about von Hippel Lindau syndrome except:
(A) Hemangioblastomas seen in craniospinal axis
(B) Multiple tumors common
(C) Tumors of Schwann cells are common
(D) Supratentorial lesions are uncommon
183. A child presents with raised ICT. On CT scan a lesion is seen around foramen of monro with multiple periventricular calcific foci. What could be probable diagnosis:
(A) Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SGCA)
(B) Subependymoma or Ependymoma
(C) Pilocytic astrocytoma
(D) Neurocytoma
184. Investigation of choice for meningeal carcinomatosis in CNS:
(A) NE-CT
(B) PET
(C) SPECT
(D) Gd-MRI
185. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone:
(A) CT
(B) MRI
(C) USG
(D) Plain X-ray
186. Wide neuralformina is associated with:
(A) Neurofibromatosis type 1
(B) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(C) Von Hipple Lindaue disease
(D) Tuberous sclerosis
187. True about MRI/CT appearance of lateral meningocele:
(A) Solid dural masses
(B) Usually outside the spinal canal
(C) Widened neural foramen
(D) Generally there is no spinal cord compression & deformity
188. Mesencephalo-oculo-facial-angiomatosis is seen in:
(A) KTW syndrome
(B) NF-1 & 2
(C) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(D) Wyburn-Mason syndrome
189. Tram track appearance on CT scan of head is seen in
(A) Sturge Weber Syndrome
(B) Von Hipple Lindaue Syndrome
(C) Tuberous sclerosis
(D) Neurofibroma
190. For renal stone, diagnosis is not done by:
(A) IVP
(B) MRI
(C) PET-Scan
(D) CT scan
191. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosis of Ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is:
(A) X-ray KUB region.
(B) Ultrasonogram.
(C) Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen
(D) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen
192. Calcification is best detected by
(A) X-ray
(B) USG
(C) CT Scan
(D) MRI
(E) PET Scan
193. Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive (investigation of choice) to detect early renal tuberculosis.
(A) Intravenous urography
(B) Ultrasound
(C) Computed tomography
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
194. Most important investigation for posterior urethralvalve is
(A) Urethroscopy
(B) IVP
(C) Retrograde cystogram
(D) Micturating cystogram (MCU)
195. The posterior urethra is best visualized by-
(A) Static cystogram
(B) Retrograde urethrogram
(C) Voiding cystogram
(D) CT cystogram
196. Investigation of choice to demonstrate vesico ureteral reflux
(A) Isotope cystogram
(B) Contrast Micturating Cysto Urethrogram
(C) IVP
(D) Cystoscopy
197. Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure:
(A) Micturating cystourethrogram
(B) IVP
(C) Bilateral nephrostogram
(D) Spiral CT for stones
198. Al of the following from radiolucent stones except:
(A) Xanthine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Allopurinol
(D) Orotic acid
199. A dense persistent nephrogram may be seen in all of the following except:
(A) Acute ureteral obstruction
(B) Systemic hypertension
(C) Severe hydronephrosis
(D) Dehydration
200. Non-visualisation of kidney in excretory urogram is seen in
(A) Duplication
(B) Renal vein thrombosis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Hypoplasia
(E) Amyloidosis
201. A dense renogram is obtained by
(A) Dehydrating the patient
(B) Increasing the dose of contrast media
(C) Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye
(D) Using non ionic media
202. Papillary necrosis features are all except:
(A) Egg in cup
(B) Hyperdense nephrogram
(C) Calyceal horns
(D) “Ring shadows”
203. The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is:
(A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70%
(B) Presence of collaterals
(C) A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mmHg across the lesion
(D) Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
204. Most sensitive and specific investigation for screening of Renovascular hypertension
(A) MRI
(B) Captopril enhanced radionuclide scan
(C) Spiral CT angiography (CTA)
(D) Duplex – Doppler flow study
205. Abdominal Ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy show a solid circumscribed hypoechnoic renal mass. Most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Wilm’s tumor
(B) Renal cell carcinoma
(C) Mesoblastic nephroma
(D) Onceocytoma
206. Which of the following is not an appropriate investigation for anterior urethral stricture?
(A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(B) Retrograde urethrogram
(C) Micturating cystourethrogram
(D) High frequency ultrasound
207. Teardrop bladder are seen in:
(A) Pelvic hematoma
(B) Pelvic lipomatoma
(C) T. B
(D) Neurogenic bladder
(E) Intraperitoneal bladder rupture
208. Causes of bladder calcification are:
(A) Schistosmosis
(B) Urethral cell
(C) TB
(D) Carcinoma
209. Transrectal ultrasonography in carcinoma prostate is most useful for
(A) Guided prostatic biopsies
(B) Seminal vesicle involvement
(C) Measurement of prostatic volume
(D) To detect hypoechoic area
210. Hypoechoic lesion within prostate in USG seen in-
(A) Adeno CA
(B) Normal prostate tissue
(C) Infertility
(D) Urethral obstruction
(E) BPH
211. Bare orbit is/are seen in:
(A) Metastasis
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Optic nerve glioma
(D) NF-1
(E) Pseudotumorcerebri
212. All are X-ray findings of retinoblastoma except:
(A) Widening of optic canal
(B) Intra cerebral calcification
(C) Intraocular calcification
(D) Secondaries in carnial bones
213. True about chest X-ray:
(A) 40% ling tissue seen obscured by bony structure & mediastinum
(B) 60% lung tissue seen obscured by bony structure & mediastinum
(C) Right dome higher than left dome
(D) Right dome pushed up by liver
(E) Should be taken n expiration
214. Normal hilar shadow in X-ray chest is produced by all except
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchus
(C) Lower lobe veins
(D) Upper lobe veins
215. True about chest X-ray is all except:
(A) Left hilum is higher
(B) Left dome is higher
(C) All fissures are clearly seen on lateral film
(D) None
216. A young man with pulmonary tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. For angiographic treatment, which vascular structure should be evaluated first:
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchial artery
(C) Pulmonary vein
(D) Superior vena cava
217. A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. Most probable cause would be.
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Bronchial artery
(C) Pulmonary vein
(D) Superior vena cava
218. A young patient of 30 yrs male presents with recurrent hemoptysis. On X-Ray no abnormality is seen. Next investigation is.
(A) HRCT
(B) Spiral CT
(C) Helical CT
(D) Bronchoscopy
219. A 40 years old man presents with a recurrent hemoptysis and purulent cough. X-ray was found to be normal. To next investigation done to aid in diagnosis is:
(A) MRI
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) HRCT
(D) CT guided biopsy
220. All of the following produce cavitating nodules in the lung except
(A) Sqamous cell CA
(B) Caplan’s syndrome
(C) Hamartoma
(D) Silicosis
221. What does not make diagnosis of solitary pulmonary nodule
(A) Tuberculoma
(B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Hamartoma
(D) Neurofibroma
222. A patient presents with a solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) on x-ray. The best investigation to come to a diagnosis is would be:
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) Image guided biopsy
223. “Millary shadow” on chest X-ray is seen in
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Rheumatoid Arthritis
(C) Pneumoconiosis
(D) COPD
(E) Metastasis
224. Miliary mottling seen in
(A) T.B.
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) P. Carinii pneumonia
225. Miliary mottling found in:
(A) Rheumatoid arthritis
(B) TB
(C) Pneumucystiscariniipenumonia
(D) Congestive heart failure
(E) Pulmonary edema
226. Millary mottling on X-ray chest is seen in:
(A) Histoplasmosis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Secondaries from Ca. colon
(D) Gonococal pneumonia
227. All show military shadow o chest X-ray except
(A) Pneumoconiasis
(B) Sarcoidosis
(C) MS
(D) Staphylococcal Pneumonia
228. Miliary shadow in chest X-ray is seen in A/E:
(A) TB
(B) Loeffler’s pneumonia
(C) Klebsiella
(D) Varicella pneumonia
229. Bulging fissures in lungs is seen in:
(A) Klebsiella pneumonia
(B) Staph pneumonia
(C) Pulmonary oedema
(D) Pneumoconiosis
230. Honey combing of lung in C.X.R. is seen in
(A) R.A.
(B) T.B.
(C) Scleroderma
(D) Carcinoma
(E) Interstitial lung disease
231. Increased radiolucency of one sided hemithorax may be caused by all except
(A) Obstructive Emphysema
(B) Pneumothorax
(C) Expiratory film
(D) Patient rotation
232. Hyperinflation of ling in CXR is seen in-
(A) CCF
(B) Congenital lobar emphysema
(C) Diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Foreign body
(E) Mucoviscidosis
233. Hypertranslucency of lung unilaterally is seen on all except:
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Resection of mammary gland
(C) Pulm art. obstruction
(D) Pneumonectomy
234. In rt. sided hemithorax on chest X-ray PA view what can be excluded:
(A) CCF
(B) TB
(C) Pulmonary infarct
(D) None of the above
235. All are true regarding emphysema finding in X-Ray except:
(A) Low flat diaphragm – Tarrace pattern
(B) Tubular heart
(C) Decreased inter costal space
(D) Increased radiolucence
236. Ground glass appearance is not seen in
(A) Hyline membrane disease
(B) Left to right shunts
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Obstructive TAPVC
237. Uremic lung most often results due to :
(A) Pulmonary edema
(B) Fibrosis
(C) Alveolar injury
(D) CVC liver
238. All of the following are true about loculated pleural effusion except-
(A) It makes an obtuse angle with the chest wall
(B) The margins are diffuse when viewed end on
(C) Not confined to any bronchopulmonary segment
(D) Air bronchograms are seen within the opacity
239. A patient presented with minimal Rt. sided pleural effusion. The best metjhod to detect this would be
(A) Rt. lateral
(B) Left Lateral
(C) Left lateral decubitus
(D) Right lateral decubitus
240. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of:
(A) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) Siderosis
241. The most likely diagnosis in a newborn who had a radiopaque shadow with an air fluid level in the chest along with hemivertebrae of the 6th thoracic vertebra on plain X-ray is:
(A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(B) Oesophageal duplication cyst
(C) Bronchogenic cyst
(D) Staphylococcal pneumonia
242. A child has respiratory distress, chest X-ray shows multiple air filled space, the differential diagnosis is all except.
