NABARD Assistant Manager (Grade-A) Manager (Grade-B) Preliminary Exam-2015-16 Online Held on May 15, 2016
Part I Agriculture and Rural Awareness
1. One highlight of the Indian approach to curbing emissions as outlined in the Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a major scaling up of targets for renewable energy capacity to
(a) 150 GW by 2018-19
(b) 165 GW by 2023-24
(c) 100 GW by 2020-21
(d) 175 GW by 2021-22
(e) 200 GW by 2022-23
2. Seeking to bridge the Rural-Urban divide, government of India has decided to set up 300 rural clusters by 2019-20 across the country with an outlay of Rs 5142.08 crore under the
(a) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(b) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
(c) Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana
(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission
(e) Pradhan Mantri Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
3. Financial assistance of Rs 1.20 lakh each is provided for construction of pucca house (in plain areas) to all houseless and households living in dilapidated houses in rural areas under the recently announced
(a) PMAY (Gramin)
(b) PMGSY
(c) PMMY
(d) PMRY
(e) PMKVY
4. The third meeting of the SAARC agriculture ministers was recently (April, 2016) held in
(a) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(b) New Delhi (India)
(c) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(d) Islamabad (Pakistan)
(e) Thimphu (Bhutan)
5. Generally, standards in ‘Organic Farming’ are designed to encourage the use of
(a) man-made substances
(b) artificial substances
(c) genetically-modified substances
(d) natural substances
(e) synthetic substances
6. A ‘plantation crop; is grown on a large piece of land usually in a tropical or semi-tropical area specifically planted for widespread commercial sale and usually tended by resident labourers. Which of the following crops may be treated as a plantation crop?
(a) Cereals and pulses
(b) Fruits and vegetables
(c) Wheat, rice, maize, millets
(d) Tea, coffee, coconut, rubber
(e) Cotton, jute, sugarcane, tobacco
7. In order to raise awareness of its many benefits, the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has announced the year 2016 as the International Year of
(a) Pepper
(b) Peanuts
(c) Potato
(d) Pulses
(e) Palm Oil
8. The National Fertilizers Limited (NFL), India’s largest central Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) is a major Indian producer of fertilizers and industrial chemicals. It comes under the administrative control of the
(a) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(c) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
(e) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
9. Under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (SBA), all 6.5 lakh villages will be provided an amount of Rs 20 lakh every year until 2019 by the
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Water Resources
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Urban Poverty Alleviation
(e) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
10. The scientific study the of movement, distribution and quality of water on earth, including water resources and environmental watershed sustainability, is known as
(a) Hydrology
(b) Meteorology
(c) Aerography
(d) Cerography
(e) Metrology
11. Which of the following government schemes is launched with an aim to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level, expand cultivable area and improve on-farm water use efficiency?
(a) PMKKKY
(b) PMKSY
(c) PMVLK
(d) PMJJBY
(e) PMKVY
12. According to the revised RBI guidelines, loans to ‘Food and Agro Processing Units’ will now form part of
(a) non priority sector lending
(b) Micro finance
(c) agriculture lending
(d) MSME lending
(e) social infrastructure
13. The practice of growing a series of dissimilar or different types of crops in the same area in sequential seasons, is known as
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Cover cropping
(c) Mixed cropping
(d) Crop diversity
(e) Crop rotation
14. The recently launched ‘PMFBY’ is a
(a) life insurance scheme
(b) accident insurance scheme
(c) health insurance scheme
(d) equipment insurance scheme
(e) crop insurance scheme
15. The practice of raising grazing livestock, such as cattle or sheep for meat or wool, is known as
(a) Silviculture
(b) Permaculture
(c) Ranching
(d) Breeding
(e) Animal Husbandry
16. Keeping in with the spirit of ‘Make in India’ drive of the government of India, a Rs 1000 crore ‘Make in India’ fund for MSME has been created by
(a) IFCL
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) NABARD
(d) SIDBI
(e) Exim Bank
17. The farming of marine organisms, such as fish, crustaceans, mollusks and marine plants, is known as
(a) Aquaculture
(b) Apiology
(c) Apiculture
(d) Agrology
(e) Agronomy
18. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere does not fall under the category of ‘Greenhouse’ gases’?
(a) Water vapour
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Methane
(e) None of these
19. The government of India has recently (September, 2015) launched the PMKKKY which, will work for welfare of areas and people affected by
(a) mining activities
(b) natural calamities
(c) insurgency
(d) industrial development
(e) urbanization
20. As against a target of 4%, the average annual growth rate of Agriculture and allied sector for first four years of the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17) was
(a) 3.0%
(b) 1.6%
(c) 3.5%
(d) 2.5%
(e) 2.0%
21. ‘Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY)’ is aimed at improving the infrastructure and human development indices of the
(a) farmers and agriculturists
(b) tribal population
(c) senior citizens
(d) weaker sections
(e) women entrepreneurs
22. During the year 2014-15, India’s exports of animal products is reported to be over Rs 33128.30 crore. Which of the following forms of meat was the single largest item exported during the period?
(a) Poultry products
(b) Sheep/Goat meat
(c) Processed and other meat
(d) Animal casing
(e) Buffalo meat
23. Depending on the area in the South Asian region, the Kharif crops are cultivated and harvested during the months of
(a) April and October
(b) January and April
(c) November and February
(d) October and December
(e) August and November
24. ‘Small Farmers’ are those whose landholdings are
(a) above 5 hectare
(b) below 1 hectare
(c) between 4 to 10 hectare
(d) between 1 to 2 hectare
(e) between 2 to 4 hectare
25. Yes Bank has announced mobilization of $ 5 billion towards its commitment to climate finance in India by 2020. The bank’s committed target for funding clean energy, is
(a) 1000 MW annually
(b) 1500 MW annually
(c) 500 MW annually
(d) 1500 MW by 2020
(e) 500 MW by 2020
Part II Reasoning
Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line, but not necessary in the same order. Some of them are facing north while some face south. S sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits second to the right of S. Only three people sit between P and Q. Both the immediate neighbours of V face south. R sits third to the left of T. T is an immediate neighbour of Q. Immediate neighbours of R face opposite directions (i.e. if one neighbour faces south then the other neighbour faces north and vice-versa.) U faces north. Only three people sit between R and W. R faces a direction opposite to W (i.e. if W faces north then R faces south and vice-versa.) Both the immediate neighbours of W face north. Q faces direction opposite to W. (i.e. if W faces north then Q faces south and vice-versa.)
