National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2008
General Ability Test
1. Jaydeep purchased 25 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 16.50 per kg and 35 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 25.50 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately, at what price per kg did he sell the mixture to make 25 per cent profit?
(A) Rs. 26.50
(B) Rs. 27.50
(C) Rs. 28.50
(D) Rs. 30.00
2. A can copy 75 pages in 25 hours. A and B together can copy 135 pages in 27 hours. In what time can B copy 42 pages?
(A) 21 hrs
(B) 5 hrs 36 secs
(C) 18 hrs
(D) 24 hrs
3. 25 men and 15 women can complete a piece of work in 12 days, All of them start working together and after working for I days the women stopped working, 25 men completed the remaining work in 6 days. How many days will it take for completing the entire job if only 15 women arc put on the job?
(A) 60 days
(B) 88 days
(C) 94 days
(D) None of these
4. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively while a third pipe C can empty the full tank in 25 hours. All the three pipes are opened in the beginning. After l0 hours C is closed. Find, in how much time will the tank be full.
(A) 12 hrs
(B) 8 hrs
(C) 10 hrs
(D) 14 hrs
5. Suresh started cycling along the boundaries of a square field from corner point A. After half an hour, he reached the corner point C, diagonally opposite to A. If his speed was 8 km per hour, the area of the field in square km is:
(A) 64
(B) 8
(C) 4
(D) Can’t be determined
6. A passcllger train leaves Calcutta at 4 PM and travels at the rate of 30 kilometres an hour, The mail train leaves Calcutta at g PM and travels on a parallel line of rails at the rate of 45 km an hour. When will the second train overtake the first?
(A) 10 hrs after the first train starts
(B) 12 hrs after the second train starts
(C) 10 hrs after the second train starts
(D) 12 hrs after the first train starts
7. The length of room is 
its breadth. The cost of carpeting is at Rs. 150 per sq metre is Rs. 14,400 and the cost of white-washing the four walls at Rs. 5 per sq metre is Rs. 625. Find the length, breadth and height of the room.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) Data inadequate
8. A and B stand in a ring with 11 other persons. If the arrangement of the 13 persons is at random, then the probability that there are exactly 3 persons, between A and B is:
(A) 1/6
(B) 2/11
(C) 3/12
(D) 4/9
9. Two boys begin together to write out a booklet containing 817 lines. The first boy starts with the first line, writing at the rate of 200 lines an hour, and the second boy starts with the last line, then writes line 816, and so on, backwards, proceeding at the rate of 150 lines an hour. At what line will they meet?
(A) 466th
(B) 465th
(C) 467th
(D) 468th
10. A man can swim downstream at 8 km/hr and upstream at 2 km/hr. The speed of the current is:
(A) 2 km/hr
(B) 1 km/hr
(C) 3 km/hr
(D) 4 km/hr
11. A mean while returning from his factory travel 2/3 of the distance by bus and 3/4 of the rest, by car rest by foot. If he travel 2 km on foot, the total distance covered by him is:
(A) 23 km
(B) 26 km
(C) 24 km
(D) 30 km
12. In a two digit number, the digit at unit place is I more than twice of digit at tens place. If digit at unit & tens place. be interchanged, then the difference between the new number and original number is less than 27 . What is the original number?
(A) 52
(B) 73
(C) 25
(D) None of these
13. In q school 391 boys and 323 girls have been divided into the largest possible equal classes so’ that there are equal number of boys and girls in each class. What is the number of classes?
(A) 23 girls classes, 19 boys classes
(B) 23 boys classes, 19 girls classes
(C) 17 boys classes, 23 boys classes
(D) 23 boys classes, 17 girls classes
14. One year ago the ratio between Madhava and Gopals salary was 3 : 4 the individual ratio is between their last year’s and this year’s salaries are 4 : 5 and 2 : 3 respectively. At pre sent the total of, their salary is Rs. 4160re salary Madhava:
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 2560
(C) Rs. 1040
(D) Rs. 3120
15. If a cartoon containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following cannot be the ratio of broken mirrors to unbroken mirrors?
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 7 : 5
16. Pradip spends 40 per cent of monthly income on food items, and 50 per cent of remaining on clothes and conveyance. he saves one third of remaining amount after spending on food, clothes and conveyances. If he saves Rs. 19,200 every year, what is his monthly income?
(A) Rs. 24,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these
17. The average age of A and B is 20 years. If C were take place A, the average would be 19 and if C were to replace B, the average would be 21 what were the ages (in yrs.) of A, B and C?
(A) 22, 18, 20
(B) 18, 22, 20
(C) 22, 20, 18
(D) 18, 20, 22
18. The ratio of Mona’s age to the age of her mother is 3 : 11. The difference of their ages is 24 yrs. The ratio of their ages after 3 years will be:
(A) 1 : 3
(B) 2 : 3
(C) 3 : 5
(D) None of these
19. A shopkeeper bought 150 calculators at the rate of Rs. 250 per calculator. He spent Rs. 2500 on transportation and packing. If the marked price of the calculator is Rs. 320 per calculator and the shopkeeper gives a discount of 5% on the marked price, then what will be the percentage profit agained by the shopkeeper?
(A) 20%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) None of these
20. Alok bought 25 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 6 per kg and 35 kg of rice at the rate 7 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture at the rate of Rs. 6.75/kg what was his gain or loss in this transaction?
(A) Rs. 16.00 gain
(B) Rs 16.00 loss
(C) Rs. 20.00 gain
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-23): In these questions, choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase in italics.
21. It is a moot point whether we should stop work or struggle on.
(A) all to clear
(B) a fixed belief
(C) a burning question
(D) a debatable point
22. We should give a wide berth to bad characters.
(A) keep away from
(B) publicly condemn
(C) give publicly to
(D) give your seat
23. To all intents and purposes he is a good man.
(A) Finally
(B) Practically
(C) Above all
(D) In practice
Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26): In each of the following questions, find out which one of the words given below the sentence can most appropriately replace the group of words italicized in the sentence.
24. Despite being in the career of singing for the last ten years, he has not been able to earn fame on account of his practice of borrowing ideas and words from others and using them as his own.
(A) adaptation
(B) pantomime
(C) imitation
(D) plagiarism
25. Every person is not allowed to enter the place where public, government or historical records are help.
(A) scullery
(B) pantry
(C) archives
(D) coffer
26. The advertisement assured the public that the medicine would give back to the users , their youthful vigour and appearance.
(A) rejuvenate
(B) restore
(C) replenish
(D) render
Directions (Q. Nos. 27-32) : Establish the relationship between the given pair of words. Choose the option which has similar relationship.
