National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2013

Directions (Qs. 1-5): In these questions, a keyword is followed by four choices, Choose the one nearest to it in the meaning.

1. LOATH

(A) Tired

(B) Unwilling

(C) Sickly

(D) Spirited

Answer: (B)

2. PROPENSITY

(A) Quality

(B) Aptitude

(C) Liking

(D) Natural tendency

Answer: (D)

3. CORRUGATED

(A) Confirmed

(B) Wrinkled

(C) Rough

(D) Sifted

Answer: (B)

4. ETYMOLOGY

(A) Ancient script

(B) Foreign language

(C) Word derivation

(D) Words

Answer: (C)

5. SCEPTICAL

(A) Bigoted

(B) Unconvinced

(C) Convinced

(D) Dissenting

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 6-10): In these questions, a keyword is followed by four choices. Choose the one opposite to in the meaning.

6. COARSE

(A) Dead

(B) Fine

(C) Dirty

(D) Cloudy

Answer: (B)

7. SLENDER

(A) Stout

(B) Ugly

(C) Smart

(D) Filthy

Answer: (A)

8. BENEVOLENCE

(A) Beg

(B) Merciless

(C) Depriving

(D) Deny

Answer: (B)

9. EFFICACIOUS

(A) Useful

(B) Skilled

(C) Useless

(D) Unskilled

Answer: (C)

10. FELICITY

(A) Thankful

(B) Unhappiness

(C) Happiness

(D) Regards

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 11-15): Fill in the blank space of the sentence so that it becomes meaningful.

11. He was frightened ______.

(A) to be killed

(B) to being killed

(C) for being killed

(D) of being killed

Answer: (D)

12. Capitalist society _______profit as a valued good.

(A) which regards

(B) regarding

(C) regards

(D) was regarded

Answer: (C)

13. Kicking the bucket is a humorous _____ for dying.

(A) dictum

(B) euphemism

(C) incantation

(D) addendum

Answer: (B)

14. Gupta _______his son for breaking the window pane.

(A) coerced

(B) relegated

(C) expropriated

(D) chastised

Answer: (D)

15. Diseases are easily ______ through contact with infected animals.

(A) transferred

(B) transported

(C) transmitted

(D) transplanted

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 16-20): Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the underlined idiom/phrase in the sentence.

16. He is a queer fish, I have failed to understand him.

(A) funny person

(B) sensitive person

(C) strange person

(D) quarrelsome person

Answer: (C)

17. He knew she was dead but was completely at sea about the cause of her death.

(A) anxious

(B) confused

(C) ignorant

(D) certain

Answer: (B)

18. It is clear that the ideas of both reformers ran in the same groove.

(A) promoted each other

(B) clashed with each other

(C) advanced in harmony

(D) moved in different directions

Answer: (A)

19. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbour’s affairs.

(A) got rebuked

(B) got himself insulted

(C) burnt himself

(D) got himself into trouble

Answer: (D)

20. When the police came, the thieves took to their heels.

(A) were taken by surprise

(B) took flight

(C) took shelter in a tall building

(D) unconditionally surrendered

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 2l-25):  A word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt, Choose the correctly spelt word,,

21. 

(A) tariff

(B) tarriff

(C) tarif

(D) tarrif

Answer: (A)

22. 

(A) sattellite

(B) satellite

(C) sattelite

(D) satelite

Answer: (B)

23. 

(A) beligrent

(B) beligerent

(C) belligrent

(D) belligerent

Answer: (D)

24.

(A) bouquete

(B) bouquet

(C) boquet

(D) bouquette

Answer: (B)

25.

(A) aliennate

(B) allienate

(C) alienate

(D) alienatte

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 26-30): A sentence has been broken into four parts, Choose the part that has An error.

26.

(A) It was on that particular ill-fated

(B) voyage that a Lusitania was

(C) torpedoed by a rogue submarine

(D) and sunk with all hands.

Answer: (B)

27.

(A) One way route is

(B) a mean of

(C) reducing traffic

(D) in congested areas of Delhi.

Answer: (B)

28.

(A) Again, I always go to sea as a sailor,

(B) because they make a point of paying me

(C) for my trouble, whereas they never pay passengers

(D) the single penny that I ever heard of.

Answer: (B)

29.

(A) He was roused by a

(B) touch in the shoulder, and a

(C) request from the man with the keys to

(D) follow him into the office.

Answer: (B)

30.

(A) If you can’t change the environment

(B) and you won’t move, you will

(C) become a failure, just so tropical plants

(D) fail when transplanted to the Thar desert.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. 31-50): Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE-I

Urbanisation is a positive phenomenon provided the cities are able to harness its potential. A recently published UN-Habitat global report on human settlements shows that not many cities in developing countries such as India have managed to do this. Indian, cities struggle to manage the swelling numbers: they tend to have inadequate infrastructure, poor mobility, and a lack of affordable housing. The challenge they face is two fold-efforts to distribute growth across urban centers have been inadequate and the urban planning practices are outdated. Much attention is paid to mega cities, leaving the smaller cities largely unattended. Of the 5,161 urban centers, as the Eleventh Five Year Plan points out, only 1,500 have some form of plan to manage their growth. With quality of life suffering in the smaller cities, more people tend to move to the metros, burdening them further. Although, the need for developing small and medium-size towns was highlighted as early as 1988 by the first National Commission on Urbanisation, not much has happened on that front. As for the bigger cities, the additional attention and the presence of a master plan have not necessarily meant improvement.  Managing a city through a single unified master plan has railed to deliver. The reason for this, aside from poor implementation, is that the plans are  conceptually flawed. Indian cities are complex composites. Alongside the formal city exists a large and an equally important informal city inhabited by the poor. Even the formal city is composed of many parts such as the historical core, the colonial enclave, and new areas of post-independence growth. Notwithstanding these differences, the master plan tends to paint the city with a single brush, favouring the new formal areas and ignoring the informal. This has fragmented cities further and skewed development in favour of new areas. The recommendations in the UN-Habitat report do offer a way forward. The suggestion to implement the strategic spatial planning system should be immediately adopted. Unlike the master plan, such innovations recognize the intra-city differences better and help focus on priority aspects or areas. They should help eventually to- mitigate spatial inequalities, integrate infrastructure, and evolve compact city forms that will optimize travelling within the city. Simultaneously, the institutional framework for planning should be strengthened with an emphasis on people’s participation and regional networking. Earnest implementation and regular monitoring of the plans are equally vital for reaping the benefits of planning.