26. What is the position of T with respect to U?
(a) Second to the right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Second to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Fourth to the left
27. Who amongst the following sit exactly between R and T?
(a) P, V
(b) Q, V
(c) Q, S
(d) S, V
(e) S, P
28. Who amongst the following, sitting at the extreme end of the line, faces north?
(a) R
(b) Non one
(c) U
(d) T
(e) S
29. In which of the following pairs are both the persons facing south?
(a) T, S
(b) U, W
(c) W, S
(d) Q, R
(e) R, P
30. Based on the given arrangement, which of the following is true with respect to P?
(a) Only one person sits between P and T.
(b) None of the given options is true
(c) R sits to immediate right of P.
(d) No one sits to the left of P.
(e) Q is one of the immediate neighbours of P.
31. Read the following information and answer the questions:
Exports of tea by Country X to Country Z, a major importer of tea from country X, were reduced by more than half in the present years as compared to previous year even though the production of tea in Country X was increased by 25% in the said year.
Which of the following statements cannot be a reason for the given problem?
(a) Until last year, tea was exempt from export duty in Country X but this year the government levied the export duty of Rs 10 per kg.
(b) Country Z signed agreement with three new countries which provided good quality teat at comparatively much lower prices than country X.
(c) Many harmful chemical were reportedly found in the tea of Country X upon being tested by Country Z last year.
(d) The market price of tea was reduced by 5% for consecutive two years by Country X for its foreign buyers.
(e) Tea producers of Country X started using a new type of fertilizer in the last year which promised good production but at the cost of quality.
Directions (Q. Nos. 32-34) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer
a. if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
b. if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
c. if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
d. if the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
e. if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
32. How many people are sitting in a circle, where all the people are facing the centre?
I. K sits third to eh right of L. M is an immediate neighbour of K. Only three people sit between L and M.
II. N sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between N and K. K is an immediate neighbour of M.
33. In a six storey building (consisting of floors numbered 1 to 6, wherein the topmost floor is numbered 6 and the ground floor is numbered 1), each of the six friends namely, A, B, C, D, E and F lives on a different floor. On which floor number doe E live?
I. A lives on floor numbered 3. Only one person lives between A and F. E lives on an odd numbered floor below F.
II. B lives on floor numbered 4. A lives on one of the floors below B but not on floor numbered 1. D lives on even numbered floor above A. C lives immediately above E.
34. How is ‘buyer’ definitely coded in the given language?
I. ‘help find a buyer’ is coded as ‘ni ka po sn’ and ‘a small help given’ is coded as ‘tk sn ru ni’.
II. ‘must find small buyer’ is coded as ‘ka hp tk po’ and find a help soon is coded as ‘mj ni sn ka’.
- Read the given information and answer the question.
The MB Road near highway has an average of one pothole or patched piece of asphalt for every yards of road. The primary reason for the condition of the road isn’t age, weather or rush hour traffic. It’s 18-wheeler trucks. These heavy trucks roar down this route that was never meant to carry weights above 40 tonnes. While regular traffic on the road averages 2 tonnes in terms of weight per vehicle, the average weight per 18-wheeler truck is 35 times this weight.
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?
A. The highway close to the MB Road can definitely carry at least 35 times more number of vehicles than that possible on MB road.
B. 18-wheeler trucks which are 30 tonnes lighter will not cause harm to the mentioned road.
C. Restricting small vehicles while permitting only 18-wheeler trucks may reduce harm caused to the road.
D. A road is constructed considering the type of vehicles plying on it.
(a) Only C
(b) A and C
(c) B and D
(d) A and D
(e) None of those given as options
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if both conclusions follow
d. if none follows
e. if either I or II follows
36. Statements Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusion I. I < L II. C > G
37. Statements M < O = N ≤ K < E ≥ Y = S; D < K ≥ B
Conclusion I. M < K II. O > B
38. Statements R < A = I ≥ N: S ≥ A
Conclusion I. S > N II. N = S
39. Statements M < O = N ≤ K < E ≤ Y = S; D < K ≥ B
Conclusion I. E > O II. D < S
40. Statements Q ≥ U > I < C = K > L; G < L; C < H
Conclusion I. Q > K II. H < U
41. Read the given information and answer the question.
Company Z and company F launched similar high end cars last year. However, six months later it was found that the popularity of car manufactured by company Z sky-rocketed whole the sales of the one manufactured by company F did not pick up at all. Manager X: “The only reason our car did not succeed was the price of the car. Had our car been priced at a little lower value, the sales of our cars would also have been as good as the one manufactured by company .”
Which of the following weakens the statements of manager X?
(a) Experts have suggested that there is always a segment of population which reviews the car after it has been launched and purchases it only after a certain amount of time has passed after the launch.
(b) A few potential buyers had a problem with the fact that the only two air bags while the one manufactured by company F had six.
(c) In the past two years, all cars launched by company F were of mediocre quality and needed frequent repairs and maintenance thus tarnishing the name of the company to a great extent.
(d) The car launched by company F is available in limited colours, although the owners can request for the colour of their choice.
(e) A few other cars launched by company F several years ago had been priced lower than most other cars in the market and they worked very well.
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Seven people namely P, Q, R, S, T, U and V like seven different fruits namely, Apple, Mango, Banana, Orange, Kiwi, Guava and Strawberry. Each of them works in either of the three companies viz. Samsung, Wipro and ITC with at least two of them in a company.
(Note None of the information given is necessarily in the same order.)
R works in Wipro with the one likes Banana. U does not work with R. P works in ITC with only the one who likes Kiwi. U does not like Apple. T works in Samsung with the one who like Apple. T does not like Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry works with the one who likes Mango but not with R. S works with the one who likes Guava. S does not like Banana. Q does not like Apple.
42. Which of the following combinations represents the combination of people working in Wipro?
(a) S, R
(b) Q, V, R
(c) U, T, R
(d) R, Q
(e) T, R, P
43. Which of the following fruits does P like?
(a) Banana
(b) Strawberry
(c) Orange
(d) Guava
(e) Mango
44. Which combination represents the company in which V works and the fruit he likes?
(a) Samsung-Apple
(b) Samsung-Banana
(c) Wipro-Guava
(d) ITC-Mango
(e) ITC-Orange
45. Which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) S-Strawberry
(b) Q-Orange
(c) R-Apple
(d) U-Kiwi
(e) T-Mango
46. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) R works in the company in which P works.