27. FOOTBALL : SPORT : :
(A) rhythm : poetry
(B) verse : literature
(C) dancing : ballet
(D) research : biology
28. SAILOR : LIGHTHOUSE : :
(A) snake : hiss
(B) air raid : siren
(C) car horn : driver
(D) sleeper : smoke alarm
29. SIMMER : BOIL : :
(A) glide : drift
(B) gamble : play
(C) drizzle : downpour
(D) stagnate : flow
30. MITIGATE : PUNISHMENT : :
(A) change : order
(B) place : placement
(C) monotonous : change
(D) alleviate : pain
31. SAPLING : TREE : :
(A) puppy : dog
(B) canine : feline
(C) cat : lion
(D) poodle : terrier
32. TYRE : RUBBER : :
(A) oasis : desert
(B) house : roof
(C) paper : wood
(D) pebble : boulder
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) : A sentence is split into four parts. Mark the part that has a grammatical error.
33.
(A) If we examine the saturation aspect,
(B) the enterprise market
(C) is a short term
(D) revenue buying programmes.
34.
(A) Therefore, your taxability in India
(B) will depends on the total time
(C) spent by your partners and employees in India
(D) in providing consultancy services.
35.
(A) India outstrips other countries
(B) in terms
(C) for employment
(D) and number of companies.
Directions (Q. Nos. 36-38): Fill in the blanks in the passage with appropriate choice.
The one essential 36 factor in a company being able to create the right customer experience that is so necessary for its continued 37 is its people. A company will have among its employees planners. 38 and doers.
36.
(A) sustainable
(B) indispensable
(C) measurable
(D) gullible
37.
(A) implication
(B) surplus
(C) survival
(D) sermonizing
38.
(A) enablers
(B) losers
(C) majors
(D) mayors
Directions (Q. Nos. 39-41): Each question consist of a group of sentences followed by a suggested sequential arrangement. Select the best sequence that forms a coherent paragraph.
39.
(A) It is much smaller than Earth, with a diameter of only 6500 kilometers.
(B) One white dwarf, called Kupee’s Star after a famous American astronomer, is particularly well-known.
(C) Yet its mass is equal to that of the Sun.
(D) The matte insider a white dwarf is incredibly dense.
(E) It is so desne that just a thimbleful would weigh thousands of kilograms.
(A) BACDE
(B) ACBDE
(C) DBACE
(D) BACED
40.
(A) This is another kind of sign behaviour.
(B) the same basic characteristic is there automatic reaction to some stimulus.
(C) Human beings, like other animals, may be conditioned to respond in particular ways to a given stimulus.
(D) Instead the reaction is wired in by some outside force.
(E) The difference is that the stimulus reaction pattern is not waried into the animals’ nervous system by its own genetic code.
(A) CABDE
(B) ABDEC
(C) BDECA
(D) CABED
41.
(A) If you look at a number of important inventions and discoveries that have been made over the last 1,000 years you will find that most of them occurred in the last 300 years.
(B) What prevented progress being made in the previous 700 years?
(C) One reason was the mistaken belief that once a scientific model had been built, it was complete picture of the real thin
(D) Why this?
(E) Thos who doubted this ran the risk of being ridiculed by their fellow men and in some cases of even losing their lives by carrying on with their investigation.
(A) EDCBA
(B) DCBAE
(C) ABCDE
(D) BCDEA
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46): Each question has four words marked A, B, C and D: of which two words are most nearly SAME or OPPOSITE in meaning. Choose one such pair from the alternatives given.
42. (A) desecrate (B) describe
(C) damage (D) descent
(A) B and C
(B) C and D
(C) A and C
(D) A and D
43. (A) asinine (B) profound
(C) intelligent (D) cruel
(A) B and C
(B) B and D
(C) A and C
(D) A and B
44. (A) vivacious (B) weird
(C) rabid (D) fanatical
(A) A and B
(B) B and C
(C) B and D
(D) C and D
45. (A) stupendous (B) calm
(C) livid (D) pretentious
(A) B and D
(B) A and D
(C) A and B
(D) A and C
46. (A) shambles (B) flexible
(C) periodic (D) organized
(A) A and D
(B) B and C
(C) A and C
(D) C and D
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-60): Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.
PASSAGE 1
In many underdeveloped countries, the state plays an important and increasingly varied role in economic development today. There are four general arguments, all of them related, for state participation in economic development. First, the entrance requirements in terms of financial capital and capital equipment are very large in certain industries, and the size of these obstacles will serve as barriers to entry on the part of private investors. One can imagine that these obstacles are imposing in industries such as steel production, automobiles, electronics, and parts of the textile industry. In addition, there are what Myint calls “technical indivisibilities in social overhead capital.” Public utilities, transport, and communication facilities must be in place before industrial development can occur, and they do not lend themselves to small-scale improvements. A related argument centers on the demand side of the economy. This economy is seen as fragmented, disconnected, and incapable of using inputs from other parts of the economy. Consequently, economic activity in one part of the economy does not generate the dynamism in other sectors that is expected in more cohesive economies. Industrialization necessarily involves many different sectors; economic enterprises will thrive best in an environment in which they draw on inputs from related economic sectors and, in turn, release their own goods for industrial utilization within their own economies. A third argument concerns the low-level equilibrium trap is which less developed countries find themselves. At subsistence levels, societies consume exactly what they produce. There is no remaining surplus for reinvestment. As per-capita income rises, however, the additional income will not be used for saving and investment. Instead, it will have the effect of increasing the population that will eat up the surplus and force the society to its former subsistence position. Fortunately, after a certain point, the rate of population growth will decrease; economic growth will intersect with and eventually outstrip population growth. The private sector, however, will not be able to provide the one-shot large dose of capital to push economic growth beyond those levels where population increases eat up the incremental advances. The final argument concerns the relationship between delayed development and the state. Countries wishing to industrialize today have more competitors, and these competitors occupy a more differentiated industrial terrain than previously. This means that the available niches in the international system are more limited. For today’s industrializers, therefore, the process of industrialization cannot be haphazard affair, nor can the pace, content, and direction be left solely to market forces. Part of the reason for strong state presence, then, relates specifically to the competitive international environment in which modern countries and firms must operate.
47. What does the author suggest about the “technical indivisibilities in social overhead capital”?
(A) It leads to rapid technological progress.
(B) It enhances the development effects of private sector investment.
(C) It is barrier to private investment.
(D) It can prevent development from occurring.
48. According to the passage, the “low-level equilibrium trap” in underdeveloped countries results from:
(A) the tendency for societies to produce more than they can use.
(B) intervention of the state in economic development.
(C) the inability of market forces to overcome the effects of population growth.
(D) the fragmented and disconnected nature of the demand side of the economy.
49. According to the author, a strong state presence is necessary:
(A) to ensure the livelihood of workers.
(B) to provide the capital needed to spur economic growth.
(C) to provide food for everyone.
(D) to ensure that people have more than what is necessary for subsistence.
50. In the passage, the word ‘cohesive’ means:
(A) naturally and logically connected.
(B) modern and competitive.
(C) containing many cohorts or groups.
(D) containing many different sectors.
51. In the passage, the word ‘imposing’ means:
(A) something that obtrudes on others.
(B) something that strikes a pose.
(C) something huge.
(D) to act with a delusive effect.