(A) Congenital lung cyst
(B) Congenital Diaphragmatic hernia
(C) Congenital lobar aplasia of lung
(D) Congenital adenomatous malformation
243. A new born baby with acute respiratory distress on day 1. X Ray chest PA view showed neumerous gas luscencies in entire left hemithorax, most likely diagnosis is
(A) Congenital lobar Emphysema
(B) Pneumatocoel hernia
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Congenital lung cyst
244. Pappu 2 yrs old boy presents in the causality with H/O sudden onset of respiratory difficulty & strider on auscultation ↓ed breath sound & wheeze on the RT side. The X-Ray shows RT opaque hemithorex what will be diagnosis-
(A) Pneumothorax
(B) Acute epiglottitis
(C) Massive plural effusion
(D) Foreign body aspiration
245. A child with acute respiratory distress showing hyperinflation of unilateral lung in X-ray is due to-
(A) Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
(B) Aspiration pneumonia
(C) Congenital lobar emphysema
(D) Foreign body aspiration
246. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contralateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled lesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is-
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Congenital Lung Cyst
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Congenital lobar Emphysema
247. Apgar scores were 3, and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes. At 10 minutes child shows features of breathlessness on CXR – mediastinal shift was there, possible causes:
(A) Bilateral choanal atresia
(B) Pneumothorax
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) Hyaline Membrane disease
248. In X-ray, loops of bowel on left side of hemithorax and shift of heart shadow :
(A) Eventration of diaphragm
(B) Foraman of bochdalek hernia
(C) Morganian hernia
(D) Any of the above
249. A 3 year old female child developed fever, cough and respiratory distress. On chest x-ray consolidation is seen in right lower lobe. She improved with antibiotics but on follow up at 8 weeks was again found to have increasing consolidation in right lower lobe. Your next investigation would be:
(A) Bronchoscopy
(B) Bacterial culture of the nasopharynx
(C) T scan of the chest
(D) Allergen sensitivity test
250. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complain of breathlessness and chest pain. The chest x-ray is normal. The next step in investigation should be
(A) Lung ventilation – perfusion scan
(B) Pulmonary arteriography
(C) Pulmonary venous wedge angiography
(D) Echocardiography
251. A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of breathlessness. The chest X-ray shows hampton’s hump. The next investigation should be :
(A) Lung ventilation-perfusion scan
(B) Pulmonary arteriography
(C) Pulmonary venous angiography
(D) Echocardiography
252. In pulmonary embolism, findings in perfusion scan is:
(A) Perfusion segmental defect
(B) Perfusion defect with normal lung scan & radiography
(C) Tenting of diaphragm
(D) Normal chest scan
253. Hamptom hump is feature of?
(A) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(B) Pulmonary embolism
(C) Pulmonary hemorrhage
(D) Bronchogenic carcinoma
254. Best method to diagnose pulmonary embolism:
(A) Pulmonary angiography
(B) Scintillation perfusion scan
(C) CT scan
(D) X-ray chest
255. Gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism:
(A) X-ray chest
(B) Ventilation perfusion scan
(C) Blood gas analysis
(D) Doppler
256. A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Silicosis
257. A 25-year-old man presented with fever and cough for two months. CT chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrosis and mediastinal enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Silicosis
258. A patient suffering from AIDS presents with history of dyspnea and non-productive cough x-ray shows bilateral perihilaropacitics without pleural effusion and lymphaden-opathy. Most probable etiological agent is:
(A) Tuberculosis
(B) CMV
(C) Kaposis sarcoma
(D) Pneumocystis carinil
259. A bone marrow transplant recipient patient, developed chest infection. On chest X-ray Tree in Bud appearance is present. The cause of this is:
(A) Klebsiella
(B) Pneumocystis
(C) TB
(D) RSV
260. A 48 years old man, resident of Baroda outskirts near a textile mill presents to his family physician with respiratory symptoms. Doctor advices X Ray chest which showed – find reticular & nodular pattern in lower zone with loss of clarity of diaphragm & cardiac shadows. He also doubts about the presence of small pleural effusion. The probable diagnosis is?
(A) Stannosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Silicosis
(D) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
261. A 35 yrs old with a history of asbestos exposure presents with chest pain. X-ray shows a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right lower zone. CECT reveals an enhancing nodule adjoining the right lower costal pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleural thickening. The most likely diagnosis is:
(A) Mesothelioma
(B) Round atelectasis
(C) Pulmonary sequestration
(D) Adenocarcinoma
262. Which of the following organs should always be imaged in a suspected case of bronchogenic carcinoma.
(A) Adrenals
(B) Spleen
(C) Kidney
(D) Pancreas
263. In lung X-ray, heterogenous shadow is due to:
(A) Haemangiorma
(B) Pulmonary infarction
(C) Metastatic lesion
(D) TB
264. Lt border of the heart in C.X.R. is formed by:
(A) Pul. artery
(B) Pul. vein
(C) Abdominal aorta
(D) Arch of aorta
(E) Rt ventricles
265. Left border of heart on chest X-ray is formed by:
(A) Aortic arch
(B) Left Pulmonary artery
(C) Right atrium
(D) Left ventricle
(E) Right ventricle
266. Left sided cardiac bulge seen on chest X-ray is/are d/t:
(A) Enlargement of left atrial appendage
(B) Azygous vein enlargement
(C) Coronary artery aneurysm
(D) Pulmonary edema
(E) Right atrial hypertrophy
267. All are seen on right side of cardiac shadow in X-ray chest PA view except
(A) Superior vena cava
(B) Rt. atrium
(C) Ascending Aorta
(D) Inferior vena cava
268. Structure forming right border of heart
(A) SVC
(B) IVC
(C) Rt. atrium
(D) Lt. atrium appendage
(E) Pulmonary vessels
269. Right side of mediastinum shadow is not formed by:
(A) Superior vena cava
(B) Right innominates
(C) Right atrium
(D) Right ventricle
270. Right border of the heart in CXR is formed by
(A) Pulmonary artery
(B) Superior vena cava
(C) Rt atrium
(D) Rt ventricle
271. In X-Ray right border of mediastinum is formed by all except:
(A) SVC
(B) Right Atrium
(C) Right Ventricle
(D) Right Brachiocephalic Vein
272. Earliest CXR feature of left atrial enlargement is
(A) Elevation of the left main bronchus
(B) Double cardiac shadow
(C) Widening of carina
(D) Pericardial effusion
273. Posterior marking on Ba column in Ba swallow study is caused by?
(A) Aortic knuckle
(B) Left atrium
(C) Aberrant right subclavin artery
(D) Pulmonary artery sling
274. Base of heart is formed by
(A) Rt. ventricle
(B) LV
(C) LV + RV
(D) RA + RV
(E) RA + LA
275. All are true about thymus swelling except:
(A) Widening of mediastinum on X-ray
(B) Sharp border with shall like
(C) Steroid administration reduces size of swelling
(D) Shift of trachea on X-ray
276. Soft tissue mass in chest with rib erosion in X-ray is seen in all except:
(A) Leukemia
(B) Ewing’s sarcoma
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Osteosarcoma
277. The following is not the differential diagnosis of an anterior mediastinal mass.
(A) Teratoma
(B) Neurogenic tumor
(C) Thymoma
(D) Lymphoma
278. Characteristic X Ray finding in ASD is:
(A) Enlarged left ventricle
(B) Enlarged left atria
(C) Pulmonary pletheora
(D) PAH
.
279. X-ray picture of VSD :
(A) Small Lt. ventricle
(B) Small Rt. Ventricle
(C) Dilated Lt. atrium
(D) Dilated pulmonary veins
(E) Dilated pulmonary arteries
280. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray:
(A) Enlarged LA
(B) Normal LA
(C) Pulmonary Congestion
(D) Aortic shadow
281. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
(A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
(B) TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venou connection)
(C) Ebsteins’ anomaly
(D) Ventricular septal defect
282. Left heart failure findings are all except:
(A) Kerley B lines
(B) Redistribution of blood vessels to apex (increased flow in upper lobe veins)
(C) Oligemic lung field (pulmonary oligemia)
(D) Cardiomegaly
283. Chest X-ray picture in CCF-
(A) Cardiomegaly
(B) Thick interlobar septum
(C) Superior mediastinal widening
(D) Multinodular parenchymal lesion
284. All are seen in congestive cardiac failure except:
(A) Kerly B lines
(B) Prominent lower lobe vessel
(C) Pleural Effusions
(D) Cardiomegaly
285. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph?
(A) Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mm
(B) Diameter of left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
(C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery 16 mm
(D) Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
286. Pruning of Pulmonary arteries is seen in:
(A) Pulmonary hypertension
(B) Chronic Bronchitis
(C) Pulmonary infections
(D) Pulmonary transplant
287. Features of pulmonary venous hyper tension are A/E
(A) Perihilar haze
(B) Peribroncheal cuffing
(C) Upper lobar diversion
(D) Uniformly branching lines parallel to pleura
(E) Pulmonary ossicles& fine nodular pattern
288. Earliest feature of pulmonary venous hypertension
(A) Kerley B lines
(B) Upper lobar diversion of vessels
(C) Left atrial enlargement
(D) Pleural effusion
289. Radiological feature of Mitral stenosis is are
(A) Double contour of right heart border
(B) Straightening of left heart border
(C) Splaying of carinal angle
(D) Prominent aortic knuckle
(E) Kerley lines
290. A patient is having Mitral stenosis. His x-ray will show of the following finding except
(A) Lifting up of left bronchus
(B) Double atrial shadow
(C) Obliteration of retrosternal shadow on lateral x-rays
(D) Posterior displacement of esophagus on barium swallow.
291. All are radiological features of Mitral stenosis except
(A) Straight left border of heart
(B) Oligemia of upper lung fields
(C) Pulmonary hemosiderosis
(D) Lifting of left bronchus
292. Left cardiac border bulge can be seen in all, except
(A) Enlarge azygous vein
(B) Left appendicular overgrowth
(C) Coronary artery aneurysm
(D) Pericardial defect
293. In all of the following increased cardiac silhouette sing is seen except:
(A) Tetralogy of Fallot’s
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) Aortic regurgitation
(D) Ebstein anomaly
294. Which of the following is virtually diagnostic of aortitis on chest X-ray?
(A) Calcification in descending aorta
(B) Calcification in ascending aorta
(C) Calcification of pulmonary artery
(D) Focal oligemia
295. Oblitration of left cardiac shadow on PA view is due to:
(A) Lingular lesion
(B) Left hilarlymphadenopthy
(C) Left lower lobe lesion
(D) Left upper apical lobe lesion
296. If the right cardiac silhouette is obliterated, it means the pathology involves:
(A) Right lower lobe
(B) Right atrium
(C) Right middle lobe
(D) Right ventricle
297. Consolidation of which portion of the lung is likely to obliterate the Aortic knuckle on X-ray chest:
(A) Left Lingula
(B) Right Upper lobe
(C) Apex of lower lobe
(D) Left upper lobe (posterior part)
298. The patho-physiological phenomenon that occurs during atheromatous plaque formation and is used for screening of ‘asymptomatic coronary plaques’ on CT scan is:
(A) Increased outer diameter of coronary artery
(B) Decreased inner diameter of coronary artery
(C) Calcium deposition in the atheromatous plaque
(D) Lipoid degeneration in the plaque.
