National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2009
General Ability Test
PASSAGE I
The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is the Japanese ability to organize production and, marketing rather than their achievement in original research. The British are generally recognized as a far more inventive collection of individuals hut never seem able to exploit what they invent. There are many examples from the TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph BSA and Norton motorbikes which all prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to exploit their strengths in marketing and development many years ago, and their success was the first either not understood in the west or was dismissed as something which could only have been achieved by unscrupulous tactics. For many years Japanese goods had a reputation for shoddiness not always undeserved and it was felt they could only have been produced at their low price, so far from where they were sold because they were cheap copies of other people’s ideas churned out by a workhouse which was dedicated to hard grind above all else.
1. The said rule mentioned in this passage refers to:
(A) the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British
(B) the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese
(C) the lack of variety in Japanese inventions
(D) the poorer marketing ability of the British
2. According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon:
(A) productivity
(B) inventiveness
(C) marketing ability
(D) official patronage
3. The strength of a country’s industry depends upon:
(A) original research
(B) international cooperation
(C) adjudicate work force
(D) electronic development
4. The TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train, the Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of:
(A) Japanese success
(B) British failure
(C) British success
(D) Japanese failure
5. The main the me of this passage is:
(A) electronic industry in Japan
(B) industrial comparison between Japan and Britain
(C) the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity
(D) the importance of original research in industry
PASSAGE II
It is difficult to reconcile the ideas of different schools of thought on the question of education. Some people maintain that pupils at school should concentrate on a narrow range of subjects which will benefit them directly in their-subsequent careers. Others contend that they should study a wide range of subjects so that they have not only the specialized knowledge necessary for their chosen careers but also sound general knowledge about the world they will have to work and live in. supporters of the first theory state that the greatest contributions to civilisation are made by those who are most expert in their trade or profession. Those on the other side say that, unless they have a broad general education, the experts will be too narrow in their outlook to have sympathy with their fellows or a proper sense of responsibility towards humanity as a whole.
6. ‘Schools of thought’ can be explained as:
(A) groups of people whose job is to think.
(B) groups of people who are schooled to think.
(C) groups of people who study in a particular school thoughtfully.
(D) groups of people having the same ideas but with different perception on a particular subject.
7. Broad general knowledge is necessary because:
(A) specialization is incomplete without it.
(B) without it no one would get a job.
(C) it reaches us about different things.
(D) it broadens one’s outlook.
8. The idea of the first school of thought in the passage is that:
(A) students should concentrate on studies
(B) students should not undertake any specialized work.
(C) students should study all the subjects they want to.
(D) students should study a few subjects that will help them in their profession.
9. Supporters of the first theory say that:
(A) experts have contributed most to progress in the modern world.
(B) people with general knowledge have contributed to civilization.
(C) experts have done nothing to help mankind.
(D) people with general knowledge are more useful than experts.
10. According to the second school of thought, education will not be very effective if pupils:
(A) have inadequate knowledge of their own work.
(B) do not have a wide general education.
(C) ignore the study of fine arts.
(D) have nothing but general knowledge.
PASSAGE III
Gandhiji had to travel by train from Durban to Pretoria in connection with his job. Once while travelling by train, he was asked by the white passengers to leave the first class compartment and shift to the van compartment. He refused to do so. Thereafter, he was pushed forcibly out of the compartment and his luggage was thrown on the platform. It was winter and he kept shivering all night. He did not go to the waiting room because the while men sleeping there might insult him further. This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji and he decided to stay back in South Africa and fight against this blatant injustice.
11. The white people asked Gandhiji to abandon the first class compartment because:
(A) they wanted to annoy him.
(B) they wanted to avenge themselves on Gandhiji.
(C) they treated Indians as inferior to them.
(D) they were looking for a chance to talk to him.
12. Why was the thrown out of the compartment? Because:
(A) he misbehaved with the whites.
(B) they wanted him to spend the night in the waiting room.
(C) they wanted to insult him.
(D) he refused to shift to the van compartment.
13. Why did he not go to the waiting room to spend the night?
(A) The room was unclean.
(B) He wanted to sleep in the open.
(C) He was badly hurt and so couldn’t move to the room.
(D) He feared that the white men there might insult him further.
14. ‘This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji.’ The event being talked about here is:
(A) Gandhiji’s being ill treated by the whites
(B) Gandhiji’s spending a night on the platform
(C) Gandhiji’s travel by a train
(D) Gandhiji’s staying back in Africa
15. Gandhiji stayed back in South Africa:
(A) to avenge himself on the whites who had insulted him.
(B) because his work was still not complete.
(C) to fight against racial discrimination in Africa.
(D) to build up an army and fight against the white people.
PASSAGE IV
Although a smiling face often disguises the mind and heart of a villain, an indiscriminate generalization of this phenomenon will do injustice to the innocent children whose faces bloom like flowers.
16. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the world ‘disguises’ as used in the sentence?
(A) Proves
(B) Hides
(C) Conceals
(D) Reveals
17. The intention of the author seems to be:
(A) to forcefully defend the kind acts of villains.
(B) to point out to an exception to the general rule.
(C) to give justice to the generous actions of everyone.
(D) to argue in favour of children who are sometimes guilty.
18. The author of the sentence accepts the fact that:
(A) the faces of the villains are never smiling.
(B) the faces of innocent children are as pleasing as the flowers in bloom.
(C) the faces of innocent children disguise ill acts.
(D) an indiscriminate generalization is justifiable in this case.
19. Which of the following is most opposite of the word ‘indiscriminate’ as used in this sentence?
(A) Selective
(B) Broad
(C) Conspicuous
(D) Promiscuous
20. The author feels that an indiscriminate generalization of the phenomenon:
(A) would prevent villains form committing ill acts.
(B) may lead good people to involve in ill actions.
(C) would do justice to the children who are guilty.
(D) would brand all people with smiling faces as villains.
PASSAGE V
It is common knowledge that the root cause of our backwardness in most fields is illiteracy. Campaigns for the eradication of this drawback gathered momentum in the decades after Independence. The results are, as expected, dramatic. However, while the percentage of literacy in India is going up, the number of illiterates has also been increasing, which is really incredible. Thus, according to the 1991 census figures, there were 503 million illiterates in the country, 30 million more than in 1981. During the same period, the percentage of literacy went up from 34 to 39 per cent. There is no need of any sophisticated technique to explain the cause of this paradox, as it is obviously the result of the rapid growth of population. The rapid growth of population has outpaced whatever little progress had been achieved in literacy. For instance, from I971 to 1981, literacy increased at an annual average rate, of 0.7 per cent, while the country’s population grew by 2.15 per cent every year. In the following decade, the average rate of annual increase in literacy was 0.95 per cent, whereas the population grew by almost 2.85 per cent every year during that decade. But population explosion is not entirely responsible for the growing number of illiterates. The apathy of most states in failing to tackle the problem of adult illiteracy is also partly to blame. Till now, they have shown little awareness of the magnitude of the problem. Moreover, follow-up measures to prevent neo-literates from relapsing into illiteracy are just as important as the initial adult literacy campaigns. In this case too, the State Education authorities are negligent. Not sufficient provision has been made for ‘continued education’. This can be done by setting up more rural libraries, adult schools and correspondence courses.
21. Which of the following appears unbelievable, according to the passage?
(A) Growing illiteracy is owing to non-availability of reading facilities to rural masses.
(B) Sufficient provision for continued education has not been made.
(C) The increase in literacy percentage and also the increase in number of illiterates.
(D) Population explosion is the only reason for increase in the number of illiterates.
22. The term ‘neo-literate’ as used in the passage refers to a person who:
(A) is not literate.
(B) has newly become literate.
(C) is a little literate.
(D) is a literate with no school education.
23. In the passage, the rapid growth of population has been attributed to:
(A) illiteracy.
(B) apathy of government officials.
(C) want of continued education.
(D) None of these
24. Which of the following statements is/are not true in the context of the passage?
(I) An effective check on population growth is the only solution for attainment of full literacy.
(II) The cause of the paradox mentioned in the passage can be explained by using sophisticate techniques.
(III) Adequate number of libraries and adult schools are not available in our country.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) I and II
25. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘outpaced’ as used in the passage?
(A) Surpassed
(B) Nullified
(C) Ruled out
(D) Spoiled
26. Which of the following has been referred to as a paradox?
(A) The literacy percentage increases and the number of illiterates decreases.
(B) The literacy percentage increases in proportion to the rate of increase in population.
(C) The government is sensitive to the problem only at the planning stage but not at the implementation stage.
(D) The literacy percentage and the number of illiterates i.e. both increasing.
27. According to the passage the problem could have been tackled by which one or more of the following measures?
(I) Checking the growth of population.
(II) Making the adult literacy campaign more effective.
(III) Providing continued education to neo-literates.
(A) I and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) All of these
28. Which of the following is as important as the literacy campaign?
(A) Checking the rapid growth of population
(B) Starting correspondence courses and providing reading facilities
(C) Awareness of the magnitude of the problem of illiteracy
(D) Making sufficient provision for continued education
29. ‘Eradication’, as used in the passage means:
(A) removal
(B) destruction
(C) starvation
(D) evaporation
30. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
(A) Continued education programmes are now adequately funded.
(B) All the state governments have now fully realized the problem of illiteracy.
(C) Literacy campaigns in the pre-Independence period were more fruitful than the later ones.
(D) Literacy campaign achieved desired results in the post-Independence period.
Directions (Q. No. 31-33): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with on term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.