PASSAGE 2
The past decade has upset many preconceptions about development and this, more than anything else, makes it difficult to be overly definite about what the next decade has in Store, But there are a few things that one e an assert with some confidence. First, education, health and productive employment are crucial both for growth and for equity. We have tended to assume that all of these are the consequences of rapid economic growth and that only growth can generate the resources required for these purposes. But, increasingly, it appears that these are better seen as the causes rather than as consequences of development. Virtually every case of Successful development involves a prior improvement in literacy, technical skills, health status and access to productive work. Second, technological competence is the most important resource endowment and it explains a far larger proportion of growth in output and trade than more conventional factors like natural resources or capital accumulation. The competence required is not just in research. In fact technological dynamism in the factory and the farm is more important than the presence of large research establishment. Third, the environmental imperative can no longer be ignored. Today, as an international issue, it is second only to disarmament. Nationally, the development consequences of environmental neglect are increasingly obvious.
In the Indian context, there are at least two further factors which reinforce the above propositions. The first is population growth. Given the pace of expansion of the population and the workforce, human resource development acquires an added urgency. Population growth is also one but not necessarily the most important factor. Which underlines environmental stress in rural and urban we cannot carve out an independent position in the global system without building up a substantial capacity for self-reliant growth. The acquisition of technical competence is crucial for this purpose.
Until now we have tended to treat human resource development, technology issues and environment as subsidiary to the main task of planning. The thrust has been on: Quantitative ‘ expansion of infrastructure and production with a focus on production targets like tonnes of steel, kWh of electricity etc., capacity targets like road length, rail kilometerage; and coverage targets like number of schools and students, number of’ villages electrified etcetera, catching up with known technologies – Fuller use of natural resources – Maximum mobilization of financial resources.
52. According to the passage, we have so far p laced more emphasis on which of the following?
(A) Optimum use of available natural resources
(B) Increased number of basic facilities and meeting number of targets
(C) Maximum utilization of available finances
(D) Following known technologies
53. According to the author, which of following factors support 9s) and strengthen(s) his point of view?
(A) Necessity for carrying out growth on the basis of our own strength.
(B) Increased emphasis on production and coverage targets.
(A) Only A
(B) Only B
(C) Either A or B
(D) Both A and B
54. According to the author, which of the following cannot be viewed as a cause of development?
(A) Betterment in health services
(B) Increase in underemployment
(C) Speedy economic growth
(D) Enhancement in technical skills
55. According to the author, at the national level, with passage of time, the effects of which of the following are being felt?
(A) Expansion of workforce of high quality
(B) Lack of attention and action for protecting environmental wealth
(C) Reduction in growth rate of population
(D) Progressive degradation of technological competence in urban areas.
PASSAGE 3
I suppose the vitality of a group, an individual or a society is measured by the extent to which it possesses courage and, above all, creative imagination. If that creative imagination is lacking, our growth becomes more and more stunted, which is a sign of decay. What then is happening today? Are we trying to improve in this respect or are we merely functioning somewhere on the surface without touching the reality which is afflicting the world and which may result in political conflict, economic warfare or World War?
So, when there are discussions on the concept of man as visualized in the Eastern ideal or the western ideal, they interest me greatly from a historical point of view and from a cultural point of view, although I have always resisted this idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the occident. I do not believe in such divisions. There have, of course, been differences in racial and national outlook and in ideals but to talk of the East and the West as such has little meaning. The modern west, meaning thereby a great part of Europe and the Americas, has, more especially during the last 200 years or so, developed a particular type of civilization which is based on certain traditions derived from Greece and Rome. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the west what it is. I can see the difference between an industrialized and a non-industrialized country, I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the Middle Ages, would not have been very great and would have been comparable to the difference between any of the great countries of Asia today. I feel that we think roughly because we are misled in our approach. Differences have crept in and been intensified by this process of industrialization and mechanization, which has promoted material well-being tremendously and which has been a blessing to humanity. At the same time, it is corroding the life of the mind and thereby encouraging a process of self-destruction. I am not, for the moment, talking or thinking about wars and the like. We have been in history races come up and gradually fade away, in Asia, in Europe and other places. Are we witnessing the same thing today?
It may be that this will not take effect in our life-time. In the past anyway, one great consolation was that things happened only in one particular quarter of the world. If there was a collapse in one part of the world, the other part carried on. Now, the whole world hangs together in life and death so that if this, civilization fades away or collapses it will take particularly the whole world down with it. No part of it will be left to survive, as it could in olden rimes. During the so-called Dark Ages of Europe, there were bright periods in Asia, in china, in India, in the Middle East and elsewhere. In the old days, if progress was limited, disaster was also limited in extent and intensity. Today, when we have arrived at a period of great progress, we have also arrived at a period great disaster and it is a little difficult for us to choose a middle which would enable us to achieve a little progress and, at the same time, to limit the scope of disaster. That is the major question. A person who has to carry a burden of responsibility is greatly troubled by the practical aspects of this question. Am I right in saying that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by the Industrial Revolution does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think? I do not deny that today there are many great thinkers but it is quite likely that they might be submerged in the mass of unthinking humanity. We are dealing with and talking a great deal about democracy and I have little doubt that democracy is the best of all the various methods available to us for the governance of human beings. At the same time, we are seeing today − by today I mean the last two decades or so – the emerence of democracy in a somewhat uncontrolled form, When we think of democracy, we normally think of it in the rather limited sense of the 19th century or the early 20th century use of the term, Owing to the remarkable technological growth, something has happened since then and meanwhile democracy has also spread. The result is that we have vast masses of human beings brought up by the Industrial Revolution, who are not encouraged or given an opportunity to think much. They live a life which, from the point of view of physical comfort, is incomparably better than it has been in any previous generation, but they seldom have a chance to think. And yet in a democratic system, it is this vast mass of human beings that will ultimately govern or elect those who govern.
56. Which one of the following statements is true according to the passage?
(A) Decadence stunts the faculty of imagination.
(B) Our attempts to grow are becoming more and more stunted.
(C) Vitality and courage endanger creative imagination.
(D) We are not attempting seriously enough to encourage the growth of creative imagination.
57. According to the author, the present is characterized by:
(A) localized progress.
(B) great scope for disaster.
(C) self destructive tendencies.
(D) material progress.
58. The problem facing us, as per the passage, is the choice between:
(A) spirituality and materialism.
(B) creativity and economic growth.
(C) extent of progress and scope of disaster.
(D) physical comfort and vitality.
59. According to the passage, which one of the following statements is true of modern democracy?
(A) It has engendered technological progress.
(B) It is a product of modern materialism.
(C) It stifles the individuality of human beings.
(D) It is largely constituted of individuals who do not think.
60. We can conclude from the passage that:
(A) economic growth will have to be slowed down to give people time to think.
(B) an environment that supports progress and human individuality must be created.
(C) the price of progress is very high.
(D) industrialization has proved to be a curse to humanity.
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-63): Each of the following questions has two statements labelled as A and B. Mark the answer as:
(A) if statement A by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(C) if both the statement A and B taken together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement by itself is sufficient.