(b) U works with the one who likes Mango.
(c) None of the given statements is true.
(d) S works in Wipro.
(e) Q likes Kiwi.
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-51) In these questions, three statements followed by two conclusions I and II are given. Take the given statements to be true and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows.
Give answer
a. if only conclusion I follows
b. if only conclusion II follows
c. if either conclusion I or II follows
d. if neither conclusion I nor follows
e. if both conclusions follow
47. Statements Some roads are houses.
Some houses are bungalows.
No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusion I. All roads being apartments is a possibility.
II. No apartment is a house.
48. Statements All guests are hosts.
Some guests are relatives.
All relatives are friends.
Conclusion I. All guests are friends.
II. No host being friend is a possibility.
49. Statements Some shops are outlets.
Some outlets are factories.
All factories are industries.
Conclusion I. At least some shops are factories.
II. At least some outlets are industries.
50. Statements Some roads are houses.
Some houses are bungalows.
No bungalow is an apartment.
Conclusions I. Some houses are definitely not apartments.
II. At least some roads are bungalows.
51. Statements All certainties are beliefs.
Some beliefs are fears.
Conclusion I. At least some fears are certainties.
II. No fear is a certainty.
52. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
The commerce department of a college allotted its students to different organizations for completing their two-month internship starting from February 5, 2016. The students were asked to submit their complete internship reports in a specified format along with the original certificates latest by May 10, 2016, failing which they would not be allowed to write their final exams. Following are given cases of 5 students who did not submit their reports by the stipulated deadline. However, one of these was allowed to write his exam. Identify that student.
(a) Mehvish had to do her internship under two different project guides. Hence, she found it difficult to adequately allot time to both of them.
(b) Sunil Jadhav was absent in the class during which the format of the report was given to the students.
(c) Vaibhav Tripathi, who was allotted to an organization of another city, was given only a provisional certificate by the organization which was not as per the norms of the college.
(d) Akhil Mehta had completed his report before the deadline, but could not submit as it was not written in the specified format.
(e) Rachita Saxena was allotted to renowned NGO where the maximum time for internship was of 75 days.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-57) Study the given information carefully and answer t he given question.
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges following a particular line. The following is an illustration of input and arrangement.
(All the numbers are two-digit numbers)
Input 84 PARTY EAGLE 29 HOUND 16 58 ROAST 71 BEACH
Step I 16 ROAST 84 PARTY EAGLE 29 HOUND 58 71 BEACH
Step II 16 ROAST 84 EAGLE HOUND 58 71 BEACH 29 PARTY
Step III 58 HOUND 16 ROAST 84 EAGLE 71 BECH 29 PARTY
Step IV 58 HOUND 16 ROAST 84 BEACH 29 PARTY71 EAGLE
Step V 84 BEACH 58 HOUND 16 ROAST 29 PARTY 71 EAGLE
Ste V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input CHANT 18 SALTY 45 ABACUS WARDEN 30 91 67 KNIGHT
53. Which element appears exactly between the fourth element from the left and fifth element from the right in the second last step?
(a) 67
(b) 91
(c) WARDEN
(d) KNIGHT
(e) ABACUS
54. Which of the following represent the two consecutive elements to the immediate right of ‘KNIGHT’ in the last step?
(a) 45, CHANT
(b) 30, SALTY
(c) 18, WARDEN
(d) 91, SALTY
(e) WARDEN, 30
55. What is the position of ‘18’ from the left of ‘SALTY’ in step III?
(a) Third
(b) Second
(c) Fourth
(d) Seventh
(e) Sixth
56. In step III, which element/s appear/s exactly between ‘WARDEN’ and ‘ABACUS’?
(a) Only 91
(b) Both CHANT and 67
(c) Both 18 and SALTY
(d) Only KNIGHT
(e) Only CHANT
57. In step I, ABACUS : WARDEN in the same way as CHANT : 91 in step IV. In the same way, WARDEN : ………….. in step V.
(a) CHANT
(b) 91
(c) 18
(d) ABACUS
(e) Other than those given as options
Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Six people J, K, L, M, N and O are holding a different number of flowers, but not necessarily in the same order. J holds less than L but more than N. M holds less flowers than N but more than O. L does not hold the most number of flowers. M holds 16 flowers.
58. Who amongst the following holds the third highest number of flowers?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) L
(d) J
(e) Other than those given as options
59. How many people hold more flowers than L?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Four
(e) One
60. If the difference between the number of flowers hold by M and J is 12, then how many flowers does N possibly hold?
(a) 9
(b) 4
(c) 34
(d) 22
(e) 43
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in a different company viz. Microsoft, Sony, Dell, P & G, HTC, ONGC, Google and Amazon but not necessarily in the same order.
The one who works in Microsoft sits third to the right of V. Only one person sits between the one who works in Microsoft and U. Only three people sit between T and U. R sits second to the left of U.
Both R and T are immediate neighbours of the one who works in P & G. Only three people sit between the one who works in P & G and S. S is one of the immediate neighbours of the one who works in Dell. The one who works in ONGC sits second to the left of the one who works in Dell.
W sits third to the left of the one who works in ONGC. P is one of the immediate neighbours of W.
The one who works in Google sits to the immediate left of the one who works in HTC.
Only three people sit between the one who works in Google and the one who works in Sony.
61. V is related to Google in a certain way based on the given arrangement. Following the same pattern, Q is related to Amazon. To which of the following companies is R related to following the same pattern?
(a) Microsoft
(b) HTC
(c) ONGC
(d) Dell
(e) Sony
62. Q works in which of the following companies?
(a) HTC
(b) P & G
(c) Google
(d) Sony
(e) Dell
63. What is the position of P with respect to Q?
(a) Third to the left
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Second to the left
(d) Second to the right
(e) Third to the right
64. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) T sits second to right of U.
(b) Q is an immediate neighbour of the one who works in Google.
(c) P and the one who works in Dell are immediate neighbours of each other.
(d) S works in ONGC
(e) R sits second to the right of the one who works in HTC.
65. Who amongst the following works in Amazon?
(a) R
(b) Other than those given as options
(c) T
(d) U
(e) P
Part III English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.