31. It is implied in the passage that

(A) cities in some of the developing countries such as India have not been able to reap the real benefits of urbanization due to lack of proper planning.

(B) urbanization is not a desirable phenomenon.

(C) urbanization offers the solution for all the problems that smaller cities face

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

32. What, according to the author, are the main components of a ‘formal city’?

(A) The historical core, the colonial enclave and the newly-developed areas.

(B) Pre-independence and post-independence areas.

(C) New city and old city.

(D) Planned city and the unplanned city.

Answer: (A)

33. Which one or more of the following factor is/are recommended by the UN-Habitat report as essential for planned urbanization and growth.

(1) The master plan proposed by the first National Commission on urbanization.

(2) The strategic spatial planning system.

(3) A strong institutional framework for planning, encouraging people’s participation.

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 3

Answer: (C)

34. The caption that aptly sums up the contents of this passage is

(A) challenges of urbanization-the strategic way forward.

(B) the phenomenon of urbanization-boon or bane?

(C) urbanization-a monster out of control

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

PASSAGE-II

The Genetic Engineering Approval committee’s recommendation that Bt brinjal be commercialize is a significant marker in the country’s slow and somewhat hesitant embrace of agri-biotechnology. The nod has come a full seven years after approval for the country’s first transgenic crop-Bt cotton. But Bt brinjal is the country’s first approved genetically modified (GM) food crop and the decision of the GEAC, the high-level committee under the union Ministry of Environment and Forests, may be read as an affirmation of a key principle. It is that transgenic seeds will be approved for commercialisation as long as they adhere to the bio safety and other requirements demanded by the regulatory process. This may well spur the process for clearance of other transgenic food crops at different stages of the regulatory and approval process. It is imperative that union Minister for Environment and Forests, who says he will study the GEAC’s recommendation in depth before giving a final stamp of approval, bases his decision solely on the body of scientific data culled from Bt brinjal trials. He should ignore the huge pressure from organizations that have no time for the scientific evidence while claiming to speak for the environment and the public. It is not just the ‘organic’ movement but also the pesticide industry lobby that is viscerally opposed to Bt crops, which acquire a pest-resistant character with the introduction of a gene derived from a common soil bacterium (bacillus thuringiensis), Introduced commercially in the United States in the mid-1990s, genetically modified crops have expanded substantially in recent years. An estimated 125 million hectares were under such cover in 2008 in25 countries, including China, Brazil, Egypt and Australia. Even in GM-phobic Europe, seveh countries, including Germany and Portugal, grow genetically modified maize commercially. It is nobody’s case that the massive spread of agro –biotechnology is proof of its safety. India’s regulatory process must continue to put transgenic plants through a battery of rigorous tests-for toxicity, allergen city, bio safety, agronomic worth, and so forth-before recommending commercial release, It is also important that the country addresses issues such as labelling GM products through an independent regulatory process that commands public confidence. Legislation must be speedily introduced to set up a National Biotechnology Regulatory Authority, as recommended in 2004 by a task force led by eminent agricultural scientist M.S. Swaminathan. In a country where agricultural productivity and food security are vital issues, agri-biotechnology holds great promise. We need to regulate its application, not allow it to be strangled by misconceived or motivated campaigns.

35. Which of the following statements pertaining to Bt brinjal is not implied in the passage?

(A) It is the country’s first transgenic food crop.

(B) GEAC has approved its commercialization.

(C) Its approval process by GEAC took seven years.

(D) Its approval for commercialization could trigger off the approvals for several other transgenic food crops by GEAC.

Answer: (C)

36. Which of the following captions is most apt for this passage?

(A) Agri-Biotechnology: Signifies the dawn of a new era in food crops.

(B) The coming of age of Agri-Biotechnology in India.

(C) GEAC-rendering yeoman service in the area of Agri-Biotechnology.

(D) Agri-Biotechnology: a global phenomenon.

Answer: (A)

37. Which country or group of countries is/are generally averse to the concept of genetically modified foods as Per the Passage?

(1) India        (2) Europe

(3) U.S.A.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 only

(C) 2 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (B)

38. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(A) Certain sections in India’ are opposed to the concept of agri-biotechnology due to vested interests.

(B) Agri-Biotechnology holds great promise for India where agricultural productivity and food security are vital issues.

(C) India has begun to give agri-biotechnology its due importance lately.

(D) European countries have collectively shunned agri-biotechnology in toto.