(D) if statement A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question and more data is required to soved the problem
61. If x, y and z are even integers and 2 < x < y < z, what is the value of y?
(A) z < 10
(B) x < 6
62. At ABC Corporation, for a resolution to become policy, a quorum of at least half of the 20 directors must pass the resolution by at least a two-third majority. Did resolution X pass or fail at a meeting of the Board of Directors?
(A) Ten directors voted for the resolution.
(B) Seven directors voted against the resolution.
63. A rectangular aquarium provides 36 square centimeters of water surface area per fish. How many fish are there in the aquarium?
(A) The edges of the aquarium have lengths of 60, 42 and 30 centimeters.
(B) The aquarium is filled to a depth of 40 centimeters.
64. Ad line ‘Express Yourself’ is connected with:
(A) BSNL
(B) Hutch
(C) Reliance Mobile
(D) Airtel
65. WTO headquarters are located in:
(A) New York
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) None of these
66. Which of the following offered a rival bid for the steel company Corus before the Tatas acquired a controlling stake in 2007?
(A) Arcelor
(B) CSN
(C) Thyssen Krupp
(D) Severstal
67. To which city did New Delhi lose the bid to host the 2014 Asian Games?
(A) Seoul
(B) Incheon
(C) Beijing
(D) Nagasaki
68. Which two counties share the same name for their currency – pound?
(A) Britain and Egypt
(B) Britain and Singapore
(C) Britain and Israel
(D) Britain and Malta
69. Which country has the largest number of Post offices?
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) France
70. LG is a big name in electronics. What does LG stand for?
(A) Lucky Goldstar
(B) Lucky Gnome
(C) Lotus Goldstar
(D) Lotus Gnome
71. What is the high profile median campaign being run by the ministery of tourism called?
(A) Enchanting India
(B) Exotic India
(C) Amazing India
(D) Incredible India
72. With which Indian company has wal-mart entered into an agreement to Start a Chain to supermarket stores?
(A) Reliance (Mukesh Ambani)
(B) Reliance (Anil Ambani)
(C) Tata
(D) Bharti
73. The famous rock garden located in which city?
(A) Shimla
(B) Lucknow
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Jaipur
74. Which city is known as the Forbidden City?
(A) Shanghai
(B) San Francisco
(C) New York
(D) Lhasa
75. Match the following:
(1) WHO (a) Science
(2) FAO (b) Labour
(3) UNESCO (c) Health
(4) FCO (d) Food & agriculture
(A) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c; 4 – d
(B) 1 – c; 2 – d; 3 – a; 4 – b
(C) 1 – b; 2 – c; 3 – d; 4 – a
(D) 1 – a; 2 – d; 3 – c; 4 – b
76. Match the following:
(1) Tirumala-Tirupathi
(2) Somnath
(3) Manali
(4) Shravanbelagola
(a) Gujarat
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Himachal Pradesh
(A) 1 – c; 2 – d; 3 – a; 4 – b
(B) 1 – b; 2 – a; 3 – d; 4 – c
(C) 1 – d; 2 – c; 3 – b; 4 – a
(D) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c; 4 – d
77. Wild life Institute of India is located at:
(A) New Delhi
(B) Shimla
(C) Dehradun
(D) Bhopal
78. Which city is referred to as ‘Silicon Valley of India’?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Bangalore
79. The Standard time of India is:
(A) 5½ hrs ahead of G.M.T
(B) 4½ hrs behind G.M.T.
(C) 4 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(D) 5½ hrs behind G.M.T.
80. The railway budget of 2007-08 has the annual plan of approximately:
(A) Rs. 20,000 crore
(B) Rs. 28,000 crore
(C) Rs 31,000 crore
(D) None of these
81. Who has been awarded the Man Booker Prize for 2007?
(A) Indra Sinha
(B) Anne Barker
(C) Mohsin Hamid
(D) Nicole Barker
82. Who is the managing director of Delhi Metro Railway Corporation?
(A) B. B. Joshi Lt. Governor of Delhi
(B) Sam Pitroda
(C) Chairman of the Indian railway board.
(D) E. Shreedharan.
83. The 2007 Durand Cup has been won by:
(A) Churchill brothers
(B) Central Railways
(C) Mahindra United
(D) Air India
Directions (Q. Nos. 84-88) : In the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions, marked I and II. Read the statement and the given conclusions and mark your answer as:
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if none of the given conclusions is true.
84. Statement:
All doctors are intelligent. Some women are doctors.
Conclusions:
(I) All intelligent people are women.
(II) Some women are intelligent.
85. Statement:
All teachers in my school are courteous. Bimla is not courteous.
Conclusions:
(I) Bimla is not a teacher in my school.
(II) Bimla must learn to be courteous.
86. Statement:
Electricity consumption in every house has doubled in the last five years.
Conclusions:
(I) Electricity rates have become cheaper.
(II) There is much development in the country.
87. Statement:
A neurotic is a non-stupid person who behaves stupidly.
Conclusions:
(I) Neuroticism and stupidity go hand in hand.
(II) Normal persons behave intelligently.
88. Statement:
Jade plant has thick leaves and it requires little water.
Conclusion:
(I) All plants with thick leaves require little water.
(II) Jade plants may be grown in places where water is not in abundance.
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-91): Read the following information and answer the given questions.
Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests. No two students get the same marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the least, or alternatively S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.
89. It S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?
(A) V is ranked first or fourth
(B) R is ranked second or third
(C) P is ranked second or fifth
(D) U is ranked third or fourth
90. If R gets the most, V should be ranked not lower than:
(A) Second
(B) Third
(C) Fourth
(D) Fifth
91. If S is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?
(A) U gets more than V
(B) V gets more than S
(C) P gets more than R
(D) P gets more than V
Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty-one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australia and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields – labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the conference was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australian expert, then the America would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfano are leading experts of population studies, who attended the conference. They are from Australia.
92. Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?
(i) At least one (ii) At most two
(A) Only (i) and not (ii)
(B) Only (ii) and not (i)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
93. Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
(A) Number of labour experts from the Americas
(B) Number of health experts from Europe
(C) Number of health experts from Australia
(D) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa
94. Which of the following combinations is not possible?
(A) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 2 health experts from Africa attended the conference.
(B) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 1 health experts from Africa attended the conference.
(C) 2 experts in refugee relocation from the Americas and 1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.
(D) Africa and Americas each had 1 expert in population studies attending the conference.
95. If Ramos is the long American expert in population studies, which of the following is not true about the number of experts in the conference from the four continents?
(A) There is one expert in health from Africa.
(B) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.
(C) There are two experts in health from the America.
(D) There are three experts in refugee relocation from the America.
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-97): In the following questions select the appropriate option to replace the question mark and continue the series.
96. 
(A) 240
(B) 195
(C) 84
(D) None of these
97. 
(A) 13/P
(B) 15/Q
(C) U/6
(D) 6/U
Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100) : Study the following information to answer these questions.
In a certain code “il be pee” means “ roses are blue”, “silk hee” means “red flowers” and “pee mi hee” means “flowers are vegetables”.