31. 2, 5, 9, ?, 20, 27
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 24
32. 28, 33, 31, 36, ?, 39
(A) 32
(B) 34
(C) 38
(D) 40
33. D-4, F-6, H-8, J-10, ?
(A) K-12
(B) M-14
(C) L-12
(D) N-14
Directions (Q. Nos. 34-37): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
34.
(A) Zebra
(B) Lion
(C) Tiger
(D) Horse
35.
(A) January
(B) May
(C) July
(D) November
36.
(A) Violet
(B) Blue
(C) Green
(D) White
37.
(A) Run
(B) Walk
(C) Think
(D) Jump
Directions (Q. No. 38-39): There of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
38.
(A) Happy
(B) Gloomy
(C) Lively
(D) Cheerful
39.
(A) 42
(B) 98
(C) 20
(D) 31
40. In a certain language: (a) ‘FOR’ stands for ‘Old is Gold’, (b) ‘ROT’, stands for ‘Gold is pure’, (c) ‘ROM’ stands for ‘Gold is Costly’; How will “Pure Old Gold is Costly” be written”?
(A) TFROM
(B) FOTRM
(C) FTORM
(D) TOMRF
41. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semi-circle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
(A) TFROM
(B) FOTRM
(C) FTORM
(D) TOMRF
42. A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in semi-circle round a hillock, and then turns left at right angles. In which direction is the river finally flowing?
(A) West
(B) East
(C) North
(D) South
43. You go North, turn right, the right again and then go to the left. In which direction are you now?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
44. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left and walks 25 metres straight. Again the turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 metres straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 25 metres
(B) 50 metres
(C) 140 metres
(D) None of these
45. Kashish goes 30 metres North, then turns right and walks 40 metres, then again turns right and walks 20 metres, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he from his original position?
(A) 0
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 40
46. I walked 18 km towards North, then turned left and having walked another 4 km, I turned right and walked for 12 km more. How far have I walked from the starting point and in which direction?
(A) 8 km North
(B) 10 km West
(C) 16 km South
(D) 34 km North
47. If the letters in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?
(A) G
(B) I
(C) K
(D) None of these
48. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet?
(A) C
(B) E
(C) I
(D) T
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50): In each of these questions, find out which of the letter-series follows the given rule.
49. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two.
(A) MPSVYBE
(B) QSVYZCF
(C) SVZCGJN
(D) ZCGKMPR
50. The group of letters which do not contain more than two vowels:
(A) BDEJOLY
(B) JKAPIXU
(C) PRAQEOS
(D) ZILERAM
51. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the third, the fourth and the eleventh letter of the word ‘CONTROVERSIAL’. The middle letter of the word is :
(A) N
(B) I
(C) S
(D) T
52. The positions of how many digits in the number 321465987 will remain same when the digits are arranged in ascending order?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
53. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Tuesday
54. If 30th January 2003 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March, 2003?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Saturday
(D) Sunday
55. A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also, it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number is:
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
56. How many days will there be from 26th January, 2004 to 15th May, 2004 (both days included)?
(A) 110
(B) 111
(C) 112
(D) None of these
57. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?
(A) June, October
(B) April, November
(C) October, December
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. No. 58-60): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions to decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Mark answer as
(A) if only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) if only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) if either Assumption I or II is implicit.
(D) if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
58. Statement: “Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside candidates if selected” – a condition in an advertisement.
Assumptions:
(I) The local candidates would be having some or the other arrangement for their stay.
(II) The company plans to select only local candidates.
59. Statement: Everybody loves reading adventure stories.
Assumptions:
(I) Adventures stories are the only reading material.
(II) Nobody loves reading any other material.
60. Statement: Lack of stimulation in the first four or five years of life can have adverse consequences.
Assumptions:
(I) A great part of the development of observed intelligence occurs in the earliest years of life.
(II) 50 per cent of the measurable intelligence at the age of 17 is already predictable by the age of four.
61. Rusting of iron involves:
(A) oxidation
(B) reduction
(C) decomposition
(D) displacement
62. Which of the following vegetable proteins is considered as good as an animal protein?
(A) Soyabean protein
(B) Corn protein
(C) Wheat protein
(D) Bengal gram protein
63. The ozone shield in the atmosphere filters ultraviolet radiations coming from the sun and thus protects life on earth. If this shield is to be maintained, man must try to reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide and increase oxygen. This can be best achieved by
(A) afforestation
(B) progressive farming
(C) traffic control
(D) population control
64. Which of the following agricultural practices have been primarily responsible for pollution of our water resources?
(1) Use of livestock manure
(2) Use of chemical fertilizers
(3) Excessive use of chemical pesticides
(4) Deforestation
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
65. Who invented the Lift?
(A) J. L. Baird
(B) Thomas Alva Edison
(C) E G Otis
(D) Michael Faraday
66. The time period of a pendulum on the moon:
(A) becomes zero
(B) increases
(C) remains the same
(D) decreases
67. The water in an open pond remains cool even in hot summers because:
(A) of continuous evaporation of water.