Answer: (D)

PASSAGE-III

A leading Indian industrialist in a recent article on ways to strengthen India’s economy has drawn attention to the problems of inflation and industrial sickness among other things. One of the main reasons for industrial sickness in our country has been the fact that business and industrial managers, have not been able to look beyond the immediate future. They have been too preoccupied with their attempts to report favourable results for the current year higher profits and larger dividends to the share holders. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years. Investments have been inadequate for new plants and towards diversification and expansions. Modernisation and asset creation has seriously lagged behind. In business, growth is needed for survival; one has to grow if one does not want to be wiped out. This is particularly true today with liberalisation of imports and increasing competition. Moreover, growth and higher productivity create employment and higher employment creates larger markets both for industrial and consumer products. It was Henry Ford who brought home the need for the creation of a larger and a more stable middle class, that is, a larger number of people who can afford more and more of goods and services. Even after six decades of independence our industrialists have not been able to shed the petty shopkeeper’s mentality and our highly educated management has tagged along merrily and without concern.

39. Which of the following short comings of Indian industrialists has been highlighted by the author?

(A) They invest unreasonable high amount on diversification and expansion’

(B) They are more concerned for immediate net gains than for developmental activities.

(C) They are reluctant to maintain the shopkeepers’ mentality.

(D) They are less concerned forpayment of dividends to shareholders.

Answer: (B)

40. The leading industrialist attributes industrial sickness mainly to

(A) lacunae in five-year plans.

(B) preoccupations of managers with matters unrelated to business.

(C) higher profits and larger dividends to shareholders.

(D) lack of foresight among managers.

Answer: (D)

41. The planning horizon has hardly ever exceeded five years implies

(A) planning should not be for a period of less than five years.

(B) the planning process is very time consuming.

(C) the planners are not inclined to think of future.

(D) five-year period to too short for successful implementation of plans.

Answer: (C)

42. In order to improve the condition of Indian industries, the industrialist should do all of the following except

(A) giving up the narrow mentality which very small shopkeepers generally have.

(B) striving to earn long term profits.

(C) encouraging competition from industrialists within the country and from abroad.

(D) resorting to long-term planning for industrial growth and expansion in diverse fields.

Answer: (A)

PASSAGE-IV

The public distribution system, which provides food at low prices, is a subject of vital concern. There is a growing realisation that though India has enough food to feed its masses two square meals a day, the monster of starvation and food insecurity continues to haunt the poor in our country. Increasing the purchasing power of the poor through providing productive employment leading to rising income, and thus good standard of living is the ultimate objective of public policy. However, till then, there is a need to provide assured supply of food through a restructured, more efficient and decentralised public distribution system (PDS). Although the PDS is extensive-it is one of the largest such systems in the world-it has yet to reach the rural poor and the far off places. It remains an urban phenomenon, with the majority of the rural poor still out of its reach due to lack of economic and physical access. The poorest in the cities and the migrants are left out, for they generally do not possess ration cards. The allocation of PDS supplies in big cities is larger than in rural areas. In view of such deficiencies in the system, the PDS urgently needs to be streamlined. Also, considering the large foodgrains production combined with food subsidy on one hand and the continuing slow starvation and dismal poverty of the rural population on the other, there is a strong case for making PDS target group oriented.

    The growing salaried class is provided job security, regular income, and social security. It enjoys almost hundred per cent insulation against inflation. These gains of development have not percolated down to the vast majority of our working population. If one compares only dearness allowance to the employees in public and private sector and looks at its growth in the past few years, the rising food subsidy is insignificant to the point of inequity. The food subsidy is a kind of D.A. to the poor, the self-employed and those in the unorganised sector of the economy. However, what is most unfortunate is that out of the large budget of the so called food subsidy, the major part of it is administrative cost and wastages. A small portion of the above budget goes to the real consumer and an even lesser portion to the poor who are in real need. It is true that subsidies should not become a permanent feature, except for the destitute, disabled widows and the old. It is also true that subsidies often create a psychology of dependence and hence is habit-forming, killing the general initiative of the people. By making PDS target group oriented, not only the poorest and neediest would be reached without additional cost, but it will actually cut overall costs incurred on large cities and for better off localities. When the food and food subsidy are limited, the rural and urban poor should have the priority in the PDS supplies. The PDS should be closely linked with programmes of employment generation and nutrition improvement.

43. Which of the following is the main reason for insufficient supply of enough food to the poorest?

(A) Mismanagement of foodstocks.

(B) Absence of proper public distribution system.

(C) Production of food is less than the demand.

(D) Government’s apathy towards the poor.

Answer: (B)

44. What, according to the passage, is the main purpose of public policy in the long run?

(A) Reducing the cost of living index by increasing supplies.

(B) Providing enough food to all the citizens.

(C) Good standard of living through productive employment.

(D) Equalizing per capita income across different strata of society.

Answer: (C)

45. Which of the following is true of public distribution system?

(A) It has improved its effectiveness over the years.

(B) It has remained effective only in the cities.

(C) It is unique in the world because of its effectiveness.

(D) It has reached the remotest corner of the country.

Answer: (B)

46. What should be an appropriate step to make the PDS effective?

(A) To make it target group oriented.

(B) To increase the amount of foodgrains per ration card.

(C) To decrease the allotment of foodgrains to urban sector.

(D) To reduce administrative cost.

Answer: (A)

PASSAGE-V

Educational planning should aim at meeting the educational needs of the entire population of all age groups. While the traditional structure of education as a three layer hierarchy from the primary stage to the university represents the core, we should not overlook the periphery which is equally important. Under modern conditions, workers need to rewind, or renew their enthusiasm, or strike out in a new direction, or improve their skills as much as any university professor. The retired and the aged have their needs as well. Educational planning, in their words, should take care of the needs of everyone. Our structures of education have been built up on the assumption that there is a terminal point to education. This basic defect has become all the more harmful today. A UNESCO report entitled ‘Learning to Be’ prepared by Edgar Faure and others, asserts that the education of children must prepare the future adult for various forms of self-learning. A viable education system of the future should consist of modules with different kinds of functions serving a diversity of constituents. And performance, not the period of study, should be the basis for credentials. The writing is already on the wall. In view of the fact that the significance of a commitment of lifelong learning and lifetime education is being discussed only in recent years even in educationally advanced countries, the possibility of the idea becoming an integral part of educational thinking seems to be a far cry. For, to move in that direction means such more than some simple rearrangement of the present organisation of education. But a good beginning can be made by developing open university programmes for older learners of different categories and introducing extension services in the conventional colleges and schools. Also these institutions should learn to cooperate with the numerous community organisations such as libraries, museums, municipal recreational programmes, health services etc.