A. Normally, such a collapse would lead OPEC to pump less oil as the idea is that less oil in the market helps keep prices up.
B. This is evident from the fact that in the middle of 2014, a barrel of crude cost over $ 100 but not it is worth just over $ 30.
C. The price of oil has more than halved over the last year and a half.
D. But despite a historic fall in oil prices, the international oil cartel hasn’t budged: the biggest step it has taken so far is offer to freeze production at its current record levels and production cuts are not on the table.
E. A probable explanation could be that OPEC simply has less control over the oil market than it used to, thanks to the shale gas revolution.
F. The big question is; why such production cuts are not being looked at as plausible solutions?
66. Which of the following should be the first sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C
(e) D
67. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) A
(c) E
(d) C
(e) B
68. Which of the following should be the second sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) C
69. Which of the following should be the third sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) F
(c) B
(d) D
(e) A
70. Which of the following should be the fourth sentences after the rearrangement?
(a) F
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer. (Ignore punctuations error)
71. The day after the attack,/the seniors asked their colleagues/ to not turn/ up for work.
(a) The day after the attack
(b) the seniors asked their colleagues
(c) to not turn
(d) up for work
(e) No error
72. In the early 90s,/ a noted architect photographed/ the water bodes nestled/ inside the textile mills of Mumbai.
(a) In the early 90s
(b) a noted architect photographed
(c) the water bodes nestled
(d) inside the textile mills of Mumbai
(e) No error
73. The Supreme Court passed/ an order for all State governments/ to construct shelters with/ a capacity around 100 persons per one lakh population.
(a) The Supreme Court passed
(b) an order for all State governments
(c) to construct shelters with
(d) a capacity around 100 persons per one lakh population
(e) No error
74. The wrestling den is/ almost so large as/ the mud pit in/ which its wrestlers train.
(a) The wrestling den is
(b) almost so large as
(c) the mud pit in
(d) which its wrestlers train
(e) No error
75. Have the pressure of crossing over/ to the digital been difficult/ for a firm that ironically democratized the photographic image/ with its low-cost cameras?
(a) Have the pressure of crossing over
(b) to the digital been difficult
(c) for a firm that ironically democratized the photographic image
(d) with its low-cost cameras
(e) No error
Directions (Q. Nos. 76-85) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (e) as the answer.
76. The new move by the regulatory body is aimed at setting cases which are at a time draw into lengthy litigation.
(a) are drawing
(b) drawn out
(c) sometimes drawn
(d) are drawn into
(e) No correction required
77. Combine effects of growing populations, rising incomes and expanding cities will see the demand rising exponentially.
(a) Combining an effect
(b) Combined effects of
(c) Combine the effect of
(d) Combination of the effects
(e) No correction required
78. Heavily invest in technology has resulted in more than half the transactions taking place online reducing banks dependence on ‘costly’ branches.
(a) Heavy investment in
(b) A heavy investment
(c) If we invest heavily
(d) To invest heavily in
(e) No correction required
79. Experts reckon that in the next four years steelmaking capacity has increased to 50% in the Middle East, 20% in Africa and 10% in America.
(a) increasing upto
(b) will have increased by
(c) has been increased
(d) has an increase off
(e) No correction required
80. The report stressed the need to broaden access to health, education and has promoting financial inclusion to bring down inequality levels.
(a) as well as promote
(b) promotion of
(c) which is a promotion of
(d) has been promoting
(e) No correction required
81. Climate scientists say that meteorological factors are played an important role in the high pollution levels detected in the city.
(a) could have played
(b) will like playing
(c) were played
(d) playing
(e) No correction required
82. The bankruptcy code key element in the government’s strategy to rid the financial sector of its bad debt problem.
(a) will be key element
(b) are key elements
(c) will key elements
(d) is a key element
(e) No correction required
83. Consumers over 60 are the richest segment of t he population thanks to lower price inflation and generous pensions and their numbers are only growing.
(a) its number grew
(b) whose number is grown
(c) its growth
(d) are being grown
(e) No correction required
84. According to the Progressive Policy Institute, the mobile application economy has created 3.3 million jobs in America and Europe but there is no guarantee that the Chabot economy being so successful.
(a) is successfully
(b) is going to be success,
(c) succeed
(d) will be as successful
(e) No correction required
85. The global economy has little brighter spots with only America and China adding a substantial amount of global GDP.
(a) brightened spots
(b) no brighter spot
(c) no brighten spots
(d) few brighten spots
(e) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-95) Read the following passage carefully and answer the given question. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A generation ago Medellin was Colombia’s and the world’s most violent city. But a mathematician who served as major in 2003-07 began the task of turning Medillin around. He invested in urban projects designed to bridge the city’s socio-economic divide, such as cable cars connecting shanty towns to the metro and to new public libraries in poorer areas. With a relatively small budget, the concentrated on drawing open security and development plans building “education parks” in each municipality emblematic buildings designed as teacher’s centres but also meant to mobilize communities to improve the quality of schooling.
The problem is that income distribution for Colombia as a whole is among the most unequal in Latin America, behind only Haiti and Honduras. When the government recently carried out the first agricultural census for 45 years, it found that two-third of all farms have less than 5 hectares (12.4 acres) and together occupy less than 5% of all agricultural and grazing land. Still, the proportion of people living in poverty (defined as income per head of $ 4 a day or less in purchasing-power-parity terms) fell from almost 50% in 2002 to 29.5% in 2014, and incomes of the poorest 40% have grown faster than average, according to international aid organizations such as the World Bank.
Many more children now benefit from education, though Colombia still hovers near the bottom of the OCED’s (a club of oil producing countries) PISA rankings that test children in 65 economies for reading, maths and science. There are “three Colombia’s. One, in the main cities, is a sophisticated place with rapid economic growth and first-world social indicators. A second has been social improvements but lack good jobs. A third, made up of 3 million people, lacks even basic services. Not coincidentally, this third Colombia is where conflict has persisted. But three things are still missing. The first is better roads.