(B) water radiates heat more rapidly than the atmosphere.
(C) water absorbs heat less rapidly than the atmosphere.
(D) None of these
68. Small liquid drops are spherical in shape because:
(A) of adhesion.
(B) of gravitational force.
(C) the liquid tends to have minimum surface area due to surface tension.
(D) None of these
69. Thermos flask keeps a liquid hot because:
(A) it has double walls.
(B) it has silver coated walls.
(C) air between the double walls is removed.
(D) heat losses by conduction and radiation are largely prevented.
70. The largest planet of the Solar System is:
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
71. Niagara Falls are in:
(A) Australia
(B) U.K.
(C) South Africa
(D) Canada
72. The largest coconut producing state in India is:
(A) Karnataka
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
73. The international airport in Tamil Nadu is:
(A) Palam
(B) DumDum
(C) Santa Cruz
(D) Meenambakkam
74. The ‘Cannes Award’ is given for excellence in which of the following fields?
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Journalism
(D) Economics
75. The term “Tee’ is connected with:
(A) Polo
(B) Golf
(C) Bridge
(D) Billiards
76. ‘Statue of Liberty’ is situated near which of the following cities?
(A) New York
(B) Rome
(C) Ottawa
(D) London
77. World Literacy Day is observed on:
(A) October 24
(B) September 5
(C) September 8
(D) August 6
78. Snake Boat Race is a popular sport of:
(A) Orissa
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
79. Who is recently elected Prime Minister of Bangladesh?
(A) Sheikh Hasina
(B) Begum Khaleda Zia
(C) Taslima Nasreen
(D) None of these
80. The sportsperson to win the record highest number of individual Gold Medals in a single edition of the Olympic Games is:
(A) Daley Thomson
(B) Mark Spitz
(C) Carl Lewis
(D) Michael Phelps
81. Who is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(B) P. Chidambaram
(C) D. Subba Rao
(D) None of these
82. Who won the Man Booker Prize 2008?
(A) Aravind Adiga
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) Arundhati Roy
83. The smallest country in the world is:
(A) Monaco
(B) Vatican City
(C) Israel
(D) Bhutan
84. ISO is the abbreviation for:
(A) Indian Standards Organization
(B) International Standards Organization
(C) Indo-Swiss Organization
(D) International Organization for Standardization
85. Who is the Chief Justice of India?
(A) Ram Jethmalani
(B) Soli Sorabji
(C) K. G. Balakrishnan
(D) None of these
86. Who is the President of India?
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
87. The historical monument Charminar is located at:
(A) Ahemdabad
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Mysore
(D) Lucknow
88. Vishwanathan Anand is the World Champion in:
(A) Chess
(B) Carrom
(C) Billiards
(D) Snooker
89. The prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award is given to individuals in recognition of their achievements in:
(A) Spots
(B) Films
(C) Education
(D) None of these
90. Homoeopathy, as it is practiced today, was evolved in 18th century by the physician Dr. Samuel Hahnemann who belongs to:
(A) Germany
(B) U.K.
(C) Greece
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. No. 91-97): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
91. EAGER:
(A) Clever
(B) Enthusiastic
(C) Curious
(D) Devoted
92. COMMEMORATE:
(A) Boast
(B) Remember
(C) Manipulate
(D) Harmonise
93. REBATE:
(A) Loss
(B) Refund
(C) Compensation
(D) Discount
94. FALSE:
(A) Defective
(B) Untrue
(C) Incorrect
(D) Inaccurate
95. STAID:
(A) Depressive
(B) Sedate
(C) Backward
(D) Dull
96. CONCEAL:
(A) Steal
(B) Hide
(C) Avoid
(D) Keep
97. VENTURE:
(A) Entrust
(B) Risk
(C) Travel
(D) Adventure
Directions (Q. No. 98-107): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
98. AUTONOMY:
(A) Submissiveness
(B) Dependence
(C) Subordination
(D) Slavery
99. TRAGEDY:
(A) Humorous
(B) Comedy
(C) Romance
(D) Calamity
100. ACCORD:
(A) Solution
(B) Act
(C) Dissent
(D) Concord
101. UNIVERSAL:
(A) Narrow
(B) Regional
(C) Miniature
(D) Subsidiary
102. FRATERNITY:
(A) Hopsitabilty
(B) Hostility
(C) Brotherhood
(D) Enmity
103. INDULGE:
(A) Avoid
(B) Abstain
(C) Forego
(D) Neglect
104. SCOLD:
(A) Enamour
(B) Rebuke
(C) Criticise
(D) Praise
105. DISDAIN:
(A) Depreciate
(B) Admiration
(C) Penitence
(D) Contempt
106. DESTROY:
(A) Invent
(B) Make
(C) Produce
(D) Create
107. LUXURY:
(A) Sadness
(B) Treachery
(C) Duplicity
(D) Austerity
Directions (Q. Nos. 108-111): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
108. A person who has no money to pay off his debts:
(A) Debtor
(B) Pauper
(C) Beggar
(D) Insolvent
109. A person living permanently in a certain place:
(A) Native
(B) Resident
(C) Domicile
(D) Subject
110. A thing or person behind time:
(A) Lazy
(B) Sluggish
(C) Indolent
(D) Antiquated
111. A style in which a writer makes a display of his knowledge:
(A) Pedantic
(B) Ornate
(C) Verbose
(D) Pompous
Directions (Q. No. 112-116): In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.