299. To visualize vascular sling causing tracheal/external airway compression which of the following would you best prefer?
(A) Catheter angiography of aorta and pulmonary artery
(B) MRI
(C) T
(D) PET-CT
300. Which of the following is not true:
(A) Hibernating myocardium can be detected by Low dose butamine scar
(B) rest reinjection thallium scan is used in hibernating myocardium
(C) A kinetic areas does not benefit from revascularization
(D) Late Gd MRI enhancement is suggestive of scar but Gd scan in snot used for hibernating myocardium detection.
301. Drug used to perform stress ECHO:
(A) Thallium
(B) Dobutamine
(C) Adrenaline
(D) Adenosine
302. The most recent advance in noninvasive cardiac output monitoring is use of:
(A) PA catheter
(B) Thermodilution technique
(C) Echocardiography
(D) Electrical impedance cardiography technology
303. About diagnosing air embolism with transesophageal echocardiography, which of the following is false:
(A) It can quantify the volume of air embolised
(B) It is a very sensitive investigation
(C) Continuous monitoring is needed to detect venous embolism
(D) Interferes with Doppler when used together
304. Best investigation for cardiac temponade is
(A) 2-D Echocardiography
(B) M-Mode Echocardiography
(C) Real time echocardiography
(D) USG
305. Which of the following is the best view for detecting minimal pneumoperitoneum?
(A) Erect view of abdomen
(B) AP view of abdomen
(C) Right lateral decubitis abdominal x-ray with horizontal beam
(D) Left lateral decubitus abdominal x-ray with horizontal beam
306. Investigation of choice for Zenker’sdivertculum is
(A) Barium swallow
(B) Endoscopy
(C) Esophageal Menometry
(D) CT
307. What is least useful as diagnostic procedure in case of acute haemetemesis
(A) Barium meal
(B) Endoscopy
(C) Gastric content aspiration
(D) Angiography
308. Diffuse esophageal dilatation on barium swallow is seen in:
(A) Achlasia
(B) Trypanosomiasis
(C) Etidronate therapy
(D) Scleroderma
309. Al correlates with USG findings of congenital pyloric stenosis except:
(A) >95% accuracy
(B) Segment length > 16 mm
(C) Thickness > 4 mm
(D) High gastric residues
310. Following are common features of malignant gastric ulcer on Barium meal, EXCEPT
(A) Location on the greater curvature
(B) Carman’s meniscus sign
(C) Radiating folds which do not reach the edge of the ulcer
(D) Lesser curvature ulcer with a nodular rim
311. Radiological finding in ileal atresia:
(A) Microcolon on Ba enema
(B) Double bubble sign
(C) Coil spring appearance in Ba-Enema
(D) Obstruction in Ba meal
312. All of the following are diagnostic barium follow through features of ileocecal tuberculosis EXCEPT
(A) Apple – core appearance
(B) Pulled up contracted cecum
(C) Widening of ileocecal angle
(D) Strictures involving terminal ileum
313. Ileocecal tuberculosis presents with all except
(A) Rapid emptying of narrowed terminal ileum
(B) Inverted umbrella sign
(C) Stellate ulcer with elevated margins
(D) Longitudinal ulcers are more common
(E) Napkin ring stenosis
314. Investigation for small intestine includes all except:
(A) Enteroclysis
(B) Radionucleidescan
(C) MRI enteroclysis
(D) CT enteroclysis
(E) USG enteroclysis
315. After taking a drug a patient developed some abdominal problem for which he consulted a physician, who adviced X-ray. X ay findings was radiopacity in bowel Probable he might have taken A/E.
(A) Salicylate
(B) Iron
(C) Phenothiazine
(D) Corticosteroid
316. Gasless abdomen is a feature of:
(A) High obstruction
(B) Acute pancreatitis
(C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(D) All
317. DD for Rt. upper quadrant calcification:
(A) Gallstone
(B) Renal stone
(C) Calcification in vessels
(D) Hepatic hemangioma
318. A patient complains of epigastric pain, radiating to back off and on. The investigation of choice is:
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) Radio nucleotide scan
319. Widening of C loop of duodenum is a feature of:
(A) Pancreatic head growth
(B) Carcinoma stomach
(C) Splenic involvement
(D) Involvement of upper rt renal pole
320. ERCP in pancreatitis is done to know about:
(A) Gall stones
(B) Associated cholangitis
(C) Ascites
(D) Pancreatic divisum
(E) Annular pancreas
321. According Couinaud’s classification of functional segments of liver, which of the following is Segment IV of liver?
(A) Left lobe
(B) Right lobe
(C) Caudate lobe
(D) Quadrate lobe
322. Solitary hypoechoic lesion of the liver without septate or debris is most likely to be-
(A) Hydatid cyst
(B) Caroli’s disease
(C) Liver abscess
(D) Simple cyst
323. Hyperchoice hepatic metastases on USG are seen in which of the following malignancies:
(A) CA ovary
(B) CA colon (Mucinous adenocarcinoma)
(C) Urinary bladder
(D) Mucinous Cystadenoma
324. Which of the following hepatic lesions can be diagnosed with high accuracy by using nuclear imaging?
(A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(B) Hepatic adenoma
(C) Focal nodular hyperplacia
(D) Cholangiocarcinoma
325. A 22 year old man resents with a solitary 2 cm space occupying lesion of mixed echogenicity in the right lobe of liver on ultrasound examination. The rest of the liver is normal. Which of the following tests should be done next:
(A) Ultrasound guided biopsy of the lesion
(B) Hepatic Scintigraphy
(C) Hepatic angiography
(D) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the liver
326. True about are MRCP:
(A) MRI is used to obtain the image
(B) CT is used for the images
(C) It shows the biliary tree
(D) Dye has to be injected endoscoically
(E) It is invasive procedure
327. Al of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liver secondaries, except
(A) Ultrasonic waves
(B) Cryotherapy
(C) Alcohol
(D) Radio frequency
328. X-ray appearance of CBD stone on cholangiography is:
(A) Meniscus appearance
(B) Sudden cut off
(C) Smooth tapering
(D) Eccentric occlusion
329. Air in biliary tract is seen in all except:
(A) Gal stone ileus
(B) Sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Carcinoma gall bladder
(D) Edoscopicpapillotomy
330. Thickened gall bladder wall in USG seen in-
(A) Acute cholecystitis
(B) Mucosal thickening
(C) Cholesterosis
(D) Ascites
(E) AIDS cholangitis
331. True about features of cholecystitis on USG:
(A) Thick fibrosed gallbladder wall
(B) Stone impacted at neck of gall bladder
(C) Perigallbladder halo
(D) Increased vascularity
332. Computed Tomography (CT scan) is least accurate for diagnosis of:
(A) 1 cm size Aneurysm in the Hepatic Artery
(B) 1 cm size Lymph node in the para-aortic region
(C) 1 cm size Mass in the tail of pancreas
(D) 1 cm size Gall stones
333. Focal and diffuse thickening of gall bladder wall with high amplitude reflections and ‘comet tail’ artifacts on USG suggest the diagnosis of:
(A) Xanthogranulomatouscholecysitis
(B) Carcinoma of gall bladder
(C) Adenomyomatosis
(D) Cholesterolosis
334. A newborn baby not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be?
(A) Barium enema study
(B) Manometry
(C) Rectal biopsy
(D) Fecal fat estimation
335. A newborn baby has not passed meconium for 48 hours since birth. She has vomiting and distension of abdomen. The most appropriate investigation for evaluation would be
(A) Anorectalmanometry
(B) Rectal biopsy
(C) Lower GI contrast study
(D) Trypsin estimation
336. A 40 year old male female patient on long term steroid therapy presents with recent onset of severe pain in the right hip. Imaginf modality of choice for this problem is:
(A) CT scan
(B) Bone scan
(C) MRI
(D) Plain X-ray
337. Heberden’s nodes are found in:
(A) PIP joints in osteoarthritis
(B) DIP joints in osteoarthritis
(C) PIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
(D) DIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis
338. Tufting of distal phalanx is characteristically seen in
(A) Gout
(B) Psoriatic arthropathy
(C) Hypoparathyroidism
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
339. Chondrocalcinosis is seen with
(A) Gout
(B) Osteoarthritis
(C) Pseudogout
(D) Septic arthritis
340. Calcification of intervertebral disc is seen in
(A) T. B. spine
(B) Prolapse of intervertebral disc (PID)
(C) Non rheumatic ankylosis
(D) Rheumatic ankylosis
341. Calcification of intervertebral Disc is seen in
(A) Gout
(B) Rheumatoid
(C) Alkaptonuria
(D) Psoriasis
342. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is feature of:
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Gaucher’s ds.