47. According to the passage, the present education structures assume which of the following?

(A) All people can be educated as per their needs.

(B) Present educational planning is very much practical.

(C) Education is a one time process.

(D) Simple rearrangement of the present educational system is a must.

Answer: (C)

48. What should be the major characteristic of the future educational system?

(A) Different modules with same function.

(B) Same module for different groups.

(C) Rearrangement of various course contents.

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

49. According to the author, educational plan should attempt to

(A) encourage conventional schools and colleges.

(B) decide a terminal point to education.

(C) overlook the people on the periphery.

(D) fulfil the educational needs of everyone.

Answer: (D)

50. According to the author, what measures should open university adopt to meet modern conditions?

(A) Develop various programmes for adult learners.

(B) Open more colleges on traditional lines.

(C) Cater to the needs of those who represent ‘core’.

(D) Primary education should be under the control of open universities.

Answer: (A)

51. A train passes a man standing on the platform in 9 seconds and passes the platform completely in 33 seconds. If the length of the platform is 288 metres, what is the length of the train?

(A) 105 m

(B) 108 m

(C) 111 m

(D) 114 m

Answer: (B)

52. Two men A and B walk from P to a at a distance of 21 km at rates 3 and 4 km an hour, respectively. B reaches a and returns immediately and meets A at R. The distance from P to R is

(A) 14 km

(B) 20 km

(C) 16 km

(D) 18 km

Answer: (D)

53. Divide Rs 671 among A, B, C such that if their shares be increased by Rs 3, Rs 7 and Rs 9 respectively, the remainder shall be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.

(A) Rs 105, Rs 223 and Rs 330

(B) Rs 112, Rs 223 and Rs 336

(C) Rs 110, Rs 225 and Rs 336

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

54. A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 3% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 300 more. The sum is

(A) Rs 5000

(B) Rs 5400

(C) Rs 5300

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

55. A sum of Rs 1550 was lent partly at 5% and partly at 8% per annum simple interest. The total interest received after 3 years was Rs 300. The ratio of money lent at 5% to that lent at 8% is

(A) 31 : 6

(B) 8 : 5

(C) 5 : 8

(D) 16 : 15

Answer: (D)

56. A man buys a house for Rs 5 lakhs and rents it. He puts  of each month’s rent a side for repairs, pays Rs 1660 as annual taxes and realizes 10% on his investments thereafter. The monthly rent of the house is

(A) Rs 2460

(B) Rs 2500

(C) Rs 4920

(D) Rs 5000

Answer: (C)

57. If 1 is added to the denominator of a fraction, the fraction becomes 1/2. If 1 is added to the numerator, the fraction becomes 1. The fraction is

(A) 4/7

(B) 5/9

(C) 2/3

(D) 10/11

Answer: (C)

58. A number when divided by a certain divisor gives remainder 241, when twice the number was divided by the same divisor, the remainder was 112. What will be the divisor?

(A) 370

(B) 365

(C) 380

(D) 456

Answer: (A)

59. In which of the following pairs of numbers it is true that their sum is 11 times their product?

(A) 1, 1/11

(B) 1, 1/10

(C) 1, 1/12

(D) 1, 10

Answer: (B)

60. 

(A) 13/17

(B) 68/13

(C) 17/13

(D) 13/68

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 6l and 62): Read the following information to answer these questions.

(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting along

a circle facing the centre.

(ii) P is between V and S.

(iii) R, who is 2nd to the right of S, is between

(iv) Q is not the neighbour of T.

61. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(A) V is between P and S.

(B) S is 2nd to the left of V.

(C) R is third to the left of P.

(D) P is to the immediate left of S.

Answer: (D)

62. What is the position of T?

(A) Between R and V

(B) To the immediate left of V

(C) 2nd to the left of R

(D) 2nd to the left of Q

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 63-66): Complete the series by replacing ‘?’.

63. RADIO → UCHKT :: AUDIO → ‘?’

(A) CVHKT

(B) BWHKT

(C) DXHKT

(D) DWHKT

Answer: (D)

64. R → 36, RAT → 78 :: FAN → ‘?’

(A) 21

(B) 36

(C) 50

(D) 42

Answer: (D)

65. 3, 11, 23, 39 ‘?’

(A) 58

(B) 59

(C) 60

(D) 61

Answer: (B)

66. R, O, L, I, F, ‘?’, Z

(A) A

(B) C

(C) E

(D) I

Answer: (B)

67. Tendulkar hits a ball towards North in a one day international cricket match between India and Pakistan. A Pakistani fielder, Shahid Afridi comes straight from East to field the ball. Which direction does Shahid Afridi come from, to field the ball?

(A) South

(B) North

(C) West

(D) East

Answer: (D)

68. If North-West becomes West and South-East becomes East. North-East becomes North and all other directions are changed in a similar manner, then what will be the direction of South?

(A) South-West

(B) South-East

(C) North-East

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

69. Mohan is the son of Arun’s father’s sister. Prakash is the son of Reva, who is the mother of Vikas and grandmother of Arun. Pranab is the father of Neela and the grandfather of Mohan. Reva is the wife of Pranab. How is the wife of Vikas related to Neela?