The government has embarked on an ambitious infrastructure programme, but it is confined to the main national route. Second, security, though much improved, still needs to get better. Third, if farmers are not to be dependent solely on cocoa, they need credit and technical advice. Local political and state institutions will also need to be strengthened. These suffer “chronic deficiencies” such as corruption and lack of technical competence,, democratic accountability and budget resources, as the Unstated in a report last year. The government is setting up a $ 400 million fund with money from the World Bank and Inter American Development Bank to install drinking water and sewerage in the coast’s four main cities. The rural economy will need more attention too. State agricultural agencies need a complete revamp to be able to expand credit and technical help to small farmers. Together with changes to social policies, this could close the rural-urban development gap within 20 years.
86. Which of the following correctly describes international aid efforts in Colombia?
(a) These are non-existent owing to global economic conditions.
(b) These have further damaged Colombia’s economy.
(c) These are likely to widen the rural-urban divide in Colombia.
(d) It has had an adverse impact on rural agricultural incomes.
(e) None of the given options correctly describes aid efforts in Colombia.
87. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Confined’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Imprisoned
(b) Discharged
(c) Withhold
(d) Extensive
(e) Unlocked
88. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘Emblematic’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Symbolic
(b) Warning
(c) Valuable
(d) Belief
(e) Flagged
89. Which of the following correctly explains the phrase ‘These suffer chronic deficiencies’ as used in the passage?
(a) For the past few years crops in Colombia are suffering from chronic diseases.
(b) Water-borne diseases in Colombia are widespread.
(c) Local institutions are plagued by systemic flaws.
(d) Poor Colombians suffer from many vitamin related deficiencies.
(e) It is impossible to correct the agricultural sector which need it complete revamp.
90. Which of t he following is the central idea of the passage?
(a) Colombia has split into various blocs, each of which is demanding sovereignty.
(b) Colombia is a poor undeveloped nation on the brink of war.
(c) Agricultural reform is the answer to Colombia’s problems.
(d) Colombia has taken adequate steps to address its infrastructure issues.
(e) Security and development are key if Colombia is to reach its potential.
91. Choose the word/group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘Hovers’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Leaves
(b) Flies
(c) Attacks
(d) Remains
(e) Delays
92. According to the passage, which of the following is/are (a) factor (s) impacting the situation in Colombia?
A. Tremendous increase in poverty
B. Availability of funds for development programmes
C. Lack of infrastructure
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only B and C
(d) A and C
(e) None of these
93. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(a) Colombia’s poverty estimates are drastically under-reported.
(b) Haiti and Honduras are the most prosperous Latin American nations.
(c) Colombia’s education system needs reform.
(d) Urban Development projects in Colombia had failed owing to lack of funds.
(e) All the given statements are true in the context of the passage.
94. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘Persisted’ given in bold as used in the passage.
(a) Wasted
(b) Grown
(c) Escaped
(d) Advanced
(e) Faded
95. What does the author want to convey through the anecdote of Medellin cited in the passage?
(a) Medellin is ripe for social unrest as the gap between in rich and poor is too wide.
(b) Innovative low-cost development schemes have benefited Colombia.
(c) Academics do not make able administrators.
(d) Medellin’s PISA ranking is well deserved.
(e) Other than those given as options
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-105) In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.
If the country is going to get (96) about cutting carbon emissions from oil and gas, it will have to (97) ways to scale up its use of renewable energy. (98) wind and solar power into electricity is, in some ways, the easy part. The bigger (99) is developing the infrastructure to transmit that electricity across the country.
In the case of wind, most of t hat power is (100) far from the urban centers that would use it. Transmission would require a new nationwide system of power lines reaching from the widest parts of the country. Such a system could also (101) power suppliers the flexibility to shift supply depending on variations in weather. But residents in those areas do not want power lines (102) their properties. One project, called the Grain Belt Express and the intended to run from Kansas to Illinois, is on (103) after being voted down by the Missouri Public Service Commission. There was considerable (104) from land owners, who worried the lines would be unsightly or interfere with farming. Some residents also (105) to the idea of companies building Missourians land in order to sell power elsewhere.
96.
(a) though
(b) severe
(c) serious
(d) intend
(e) steady
97.
(a) look
(b) bargain
(c) catch
(d) find
(e) lose
98.
(a) Switching
(b) Putting
(c) Planning
(d) Holding
(e) Converting
99.
(a) challenge
(b) issues
(c) trial
(d) contest
(e) threat
100.
(a) generated
(b) achieved
(c) provoked
(d) set
(e) prevented
101.
(a) deny
(b) allow
(c) hinder
(d) grants
(e) confess
102.
(a) without
(b) beyond
(c) crossing
(d) featuring
(e) running
103.
(a) grip
(b) stop
(c) line
(d) hold
(e) schedule
104.
(a) constraint
(b) neglect
(c) resistant
(d) hostile
(e) opposition
105.
(a) protest
(b) objected
(c) welcomed
(d) complaint
(e) endorse
Part IV Computer Knowledge
106. Which of the following commands would you choose to move selected text from one place to another?
(a) Cut and Paste
(b) Drag and Paste
(c) Delete and Paste
(d) Copy and Paste
(e) Move and Paste
107. Descending order of data hierarchy in data management in computing is
(a) Database-Records-Files-Bytes-Fields-Bit
(b) Database-File-Record-Fields-Byte-Bit
(c) Database-Record-Fields-File-Bytes-Bit
(d) Database-Fields-File-Record Bit-Bytes
(e) Database-File-Record-Fields-Bit-Bytes
108. How to specify cell range from A9 to A99 in Excel?
(a) (A9 to A99)
(b) (A9 = A99)
(c) (A9–A99)
(d) (A9, A99)
(e) (A9 : A99)