(D) Pseudogout
343. Calcification around the joint is seen in:
(A) Pseudogout
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Rh. arthritis
(D) Gout
344. Which one of the following is a recognized X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) Juxta-articular osteosclerosis
(B) Sacroilitis
(C) Bone erosions
(D) Peri-articular calcification
345. Radiological features of scleroderma are A/E:
(A) Diffuse periosteal reaction
(B) Esophageal dysmotality
(C) Erosion of tip of phalynx
(D) Lung nodules
346. All are radiological sign of Vit C deficiency except
(A) White line of Frenkel
(B) Wimberger line
(C) Osteoporosis of bone
(D) Widening of epiphysis
347. In scurvy all the following radiological signs are seen except:
(A) Pelican spur
(B) Soap bubble appearance
(C) Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
(D) Frenkel’s line
348. Radiological findings of scurvy are A/E:
(A) Epiphyseal widening
(B) Metaphysealporosis
(C) Metapyseal infarction
(D) Pelkanspur
349. Earliest evidence of healing in rickets is provided by
(A) S, Ca++
(B) S.PO43−
(C) Radiological examination of growing bone ends
(D) S. Alkaline Phosphate level
350. Radiological features of rickets include:
(A) Narrowing of epiphysis
(B) Cupping of metaphysis
(C) Ricketic rosary
(D) Pelikan’s spur
351. Splaying and cupping of the ‘metaphysis is seen in :
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Lead poisoning
352. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in a child does not occur in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Lead poisoning
(C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
(D) Hypophosphatasia
353.Looser’s zones is seen in:
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Multiple myelorna
(E) Paget’s disease
354. Flaring of anterior ends of the ribs is characteristically seen in
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Scurvy
(C) Rickets
(D) Hypothyroidism
355. Which endocrine disorder is associated with epiphyseal dysgenesis?
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Cushings syndrome
(C) Addison’s disease
(D) Hypoparathyroidism
356. 76 year old man presents with lytic lesion in the vertbrae. X-ray skull showed multiple punched out lesions. The diagnosis is
(A) Metastasis
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
357. A lady Dimple has a lytic lesion in X-ray of upper end of humerus. The diagnosis is,
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Oseochondroma
(C) Unicarmel bone cyst
(D) Osteoclastoma
358. A classical expansive lytic lesion in the transverse process of a vertebra is seen in:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(C) Osteobalstoma
(D) Metastasis
359. X-ray shows soap bubble appearance at lower end of radius, treatment of choice is
(A) Local excision
(B) Excision & Bone grafting
(C) Amputation
(D) RT
360. Radiological feature of osteosarcoma is:
(A) New bone formation
(B) Sunray appearance
(C) Cotton wool app.
(D) Osteoid formation
361. Dense calcification is seen in
(A) Chondroblatoma
(B) Chondrosarcoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Fibrosarcoma
362. Expansible pulsating secondary meatstasis is a feature of
(A) Basal cell carcinoma
(B) Renal cell carcinoma
(C) Osteogenic sarcoma
(D) Carcinoma prostate
363. Lytic lesion in skull are seen in following except:
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Meastasisca bronchus
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Ca prostate
364. X-ray finding of osteomyelitis within 8 day is:
(A) Cystic swelling
(B) Soft tissue swelling
(C) New bone formation
(D) Seyuestrum formation
365. Sonographic finding of Spina bifida
(A) Ventriculomegaly
(B) Obliteration of cisterna magna
(C) Small BPD
(D) Abnormal curvature of cerebellum
(E) Club foot
366. An eight year old boy presents with back pain and mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorsolumbar spine reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with preserved disc spaces. There was no associated soft tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Histiocytosis
(D) Metastasis
367. On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
(A) Myelodysplasia
(B) Myelomalacia
(C) Myeloschisis
(D) Cord tumors
368. Which of the following is not true regarding Ossified Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (OPLL)?
(A) Most commonly involves thoracic spine
(B) Gradient echo MR sequence may overestimate the canal stenosis
(C) MRI is best for diagnosis
(D) Low signal intensity on al MR sequences
369. Mamographic abnormality seen in CA breast is-
(A) Change in density
(B) Microcalcification
(C) Change in architecture
(D) All
370. On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except:
(A) Spiculation
(B) Microcalcification
(C) Macrocalcification
(D) Irregular mass
371. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy
(A) Well defined lesion
(B) A mass of decreased density
(C) Areas of speculated microcalcifications
(D) Smooth borders
372. Investigation to diagnose stage-I carcinoma breast:
(A) B/L mamogram
(B) X-ray chest
(C) Bone scan
(D) Liver scan
373. The sensitivity of Mammography is low in young females because?
(A) Less glandular tissue and more fat
(B) Young females are less cooperative
(C) Young breast have dense tissue
(D) Because of less fat content
374. Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes:
(A) History, clinical examination, biopsy/cytology
(B) Clinical examination, Mammography, biopsy/cytology
(C) History, clinical examination, Ultrasonography
(D) Observation, Ultrasonography, biopsy/cytology
375. Which of the following does not contain Fat on mammography?
(A) Post-traumatic cyst
(B) Hamartoma
(C) Seborrhic keratosis
(D) Galactocele
376. The most sensitive investigation for DCIS (Ductal carcinoma in-situ) of breast?
(A) Mammography
(B) Ultrasound
(C) MRI
(D) PET scan
377. X-ray of which bone (s) would be diagnostic in hyperparathyroidism :
(A) Skull
(B) Phalanges
(C) Long bones
(D) Scapula
(E) Spine
378. Pathognomic feature of hyperparathyroidism:
(A) Osteopenia
(B) Loss of Lamina dura
(C) Brown’s tumor
(D) Sub periosteal resoption of phalynges
379. The diagnostic procedure not done in case of pheochromocytoma.
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) FNAC
(D) MIBG scan
380. Which one of the following imaging modalities is most sensitive for evaluation of extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma.
(A) Ultrasound
(B) CT
(C) MRI
(D) MIBG scan
381. Post irradiation thyroid tumor is:
(A) Follicular CA
(B) Papillary CA
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Hurthel cell tumor
382. Radio iodine is used in treatment of
(A) Papillary CA thyroid
(B) Medullary CA thyroid
(C) Follicular CA thyroid
(D) Anaplastic CA thyroid
383. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on Ultrasongram is not suggestive of malignancy?
(A) Hyperechogenisity
(B) Hypoechogenisity
(C) Nonhomogenous
(D) Microcalcification
384. Which of the following is not a CT feature of Adrenal adenoma?
(A) Low attenuation
(B) Homogenous density and well defined borders (regular margins)
(C) Contrast is taken up early (enhances rapidly), contrast stays in it for a relatively longer time and washes out late (slowly)
(D) Calcification is are
385. Which one of the following is the earliest radiographic manifestation of childhood leukemia?
(A) Radioleucent transverse metaphyseal band
(B) Diffuse demineralization of bones
(C) Osteoblastic lesions in skull
(D) Parenchymal pulmonary lesion on chest films
386. A 2 yr old by suffering from leukemia following are the x-ray finding
(A) Osteolytic lesion in flat bones
(B) Metaphysial osteoporosis
(C) Periostial new bone formation
(D) Osteosclerosis of ling bone
(E) Transverse line of dark band below the growth plate
387. “Hair-on end” appearance is seen in:
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Sickle cell anemia
(C) Hemochromatosis
(D) Megaloblastic anemia
388. Wide diploic space of skull with brush borer (hair on end) appearance is characteristic of
(A) Congenital haemolyticanaemia
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Raised intracranial tension
(D) Meningioma
389. All are radiological features of sickle cell anemia except:
(A) Vertebra plana
(B) Floating teeth
(C) Bone infarct
(D) Marrow hyperplasia
(E) Secondary ostocomyelitis
390. Investigation of choice for temporal bone injury:
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) Angiography
(D) Plain x-ray
391. Suduralhaematoma most commonly results from
(A) Rupture of intracranial aneurysm
(B) Rupture of cerebral AVM
(C) Injury to cortical bridging veins
(D) Hemophilia
392. Characteristic of subdural hematoma is
(A) Convex hyperdensity
(B) Concavo convex Hyperdense
(C) Biconvex hyperdense
(D) Concavo convex hypodense
393. Which of the following is classic CT appearance of an acute Subdural hematoma:
(A) Lentiform-shaped hyperdense lesion
(B) Cresent-shaped hypodense lesion
(C) Cresent-shaped hyperdense lesion
(D) Leniform-shaped hypodense lesion
394. Investigation of choice for acute subarachnoid haemorrage
(A) Angiography
(B) CT-scan
(C) MRI
(D) Enhanced MRI
395. CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows a biconvex hyperdense lesion displacing the grey-white matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is
(A) Subdural hematoma
(B) Diffuse axonal injury
(C) Extradural hematoma
(D) Hemorrhagic contusion
396. The first investigation of choice in a patient with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage should be:
(A) Non-contrast computed tomography
(B) CSF examination
(C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(D) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
397. Best test to determine etiology of SAH
(A) Enhanced CT
(B) Unenhanced CT
(C) Intra arterial digital Substraction Angiography
(D) MRI
398. Splenic injury is diagnosed on X-ray by:
(A) Half stomach shadow
(B) Obliteration of splenic shadow
(C) Rib fracture
(D) Gas under diaphragm
399. In a patient with abdominal trauma who is hemodynamically stable, what would be the investigation of choice?
(A) FAST
(B) DPL
(C) Barium meal
(D) Erect x-ray abdomen
400. Investigation of choice of diagnosis of splenic rupture
(A) Peritoneal lavage
(B) Ultrasound
(C) CT scan
(D) MRI
401. For the evaluation of blunt abdominal trauma, which of the following imaging modalities is ideal?
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Nuclear scintigraphy
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
402. True about antental Doppler analysis is all except
(A) Reduction in end diastolic flow is associated with poor out come
(B) Reduction in EDF is associated with IUGR
(C) In normal gestation placental resistance is high
(D) S/D ratio is high in IUGR
(E) Investigation of choice in pregnancy
403. Which one of the following regarding antenatal assessment of umbilical arteries by Color Doppler study is TRUE?
(A) There is decreased S/D ratio in smoker and nicotine abusing pregnant females
(B) The reduced diastolic flow at term indicates good prognosis
(C) The flow velocities and the S/D ratio are useful to evaluate high risk pregnancies.
(D) In otherwise normal in smoking females
404. USG can detect gestation sac earliest at:
(A) 5-6 weeks of gestation
(B) 7-8 weeks of gestation
(C) 10 weeks of gestation
(D) 12 weeks of gestation
405. Earliest sign of fetal life is best detected by
(A) X-ray
(B) Fetoscopy
(C) Real time USG
(D) Doppler
406. Ultrasonogrsphy of umbilical artery is done to know about:
(A) Heart beat
(B) Gestational age
(C) Fetal weight
(D) Fetal maturity
407. Parameters used to estimate gestational age in last
(A) CR length
(B) Abdominal circumference
(C) BPD
(D) Femurlength
408. USG done at 18-20 weeks mainly to:
(A) Detect fetal abnormality
(B) Determine sex
(C) Estimate liquor
(D) Determine maturity
409. Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound?