(A) Sister

(B) Sister-in-law

(C) Niece

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

70. Introducing Shyam, a lady said, “The father of his father-in-law is my father-in-law”. How is Shyam related to the lady?

(A) Son

(B) Husband

(C) Son-in-law

(D) Father

Answer: (C)

71. Which of the following, combinations of circles best represents athletes, sprinters and marathon runners?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

72. There are 50 students ‘admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. Ten students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English respectively?

(A) 39, 29 and 11

(B) 37, 27 and 13

(C) 28, 18 and 22

(D) 21, 11 and 29

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 73 and 74): There are two pairs, the first pair follows some relationship. Use the same relationship to find the second analogy of the second pair.

73. Rectangle : Pentagon ::

(A) Triangle : Rectangle

(B) Diagonal : Perimeter

(C) Side : Angle

(D) Circle : Square

Answer: (A)

74. Simmer : Boil ::

(A) Glide : Drift

(B) Drizzle : Downpour

(C) Gambol : Play

(D) Stagnate : Flow

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 75-77): Complete the given series of figures by replacing ‘?’ from the answer figures.

75. 

Answer: (D)

76. 

Answer: (B)

77.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 78-83): Each of these questions consists of a problem followed by two statements numbered as I and II. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark answer as

(A) if statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) if both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.

(D) if statements I and II together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question.

78. Who types at a faster rate, Navin or Sapan?

(I) The difference between their typing rates is 10 words per minute.

(II) Sapan types at a constant rate of 80 words per minute.

Answer: (D)

79. In a certain packing house, grapefruit are packed in bags and the bags are packed in cases. How many grapefruit are in, each case that is packed?

(I) The grapefruit are always packed 5 to a bag and the bags are always packed 8 to a case.

(II) Each case is always 80 per cent full.

Answer: (A)

80. For a certain bottle and cork, what is the price of the cork?

(I) The combined price of the bottle and the cork is Rs 95.

(II) The price of the bottle is Rs 75 more than the price of the cork.

Answer: (C)

81. If John is exactly 4 years older than Sunita, how old is John?

(I) Exactly 9 years ago John was 5 times as old as Sunita was then.

(II) Sunita is more than g years old.

Answer: (A)

82. Ram and Esha are in a line to purchase tickets. How many people are in the line?

(I) There are 20 people behind Ram and 20 people in front of Esha.

(II) There are 5 people between Ram and Esha.

Answer: (C)

83. If x and y are positive integers and x is a multiple of y, is y = 2?

(I) y ≠ 1

(II) x + 2 is a multiple of y.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 84 and 85): Each of these questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments numbered as I and II. Decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ or ‘not strong’ from the statement. Mark answer as

(A) if only argument I is strong.

(B) if only argument II is strong.

(C) if neither argument I nor II is strong.

(D) if both arguments I and II are strong.

84. Statement: Should young entrepreneurs be encouraged?

Arguments: (I) Yes, they will help in the industrial development in the country.

(II) Yes, they will reduce the burden on the employment market.

Answer: (D)

85. Statement: Should children be prevented completely from watching the television?

Arguments: (I) No, we get vital information regarding education through television.

(II) Yes, it hampers the study of children.

Answer: (A)

86. ‘Android’ a Linux based operating system used in mobiles created by which company?

(A) Oracle

(B) Apple

(C) Google

(D) Microsoft

Answer: (C)

87. Who won the “CEAT International Cricketer” award of the year 20ll-2012?

(A) Hashim Amla

(B) Virat Kohli

(C) Mike Hussey

(D) Alastair Cook

Answer: (B)

88. ‘D’Dcor’ the well-known international brand in fabrics and textures is endorsed by which Bollywood couple?

(A) Sanjay Dutt – Manyata

(B) Shah Rukh Khan – Gauri

(C) Saif Ali Khan – Kareena Kapoor

(D) Abhishek Bachchan – Aishwarya Rai

Answer: (B)

89. Who is named the ‘Male Athlete of The Year’ in November 2012 by International Amateur Athletics Federation?

(A) Usain Bolt

(B) Allyson Felix

(C) Lionel Messi

(D) Ryan Bailey

Answer: (A)

90. The ‘croma’, well-known Indian Electronics Megastore belongs to which enterprise?

(A) Tata Group

(B) Reliance Ind

(C) HCL Technologies

(D) Bharti Enterprises

Answer: (A)

91. Which of the following is correct about the Reliance Retail Chain?

(1) Reliance-digital  (2) Reliance-fresh

(3) Reliance-supper (4) Reliance-mart

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

92. ‘Runway’ lines of high fashion garments unveiled by which well-known Indian textile brand

(A) Raymond Group

(B) Monte Carlo

(C) Digjam Ltd

(D) Max Fashion

Answer: (D)

93. How many Textile Exports Promotion Councils work in cooperation with Government of India?

(A) 11

(B) 15

(C) 20

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

94. Indian Woolen Industries import raw wool mainly from which country?

(A) New Zealand

(B) Pakistan

(C) Turkey

(D) Australia

Answer: (D)

95. _______ is called ‘Golden Fibre’ in Indian textile industry.

(A) Cotton

(B) Silk

(C) Jute

(D) Wool

Answer: (C)

96. Which Indian apparel firm opened the first flagship ‘Being Human’ store in Mumbai in January 2013?

(A) Century Mills

(B) Arvind Mills

(C) Madhana Ind

(D) Reliance Ind

Answer: (C)

97. Which Indian automobile manufacturer company partnered with Snapdeal.com the online market place for selling its two-wheelers?