112. To turn over a new leaf:
(A) To change completely one’s course of action
(B) To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly
(C) To cover up one’s faults by wearing new marks
(D) To change the old habits and adopt new ones
113. To hit below the belt:
(A) To work confidentially
(B) To harm unfairly
(C) To strike at the exact position
(D) To hit the correct mark
114. To keep the ball rolling:
(A) To earn more and more
(B) To work constantly
(C) To keep the conversation going
(D) To make the best use of
115. Queer somebody’s pitch:
(A) Upset one’s plan
(B) Reprimand him
(C) Check him
(D) Work him up
116. A bull in a china shop:
(A) A person who is very ugly but loves the beautiful things of life
(B) A person who takes a sadistic delight in harming innocent people
(C) A person who becomes too excited where no excitement is required
(D) A person who is rough and clumsy where skill and care are required
Directions (Q. Nos. 117-120): In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
117.
(A) Comentry
(B) Commentry
(C) Commentery
(D) Commentary
118.
(A) Lackadaisical
(B) Lackadisical
(C) Lackadaisicle
(D) Lackdaisical
119.
(A) Surveilance
(B) Survellance
(C) Surveillance
(D) Survaillance
120.
(A) Exempsion
(B) Exemption
(C) Examption
(D) Exumption
121. The population of a town was 54,000 in the last census. It has increased 2/3rd since then. Its present population is:
(A) 1,08,000
(B) 90,000
(C) 72,000
(D) 36,000
122. The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9 : 5. If a scooter costs Rs. 4,200 more than a moped, find the price of the moped.
(A) Rs. 5,250
(B) Rs. 3,350
(C) Rs. 6,500
(D) Rs. 5,700
123. If 0.7 of one number be the same as 0.075 of another, what is the ratio of the numbers?
(A) 2 : 28
(B) 3 : 28
(C) 7 : 25
(D) 7 : 28
124. 12 ÷09 of 0.3 × 2 = ?
(A) 0.80
(B) 8.0
(C) 80
(D) None of these
125. 7.32 × 4.12 = ?
(A) 33.1564
(B) 30.1584
(C) 30.3334
(D) 39.1584
126. 
(A) 120
(B) 1.20
(C) 12
(D) 0.12
127. 80.40 ÷ 20 – (−4.2) = ?
(A) 497.8
(B) 5.786
(C) 947.0
(D) 8.22
128. 542 – 369 + 171 – 289 = ?
(A) 1698
(B) 1998
(C) 1958
(D) 1968
129. 5329 + 4328 – 369 – 7320 = ?
(A) 1698
(B) 1998
(C) 1958
(D) 1968
130. 
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) Can’t be simplified
131. A man spends 5/6 of his income on food and 1/12 on rent rest he saves. If he saves Rs. 500, find his income.
(A) Rs. 5,000
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 4,000
(D) Rs. 8,000
132. A man travelled 2/11 of h is journey by coach, 17/22 by rail and walked the remaining 1 kilometre. How far did he go?
(A) 22 km
(B) 20 km
(C) 33 km
(D) 27 km
133. Two numbers are in the ratio of 8 : 7. If the sum of these two numbers is 450, find the numbers.
(A) 210 and 240
(B) 240 and 210
(C) 235 and 215
(D) 215 and 235
134. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 7 : 5 and their expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If each saves Rs. 1,600, what are their incomes?
(A) Rs. 5,600 and Rs. 4,000
(B) Rs. 7,000 and Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 14,000 and Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 21,000 and Rs. 15,000
135. An auctioneer’s charges 10% for selling a guitar. The sale price is Rs. 3,455. What is the auctioneer’s commission?
(A) Rs. 345.50
(B) Rs. 345
(C) Rs. 385.50
(D) Rs. 385
136. In how many different ways can the letters of word ‘OPERATE’ be arranged?
(A) 5040
(B) 720
(C) 2520
(D) 360
137. 15% of 45% of a number is 105.3 What is the 24% of that number?
(A) 385.5
(B) 374.4
(C) 390
(D) 375
138. 21 binders can bind 1400 books in 15 days. How many binders will be required to bind 800 books in 20 days?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 14
139. The difference between two numbers is 3 and the difference between their square is 63. Which is the larger number?
(A) 12
(B) 9
(C) 15
(D) Cannot be determined
140. By how much is 4/5th of 1150 less than 5/6th of 1248
(A) 140
(B) 115
(C) 125
(D) 120
141. In a college election between two candidates, one candidate got 55% of the total valid votes. 15% of the votes were invalid. If the total votes were 15,200, what is the number of valid votes the other candidate got?