(A) Anencephaly
(B) Inencephaly
(C) Microcephaly
(D) Holoprosencephaly
410. Anencephaly can be diagnosed by USG at
(A) 10-12 weeks of gestation
(B) 14-18 weeks of gestation
(C) 20-24 weeks of gestation
(D) 24-28 weeks of gestation
411. Best for unruptured ectopic pregnancy is
(A) Per abdominal US
(B) HCG
(C) Trans vaginal US
(D) Amniocentesis
412. The investigation of choice for an ectopic pregnancy is:
(A) CT scan
(B) Transvaginal USG
(C) Serum HCG levels
(D) MRI
413. All are signs/features of ectopic pregnancy on USG except
(A) Pseudo sac
(B) Hyprechoic ring
(C) Adenexal mass
(D) Echogenic mass with multicystic spaces within endometrial cavity
(E) Doughnut sign
414. Ectopic pregnancy, characteristic finding in USG is:
(A) Absence of gestational sac in uterus
(B) Complex adenexal mass
(C) Resistance in coloured Doppler
(D) Free fluid in peritoneal cavity
415. Most accurate assessment of gestational age by USG is done by
(A) Femur length
(B) Gestational sac size
(C) Menstrual history
(D) Crown rump length
416. USG an diagnose all except:
(A) Anencephaly
(B) Gestational sac size
(C) Menstrual history
(D) Crown rump length
417. On USG finding of cystic hygroma in fetus is suggestive of
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Marphan’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome
(D) Klinfelter’s syndrome
418. Missed IUD (IUCD) is recognized by
(A) X-ray
(B) USG
(C) Barium meal
(D) CT Scan
419. The method to diagnosis misplaced intra uterine device is
(A) Ultrasound
(B) X-ray abdomen (Erect view)
(C) Uterine sound & Hysteroscopy
(D) All of the above
420. Radiological investigation of female of reproductive age group is restricted to
(A) Menstrual Period
(B) First 10 days of Menstrual Cycle
(C) 10-20 days of M.C.
(D) Last 10 days of M.C.
421. Maximum radio opaque shadow in ovary is seen in
(A) Teratoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Granulosa cell tumor
422. Invertogram to be done in a new born:
(A) Immediately
(B) After 2 hours
(C) After 4 hours
(D) After 6 hours
423. First sign of hydrocephalus in children is:
(A) Post clinoid erosion
(B) Large head
(C) Sutural diastasis
(D) Thinned out vault
424. William’s syndrome is associated with
(A) Congenital Supravalvular Aortic stenosis
(B) Congenital Subvalvular Aortic stenosis
(C) VSD
(D) ASD
425. Radiological findings of battered baby syndrome is
(A) Multiple Injuries not explained by one cause
(B) Multiple fractures in different stage of healing
(C) Excessive callus formation
(D) All
426. Geographic lytic lesions in vault of skull with beveled edges are seen with
(A) Multiple myeloma
(B) Eosinophilic granuloma
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Reticular cell CA
427. Multiple Punched out lesions on skull X-Ray is found in:
(A) Down’s
(B) Hyperparathyroidism
(C) Multiple Myeloma
(D) All
428. Vertebral plana is seen in-
(A) Eosinophilic granuloma
(B) Trauma
(C) Paget’s disease
(D) Malingnancy
429. Schober’s sign is for:
(A) Flexion of lumbar spine
(B) Chest expansion
(C) Pain with motion of hip
(D) Neck pain and stiffness
430. Epiphyseal enlargement is seen in
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Spondo-epiphyseal dysgenesis
(D) Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
431. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in a child does not occur in:
(A) Rickets
(B) Led poisoning
(C) Metaphyseal dysplasia
(D) Hypophosphatasia
432. Dense metaphyseal band is seen on:
(A) Hypervitamininosis A
(B) Hypervitaminosis B
(C) Scurvy
(D) Hypervitaminosis D
433. Wind Swept deformity is seen in:
(A) Ankylosing spondylitis
(B) Scurvy
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis
(D) Rickets
434. Trident hand is seen in:
(A) Achondroplasia
(B) Mucopolysacchoroidosis
(C) Diphysealachlasia
(D) Cleidcarnialdystosis
435. Champagne glass pelvis is seen in
(A) CDH
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Cetinism
(D) Achondroplasia
436. Bone within bone appearance is seen in-
(A) CML
(B) Osteoporosis
(C) Osteopetrosis
(D) Bone infarct
437. Scottish terrier sign is seen in-
(A) AP view
(B) PA view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Oblique view
438. Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is-
(A) Spondylosis
(B) Spondylolisthesis
(C) Lumbar anal stenosis
(D) Slipped Disc
439. In spondolysthesis following radiological features seen:
(A) Scotty dog
(B) Scotty dog wearing a collar
(C) Beheaded Scotty dog terrier sign
(D) Nepolean sign
440. Least useful for diagnosing spondylolisthesis
(A) MRI
(B) CT
(C) X ray spine lateral view
(D) X ray spine AP view
441. Pesudo fracture of looser’s zone is seen in
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Osteopetrosis
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Scurvy
442. Looser’s zones is seen in:
(A) Osteoporosis
(B) Hyperparathyrodism
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Renal osteodystrophy
(E) Paget’s disease
443. Radiographic appearance of Pindborg’s tumor is:
(A) Onion – peel appearance
(B) Sun burst appearance
(C) Cherry – blossom appearance
(D) Driven – snow appearance
444. “Sunray appearance” on X-rays is suggestive of:
(A) A chondrosarcoma
(B) A metastatic tumour in the bone
(C) An Osteogenic sarcoma
(D) An Ewing’s sarcoma
445. Sun ray appearance is seen in:
(A) Osteosarcoma
(B) Ewing sarcoma
(C) Osteoclastoma
(D) Multiple myeloma
446. All are the about Kerley B line except:
(A) Horizontal
(B) Runs from hilar area to peripheral area
(C) Due to thickening of septa
(D) Due to pulmonary venous hypertension
447. Kerley B lines seen in:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Mitral stenosis
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Interstitial edema
(E) Lymphangitiscarcinomatosis
448. Kerley’s B lines are found in:
(A) Interstitial edema
(B) Pulmonary venous congestion
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Mitral stenosis
449. Floating water-lily sign is feature of:
(A) Lung Hydatid
(B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Lung abscess
(D) Aspergilloma
450. Water lilly sign is seen in chest X-ray or:
(A) Pulmonary hypoplasia
(B) Echinococcus
(C) Pneumonia
(D) Sarcoidosis
451. Popcorn calcification is characteristically seen in
(A) TB
(B) Metastasis
(C) Pulmonary hamartoma
(D) Fungal invagination
452. Egg shell calcification is seen in all except
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Silicosis
(C) Post irradiation lymphoma
(D) Bronchogenic CA
453. Egg shell calcification is seen in
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Silicosis
(C) Lung Ca& bronchiolitis
(D) Pneumoconiosis
(E) Lymphoma following radiation treatment
454. Egg shell calcification are seen:
(A) Silicosis
(B) T.B.
(C) Carcinoma metastatic to Lymphonode
(D) Lymphoma
(E) Sarcoidosis
455. Egg-shell calcification in hilar lymph nodes is seen in:
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Histoplasmosis
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Carcinoma lung
(E) Silicosis
456. Spring water cyst is another name for:
(A) Hydatid cyst of lung
(B) Lug amoebic cyst
(C) Pleuro pericardial cyst
(D) Entergenous cyst
457. Following can cause rib notching except:
(A) Blalock Taussig shunt
(B) Waterston Cooley’s shunt
(C) Pulmonary atresia with large VSD
(D) Aorta disruption
458. Superior rib notching is/are caused by:
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Poliomyelitis
(C) Blalock Tausing shunt
(D) Marfan syndrome
(E) Caorctation of aorta
459. Rib notching is found in:
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Lymphangiomyomatosis
(C) Aortic aneurysm
(D) Taussig-Bing operation
(E) Aortic obstruction
460. Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph?