109. Which of the following is not an input device?
(a) VDU
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) Mouse
(e) Joystick
110. What is the portion of RAM that a computer microprocessor can access more quickly than it can access regular RAM?
(a) Cache
(b) Processor
(c) Memory Pool
(d) Data Pool
(e) Processor Pool
111. The ability to perform ‘what if?’ analysis is key feature of which type of software?
(a) Desktop publishing program
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Presentation
(d) Word processor
(e) e-Mail program
112. SQL stands for
(a) Semi Questioning Language
(b) Structured Query Language
(c) Structured Question Language
(d) Sequential Question Language
(e) Sequential Query Language
113. VIRUS stands for
(a) Vital Information Resource Under Seizure
(b) Vital Information Resource Under Siege
(c) Vital Information Reason Under Siege
(d) Vital Information Reason Under System
(e) Virus information Recourse Under Siege
114. To move to the bottom of a document, press
(a) Home Key
(b) End Key
(c) Ctrl + End
(d) Insert key
(e) Shift key
115. Single-word reference to viruses, worms etc. is
(a) killerware
(b) harmware
(c) phish
(d) malware
(e) virus
116. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language, is known as
(a) File
(b) Processing
(c) Coding
(d) Folder
(e) Testing
117. If you copy and paste a file
(a) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is created
(b) the file gets scanned
(c) the original file is removed and a new file is not created
(d) the original file remains unchanged and a new file is not created
(e) the original file is deleted and a new file is created
118. What is the generation of the computers which are built with VLSI technology and microprocessor?
(a) First
(b) Fourth
(c) Third
(d) Second
(e) Other than those given as options
119. A function inside another function in Excel, is called
(a) Round function
(b) Sun function
(c) Nested function
(d) Double function
(e) Test function
120. Which of the following best describes a private, company wide network, closed to public access?
(a) Intranet
(b) Internet
(c) Virtual Private Network
(d) Cloud Computing
(e) Extranet
121. Which one of the following would not be considered as a form of secondary storage?
(a) hard disk
(b) RAM
(c) Optical disk
(d) floppy disk
(e) flash drive
122. In computing and electronic system, BCD is abbreviation of
(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Bit Coded Digit
(c) Byte Coded Digit
(d) Bit Coded Decimal
(e) Binary Coded Digit
123. HTTP refers to
(a) Home Tex Transaction protocol
(b) Hyper Text Tie Protocol
(c) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(d) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(e) Home Text Transmission Protocol
124. The term ……… designates equipment that might be added to a computer to enhance, its functionality.
(a) System device
(b) Disk pack
(c) Operating device
(d) Digital device
(e) Peripheral device
125. A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language, is
(a) Assembler
(b) Intersection
(c) Comparator
(d) Complicate
(e) Converter
Part V General Awareness
126. The traditional Indian folk dance “Ghoomar’ was developed in the Indian State of
(a) Haryana
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Gujarat
127. As a part of military diplomacy, the fourth edition of the joint military exercise ‘Garuda Shakti’ was recently (March 10-23, 2016) held between armies of India and
(a) Iran
(b) Thailand
(c) Italy
(d) Myanmar
(e) Indonesia
128. Which of the following Indian film actors has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India in 2016
(a) Shahrukh Khan
(b) Saif Ali Khan
(c) Salman Khan
(d) Salim Khan
(e) None of those given as options
129. As per Census 2011, as on March 1, 2011, the rural population of India was
(a) 833.5 million
(b) 928.5 million
(c) 783.1 million
(d) 683.1 million
(e) 733.1 million
130. The ‘Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary’ is situated in the Indian State of
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
(e) Madhya Pradesh
131. Yamini Krishnamurthi has recently been conferred upon Padma Vibhushan for her contribution to
(a) Art-Cinema
(b) Literature and Education
(c) Spiritualism
(d) Art-Classical Vocal
(e) Art-Classical Dance
132. Which of the following Union Minister is an Olympian and veteran shooter?
(a) VK Singh
(b) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
(c) Rao Inderjit Singh
(d) Prakash Javadekar
(e) Rajiv Pratap Reddy
133. The National capital and the largest city of Lebanon is
(a) Amman
(b) Beirut
(c) Muscat
(d) Damascus
(e) Baghdad
134. The 2020 Summer Olympics are scheduled to be held in
(a) Sochi (Russia)
(b) Tokyo (Japan)
(c) Beijing (China)
(d) Athens (Greece)
(e) Sydney (Australia)
135. The National Museum of Natural History (NMNH), which recently caught fire, is situated in
(a) New Delhi
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Kolkata
(d) Visakhapatnam
(e) Mumbai
136. The harvest festival ‘Bhogali Bihu’ is majorly celebrated in the Indian State of
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Telangana
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
(e) Sikkim
137. India’s first ‘Railway University’ is proposed to be set-up in
(a) Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Vijayawada (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
(d) Vellore (Tamil Nadu)
(e) Vadodara (Gujarat)
138. India’s first ever Aviation Park is proposed to be set-up in the Indian State of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Telangana
(e) Goa
139. In a bid to boost grass root level innovations across the country, President, Pranab Mukherjee recently inaugurated the second election of the week-long “Festival of Innovation” at
(a) Indian Institute of Science
(b) IIT-Kanpur
(c) IIT-Bombay
(d) Delhi University
(e) Rashtrapati Bhavan
140. The currency of ‘United Arab Emirates’ is
(a) Baht
(b) Dirham
(c) Rupee
(d) Ngultrum
(e) Rouble
141. Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas recently established Indian Institute of Petroleum and Energy (IIPE) at
(a) Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)
(b) Bengaluru (Karnataka)
(c) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
(d) Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh)
(e) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
142. ‘Narsingh Yadav’ is associated with the sport of
(a) Water Aerobics
(b) Weightlifting
(c) Water Sliding
(d) Wrestling
(e) Wind Surfing
143. May 1, every year is observed as the
(a) International Workers’ Day
(b) World Red Cross Day
(c) None of those given as options
(d) World Press Freedom Day
(e) World AIDS Vaccine Day
144. The United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) is United Nations programme, headquartered in
(a) Madrid (Spain)
(b) Geneva (Switzerland)
(c) New York (USA)
(d) London (UK)
(e) Washington DC (USA)
145. Which of the following is India’s seventh navigation satellite of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) that was launched by ISRO on April 28, 2016?
(a) IRNSS-1G
(b) IRNSS-1B
(c) IRNSS-1D
(d) IRNSS-1F
(e) IRNSS-1E
Part VI Quantitative Aptitude
146. The numerical value of the perimeter of a rectangular field is less than that of its area by 128. If the breadth of the same field is halved, then the numerical value of the perimeter of the field becomes 40 less than its area. What is the area of the rectangular field?
(a) 192 sq cm
(b) 220 sq cm
(c) 176 sq cm
(d) 208 sq cm
(e) 184 sq cm
Directions (Q. Nos. 147-151) In these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option.