(A) Bajaj

(B) Mahindra

(C) Hero

(D) TVS

Answer: (B)

98. ‘Adidas Group’, the international sports goods manufacturer is from

(A) Germany

(B) USA

(C) Italy

(D) Spain

Answer: (A)

99. ‘Reid & Taylor’, the leading luxury suiting brand of India belongs to which textile industry?

(A) OCM

(B) S. Kumar

(C) Raymond

(D) Reliance

Answer: (B)

100. Tamil song “Pi’s Lullaby…”, from the film ‘The Life of Pi’ nominated for the Oscar 2013 award in music (original song) category is sung by

(A) Mychael Dana

(B) Jayashree Ramnath

(C) A. R. Rehman

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

101. Which state has won the ‘Krishi Karman Award 2012’ for the highest production of foodgrains?

(A) Punjab

(B) Bihar

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (C)

102. Who among the following Indian athletes has won back-to-back medals at the Olympic Games?

(A) Vijay Kumar

(B) Vijender Singh

(C) Sushil Kumar

(D) Saina Nehwal

Answer: (C)

103. ______ is the first Chinese citizen who won the Nobel Prize in Literature for 2012.

(A) Mo Yan

(B) Xi Jinping

(C) Zhang Ping

(D) Hu Jintao

Answer: (A)

104. Who won the ICC twenty 20 cricket world cup in 20t2?

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) West Indies

(C) England

(D) India

Answer: (B)

105. Which of the following is/are the Textile Research Associations (TRAs) financially supported by Ministry of Textiles?

(1) Wool Research Association (WRA)

(2) Man Made Textiles Researcher Association (MAITTRA)

(3) Bombay Textiles Research Association (BTRA)

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

106. The musical label launched by legendary singer Lata Mangeshkar to promote non-film music is

(A) LM Music

(B) NF Music

(C) ML Music

(D) LMD Music

Answer: (A)

107. Who won the best male actor award in 70th annual Golden :Globe Awards organized in January 2013?

(A) Sacha Baron Cohen

(B) Daniel Day Lewis

(C) Huge Jackman

(D) Jason Bateman

Answer: (B)

108. __________has been named as the Flying Sikh of India.

(A) Ajit Pal Singh

(B) Milkha Singh

(C) Joginder Singh

(D) Mohinder Singh

Answer: (B)

109. ______ is the southernmost tip of republic of India.

(A) Cape Comorin

(B) Indira Point

(C) Point Calimere

(D) Kovalam

Answer: (B)

110. Which newspaper was started by Lokmanya , Balgangadhar Tilak to serve the cause of India’s freedom struggle?

(A) Kesari

(B) Gadar

(C) Free Hindustan

(D) Swadesh Mitra

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 111-113): Each of these questions consists of two statements followed by two conclusions numbered as I and II respectively. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements.

Mark answer as

(A) if only conclusion I follows

(B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(D) if both conclusions I and II follow

111. Statement:

(I) Some players are singers.

(II) All singers are tall.

Conclusions:

(I) Some players are tall.

(II) All players are tall.

Answer: (A)

112. Statements:

(I) All stones are water.

(II) Some water are clean.

Conclusions:

(I) Some water are stones.

(II) All clear are water.

Answer: (B)

113. Statements:

(I) Some scooters are trucks.

(II) All trucks are trains.

Conclusions:

(I) Some scooters are trains.

(II) No truck is a scooter.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 114-116): Each of these questions, given below consists of a statement followed by two assumptions numbered as I and II. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement and then decide which of the answers is correct.

Mark answer as

(A) if only assumption I is implicit

(B) if only assumption II is implicit

(C) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit

(D) if both assumptions I and II are implicit

114. Statement:

Most people who stop smoking gain weight.

Assumptions:

(I) If one stops smoking, one will gain weight.

(II) If one does not stop smoking, one will not gain weight.

Answer: (A)

115. Statement:

Postal rates have been increased to meet the deficit.

Assumptions:

(I) The present rates are very low.

(II) If the rates are not increased, the deficit cannot be met.

Answer: (B)

116. Statement:

Warning: Smoking is injurious to health.

Assumptions:

(I) Non-smoking promotes health.

(II) Really, this warning is not necessary.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 117 and 118): Each of these questions consists of a statement followed by three assumptions numbered as I, II and III. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement and then decide which c1″ the answers is correct.

117. Statement:

The company has decided to increase the price of all its products to tackle the precarious financial position.

Assumption:

(I) The company may be able to wipe out the entire losses incurred earlier by this decision.

(II) The buyer may continue to buy its products even after the increase.

(III) The company has adequate resources to continue production for few more months.

(A) None is implicit

(B) II and III are implicit

(C) I and II are implicit

(D) Only II is implicit

Answer: (C)

118. Statement:

The State Government has unilaterally increased octroi by five per cent on all commodities entering into the State without seeking approval of the Central Government.

Assumptions:

(I) The State Government may be able to implements its decision.

(II) The Central Government may agree to support the State Government’s decision.

(III) The State Government may be able to earn considerable amount through the additional octroi.

(A) All are implicit

(B) I and II are implicit

(C) None is implicit

(D) II and III are implicit

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 119-133): Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding passage. Evaluate each statement and mark answer as

(A) if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker.

(B) if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.

(C) if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.

(D) if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision i a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.