(A) Bidirectional Glem shunt
(B) Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt
(C) IVC occlusion
(D) Coarctation of aorta
461. True regarding radiological picture of coaritation of aorta A/E
(A) Involvement of upper two ribs
(B) Bilateral
(C) Inferior rib notching
(D) Usually before years of age
(E) ‘3’ sign
462. Inferior rib notching is seen in
(A) Coarctation of aorta
(B) Rickets
(C) ASD
(D) Multiple myeloma
463. In which of he following a ‘Coeur en Sabot’ shape of the heart is seen:
(A) Tricuspid atresia
(B) Ventricular septal defect
(C) Transportation of great arteries
(D) Tetralogy of fallot
464. Snowman appearance is seen in:
(A) Total anomalous pulmonary venous Connection
(B) Ebstein anomaly
(C) Tetralogy of fallot
(D) VSD
(E) Transposition of great vessel
465. “Snowman” sign is seen in:
(A) TGV
(B) TOF
(C) TAPVC
(D) Aortic dissection
466. Figure of 8 in chest X ray s seen in
(A) Ebstein Anomaly
(B) Total Anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC)
(C) Tetrology of fallot (TOF)
(D) Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
467. Flask shaped heart is seen in following except:
(A) Ebstein anomaly
(B) Pericardial effusion
(C) TOF
(D) TAPVC
468. Egg on side appearance is seen in:
(A) TAPVC
(B) Ebstein anomaly
(C) TGA
(D) TOF
(E) VSD
469. “Egg on-side” appearance is seen in:
(A) TOF
(B) Uncorrected TGV
(C) TAPVC
(D) Constricted pericarditis /TA
470. “Thumb print’ sign see in:
(A) Candida
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Thrrmomyces
(D) Epiglotis
471. Double bubble sign is seen in A/E
(A) Lad’s band
(B) Annular pancreas
(C) Pancreatic pseudocyst
(D) Duodenal atresia
(E) Diaphragmatic hernia
472. Double bubble sign seen in:
(A) Duodenal atresia
(B) Ileal atresia
(C) Pyloric stenosis
(D) Pancreatic divisum
(E) Volvulus
473. Double bubble sign on X-ray is seen in:
(A) Duodenal atresia
(B) Oesophageal atresia
(C) Colonic atresia/Hirschprung’s disease
(D) Pyloric stenosis
474. X-ray feature of pyloric stenosis is
(A) Single bubble appearance
(B) Double bubble appearance
(C) Triple bubble appearance
(D) Multiple air fluid levels
475. Radiological signs of crohn’s disease:
(A) String sign of Kantor
(B) Pipestem appearance
(C) Pseudo polyp
(D) Back wash ileitis
476. Radiological feature of ischemic colitis is
(A) Saw toothing
(B) Craggy popcorn appearance
(C) Thumb printing
(D) Cobble stone appearance
477. Lead pipe appearance is seen in
(A) Chron’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) Schistosomiasis
(D) Carcinoma colon
478. String of Kantor is seen in
(A) Chron’s disease
(B) Ulcerative colitis
(C) TB
(D) Carcinoma
479. Soap Bubble appearance in X-ray is seen in
(A) Multiple cystic Kidney
(B) Neuroblastoma
(C) Cystic lymhagiectasis
(D) Meconium ileus
480. Radiological sign of ischemic colitis is
(A) Popcorn appearance
(B) Thumb print appearance
(C) Cobrahead app
(D) Inverted 3 sign
481. String sign is suggestive of:
(A) Toxic Megacolon
(B) Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis(HPS)
(C) Ulcerative Colitis
(D) IBS
482. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal X-ray, multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be-
(A) Pyloric obstruction
(B) Duodenal atresia
(C) Illeal atresia
(D) Ladd/s bands
483. Feathery appearance in jejunum is due to:
(A) Valvulaeconniventes
(B) Haustrations
(C) Luminal gas
(D) Vascular network
484. X-ray appearance of CBD stone on cholangiograhy is:
(A) Meniscus appearance
(B) Sudden cut off
(C) Smooth tapering
(D) Eccentric occlusion
485. Chain of lakes appearance in ERCP is seen is
(A) Acute Pancreatitis
(B) Chronic Pancreatitis
(C) Carcinoma Pancreas
(D) Ductal Adenoma
486. Central dot sign is seen in:
(A) Caroli’s disease
(B) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Polycytic liver disease
(D) Liver hamartoma
487. “Spongy appearance” with central sunburst calcification is seen in
(A) pancreatic adenocarcinoma
(B) Mucinous cyst adenocarcinoma
(C) Somatostatinoma
(D) Serous cyst adenoma
488. A 45 yrs female presents with recurrent epigastric abdominal pain and jaundice. USG shows clausters of cysts, cysts are having lobulated margins, in the head to pancreas. MR reveals a multicystic mass with a bunch of grapes appearance and a grossly dialated pancreatic duct. The most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Serous cystadenoma
(B) Mucinous cystadenoma
(C) Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasm (IPMN)
(D) Solid pseudopapillaryepithelil neoplasm
489. Rim sign in IVP is seen in
(A) Polycystic Kidney
(B) Hydronephrosis
(C) Chronic pyelonephritis
(D) Hypernephroma
490. Cobra head deformity is characteristic of
(A) Posterior urethral valve
(B) Ureterocoel
(C) Bladder tumor
(D) Cytitis
491. IVP of polycystic kidney disease shows:
(A) Cobra head
(B) Dropping lilly
(C) Flower base appearance
(D) Spider leg deformity
(E) Fish hook appearance
492. B/L spider leg sign on IVP suggests
(A) Renal stone
(B) Polycystic kidney
(C) Hypernephroma
(D) Hydronephrosis
493. Spider leg appearance is found in:
(A) Polycystic kidney
(B) Pyelonephritis
(C) Hydronephrosis
(D) Renal artery stenosis
494. Investigation of choice for juvenile nasoangiiofibroma
(A) X-ray
(B) Angiography
(C) USG
(D) CT Scan – contrast enhanced
495. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is:
(A) Ultrasonography
(B) Computed tomography
(C) Magnetic resonance imaging
(D) Arteriography
496. The best investigation to diagnose a case of acoustic neuroma is
(A) Gadolinium enhanced MRI
(B) CT scan
(C) Audimetric analysis
(D) PET scan
497. A patient is suspected to have vestibular Shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is:
(A) Contrast enhanced CT scan
(B) Gadolinum enhanced MRI
(C) SPECT
(D) PET scan
498. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
(A) CT scan
(B) MRI
(C) Angiography
(D) Myelography
499. Ideal imaging method for diagnosis of hydrocephalous in infant is
(A) X-ray
(B) CT Scan
(C) USG
(D) MRI
500. ParameningealRhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by-
(A) MRI
(B) CT Scan
(C) SPECT
(D) PET
501. The best X Ray view for minimal pleural effusion
(A) A – P
(B) PA
(C) Lateral
(D) Lateral decubitus
502. Decubitus view is useful in diagnosing:
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Pleural effusion with dependent hemithorax
(C) Pericardial effusion
(D) Middle lobe consolidation
503. Best view for right pleural effusion in X-ray chest
(A) Supine
(B) Prone
(C) Right lateral decubitus
(D) Left lateral decubitus
504. The following will be most helpful radiological investigation in a patient suspected of left pleural effusion
(A) Right lateral decubitus
(B) Left lateral decubitus
(C) Left lateral erect
(D) Right lateral erect
505. Inter lobar pleural effusion can be detected in best way in
(A) Lateral decubitus
(B) Reverse lardotic
(C) Lateral oblique
(D) Posterior oblique
506. Right anterior oblique view of chest X-ray true is/are:
(A) Cassette near right shoulder
(B) Cassette near left shoulder
(C) Arch of Aorta best seen
(D) Left atrial enlargement can be diagnosed
(E) Mitral & Tricuspid valves better seen
507. X-Ray view for supra orbital fissure
(A) Towne’s
(B) AP
(C) Cald well
(D) Basal
508. Tracheal bifurcation on X-ray corresponds to
(A) T5T6
(B) T4T5
(C) Sternal angle
(D) Thoracic inlet
509. Best view for visualizing sellaturcica on X-ray:
(A) A P view
(B) Town’s view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Open mouth view
510. Caldwell lac view (occipito-frontal) can visualize:
(A) Sphenoid sinus
(B) Nasal bone
(C) Maxillary bone
(D) Ethmoid
(E) Frontal sinus
511. Basal skull view (submentovertical view) X-ray is best to visualize:
(A) Ethmoid sinus
(B) Frontal sinus
(C) Sphenoid sinus
(D) Maxillary sinus
(E) Nasopharynx
512. A 30 year old man presents with 6 month history of nasal discharge, facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurulent discharge from the middle meatus and the mucosa of the meatus appeared congested and oedematous. Next best investigation would be:
(A) MRI of the sinuses
(B) Non-Contrast CT of the nose and para-nasal sinuses
(C) Plain x-ray of the para-nasal sinuses
(D) Inferior meatus puncture
513. Test of choice for Reversible Myocardial Ischemia?
(A) Thallium scan
(B) MUGA scan
(C) Resting ECHO
(D) Coronary angiography
514. In a Down’s syndrome patient posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is –
(A) CT Brain
(B) Echocardiography
(C) Ultrasound Abdomen
(D) X-ray cervical spine
515. Investigation of choice for Aortic Dissection is
(A) Aortography
(B) CT scan
(C) MRI
(D) X-Ray chest
516. Investigation of choice in aortic dissection is
(A) USG
(B) CT Scan
(C) MRI
(D) Digital substraction Angiography
517. Investigation of choice for pericardial effusion is
(A) CT Scan
(B) MRI
(C) Echocardiography
(D) X Ray chest
518. The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is:
(A) Multislice CT
(B) Echocardiography
(C) Nuclear scan
(D) MRI
519. Cardiotoxicity caused by radiotherapy & chemotherapy is best detected by
(A) ECHO
(B) ECG
(C) Radionucletide Scan
(D) Endomyocardial Biopsy
520. Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is
(A) MRI
(B) Chest X-ray
(C) High Resolution CT scan
(D) Ventilation perfusion scan
521. Investigation of choice in Bronchiectasis is
(A) X-ray
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) Bronchography
(D) USG
522. Best diagnostic aid for broncheitasis is:
(A) Bronchoscopy
(B) X-Ray
(C) Bronchography
(D) CT Scan
523. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating
(A) Pleural effusion
(B) Interstitial lung disease
(C) Lung mass
(D) Mediastinaladenopathy
524. Most sensitive investigation for air embolism is
(A) Decreased tidal volume of CO2
(B) Decreased tidal volume of NO2
(C) Doppler ultrasound
(D) Central Venous Pressure
525. In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be?
(A) D-dimer
(B) CT angiography
(C) Catheter angiography
(D) Color Doppler
526. Investigation of choice for pulmonary embolism
(A) CT Scan
(B) Contrast CT
(C) Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) MRI
527. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed by
(A) USG
(B) X Ray Chest
(C) Ventilation – Perfusion Scan
(D) CT Scan
528. Best method for detecting minimal Bronchiectasis
(A) Bronchogram
(B) CT Scan
(C) Radio nucleotide scan
(D) Chest X Ray
529. Best view to diagnose pneumothorax:
(A) Lateral oblique
(B) PA view in full expiration
(C) PA view in full inspiration
(D) AP view in full expiration
530. In Renal cell carcinoma investigation of choice to evaluate inferior vencava& renal vein for thrombus
(A) IVP
(B) Coloured Doppler
(C) USG
(D) CT scan
531. Functional analysis of kidney is best done by
(A) Radionuclide scanning
(B) IVP
(C) Ultrasound
(D) MRI
532. Investigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass
(A) 99 Tc DTPA
(B) 53 Cr Study
(C) 99 Tc DMSA
(D) 99 Tc Pyrophosphate
533. Investigation of choice in diffuse esophageal spasm is
(A) Manometry
(B) Esophagoscopy
(C) Barium examination showing tertiary contractions
(D) CT thorax
534. Gatro-oesophageal reflux is best detected by
(A) Endoscopy
(B) USG
(C) Barium study
(D) Isotope scan
535. Investigation of choice for gall stone
(A) X-Ray
(B) USG
(C) Cholecystography
(D) CT Scan
536. Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice is
(A) ERCP
(B) USG
(C) Cholecystography
(D) Laproscopy
537. Most common investigation done for obstructive jaundice
(A) CT Scan
(B) USG
(C) X-Ray
(D) ERCP
538. Minimal Ascites can be best detected by:
(A) USG
(B) Plain X-ray abdomen
(C) MRI
(D) CT scan
539. The investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis is:
(A) USG
(B) HIDA-Scan
(C) CT-Scan
(D) OCG
(E) X-Ray
540. Best investigation for acute cholecystitis is
(A) ERCP
(B) Oral cholecystography (OCG)
(C) HIDA scan
(D) IV cholangiography
541. Investigation of choice for recurrent GIST:
(A) MIBG
(B) PET
(C) MRI
(D) CECT
542. Best radiographic view for fracture of C1, C2 vertebrae is
(A) AP view
(B) Odontoid view
(C) Lateral view
(D) Oblique view
543. Best investigation for Traumatic paraplegia
(A) CT Scan
(B) Routine Tomography (MRI)
(C) X Ray spine
(D) Myelography
544. The gold standard for assessing bone mineral density (BMD) & diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
(A) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
(B) Single energy X-ray absorptiometry
(C) Ultrasound
(D) Quantitative computed tomography
545. Neural tube defect is best detected by
(A) USG
(B) Chromosomal analysis
(C) Amniocentesis
(D) Placentography
546. Earliest congenital malformation that may be detected on USG is
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Hydrocephalous
(C) Anencephaly
(D) Sacral Agenesis
547. Which of the following statements best describes ‘Background Radiation’
(A) Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors
(B) Radiation in the background during radiological investigations
(C) Radiation present constantly from natural sources
(D) Radiation from nuclear fall out
548. At t = 0 there are 6 × 1023 radioactive atoms of a substance, which decay with a disintegration constant (λ) equal to 0.01/sec. What would be the initial decay rate?