(A) 7106
(B) 6840
(C) 8360
(D) 5814
142. If (74)2 subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 5340. What is the number?
(A) 98
(B) 102
(C) 104
(D) 110
143. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 582168. Which is the smaller number?
(A) 760
(B) 762
(C) 764
(D) 766
144. In a sale, a perfume is available at a discount of l5% on the selling price. If the perfume’s discounted selling price is Rs. 3675.4, what was the original selling price of the perfume?
(A) Rs. 4,324/-
(B) Rs. 4,386/-
(C) Rs. 4,400/-
(D) Rs. 4,294/-
145. The population of a town was 48600. It increased by 25% in the first year and decreased by 8% in the second year. What will be the population of the town at the end of 2 year?
(A) 65610
(B) 55580
(C) 60750
(D) None of these
146. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers. The sum of A and C is 146. What is the value of E?
(A) 75
(B) 81
(C) 71
(D) 79
147. If 25a + 25b = 115, then what is the average of a and b?
(A) 4.6
(B) 2.5
(C) 4.5
(D) None of these
148. Excluding the stoppages, the speed of a bus 64 kms/hr and including the stoppages the speed of the bus is 48 kms/hr. For how many minutes does the bus stop her hour?
(A) 12.5 minutes
(B) 15 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D) 18 minutes
149. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two-digit number is less than the original number by 18. The sum of the two digits of the number is 16. What is the original number?
(A) 97
(B) 87
(C) 79
(D) Cannot be determined
150. Swapnil, Aakash and Vinay begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolution in 36 seconds, 48 seconds and 42 seconds respectively. After how many second will they be together at the starting point?
(A) 504 seconds
(B) 950 seconds
(C) 1008 seconds
(D) 470 seconds
Managerial Ability Test
PASSAGE I
He dropped off to sleep. The cigarette slipped out of his mouth and burnt a great black hole in his only shirt. The smoke of the burn awoke him, and he got up, cursing under his breath and fumbled in the dark for a needle in order to sew up the hole. Otherwise his wife would see it in the morning and would nag away at him for a couple of hours. But he could not find a needle. He fell asleep again.
1. The Cigarette fell out of the man’s mouth because:
(A) He fell of his tool.
(B) He was surprised to see that it had made a hole in his shirt
(C) He fell asleep while smoking.
(D) He fumbled in the dark for a needle.
2. The man woke up in the dark because:
(A) the cigarette had burnt his favourite shirt
(B) the cigarette had burnt his only shirt.
(C) the cigarette had to be lit again.
(D) the cigarette had burnt him.
3. The man got up to search for a needle because:
(A) his wife would be very upset.
(B) the cigarette had damaged his only shirt.
(C) he wanted to mend the shirt.
(D) the burn-hole was huge and black.
4. The man wanted to sew the hole because:
(A) he wanted to avoid being scolded by his wife.
(B) He had nothing else to do.
(C) He had no other shirt.
(D) He wanted to sleep again.
5. Which one of the following statement best sums up the Man’s reaction to his problem:
(A) The man is extremely upset to find the shirt burnt and frantically tries to repair the damage
(B) The hole in the shirt and the wife’s anticipated nagging are minor problems, the greater one is that the man cannot find a needle.
(C) Neither the shirt-hole nor the nagging nor the lack of a needle is of great consequence.
(D) Yhe man is terrified of his wife and dreads her discovering the burned shirt.
PASSAGE II
It happened one day, about noon, going towards my boat, I was exceedingly surprised with the print of a man’s naked foot on the shore, which was very plain to be seen in the sand. I stood like one thunder-struck, or as if I had seen an apparition. I listened. I looked round me, I could here nothing, nor see anything. I went up the store, and down the shore, but it was all one I could see no other impression but that one. I went to it again to see if there were any more, and to observe if it might not be my fancy; but there was no room for that, for there was exactly the very print of foot-toes, heel and every part of a foot.
6. On finding the foot-print on the shore, what did the author do?
(A) Did not pay much attention to it.
(B) Observed it with curiosity.
(C) By thinking it for some time.
(D) By examining it carefully and noticing its details.
7. Which one of the following words best describes the emotion evoked by the foot-print in the author?
(A) Curiosity.
(B) Indifference.
(C) Rear.
(D) Surprise.
8. How does the author convince himself that the foot-print is a real one?
(A) By finding the person who made it.
(B) Being told about it by a witness.
(C) Began to investigate its origin
(D) Run way in fear.
9. Which one of these expressions best brings out the effect of the foot-print on author?
(A) Seen an apparition.
(B) Stood like one thunder-struck.