PASSAGE-I

High inflation, rising gold prices and a recovery in the stock market took the sheen out of bank deposits that saw stagnant growth in the first nine months of 2012, even as banks offered high interest rates on fixed deposits. Total deposits (including savings, current and fixed deposits) with commercial banks in India grew by 13% to Rs 16,63,300 crore at the end of September 2012 according to the Reserve Bank of India data. This was not more than a similar l3Vo growth rate at Rs 14,81,170 crore at the end of September 2011 against Rs 13,11,860 crore at the end of January 2011. Wholesale price index-based inflation, which has been hovering around 8% in 2012, has made bank deposits less attractive, say experts. “High inflation has made bank fixed deposits less attractive for investors,” said Vishal Dhawan, founder, Plan Ahead Wealth Advisors. “Whenever inflation is high, investors move towards assets such as gold and real estate, which beat inflation.” Gold rose from Rs 27, 322 per 10 grams on January 2, 2012 to Rs 31,223 at the end of September, registering a growth of approximately 15%. Banks are offering up to 9.5% interest on fixed deposits and 4% on saving deposits (except some mid-sized banks that offer better rates). Driven by strong inflow from foreign institutional investors (FIIs), the benchmark Sensex of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) rose 21% in the first nine months of 2012. The index started 2011 at 15,517 points and ended at 18,763 on September 28, showing a gain of 3,245 points. “Many investors were attracted to the stock market this year because of its better performance,” said a senior executive of a public sector bank. When inflation is high, individuals tend to pre-pay home loans by taking money out of their savings. Apart from EMIs (equated monthly installments) taking away saving funds, higher interest rates in corporate bonds, or mutual funds that have underlying bonds, also ‘make bank deposits less attractive.

119. Controlling the rising inflation in the country.

Answer: (A)

120. The inflation is as high as 8%.

Answer: (B)

121. Banks are offering 4% interest on saving deposits.

Answer: (C)

122. There was a strong inflow from Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs).

Answer: (D)

123. Investors move towards assets such as gold and real estate.

Answer: (D)

PASSAGE-II

A slowing economy, rising fuel prices and high taxes hit Indian aviation in 2012. Strikes at Air India and a bleeding Kingfisher added to the heat because foreign airlines would not pick up stakes in cash-strapped Indian carriers  unless steps are taken to stem high costs of aviation operations in India,  International Air Transport Association (IATA) chief Tony Tyler said. “No I don’t think it (allowing foreign airlines to invest in Indian carriers) is a game changer but it is a good thing,” said Tyler. “But it will not solve the problems of Indian aviation. It is a step in the right direction but not the panacea that some believe it is.” “As long as high taxes prevail, high airport costs and congestion, and poorly developed air navigation (services) means more congestion, high cost of operations exist, you are not going to get a lot of people to invest in airlines,” the director-general and CEO of IATA said. Observing that there were restrictions on investing in airlines around the world, which was “a problem for the industry”, Tyler said “any” move that we see in liberalizing is a good thing.” “But unless conditions in India are improved for airlines, you are not going to see a flood of foreign carriers coming into the industry, Because foreign capital needs a return just as anywhere else.” he added.

124. Foreign capital should be invested in Indian aviation.

Answer: (A)

125. There is a slowing Indian economy.

Answer: (B)

126. There were strikes at Air India.

Answer: (B)

127. Foreign airlines would pick up stakes in Indian carriers.

Answer: (D)

128. There is a poorly developed air navigation leading to more congestion.

Answer: (C)

PASSAGE-III

Wipro Consumer Care and Lighting, part of Wipro, plans to enter body lotions and shampoo categories with its flagship brand Santoor. “While the category is highly competitive, there is a lot of headroom to grow as penetration level is significantly lower in India compared to other markets,” according to the president at Wipro consumer care. The company started test marketing the hair care and body lotion products recently. Wipro Consumer, which recorded a 17% increase in its revenues in the third quarter and ended December at Rs 1,028 crore, also expects half of its total sales to come from international business with the addition of Singapore-based FMCG firm LD Waxsons. At present, international operations contribute 40-45% to its revenues. Wipro consumer acquired LD Waxsons for about $144 million (approx. Rs 775 crore). During the third quarter, its Indonesia and vietnam businesses grew 26% and 24%, respectively, while china and Middle East grew by 32%. The Santoor brand has been growing over 20% in the last few quarters. It is the third largest soap brand in the country after Hindustan Unilever’s Lifebuoy and Lux and has market leadership in south and western India. Last month, it became the top brand in states such as Maharashtra, Karnataka and Gujarat. However, it’s a huge task for Wipro to replicate a similar feat in the Rs 4,500-crore shampoo market, where HUL is by far the leader with over 50vo market share. Also, margins have moderated in the past on account of promotions and ad spends, says a recent report by JP Morgan. Hence, companies such as Procter & Gamble & L’Oreal, are introducing various premium products like hair treatments, serums, hair masks, hair conditioners to help support margin profile for their hair care portfolio.

129. Expanding in the body lotion and shampoo category is easier due to low penetration levels in India.

Answer: (B)

130. Santoor is an established brand in certain markets and hence it will be easier to grow.

Answer: (D)

131. Margins in the shampoo market are decreasing due to increasing promotion and ad spends.

Answer: (C)

132. Ensuring growth in international markets through the Waxsons acquisition.

Answer: (D)

133. Significant growth in the international businesses of the company.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 134-138):  Each of these questions has a, text portion followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option’ that best captures the essence of the text.

134. If there are shortcomings in you, do not try to conceal them; if they are revealed before others, allow them to be thoroughly revealed. But certainly attempt to hide your virtues. Feel abashed through humility when your virtues are revealed before others. Avoid advertising your own virtues. If you can’t restrain yourself from looking at others, try to see only their virtues, their good deeds, their good disposition and manners.

(A) Blowing one’s own trumpet amounts to shamelessness.

(B) Always look for plus points of a person.

(C) Being open about our shortcomings gives us a chance to improve.

(D) Humility is the finest virtue of human beings.