Give answer
a. if x > y b. if x < y
c. if x ≥ y d. if x ≤ y
e. if relationship between x and y cannot be determined
147. I. x2 – 12x + 35 = 0 II. y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
148. I. 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0 II. 2y2 + 7y + 5 = 0
149. I. x2 = 9 II. 3y2 – 8y + 5 = 0
150. I. 2x2 + 15x + 27 = 0 II. 2y2 + 11y + 15 = 0
- 2x2 – 9x + 10 = 0 II. 3y2 – 10y + 8 = 0
152. Vessel A contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective quantities of 20 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. Mixtures from vessel A and B are both mixed together in vessel C. If the resultant percentage of water in vessel C was 20%, what was the initial quantity of mixture in vessel B?
(a) 16 L
(b) 20 L
(c) 12 L
(d) 24 L
(e) 28 L
Directions (Q. Nos. 153-157) Study the table and answer the given question.
Note :
I. Number of students who completed the course = Number of students enrolled – Number of students dropped out
II. Only those students who completed the course could appear for job placement.
III. Few data are missing (indicated by -) in the table. You are expected to calculate those values based on the given information, if required to answer any of the questions.
153. In City A, 25% of students (M + F) who completed the course got job. What is the number of female students who dropped out of the course in the same city?
(a) 110
(b) 96
(c) 116
(d) 124
(e) 108
154. In City E, respective ratio of male and female student who enrolled for course is 9 : 8 and male to female students who completed the course is 4 : 3. What is the number of students (M + F) who got job from the same city?
(a) 153
(b) 169
(c) 163
(d) 63
(e) 53
155. In City D, number of students (M + F) who dropped out is 3/11th of the number of students (M + F) who enrolled for the course. What percent of students (M + F) in City D, who completed the course, got job?
(a) 86.25
(b) 76.5
(c) 72.25
(d) 80.5
(e) 72.72
156. In City C, number of male students who completed the course is equal to number of female students who completed it. Only 96students, i.e. 25% of the students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how many male students enrolled for the course in the same city?
(a) 244
(b) 218
(c) 212
(d) 214
(e) 215
157. In City B, if 40% of students (M + F) who completed the course, got job, how many students (M + F) got job in City B?
(a) 160
(b) 154
(c) 162
(d) 166
(e) 127
Directions (Q. Nos. 158-162) Study the graph and answer the given questions.
158. In village D, the number of eligible voters grew by 20% from the y ear 2004 to the year 2014. Also in the year 2014, the number of actual registered voters was 75% of the total eligible voters the same year. The number of actual registered voters in village D in the year 2014 was what percent more than that of the same village in the year 2004?
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
159. If the numbers of actual registered voters are equal in village D and E, what is the respective ratio between the total population of village D and that of village E?
(a) 35 : 24
(b) 41 : 30
(c) 35 : 32
(d) 36 : 25
(e) 24 : 35
160. In village A, 75% of the actual registered voters were male. If the difference between the number of actual male registered voters and that of actual female registered voters was 1400, what was the total population of village A?
(a) 5000
(b) 7200
(c) 7500
(d) 6400
(e) 5200
161. In village B, the voters turnout was 36% of the total population. The voter’s turnout in village B was what percent of actual registered voters?
(a) 60%
(b) 65%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
(e) 75%
162. Total population of village C was 12500 and the voter’s turnout was 80% of the actual registered voters. What was the voters’ turnout in village C?
(a) 7500
(b) 7200
(c) 6400
(d) 6000
(e) 8000
163. Aman invests a certain sum Rs X for two years in scheme A offering compound interest at 20% per annum (compound annually). He also invests Rs X-1600 in scheme B for three years offering simple interest at 10% per annum. The interest he received from scheme A was twice the interest he received from scheme B. What is the sum of money that Aman had invested in scheme B?
(a) Rs 4400
(b) Rs 4800
(c) Rs 4200
(d) Rs 4600
(e) Rs 4000
164. In the year 1998, the number of students in school B was half that of in school A. In the year 1999, the number of students were more than that in the previous year by 20% in each of the schools. In the year 2000, the number of students in school B was one-fourth of sum of those in schools A and B together in the year 1999. The number of students in school B in year 2000 was what percent less than that in the year 1999?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 25%
Directions (Q. Nos. 165-167) What will be come in the place of question marks in the following number series?
165. 158 ? 38 18 8
(a) 64
(b) 78
(c) 52
(d) 90
(e) 86
166. 849 282 93 30 9 ?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 8
(e) 2
167. 5 4 6 15 56 ?
(a) 218
(b) 275
(c) 169
(d) 144
(e) 362
Directions (Q. Nos. 168-172) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
Academy ‘XYZ’ offers classes on 4 different dance forms- Bharatnatyam, Freestyle, Bunny-hop and Jive, It has three centres in India- Noida, Kolkata and Odisha. Jive classes will always have equal number of male and female students. Only female students have enrolled for Bharatnatyam classes. One student can learn only one dance form.
Data for the month of December, 2015
• The total number of students in academy was 300.
• The number of students learning Bharatnatyam was 20% of the total number of students in the academy.
• Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 25% were learning Bharatnatyam and 30% were learning Bunny-hop.
Data for the month of January, 2016
• The number of students (both male and female. learning Jive was 32.
• The number of students learning Bharatnatyam was same as the previous month. Out of the total number of female students in the academy, 4/15 were l learning Freestyle.
• The number of male students learning Freestyle was two times the number of female students learning the same dance form.
168. As compared to the previous month, in January 2016, the number of students (both male and female. in Academy ‘XYZ’ increased by 104. If the students learning Freestyle and those learning Bunny-hop increased by the same number, what was the number of male students learning Bunny-hop?
(a) 82
(b) 104
(c) 112
(d) 54
(e) 108
169. In December, 2015, the number of students (both male and female) learning Freestyle was what percent more than the number of students (both male and female) learning Bharatnatyam?
(a) 62.5%
(b) 55.5%
(c) 60%
(d) 50%
(e) 65%
170. In December, 2015, what was the average number of female students learning Bharatnatyam, Jive and Bunny-hop?
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 45
(d) 44
(e) 40
171. In December, 2015, out of the total number of male students learning Bunny-hop, 4/9 were in Noida centre and 5/18 were in Kolkata centre. What was the difference between the number of male students learning Bunny-hop in Noida centre and those learning same the dance form in Kolkata centre?
(a) 22
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 14
(e) 18
172. In December, 2015, equal number of male and female students learning Bunny-hop got selected for a competition. If the respective ratio between the number of male students who did not get selected and the number of female students who did not get selected is 5 : 3, what was the number of students (both male & female). Who got selected for the competition?