98. How is ‘red’ written in that code?
(A) hee
(B) sik
(C) Cannot be determined
(D) None of these
99. How is ‘roses’ written in that code?
(A) il
(B) pee
(C) be
(D) Cannot be determined
100. How is ‘vegetables are red flowers’ written in the code?
(A) il sik mit hee
(B) pee sik mit hee
(C) cannot be determined
(D) None of these
MANAGERIAL ABILITY TEST
1. The largest producer of long stapple cotton is:
(A) USA
(B) UAE
(C) Sudan
(D) China
2. The Hindustan Shipyard Limited is located at:
(A) Mumbai
(B) Goa
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Kochi
3. Arvind Mills, a company of Lalbhai Group makes own Jeans under which brand name?
(A) LEE
(B) NEWPORT
(C) PEPE
(D) LEVIS
4. Sanforising is a guarantee mark on the fabric indicating that fabric will not get:
(A) Discolor
(B) Deshape
(C) Distort
(D) Shirnk
5. Wool is categorized as:
(A) Animal Fibre
(B) Polyster
(C) Cotton
(D) Vegetable fibre
6. Which state is known for its Ikat Textile?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
7. The leading producer of copper in the world is:
(A) Australia
(B) Argentina
(C) America
(D) China
8. Which one of the following is not a natural fibre?
(A) Cotton
(B) Coir
(C) Linen
(D) Polyster
9. Choose the odd one out:
(A) Asbestos
(B) Silk
(C) Wool
(D) Animal hair
10. One of the following is not included in the functional properties of a fabric:
(A) Flammability
(B) Abrasion resistance
(C) Shape distortion
(D) Tear strength
11. Uri Hydel Project is situated in:
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Haryana
(D) Assam (Asom)
12. Which state has the longest coast line in India?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
13. Which of the following is/are sources of primary data?
(A) Magazine
(B) Annual Reports
(C) Newspaper
(D) Respondent
14. Which of the following is not a fresh-water fish?
(A) Cod
(B) Eel
(C) Salmon
(D) Trout
15. Which one of the following Union Territories of India recorded the highest literacy rate in the Census, 2001?
(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Pondicherry (Puducherry)
16. Principles and agreements of this organization were adopted by WTO?
(A) International Trade Organization (ITO)
(B) International Labour Organization (ILO)
(C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(D) General Agreement on Tariff & Trade (GATT)
17. What is Albumin?
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Vitamin
(C) Protein
(D) Fats
18. Where is WTO Headquarter located?
(A) New York
(B) Geneva
(C) London
(D) Paris
19. The base year of the present Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is:
(A) 1993-94
(B) 1971-72
(C) 1980-81
(D) 1981-82
20. Which country is not the member of IMF?
(A) Russia
(B) Uzbekistan
(C) India
(D) None of these
21. Agency in India which issues import/export code No. for starting international business is:
(A) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
(B) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT)
(C) Indian International Trade Forum (IITF)
(D) Indian Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO)
22. The basis upon which money of one country will be exchanged for that of another country:
(A) Rate of exchange
(B) Currency value
(C) Rate of calculation
(D) Money exchange value
23. When the value of the national imports exceeds the value of exports:
(A) Import surplus
(B) Export deficit
(C) Trade deficit
(D) Shortfall
24. FDCI stands for:
(A) Fashion Designer Corporation of India
(B) Fashion Design Council of India
(C) Fashion Designer Council of Industry
(D) Fashion Designing Corporation of India
25. MRP in retail means:
(A) Maximum retail price
(B) Maximum revenue per piece
(C) Minimum retail price
(D) Marginal revenue price
26. What is the name given to a khaki trouser having 6-8 pockets?
(A) Cargos
(B) Bell bottoms
(C) Jeans
(D) Breeches
27. Which one of the following is not a designer from United States?
(A) Norma Kamali
(B) Pierre Cardin
(C) Anna Sui
(D) Calvin Klien
28. Which Indian designer is the first one in registering his creations under the Design Copy Right Act 1957 to stop plagiarism in the garment industry?
(A) Rahul Khanna
(B) J. J. Valaya
(C) Hemant Trivedi
(D) Abhishek Gupta
29. Which of the following river does not have its source in glaciers?
(A) Yamuna
(B) Alaknanda
(C) Kosi
(D) Mandakini
30. The approved draft of 11th Plan by Planning Commission proposes the total outlay of the plan for the period 2007-12 at:
(A) Rs. 2644718 crore
(B) Rs. 3644718 crore
(C) Rs. 393671 crore
(D) No yet proposed
31. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. has been renamed as :
(A) Tata Communication Ltd.
(B) Reliance Communication Ltd.
(C) Air Bharti Communication Ltd.
(D) None of these
32. Which of the rats is not determined by Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) CRR
(C) SLR
(D) PLR
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37): Each of the passage given below is followed by some questions. Each question comprises of three statements (A), (B) and (C). In the context of the passages, decide which of statement is/are true.
There are two ways of avoiding fear-one is by persuading ourselves that we are immune from disaster, and the other is by the practice of sheer courage. The latter is difficult, and to everybody becomes impossible at a certain point. The former has therefore, always been more popular, Primitive magic has the purpose of securing safety either by insuring enemies or protecting oneself by falesmens, spells or incentations without any essential change, belief in such ways of avoiding danger survived throughout the many countries of Babylonian civilization, spread from Babylon throughout the empire of Alexander, and was acquired by the Romans in the course of their absorption of Hellemistic culture. From the Romans it descended to medical Christendom and Islam. Science has low lessened the belief in magic but many people place more faith in mascots then they are willing to allow, and sorcery, while people commanded by the church, is still officially a possible sin.
33. (A) Superstitious beliefs can help man avoid fear
(B) The medieval civilizations were also characterized by superstitious beliefs
(C) Avoiding fear is difficult for a common man
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Both A and B
34. (A) The ancient method of avoiding fear has survive the test of time.
(B) Belief in dharms and amulets was a salient feature of ancient civilizations.
(C) Science has eradicated man’s belief in magic altogether
(A) A and B
(B) B and C
(C) A and C
(D) All of t hese
Amar steels, an existing profit making company enters the capital market with a public issue of 80 lakh shares of Rs. 10/- each on Ist December. The company is engaged in ship breaking at ports in Visakhapatnam and Chennai. It operates a steel rolling mill in Visakhapatnam which utilises the scrap from ships, The company is , expanding it ship breaking capacity, It entitlement to break foreign ships has just, been extended to cover Indian flagships.
35. (A) Amar steels had solar not entered the capital market because of its profit making status.
(B) Amar steels had solar not entered the capital market because it had no expansion plans.
(C) Amar steels expect to get Indian ships also for ship breaking.
(A) Only A and B
(B) Only B
(C) Only A
(D) All of these
36. (A) The public can purchase shares from Amar steels before Ist December
(B) Amar steels is expected to start making profits after the expansion programmes is carried out
(C) Amar steels gets scarp from other companies for its steel-rolling mills
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Both A and B
37. (A) Amar steel so far could not break Indian flagships
(B) The Visakhapatanam plant of the company will not be allowed to utilize scarp from foreign ships
(C) The company needs expansion for its expansion activities
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Both A and B
Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) : Answer these questions independent of each other.
38. Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won’t be content to reign in the shop, it follows us home.
It can be inferred from the above passage that:
(A) efficiency can become all-pervading
(B) efficiency does not always pay
(C) efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing
(D) None of these
39. In order to ease the traffic congestion, the transport planners decided to have a Sophisticated system of elevated monorail travel in the city. However, it was pointed out by somebody that metro rail system would be a more effective solution to the traffic problem. The plan was thus stalled. Moreover’ since a budget had not been drawn up for the project, it was deemed fit to stall the work of the monorail for some time” In the meanwhile, the traffic planners of the city decided to build an efficient system of subways and flyovers in the city with the aim of easing the same problem. At the instant when the planners were preparing to award the contracts to the concerned parties, the transport planners came up with the contention that the subways interfered with the site of a pillar of the monorail system. The traffic planners had to give up the idea and think of other possible solutions. On the basis of the above passage
it can be inferred that:
(A) the city authorities felt that the monorail system was essentially impractical.
(B) there is a strong contention between the two groups of planners in the city.
(C) the projects would be stalled for an indefinite period.
(D) None of these
40. From Cochin to Shimla, the new culture vultures are tearing down acres of India’s architectural treasures. Ancestral owners often fobbed off with a few hundred rupees for an exquisitely carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much from foreign dealers, and yet more from the drawing room sophisticates of Europe and the US. The reason for such shameless rape of the Indian architectural wealth can perhaps, now wrongly, be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity and local indifference.
It can be inferred from the above passage that:
(A) the environment created b y the meeting between activist disunity and local difference is ideal for antique dealers to thrive in India.
(B) only Indians are not proud of their cultural heritage and are hungry for the foreign currency that is easily available in return of artefacts.
(C) most Indian families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to Europeans and Americans.
(D) India provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers.
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45): In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answers as
(1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’
(2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given
(3) if you think the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false
(4) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it contradicts the given facts
PASSAGE
The country has taken a major initiative by introducing convertibility of the Rupee on the current account. It has also been declared that the ultimate goal is to make the Rupee fully convertible. These are signs of the country’s achieving economic maturity. India is now ready to welcome foreign capital. It is preparing to reduce import tariffs to levels which are currently the norm in other developing countries. All these measures show that India is today mature and strong enough to face international competition and to integrate itself successfully with the global economy. The country is ready to shed its ideological inhibitions and ready to evaluate the international economic environment in a programmatic spirit.
41. Convertibility has not been introduced on the capital account.
42. Current account convertibility means full convertibility.
43. An economically immature country does not base any convertibility of currency.
44. Import tariffs in India are lower than those in other developing countries.
45. Socialistic ideals prevented India from evaluating the international economic environment in a pragmatic spirit.
46. Though long hours at the work place do not necessarily mean productive hours, it is essential that all employees who attend to their work during non-conventional hours get rewarded accordingly. This HR policy is found to benefit employees equally because the productivity levels according to researchers are closely linked to service standards.
The above statements bring out that:
(A) over worked employees deliver good results.
(B) we must recognized employees who work extra.
(C) this policy assists employees largely.
(D) productivity and long hours at work are always inter related.
47. With the global economy weakening, India’s GDP growth slow further to 8.5% in 2008. However, with the right reforms; the nation could achieve a potential economic growth rate of 10% predicts an economic report. India is exhibiting many of the characteristics that Japan, Korea and China did during their economic take-offs. India urgently needs to strengthen its infrastructure, reduce its stifling bureaucracy, deregulate labour markets and develop its financial system. The budget deficit looks set to widen due to the political cycle, high oil prices (owing to generous subsidies) and a surge in civil service salaries.
As per the above economic report, which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) India must give priority to building its infrastructure.
(B) In view of present political conditions, budget deficit will not increase.
(C) Appropriate measures could lead to 10% economic growth.
(D) We need to check increasing salaries of civil servants.
48. Recent studies have shown that some developed countries have of late suffered from declining productivity and ageing and shrinking populations. Countries that have adopted women and family-friendly working, such as Norway and ,Finland, have shown remarkable improvements in both business productivity and birth rate, as women find balancing career progression with child-rearing more manageable. While Italy with its traditional domestic values has witnessed declines in both. In India a lot is being done to correct the gender imbalance in the corporate sector. As per the above study, which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) In India, efforts are being made to reduce gender bias.
(B) Some developed countries have shown remarkable improvements in productivity despite not so family-friendly working conditions.
(C) Decline in population occurs due to imbalancing in professional and family environment.
(D) All of these
49. On India’s part, India is required to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a planned manner and put those designated as civilian, under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards in perpetuity. Under the accord, India has agreed to put 14 of its 22 power reactors under safeguards in a phased manner by 2014. Negotiations between India and the US over the so-called bilateral 123 Agreement for peaceful nuclear co-operation are grounded over certain provisions of the Hyde-Act. However, as per Article 2(i) of the 123 Agreement, the implementation of this agreement shall be governed by the National Laws of the two counties and in case of the US, the Hyde Act.
What is the prime cause to bring about a stalemate in finalization of 123 Agreement with the US?
(A) Certain provisions of the Hyde Act.
(B) Objections raised by the IAEA.
(C) Disagreement by the BJP.
(D) Reluctance on p art of the Indian government.
50. When there is tension, conflict, or competition among groups, some very predictable things happen : each group sees the other as an “enemy” rather than as a neural object: each group describes the other in terms of negative stereotypes; interaction and communication between the two groups decrease, cutting off feedback and data input between them; what inter group communication and interaction does take place is typically distorted and inaccurate; each group begins to prize itself and its product more positively and to denigrate the other group and its products; each group believes and acts as though it can do not wrong and the other group can do no right; under certain circumstances the groups may commit acts of sabotage (of various kinds) against the other group. Most people are aware of the existence of considerable intergroup conflict organization, and most people are aware of the patterns of behaviour of groups in conflict. But few people know ways to alleviate the conflict to avoid the consequences of the conflict.
What causes the intergroup conflicts?
(A) The desire to achieve high standards and gain superiority in society.
(B) The urge to please the superiors and things done to meet that end out of the way.
(C) The situation when one group is enjoying more benefits and concessions compared to others.
(D) Tensions, conflicts and competitions between groups while working to achieve objective in an organization.
51. Given that we spend close to 3% of our CDP on education and want to improve upon the ratio, demand for IT services in education sector is expected to witness robust growth in the Corning years. Both central and state government in India will increasingly invest to find IT solutions to impart primary and secondary education to the new generation. While no official estimates are available, 9% share for IT companies for business in the total outlay for education is expected.
Which statement of the following summarizes the objective of the paragraph?
(A) IT services in the field of education are really growing.
(B) We should check the expenditure on education.
(C) Primary and secondary education programmes should not depend excessively on IT services.
(D) Business objectives of IT companies may suffer in the near future in the field of education.