(A) 6 × 1023
(B) 6 × 1022
(C) 6 × 1021
(D) 6 × 1020
549. The major difference between X-Rays and Light is:
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Speed
(D) Type of wave
550. Photon transferring some of its energy to electron is
(A) Photoelectric effect
(B) Bremsstrahlung effect
(C) Compton effect
(D) Ionization
551. Photoelectric effect is
(A) Interaction between high energy incident photon and the inner shell electron
(B) Interaction between incident photon and the outer shell electron
(C) Interaction of the incident photon with the nucleus
(D) Interaction between a photon and electric current
552. True about Electromagnetic radiation:
(A) Pair product occur for low energy
(B) Infrared is a EM radiation
(C) Compton scattering occur for intermediate energy
(D) X-ray is EM radiation
553. Maximum scattering in X Ray plate occurs in
(A) Carbon
(B) Mercury
(C) H+
(D) Ca++
554. Which of the following best estimates the amount of radiation delivered to an organ the radiation field:
(A) Absorbed dose
(B) Equivalent dose
(C) Effective dose
(D) Exposure dose
555. All are feature of radiation except
(A) Biological
(B) Photographic
(C) Fluorescent
(D) Non penetrating
556. Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation:
(A) Alpha
(B) Beta
(C) X-ray
(D) Gamma
557. Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential?
(A) Electron
(B) Proton
(C) Helium ion
(D) Gamma (γ) – photon
558. Which of the following has most penetrating power?
(A) α-particle
(B) β-particle
(C) γ-radiation
(D) Electron beam
559. Which of the following is the most penetrating beam?
(A) Electron beam
(B) 8 MV photons
(C) 18 MV photons
(D) Proton beam
560. Ionization radiation acts on tissue leading to
(A) Linear acceleration injury
(B) Excitation of electron from orbit
(C) Formation of pyramidine dimer
(D) Thermal injury
561. Principle used in radiotherapy is
(A) Cytoplasmic coagulation
(B) Ionization of molecule
(C) DNA damage
(D) Necrosis of tissue
562. Functional basis of ionizing radiation depends on :
(A) Pyramidine base pairing
(B) Removal of orbital electron
(C) Linear energy transfer
(D) Adding orbital electron
563. Principles used in Radio Therapy is :
(A) Infrared rays
(B) Ionizing molecules
(C) Charring of nucleoprotein
(D) Ultrasonic effect
564. Radiation produces its effect on tissue by
(A) Coagulation of cytoplasm
(B) Increasing the temperature
(C) Charring of nucleoprotein
(D) Hydrolysis
565. Which is not a deep heat therapy.
(A) Short wave diathermy
(B) Infra Red
(C) USG
(D) Microwave
566. What is atomic number :
(A) Proton
(B) Electrons + protons
(C) Protons + neutrons
(D) Protons + protons
567. Gray equals
(A) 100 rad
(B) 1000 rad
(C) 10000 rad
568. Curie is unit of :
(A) Radiation exposure
(B) Radiation absorption
(C) Radioactivity
(D) All of the above
569. 1 becquerel is equal (Disinegration/sec) to:
(A) 3.7 × 1010
(B) 2.7 × 1010
(C) 1.7 × 1010
(D) 3.7 × 10−2
(E) 1
570. Regarding particle interaction true is
(A) Bragg peak observed with light mass electrons
(B) Bremsstrahlung photons produced by αparticles
(C) Electron scatter less than protons
(D) Electrons stop sooner in low atomic number (than higher Z) materials
(E) X-ray production increase with high energy electrons
571. X-rays are produced when:
(A) Electron beam strike the nucleus of the atom
(B) Electron beam strikes the anode
(C) Electron beam reacts with the electromagnetic field.
(D) Electron beam strikes the cathode
572. Which is provided by linear accelerator
(A) Electron
(B) Neutron
(C) Proton
(D) Infrared rays
573. ↑ energy linear acceleration used in
(A) X-ray
(B) Cathode rays
(C) Photon rays
(D) α-rays
(E) γ-rays
574. High energy accelerator produces:
(A) X-ray
(B) Electron beam
(C) Gamma rays
(D) Neutron
(E) Proton
575. Principles of Linear accelerators is used in
(A) X-rays
(B) Gamma-rays
(C) Alpha rays
(D) Infrared rays
(E) Alpha particles
576. Radioactive emissions used in radiotherapy are
(A) α-Particles
(B) β-Particles
(C) γ-rays
(D) X-ray
(E) Infrared rays
577. Most common used rays for radiotherapy:
(A) X rays
(B) γ rays
(C) α rays
(D) β rays (electrons)
578. Beams can be used for cancer treatment are
(A) γ-rays
(B) α-rays
(C) Neutrons
(D) Protons
(E) X-rays
579. In radiation therapy rays used are :
(A) α, β
(B) α, γ
(C) β, γ
(D) γ, α, β
580. Most harmful to individual cell:
(A) X-rays
(B) α-particles
(C) β-particles
(D) X-rays (gamma rays)
581. Whole body electron therapy is useful in Mx of
(A) NHL
(B) Sezary syndrome
(C) Mycosis fungoides
(D) Hodgkin’s disease
582. What contrast is needed for proper radiographic image in a heavy bony built person?
(A) ↑ed ma
(B) ↑kvp
(C) ↑ed exposure time
(D) ↑ed developing time
583. For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are
(A) I-123
(B) Cs-137
(C) Co-60
(D) Tc-99
(E) Ir-191
584. Which of the following is obsolete in modern day clinical use?
(A) Ra226
(B) Co60
(C) Ir192
(D) Cs137
585. Which of the following radioisotopes is commonly used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the treatment of cancer patients
(A) Strontium-89
(B) Radium-226
(C) Cobalt-59
(D) Cobalt-60
586. In Teletherapy setup all are used except
(A) Irrridium-191
(B) Co-60
(C) Simulator
(D) Computer
587. Radionucleotide (s) used in external beam therapy:
(A) Iodine-131
(B) Co-60
(C) Cs-137
(D) Ra-226
(E) Ir192
588. Advantage of brachytherapy
(A) Non-invasive
(B) Less radiation hazard to normal tissue
(C) Max. radiation to diseased tissue
(D) Can be given in all malignancies
(E) Doesn’t require trained personnel
589. Features of interstitial therapy are all except :
(A) Only used in head & neck
(B) ↓Damage to normal tissue
(C) Temporary or permanent
(D) Only iridium used
(E) Used for easily accessible organ
590. Which of the following radioactive isotopes is not used for brachytherapy:
(A) Iodine-125
(B) Iodine-131
(C) Cobalt-60
(D) Iridium-192
591. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant:
(A) Iodine-125
(B) Palladium-103
(C) Gold-198
(D) Caseium-137
592. All may be used in interstitial brachytherapy except
(A) Cs137
(B) Au198
(C) Ir192
(D) Co60
593. Isotope (s) used in high brachytherapy:
(A) Ir192
(B) Co-60
(C) Cs133
(D) Ra226
(E) Pd103
594. Radioactive isotopes that are used in treatment of cancer are
(A) Cesium
(B) Cobalt
(C) Carbon
(D) Technetium
(E) Nitrogen
595. Which is used in teletherapy& Brachytherapy with
(A) Iridium 127
(B) Cobalt 60
(C) Pallidium
(D) Iodine 131
596. Which is/are false about T1/2 of radioisotopes:
(A) Ra-226: 1626 years
(B) I-131: 60 years
(C) Co-60 : 5.26 tears
(D) Cs-137: 30years
597. Longest half life is seen in
(A) Radon
(B) Radium
(C) Uranium
(D) Cobalt
598. The half life of Cobalt-60 is
(A) 3.4 years
(B) 5.2 years
(C) 1.2 years
(D) 2.3 years
599. Half life of I131 is
(A) 4 hours
(B) 8 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 10 days
600. Half life of Technetium is
(A) 6 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours
(D) 26 hours
601. Artificial radioisotopes:
(A) Radium
(B) Uranium
(C) Plutonium
(D) Iridium
(E) Cobalt
602. Radium emits which of the following radiations:
(A) Alpha rays
(B) Beta rays
(C) Gamma rays
(D) X-rays
(E) Neutrons
603. Phosphorous-32 emits:
(A) Beta particles
(B) Alfa particles
(C) Neutrons
(D) X-rays
604. Radiation emits by Ir-192:
(A) 0.5 Mev
(B) 0.6 Mev
(C) 0.66 Mev
(D) 0.666 Mev
(E) 0.47 Mev
605. True about Cobalt 60 is A/E :
(A) Natural radioactive agent
(B) At. wt. 59
(C) Emits β and γ-rays
(D) Half life is 5.3 yrs
(E) Used in both brachy&teletherapy
606. All are pure beta emitters except :
(A) Ytrrium-90
(B) Phosphrous-32
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Samarium-153
607. Isotope used in RAIU
(A) I131
(B) I123
(C) I125
(D) I127
608. Most suitable radioisotope of Iodine for treating hyperthyroidism is:
(A) I123
(B) I125
(C) I131
(D) I132
609. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except :
(A) Mass spectroscopy
(B) RIA
(C) ELISA
(D) Sequencing of nucleic acid
610. Maximum dose of radiation per year in a human which is safe
(A) 1 rads
(B) 5 rads
(C) 10 rads
(D) 20 rads
611. Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is:
(A) 0.5 rad.
(B) 1.0 rad.
(C) 1.5 rad.
(D) rad.