Answer: (C)

135. Auditors are called the conscience keepers of society. Every time there is a scam in the corporate world, auditor’s role comes under the scanner. Society expects that once a financial statement has been certified by an auditor, the latter is liable for it. And the auditor believes that once he has carried out his duties as per parameters, he need not go beyond that. The need of the hour is to hold them accountable for their actions.

(A) Auditor’s job is to verify the company’s accounts as per parameters.

(B) Auditors are not responsible for financial bungling in company’s accounts if any vital information is concealed by the management.

(C) Whenever any scam surfaces, auditors role comes under scan.

(D) It is high time that auditors’ role is redefined to make them accountable along with that of management.

Answer: (C)

136. India is no doubt the world’s largest democracy but it is increasingly distorted, inequitable and ugly one. Democracy has now become a venal mobocracy where majoritarianism money and muscle power have hijacked the system. Two of the sacred institutional cows that were perceived to have been untouched-the military and media-are both now under the scanner for succumbing to this scourge of corruption and nepotism.

(A) India is world’s largest democracy.

(B) Corruption and favouritism have pervaded in each and every field of society.

(C) Our democracy is ailing from multiple  problems like ochlocracy, corruption and muscle power.

(D) Rot has seeped into institutions like press and defense.

Answer: (C)

137. The world is not crying for men of talent or “larger brains”. What the world needs is men of action, men who do not wait for opportunity but create their own opportunity right where they stand. It is not the dreamers that move our civilization forward; it is the doers. Ideas alone are of little value until they are followed by action.

(A) Being visionary alone is not enough, it is equally important to translate that vision into reality.

(B) There is no death of dreamers; doers are in short supply.

(C) History is always made by the action oriented people.

(D) A man who believes in action can find opportunity wherever he goes.

Answer: (A)

138. Childhood obesity is no longer laughing matter, nor is a fat kid cute. Childhood obesity is linked to serious health problems like juvenile diabetes, thickened artery walls hypertension and high cholesterol. Unhealthy eating habits and lack of exercise are the main causes of obesity in children. Sometimes the cause can be hormonal disturbance or genetic too. Diet control and exercise can help in controlling obesity in children.

(A) Obesity in children has to be taken seriously to avoid adverse effect on their health.

(B) Juvenile diabetes has its root in childhood obesity.

(C) The problem of obesity in children can be environmental or genetic.

(D) Obesity can be controlled by changing lifestyle and exercise.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Qs. 139-150): Below are given four business situations. Each situation is followed by three inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the situation. Examine each inference separately in the context of the situation and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer as

(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ , i.e., it properly follows from the statements of facts given.

(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’, though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.

(C) if the ‘data is inadequate’ , i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

(D) if the inference is ‘definitely false,’ i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

SITUATION-I

urban lifestyles, fast foods, changing diet patterns, lack of exercise; obesity and smoking are responsible for increase in the incidence of diabetes, heart attacks and cancer. Research has also shown that modern cooking oils have an unhealthy ratio of harmful fatty acids to essential fatty acids which contribute to free radical attacks and increase insulin resistance. Ghee, coconut oil and mustard oil have a healthy ratio of fatty acids. Their use in rural India, coupled with a traditional high fibre diet and physical exercise, probably account for the lower incidence of diabetes and heart attacks in the rural population, the study reveals.

139. Rural people should not migrate to urban cities if they value their health.

Answer: (B)

140. Most of the rural population is healthy and free of diseases,

Answer: (A)

141. The increase in diseases like diabetes, heart attacks, etc., is controllable by taking proper measures.

Answer: (A)

SITUATION-II

Despite the vast untapped expert potential, the funding of sericulture development in the country has been found to be a very major stumbling block. Therefore, it is necessary that a scheme for providing free flow of credit to alt those who are engaged in sericulture including silk weaving may be drawn up. Further, taking into account the emerging trends to the Indian silk Industry from Global players like Korea and China and also serious challenges are posed by the ongoing changes in the multi fibre agreement and complete integration with GATT, it is necessary to formulate a new national silk policy. Another working group has to be constituted to evolve a long term import and export policy.

142. The formulation and implementation of long term import and export policy will only help Indian Silk Industry.

Answer: (A)

143. Extending free flow of credit may help Indian Silk Industry in some way.

Answer: (B)

144. silk Industry in china and Korea are totally supported by respective governments.

Answer: (D)

SITUATION-III

Economic liberalization and globalization have put on Indian Industry , particularly on service sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs with high speed organizations have to complete with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognize that developing countries like India are already behind other countries technologically, in many areas, although some of them, particularly Indian, boast of huge scientific and technical manpower. In addition to this, if any entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of time, money and energy in dealing with unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can have a significant dampening

effect on business.

145. Foreign companies more occupied than domestic companies to provide quality service in good time.

Answer: (C)

146. Official formalities are less lumbersome in almost all the countries except India.

Answer: (A)

147. Indian service Indian was more comfortable before economic liberalization

Answer: (B)

SITUATION-IV

One of the promising feature of the current market is that domestic institution seems to have termed buyers after a very long time. They have been net buyers this month with inflows exceeding’ 80 crore till early this month. That’s admittedly a small amount, but its significance lies in the fact that Domestic, Institutions have been net sellers every month’ this financial year except in Sept. when their net purchase amounted to 2964 crore, which has subsequently offset the net inflows of 3187 crore by FIIs. The net purchase by Domestic Institutions could indicate that money is once again flowing to equity funds eager nor to miss the widely expected rally part of this reason could be a shift on Investor Portfolios, as people lighten up on debt and put that money into equity.

148. Domestic Institutions have been consistently selling only in all the months in this financial year.

Answer: (A)

149. FIIs bought more than what was sold by Domestic Institutions this financial year.

Answer: (B)

150. The activities in equity market have direct relationship with debt market.

Answer: (B)

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