52. The study has revealed that Indian executives were, highly action-focussed, complex and creative, which means they make decisions Considering many options with focus on high quality. They are strategic and as strategic as their counterparts in the West.
What does the above study imply about the Indian executives?
(A) They are not as focussed as their counterparts in the West.
(B) They come out with original ideas.
(C) They find difficulty in making strategies.
(D) They often get distracted from their goals.
Directions (Q. Nos. 53- 5 7): Read the given passage and answer the questions below it.
Nine offices in a business centre are connected by a series of corridors and walkways. Any one visiting these offices must begin at office l, which is the reception. From there, the other offices may be visited via a series of walk-ways, connecting the offices a follows:
• Walkways connect the reception to offices 2, 3 and 6.
• A walkway connects reception to office 2 to office 4.
• Office 6 is connected to offices 3, 5 and 9.
• Office 7 is connected to office 9.
• Office 7 and 9 are connected to office 8.
53. Without visiting any office more than once, what is the maximum number of offices a person can visit?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
54. If a visitor must travel reception (office 1) to office 8 by crossing the fewest number of walkways, which of the following statements must be true?
(A) The visitor will visit offices 2 and 7.
(B) The visitor may visit offices 4 or 5, but not both.
(C) The visitor may not visit office 9.
(D) If the visitor goes to office 6, he or she must then go to office 9.
55. If a visitor wants to travel to offices 4 and 5, which of the following must be false?
(A) The visitor will go to every office except office 3.
(B) The visitor will got to office 2 only once.
(C) The visitor will not visit any building more than once.
(D) The visitor will not visit office 8.
56. If a new walkway is built connecting office 5 to office 9, then which of the following could be true?
(A) A visitor may visit all the offices without visiting any office more than once.
(B) The shortest path from reception to office 8 will include a visit to office 5.
(C) A visitor may visit office 5 immediately after office 3.
(D) A visitor may go from office 5 to office 4 by crossing no more than 3 walkways.
57. The following office has only one approach as per the initial rules:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 4 and 5
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 5 and 7
Directions (Q. Nos. 58-65): In the following questions, a factual situation and a result are presented. Following the result is presented a set of statements. For each of the statements given, mark your answer as:
(1) if the statement contradicts or is not consistent with the factual situation, or with the result, or with both the factual situations and the result.
(B) if (1) is not true and if the statement possibly explains the result.
(C) if (1) and (2) are not true and if the statement can be deduced from the factual situation, or from the result, or from both the factual situations and the result.
(D) if (1), (2) and (3) are not true and if the statement supports or weakens an explanation of the result.
Situation: Mr. Mehta, a highly respected executive of the All Fresh Deodorant Company, was in serious disagreement with his colleagues over the chemical contents of the company’s products. One of Mehta’s acquaintance, an All Fresh researcher, financed independently by Mehta had invented a new chemical, Methyl Ethyl Hydro Tetra Acetone (MEHTA), which Mehta wanted to incorporate into ‘All-Fresh’. Mehta’s peers rejected his suggestions. So he decided to form a new company called ‘Great Smells’ Deodorants. The product was a non-aerosol pump spray which used (MEHTA). Mehta embarked on a nation-wide campaign to advertise his new deodorant as an alternative to products which used harmful chemicals that could destroy the ozone. layer of the atmosphere. Furthermore, he hired Preity Zinta, the well-known cine-star, to do the TV commercials. After the. first year, sales were going very well except for the south-lndian market which were only breaking even.
Results: In June 2003, two years after going into business, ‘Great Smells’ Deodorants went bankrupt.
Set of Statements
58. In August 2002, aerosol sprays were banned in India.
59. MEHTA was found to be carcinogenic in November 2002.
60. Mehta did not have absolute authority over the chemical contents off All Fresh.
61. Great Smells’ was found to be in minor violation of the Indian Corporate Laws.
62. ‘Great Smells’ was heavily in debt when Mehta took over the company.
63. In June 2002, a new non-aerosol product called Deep Deodorants priced half as much as Great Smell appeared in the market.
64. Mehta had little experience in the anti-perspirant company.
65. A boycott against ‘Great Smells’ was organized in May 2003 since it was found that Mehta had contributed considerable money to the Al-Qaida Terrorist outfit.
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-69): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input : Go for to Though By easy To Access at
Step I : Access Go for to Though by easy To at
Step II : Access at Go for to Though by easy To
Step III : Access at By Go for to Though easy To
Step IV : Access at By easy Go for to Though To
Step V : Access at By easy for Go to Though To
Step VI : Access at By easy for Go Though to To
Step VII : Access at By easy for Go Tough To to
(and Step VII is the last step for this input)
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate step for the given input.
66. Input : Story For around on was He at
Which of the following will be step IV for the given input?
(A) around at For He on was story
(B) around at For He on story was
(C) around at For He story on was
(D) around at He For story on was
67. Input : every and peer to an for
Which of the following steps would be an and every for peer to?
(A) III
(B) V
(C) VI
(D) None of these
68. Input: Over Go For through at one
Which step number will be the last step of the above input?
(A) II
(B) III
(C) IV
(D) V
69. The Step II of an input is as follows :
and Do pet to on that
Which of the following would definitely be the input?
(A) Do on pet to and that
(B) Do pet to and that on
(C) Do and pet to on that
(D) None of these
Direction (Q. No. 70-73): The following questions are based on the diagram given below:
(I) Rectangle represents males.
(II) Triangle represents educated.
(III) Circle represents urban.
(IV) Square represents civil servants.
70. Who among the following is an educated male who is not an urban resident?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 9
(D) 11
71. Who among the following is neither a civil servant nor educated but is urban and not a male?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 10
- Who among the following is female, urban resident and also a civil servant?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 13
73. Who among the following is an educated male who hails from urban area?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 11
(D) 5
Directions (Q. Nos. 74-76): In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions.
Mark answer as
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if either I or II follows
(D) if neither I nor II follows
74. Statement : Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.
Conclusions : (I) Earlier there were less options available to man.
(II) There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.
75. Statement : A man must be wise to be a good wrangler.
Good wranglers are talkative and boring.
Conclusions : (I) All the wise persons are boring.
(II) All the wise persons are good wranglers.
76. Statement : A large majority of the workforce in India is unorganized. Most of them earn either the minimum or uncertain wages while others are engaged in sundry jobs.
Conclusions: (I) The workers in the organized sector get better facilities and stay longer in their jobs.
(II) Some workers in the unorganized sector of the workforce have a regular and fixed income.
Directions (Q. Nos. 77-78): In each question below is given a statements followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.
77. Statement:
Higher disposal costs encourage those who produce wasted to look for cheaper ways to get rid of it.
Course of Action:
(I) The disposal costs should be made higher.
(II) The disposal costs should be brought down.
(III) A committee should be set up to study the details in this respect.
(A) All follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
78. Statement:
The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people in the next century of whom half will be in Asia and will eat rice as their staple.
Course of Action:
(I) More funds should immediately be allocated for rice research to help ensuredadequate supplies.
(II) The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their food habit.