612. Most sensitive tissue to Radiation is
(A) Liver
(B) Gonads
(C) Spleen
(D) Skin
613. Organs sensitive to radiation are
(A) Gonad
(B) Bone marrow
(C) Liver
(D) Fat
(E) Nervous tissue
614. The cell most sensitive to RT:
(A) Neutrophill
(B) Lymphocyte
(C) Basophill
(D) Platelett
615. The radiation tolerance of whole liver as:
(A) 15 Gy
(B) 30 Gy
(C) 40 Gy
(D) 45 Gy
616. Most sensitive structure in cell for radiotherapy is:
(A) Cellmembrane
(B) Mitochondrial membrane
(C) DNA
(D) Enzymes
(E) ER
617. Ionoising radiation most sensitive in-
(A) Hypoxia
(B) S phage
(C) G2M phage
(D) Activating cell
618. Most Radio sensitive stage
(A) S phase
(B) G1 phase
(C) G2 phase
(D) G2M phase
619. The phase of Cell cycle, most sensitive to radiation is/are:
(A) M phase
(B) G2 phase
(C) S phase
(D) Early G1 phase
620. Most radiosensitive stage of cell cycle
(A) G1
(B) G2M interphase
(C) Early S phase
(D) Late S phase
(E) M phase
621. What is radioresistant
(A) Cartilage
(B) Seminoma
(C) Ewings sarcoma
(D) GI epithelium
622. Which of these tumors is least radiosensitive
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Osteosarcoma
(C) Wilm’s tumor
(D) Neuroblastoma
623. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive tumour?
(A) Ewing Tumour
(B) Hodgkin’s disease
(C) Carcinoma cervix
(D) Carcinoma cervix
(E) Malignant fibrous histocytoma
624. Radiosensitive tumors are
(A) Seminoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Sarcoma
(D) Ewing’s sarcoma
(E) Leukemia
625. Most radiosensitive ovarian tumor is
(A) Sercuscystadenoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Dermoid cyst
(D) Teratoma
626. Most Radiosensitive tumor
(A) Brenner’s tumor
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Mucinous cystadenoma
(D) Teratoma
627. All are highly radiosensitive except :
(A) Osteogenic sarcoma
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Ewing’s sarcoma
(D) Seminoma
628. Most Radiosensitive testicular tumor is
(A) Yolk Sack Tumor
(B) Embryonal cell tumor
(C) Teratoma
(D) Seminoma
629. The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is:
(A) Bronchogenic carcinoma
(B) Carcinoma partoid
(C) Dysgerminoma
(D) Osteogenic sarcoma
630. Tumor(s) most responding to radiotherapy
(A) Sarcoma
(B) Seminoma
(C) Lymphoma
(D) Eukaemia
631. Tumor responding best to radiation include following:
(A) Melanoma
(B) Dysgerminoma
(C) Teratoma
(D) Horiocarcinoma
632. Most radiosensitive brain tumor is
(A) Astrocytoma
(B) Ependymoma
(C) Medulloblastoma
(D) Craniopharyngeoma
633. Most Radiosensitive lung CA is
(A) Sqamous cell
(B) Small cell
(C) Adeno
(D) Large cell
634. Which of the following malignant tumors is radio resistant?
(A) Ewing’s sarcoma
(B) Retinoblastoma
(C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Neuroblastoma
635. Most Radiosensitive tumor of the following is:
(A) Ca Kidney
(B) Ca Colon
(C) Ca Pancreas
(D) Ca Cervix
636. Tumors that are sensitive to chemotherapy
(A) Lymphoma
(B) Germ cell tumor
(C) Leukaemia
(D) Choricarcinoma
637. Poor wound Healing is seen in
(A) Adriamycin
(B) 5-FU
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Nitrogen mustard
638. Chemotherapeutic agent of choice of CA pancreas
(A) Mitomycin
(B) 5-FU
(C) Streptozocin
(D) Adriamycin
639. All are Chemosensitive except
(A) Small Cell CA
(B) Ca Cervix
(C) Ewing’s tumor
(D) Malignant melanoma
640. Radiation therapy to hypoxic tissues may be potentiated by the treatment with :
(A) Mycostatin
(B) Metronidazole
(C) Methotrexate
(D) Melphalan
641. All are radiosensitizer except
(A) 5-Fu
(B) BUDR
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Hydroxyurea
642. A patient with cancer received extreme degree of radiation toxicity. Further history revealed that the dose adjustment of a particular drug was missed during the course of radiotherapy. Which of the following drugs required a dose adjustment in that patient during radiotherapy in order to prevent radiation toxicity
(A) Vincristine
(B) Dactinomycin
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) 6-Mercaptopurine
643. Radioprotective drug is
(A) Paclitaxem
(B) Vincristine
(C) Amifostine
(D) Etoposide
644. Amifostine, protects all of the following except:
(A) CNS
(B) Salivary glands
(C) Kidneys
(D) GIT
645. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as:
(A) Arc technique
(B) Modulation
(C) Gating
(D) Shunting
646. Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
(A) Breast
(B) Melanoma
(C) Thyroid
(D) Lung
647. Least amenable to screening is
(A) Breast CA
(B) Cervix CA
(C) Lung CA
(D) Oral cavity CA
648. Craniospinal irradiation is used in the Treatment of-
(A) Oligodendroglioma
(B) Pilocytic astrocytoma
(C) Mixed oigoastrocytoma
(D) Meduloblastoma
649. Prophylactic cranial irradiation not indicated in treatment of-
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) ALL
(C) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(D) NHL
650. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in :
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
651. Prophylactic intracranial irradiations are given in:
(A) Small cell Ca of lung
(B) Testicular Ca
(C) Ca breast
(D) Ca stomach
652. Stereotactic Radio-surgery is a form of :
(A) Radiotherapy
(B) Radioiodine therapy
(C) Robotic surgery
(D) Cryo surgery
653. Gamma knife
(A) Inoperable lung tumor stage-1
(B) Base of tonge carcinoma with enlarged lymph nodes
(C) Lymphangiocarcinomatosis
(D) Miliary lung metastasis
654. Which of the following is not an indication of RT in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid:
(A) Involvement of deep lobe
(B) 2nd histologically benign recurrence
(C) Microscopically positive margins
(D) Malignant transformation
655. For mobile tumor of vocal cord treatment of choice is:
(A) Surgery
(B) Chemotherapy
(C) Radiotherapy
(D) None
656. What dose of radiation therapy is recommended of pain relief in bone metastases
(A) 8 Gy in one fraction
(B) 20 Gy in 5 fractions
(C) 30 Gy in 10 fractions
(D) Above 70 Gy
657. Al of the following radioisotopes are used an systemic radionucleide, except :
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Strontium-89
(C) Iridium-192
(D) Samarium-153
658. Isotopes used in relief of metastatic bone pain includes:
(A) Strontium-89
(B) I-131
(C) Gold-198
(D) P-32
(E) Rhenium-186
659. Radiotherapy is used for which stage-I cancer
(A) Colon
(B) Larynx
(C) Anterior 2/3 of tongue
(D) Lung
(E) Stomach
660. Radiotherapy is Rx of choice for:
(A) Nasophryngeal Carcinoma T3N1
(B) Supraglottic Carcinoma T3NO
(C) Glottic Carcinoma T3N1
(D) Subglottic Carcinoma T3NO
661. Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer?
(A) 131I
(B) 99Tc
(C) 32P
(D) 131I-MIBG
662. Which one of the following therapeutic mode is commonly employed in intra-operative radiotherapy?
(A) Electron
(B) Photon
(C) X-ray
(D) Gamma rays
663. Intraoperative RT is given in
(A) Ca Cervix
(B) Ca Breast
(C) Ca Pancreas
(D) Ca Thyroid
664. For the treatment of deep seated tumors, the following rays are used.
(A) X-rays and Gamma-rays
(B) Proton beam therapy
(C) Electrons and positrons
(D) High power laser beams
665. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is minimally used?
(A) Head and neck
(B) Stomach
(C) Colon
(D) Soft tissue sarcomas
666. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for WilmsTumour after surgery is
(A) Within 10 days
(B) Within 2 weeks
(C) Within 3 weeks
(D) Any time after surgery
667. Intercavitatory radiotherapy is treatment modality for
(A) Ca Cervix
(B) CaOesophagus
(C) Ca Stomach
(D) Renal cell CA
668. Point B in treatment of Ca cervix corresponds to
(A) Mackenordts ligament
(B) Obturator Lymph node
(C) Isheal tuberosity
(D) Round ligament
669. Emergency radiotherapy is given in-
(A) Superior vena cava syndrome
(B) Pericardial temponade
(C) Increased ICP
(D) Spinal cord compression
670. Long term effect of RT for CNS tumor in children are al except
(A) Reduce IQ and learning
(B) Endocrine dysfunction
(C) Musculoskeletal problems
(D) Neuropsychological effects are independent of radiation dose.
671. True about effects of RT on a child’s brain
(A) IQ not significantly affected
(B) Behaviour changes are common
(C) Recurrent seizure common
(D) Non memory loss
672. Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy-
(A) Prolactin
(B) Gonadotropins
(C) ACTH
(D) Growth hormone
673. MC cancer due to Radiation:
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Bronchogenic Ca
(C) Thyroid Ca
(D) Breast cancer
(E) Bone tumour
674. Most common presentation of radiation carditis is:
(A) Pyogenic Pericarditis
(B) Pericardial Effusion
(C) Myocardial Fibrosis
(D) Atheromatous Plaque
675. Late effects of radiation therapy:
(A) Mucositis
(B) Entertisi
(C) Nausea and vomiting
(D) Pnueumonia
(E) Somatic mutations
676. Most common skin manifestation seen after 2 days of radiation therapy is-
(A) Erythema
(B) Atopy
(C) Hyperpigmentation
(D) Dermatitis
677. Which of the following statements about ‘Stochastic effects’ of radiation is true
(A) Severity of effect is a function of dose
(B) Probability of effect is a function of dose
(C) It has a threshold
(D) Erythema and cataract are common examples
678. For which malignancy, Intensity, Modulated Radiotherapy (IMRT) is the most suitable:
(A) Lung
(B) Prostate
(C) Leukemias
(D) Stomach
679. Low dose radiation cause
(A) Lung cancer
(B) AML
(C) Cervical cancer
(D) Glioma
(E) Meningioma
680. Dose of radiation during whole body exposure that leads to haematological syndrome is
(A) 2 Gy
(B) 10 Gy
(C) 100 Gy
(D) 200 Gy
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