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 12
(e) 28
173. 15 women can complete a work in 4 days and 32 children can complete it in ‘X’ days. 10 women and 20 children work for three days, and then leave. If the remaining work is completed by 3 women in 
what is the value of ‘X’?
(a) 25
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20
(e) 22
174. Shyam bought two articles-A and B, the cost prices of which were same. Shyam labelled both the articles at 40% more than its cost price. He then sold article A at 30% discount and article B at Rs 35 more than the selling price of article A. If in the whole deal he earned a profit of 5%, what was the cost price of article A?
(a) Rs 250
(b) Rs 100
(c) Rs 300
(d) Rs 360
(e) Rs 150
175. The distance between Point X and Point Y is 80 km. Boat A could travel from point X to Y upstream and point Y to X downstream in total 30 hours Boat B could travel from Point X to Y upstream and Point Y to X downstream in total 9 hours. If the speed of boat B in still water is thrice of boat A in still water, what is the speed of Boat B? (Please note: speed of the current is constant for both.)
(a) 24 km/h
(b) 27 km/h
(c) 12 km/h
(d) 18 km/h
(e) 21 km/h
Part VII Economic and Social Issues
176. According to new ‘Census 2011’ data released recently by the government of India, if all communities are taken together the percentage of country’s population below 20 years, is
(a) 63%
(b) 27%
(c) 28%
(d) 41%
(e) 31%
177. The fastest growing State in terms of ‘Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP)’ in the financial year 2014-15 is in the Indian State of
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Kerala
178. The situation where the inflation rate falls below zero percent (0%) is described by economists as
(a) Deflation
(b) Dejection
(c) Disinflation
(d) Depreciation
(e) Devaluation
179. Which of the following is a rural electrification scheme of the government of India?
(a) PMJJBY
(b) DDUGJY
(c) PRASAD
(d) HRIDAY
(e) DDUGKY
180. The ‘International Monetary Fund (IMF)’ is an international organization, headquartered in
(a) New York (USA)
(b) Geneva (Switzerland)
(c) Washington DC (USA)
(d) Paris (France)
(e) Vienna (Austria)
181. The Plan period of the Twelfth Five Year Plan of the government of India is
(a) 2012 to 2017
(b) 2014 to 2019
(c) 2011 to 2016
(d) 2013 to 2018
(e) 2015 to 2020
182. The ‘Smart Cities Mission’ of the central government is being implemented through the
(a) Union Ministry of Human Resources Development
(b) Union Ministry of Statistics Programme Implementation
(c) Union Ministry of Urban Development
(d) Union Ministry of Rural Development
(e) Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
183. A monetary policy in which a central bank has an explicit target inflation rate for the medium term and announces this inflation target to the public, is known as
(a) Inflation Plan
(b) Budgeted Inflation
(c) Inflation Targeting
(d) Objective Inflation
(e) Inflation Arrangement
184. Which of t he following programme is India’s flagship rural employment programme?
(a) PMAGY
(b) AMRUT
(c) HRIDAY
(d) None of the given options
(e) MGNREGA
185. In recent (February, 2016) data released b y the Central Statistics Office (CSO), it was indicated that India’s per capita income during 2015-16 is likely to grow by 6.2% to
(a) Rs 5452.58
(b) Rs 4452.58
(c) Rs 7452.58
(d) Rs 6452.58
(e) Rs 8452.58
186. The committee set up by the Human Resource Development headed by the former Cabinet Secretary
(a) Prabhat Kumar
(b) B. K. Chaturvedi
(c) TSR Subramanian
(d) TR Prasad
(e) KM Chandrasekhar
187. India is projected as the fastest growing economy in the world in 2016 and 2017 amid volatile global financial conditions in the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2016 report recently released by
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) United Nations Organization
(d) World Economic Forum
(e) None of them given as options
188. According to the recent (April, 2016) data released by BSE, the unemployment rate in urban areas in India was of the order of
(a) 12.62%
(b) 11.15%
(c) 12.15%
(d) 9.62%
(e) 11.62%
189. In the India context, who amongst the following is regarded as the ‘Lender of the Last Resort’?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Export Import Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Government of India
(e) NABARD
190. According to a recent NSSO survey, the literacy rate in ‘urban’ areas in India was found to be around
(a) 67%
(b) 71%
(c) 86%
(d) 89%
(e) 92%
191. Under the Nation Food Security Act 2013 (NFSA, 2013) , about 67% of the population is entitled to subsidized food which however does not include
A heat B. Rice C. Coarse cereals
(a) B and C
(b) All of these
(c) A and B
(d) Only B
(e) None of those given as options
192. The ‘Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)’ has now been subsumed with the
(a) HRIDAY
(b) AMRUT
(c) MGNREGA
(d) PRASAD
(e) None of those given as options
193. Micro Finance Institutions registered as non-banking finance companies are regulated by
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(c) MUDRA Bank
(d) SIDBI
(e) NABARD
194. According to the ‘Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011, the percentage of rural households having no literate adults above the age 25 was about
(a) 9.5%
(b) 10.5%
(c) 30.5%
(d) 36.5%
(e) 23.5%
195. The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a scheme focused on workers in the
(a) financial institutions
(b) government departments
(c) public sector units
(d) unorganized sector
(e) industrial sector
196. In the year 2015, the government revised the methodology of calculating the national accounts by revising the base year from 2004-05 to
(a) 2011-12
(b) 2009-10
(c) 2007-08
(d) 2008-09
(e) 2006-07
197. According to ‘Economics Survey 2015-16’, in India, the percentage of the earning population in the tax net is around
(a) 4.0%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 8.5%
(d) 5.5%
(e) 9.5%
198. The National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation (NSFDC) is a central public sector enterprise under the aegis of the
(a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(c) Ministry of Human Resources Development
(d) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(e) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
199. Seeking to guard investor returns from excessive exchange rate movements, the RBI Governor has recently stated that a move towards an inflation target of 4% will help contain volatility in the
(a) None of the given options
(b) Currency Market
(c) Domestic Debt Market
(d) Domestic Retail Market
(e) Domestic Money Market
200. The ‘National Urban livelihood Mission (NULM)’ has now been renamed as ‘Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana-NULM’. The stationary urban local bodes now covered under the
(a) 2041
(b) 6041
(c) 5041
(d) 4041
(e) 1041
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