(III) The rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to meet the demand.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) All follow
(D) Only I and III follow
Directions (Q. Nos. 79-81): Each of the questions below consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to study the questions and decide that the data in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
79. Who earns most among M, N, P, Q and R?
(I) M earns less than P but not less than R.
(II) Q earns more than M but not equal to N.
(III) N earns more than M and R.
(A) Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements.
(B) I and II only
(C) Only I and II or only and I and III
(D) Only I and III
80. In how many days can 10 women finish a work?
(I) 10 men can complete the work in 6 days.
(II) 10 men and 10 women together can complete the work in 
(III) If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10 men replace them, the remaining work is completed in 4 days.
(A) Only I and II
(B) Any two of the three
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only II and III
81. What is the per cent profit earned by a shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop?
(I) Labelled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.
(II) Cost price of each article was Rs 550.
(III) A discount of 10% on labelled price was offered.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) All the three are required
Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.
At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are to be operate daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the program sets must be the ones that were operated on the previous day. The program operating must also satisfy the following conditions:
(I) If program P is to be operated on a day V cannot be operated on that day.
(II) If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the programs to be operated after Q.
(III) If R is to be operated on a day V must be one of the program to be operated after R.
(IV) The last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U.
82. Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of month?
(A) V, Q, R, T, S
(B) U, Q, S, T, W
(C) T, U, R, V, S
(D) Q, S, R, V, U
83. Which of the following is true of any day’s valid program set operation?
(A) P cannot be operated at third place
(B) Q cannot be operated at third place
(C) R cannot be operated at fourth place
(D) T cannot be operated at third place
84. If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be a the second program in that sequence?
(A) Q
(B) S
(C) T
(D) U
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-88): These questions are based on the context given below:
Following are the conditions of promotion from Junior Officer’s Cadre to Senior Officer’s Cadre in an organization. The candidate must
(1) have completed at least 5 years in the organization.
(2) have secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion.
(3) have secured 60% marks in the Group Discussion.
(4) have secured 70% marks in the interview.
(5) have good record of his work performance.
(6) have good communication skill and get along well with his colleagues.
(7) not be more than 40 years and less than 30 years as on 1.9.2003.
(8) have good academic record with an average of at least 65% marks.
(9) However, in the case of a candidate who satisfies all other conditions except (4), above but has secured 75% marks in the written test and 65% marks in the Group Discussion, the case is to be referred to the General Manager (Personnel) – GM (P) for the decision.
(10) Satisfies all other criteria except (8) above but has secured an average of more than 60% marks, the case is to be referred to the Managing Director (MD) of the organization.
Now read the information provided in the case of each candidate in each of the questions given below and decide on the basis of the information provided and based on the above conditions, which of the courses of action you would suggest. These cases are given to you as on 5.9.2003. You are not to assume anything. Mark answer as
(A) if the candidate is to be promoted.
(B) if the candidate is not be promoted.
(C) if the case is to be referred to MD.
(D) if the case is to be referred to GM (P).
85. 33 years old Renu has a good academic record with an average of 68% marks and has good communication skill. She has completed six years in the organization. She has secured 63% marks in Group Discussion, 71% marks in interview and 68% marks in written test for promotion. She gets along well with her colleagues and has good record of her work performance.
86. Venkatesh, who is 38 years old, has good academic record with an average of 61% marks. He has secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion, 72% marks in interview and 63% marks in Group discussion. He has good communication skill and gets along well with his colleagues. He has good record of his work performance and has completed 7 years in the organization.
87. 34 years old Madhu has secured 60% marks in written promotion test, 72% marks in interview and 69% marks in Group Discussion. She has good communication skill and gets along well with her colleagues. Her record of work performance is good and has completed 
in the organization.
88. Tarun has completed 6 years in the organization. He is 34 years old and has a good academic record with an average of 68% marks. He has secured 66% marks in Group Discussion, 67% marks interview and 76% marks in the written test for promotion. He has good communication skill gets along well with his colleagues and his work performance is good.
Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90): Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow.
There is an empty three-shelf bookcase T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seven objects to be placed either on the lower, middle or top shelf of t he bookcase with the following conditions.
(I) At least two objects should be on the top shelf.
(II) There should be no more than four objects on any shelf.
(III) T and U should be on different shelves.
(IV) V is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf where X is placed.
(V) W is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on.
89. If V and W are the only two objects on one of the shelves and four objects are on the middle shelf, which of the following must be true?
(A) T is on the middle shelf
(B) U is on the bottom shelf
(C) Y is on the top shelf
(D) Z is on the middle shelf
90. If all the seven objects are on two shelves, which of the following must be true?
(A) At least three objects are on the top shelf.
(B) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf
(C) T, V and W are on the top shelf.
(D) U is on the top shelf.
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-92): Study the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
The BSNL announced a cut in the STD rates on 27 December, 2003. The new rates and sables are given in the table below and were implemented from the 14 January, 2004.
91. The maximum percentage reduction in costs will be experienced for calls over which of the following distances?
(A) 50-200
(B) 500-1000
(C) 1000 +
(D) 200-500
92. The percentage difference in the cost of a set of telephone calls made on the 13th and 14th January having durations of 4 minutes over a distance of 350 km, 3 minutes for a distance of 1050 km is (if all three falls are made in peak times)
(A) 41.2%
(B) 51.76%
(C) 59.8%
(D) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. Nos. 93-94): Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
One a playing ground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and Prashant are standing as described below facing the North.
(I) Kunal is 40 metres to the right of Atul.
(II) Dinesh is 60 metres to the South of Kunal.
(III) Nitin is 25 metres to the West of Atul.
(IV) Prashant is 90 metres to the North of Dinesh.
93. Who is to the North-east of the person who is to the left of Kunal?
(A) Dinesh
(B) Nitin
(C) Atul
(D) None of these
94. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atul followed by Kunal, Dinesh and then Prashant, how many metres has he walked if he was travelled the straight distance all through?
(A) 155 metres
(B) 185 metres
(C) 235 metres
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
A * B mans A and B are of the same age;
A – B means B is younger than A;
A + B means A is younger than B.
95. Sachin * Madan – Reena means:
(A) Reena is the youngest
(B) Reena is the oldest
(C) Madan is younger than Reena
(D) None of these
96. X + Y + Z is same as:
(A) Y – X – Z
(B) Z – Y – X
(C) Z – X – Y
(D) None of these
97. Deven – Shashi * Hemant is opposite to:
(i) Hemant + Shashi + Deven
(ii) Hemant – Shashi + Deven
(iii) Shashi * Hemant + Deven
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(I) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport of Bus. Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.
(II) the person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.
(III) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.
(IV) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.
(V) Mumbai is not connected by bust to Delhi and Chennai.
98. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?
(A) P-Bus
(B) Q-Aeroplane
(C) S-Boat
(D) T-Aeroplane
99. Which of the following combinations is true for S?
(A) Delhi – Bus
(B) Chennai – Bus
(C) Chennai – Boat
(D) Data inadeqeuate
100. The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes?
(A) Bus
(B) Train
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Car
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