(C) Went up the shore.
(D) Looked round himself.
10. The passage is full of short simple sentences. Their purpose is to:
(A) facilitate easy understanding
(B) give a pain narration
(C) convey breathless excitement
(D) imply the inability of the author to write in a better way.
PASSAGE III
Deriving your authority from the government, your position would secure the respect and consideration of everyone, especially in service where official rank carries so much weight. This would secure to you every attention and comfort on your way and there, together with a complete submission to your orders. I know these things are a matter of indifference to you except so far as they may further the great objects you have in view, but they are of importance in themselves, and of every importance to those who have right to take an interest in your personal position and comfort.
11. The great objects in the passage means:
(A) significant items.
(B) noble goals.
(C) precious merchandise.
(D) objects of praise.
12. The writer is asking his reader to accept:
(A) great objects.
(B) a respected position.
(C) an official rank.
(D) a significant assignment.
13. The person addressed is most likely a:
(A) social worker
(B) government servant
(C) commercial agent
(D) foreign dignitary
14. The writer’s attitude towards the person addressed is characterized by:
(A) officiousness
(B) flattery
(C) humility
(D) arrogance
15. The above passage most probably is a part of a:
(A) speech.
(B) official communication.
(C) written report.
(D) personal letter.
Directions (Q. No. 16-20): Each of these questions consist of two statements numbered I and II. Decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Mark answer as:
(A) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(C) if the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(D) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
16. B is the brother of A. How is A related to B?
(I) A is the sister of C.
(II) E is the husband of A.
17. How is T related to K?
(I) R’s sister J has married T’s brother L, who is the only son of his parents.
(II) K is the only daughter of L and J.
18. How many sons does D have?
(I) A’s father has three children.
(II) B is A’s brother and son of D.
19. How is Sulekha related to Nandini?
(I) Sulekha’s husband is the only son of Nandini’s mother.
(II) Sulekha’s brother and Nandini’s husband are cousins.
20. How many students in a class p lay football?
(I) Only boys play football.
(II) There are forty boys and thirty girls in the class.
Directions (Q. No. 21-27): Each of these questions consists of Problem Figures marked (1),(2) and (3) and Answer Figures marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Select the Answer Figures which will continue the series.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
Directions (Q. No. 28-31): Each of these questions consists of two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which one of the conclusions logically follows from the two statements. Mark answer as
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if either conclusion I or II follows
(D) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
28. Statements Smoking is dangerous. Rash driving is dangerous.
Conclusions:
(I) Rash driving is smoking.
(II) Smoking is rash driving.
29. Statements: All travelers are men.
Conclusions:
(I) All men are travelers.
(II) All Travellers are graduates.
30. Statements: Rats are bats. Bats are Mats.
Conclusions:
(I) Mats are Rats.
(II) Rats are Mats.
31. Statements: Love is God. Faith is God.
Conclusions:
(I) Love is faith.
(II) Faith is love.
Directions (Q. No. 32-34): The diagram represents 3 overlapping segments of society.
Circle : Educated Youth
Triangle : Unemployed Youth
Square: Employed Youth
Based on the relationship given in the diagram you have to choose the right answer from amongst the options against the following statements
32. Some educated youths are employed.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) F
33. Some youths are neither educated nor employed.
(A) E
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
34. Some educated youths are unemployed
(A) A
(B) F
(C) D
(D) B
Directions (Q. No. 35-37): These questions are based on the information given below:
(1) A, B, C, D and E are five boys sitting a circle.
(2) C, is sitting immediately to the left of E.
(3) A is sitting between D and E.
(4) B is not sitting next to either A or E.
35. Who is sitting to the immediate left hand side of C?
(A) E
(B) A
(C) B
(D) D
36. Who is sitting between B and A?
(A) C
(B) E
(C) D
(D) None of these
37. E is sitting between:
(A) B and D
(B) D and E
(C) B and E
(D) A and C
Directions (Q. No. 38-40): Five friends are sitting on the bench in the following order:
• S is not sitting with T. T is on the extreme left hand side of the bench and R in second position from the right hand side.
• P is sitting next to Q.
• P and R are sitting together.
38. Who is sitting exactly in the middle?
(A) Q
(B) R
(C) P
(D) T
39. Who is sitting to the left of Q?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) R
(D) P
40. Who is one the extreme right hand side of the bench?
(A) R
(B) T
(C) Q
(D) S
Directions (Q. No. 41-45): Each of these following given below consist of a statement followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide which of the arguments is strong and which is ‘week’ Mark answer as:
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(D) If both argument I and II are strong.
41. Should few more states be carved out form the existing large states of India?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will be administratively convenient.
(II) No, it is a threat to national integration.
42. Should judicial activism be discouraged?
Arguments:
(I) No, if we leave everything in the hands of executive, justice may be a distant dream.
(II) Yes, judiciary should mind it own business. Executive will take its own course.
43. Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
(II) No, it would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
44. Should number of holidays of Government employees be reduced?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, our Government employees are having maximum number of holidays among the other countries of the world.
(II) Yes, it will result in increased productivity of government offices.
45. Should all Government owned educational institutions be handed over to private institutions?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, Standard of education of these institutions will improve.
(II) No, standard of education of these institutions will fall.
Directions (Q. No. 46-50): Read the following statements carefully to answer these questions.
In a school, there were five teachers.
• I and II were teaching Hindi and English.
• III and II were teaching English and Geography.
• IV and I were teaching Mathematics and Hindi.
• V and II were teaching History and French.
46. IV, II and I were all teaching which of the following subject(s)?
(A) Hind and English
(B) English and Geography
(C) Mathematics and Hindi
(D) Hindi only
47. Who was teaching any one subject?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) Data inadequate
(D) None of these
48. Which of the following pairs was teaching both Geography and Hindi?
(A) I and II
(B) III and I
(C) II and III
(D) None of these
49. More than two teachers were teaching which of the following subjects?
(A) Geography
(B) History
(C) French
(D) Hindi
50. Who was teaching the maximum number of subjects?
(A) IV
(B) II
(C) I
(D) III
51. In a row of boys, Raman is 14th from the right and 13th from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
(A) 27
(B) 28
(C) 25
(D) None of these
52. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their positions Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 22nd
Directions (Q. No 53-54): In each of these questions, three words are related in some way. The relationship among the words in the question can be represented by one of the four diagrams (A), (B), (C) or (D). Choose the appropriate option.
53. Parents, Mother, Father
54. Nitrogen, Ice, Air
55. N ranks fifth in a class. S is eighth from the last. If T is sixth after N and just in the middle of N and S, then how many students are there in the class?
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26
56. In a row of 21 girls, when Monika was shifted by four places towards the right, she became 12th from the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the row?
(A) 9th
(B) 10th
(C) 11th
(D) 14th
57. In a row of boys, if A who is tenth from the left and B who is ninth from the right interchange their positions, A becomes fifteenth from the left. How many boys are there in the row?
(A) 23
(B) 27
(C) 28
(D) 31
Direction (Q. No. 58-62): Each of these questions consist of two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Mark answer as:
(A) if both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) if both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) if A is true, but R is false.
(D) if A is false but R is true.
58. Assertion (A) : Eskimos reside in igloos.
Reason (R): No other material except snow is available.
59. Assertion (A): India is democratic country.
Reason (R): India has a Constitution of its own.
60. Assertion (A): Water kept in earthen pots gets cooled in summer.
Reason (R): Evaporation causes cooling.
61. Assertion (A): Most of the ancient civilizations grew near the rivers.
Reason (R): The main occupation of man was agriculture.
62. Assertion (A): A person with blood group O is considered a universal recipient.
Reason (R): Type O blood does not contain any antigens.
Directions (Q. No. 63-67): Each of these questions has an inference drawn from the passage. Examine each inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
The force of technological change will have an impact on the manufacturing industry. But the real effect will be on the information processing industry like software development, service industries like airlines, insurance and consulting-both technical and managerial, designing and executing jobs. Another feature of technological change by the end of century will be the resistance to change from within and outside the organizations. Satisfactory resolutions will require a high degree of mutual cooperation between Government and industry, Industry and its users, Management and Unions and within organizations across functions.
63. The information processing industry has been less amenable to technological change than the manufacturing industry
(A) Data inadequate
(B) Definitely true
(C) Definitely false
(D) Can’t say
64. The technological change will affect only specific functions in an organization leaving the others undisturbed.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Data inadequate
(C) Probably true
(D) Can’t say
65. As compared to service industry, the manufacturing industry will be less affected by the technological change.
(A) Definitely true
(B) Probably true
(C) Probably false
(D) Definitely false
66. Technological change has already set in:
(A) Definitely false
(B) Probably true
(C) Probably false
(D) Definitely true
67. People prefer status quo:
(A) Definitely false
(B) Probably true
(C) Probably false
(D) Data inadequate
Directions (Q. No. 68-72): Study the following information to answer these questions:
A, B, C, D, E and F are some students each of them has different height and weight. C is heavier than A and shorter than B, D is tallest and is lighter than A. E is shorter than C, but heavier than C. F is taller than B and B is lighter than D.
68. Who is the heaviest?
(A) D
(B) C
(C) A and E
(D) None of these
69. Who is the lightest?
(A) B
(B) E
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
70. Who is the lighter than only the heaviest?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
71. Who is the shortest?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
72. What is A’s position from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height?
(A) Second
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. No. 73-75): In each of the following questions a set of figures with her is given. Assuming that the numbers in each set follow a similar pattern. Find the numbers to replace.
73. 
(A) 12
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 35
74. 
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 75
75. 
(A) 25
(B) 37
(C) 41
(D) 47
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