National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2010
General Ability Test
Directions (Qs. 1 to 30): Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions put there on.
PASSAGE I
Some people think that “Silence is Golden”. Words they must use, but they have no love for them. Speech is to them a danger, a device for entagling men. They feel that all may be understood so long as nothing is said; that only in silence can reach out to mind and the heart be known. In the exchange of words their personalities do not expand but contract; they see the lovely procession of thought and feeling turn into a dusty and disorderly crowd of words and phrases. They see the talkers with mingled fear and contempt, stripping themselves in public, like exhibitionists. The talkers cannot understand the silent; nor can the silent explain their attitude, except in speech. This illuminates the weakness of their belief, that they must convince us of the uselessness of speech by means of speech.
1. The central idea of the passage is
(A) Silence is Golden
(B) The Silent do not like Talkers
(C) Speech is Dangerous
(D) The Silent Wrongly Believe that Speech is Dangerous
2. The silent look upon speech
(A) with passion
(B) with defiance
(C) with fear
(D) as a device to entangle men
3. One weakness of the attitude of the silent is
(A) they can confuse people
(B) their words are disorderly
(C) they can’t practice what they preach
(D) their personalities shrink
4. Special meaning of silence according to the passage is
(A) silence preserves energy
(B) silence contracts personality
(C) silence is natural
(D) there can be communion between mind and heart only when a person is silent
5. An appropriate title for the passage is
(A) The Silent
(B) The Speakers
(C) Wrong Belief of The Silent
(D) Silence is Golden
PASSAGE II
Chumley was a full-grown chimpanzee; his owner, a district officer, was finding the ape’s large size rather awkward, and he wanted to send him to London Zoo as a present, so that he could visit the animal when he was back in England on leave. He wrote asking us if we would mind taking Chumley back with us when we left, and depositing him at his new home in London
and we replied that we would not mind at all. I don’t think that either John or myself had the least idea how big Chumley was; I know that I visualized
an ape which was about three years old, standing about three feet high. I got a rude shock when Chumley moved in.
6. The author
(A) was sure that the animal was very strong
(B) never thought about the animal for a moment
(C) knew that the animal was small and delicate
(D) was in the dark about the animal’s size
7. The district officer wanted to visit Chumley when
(A) he felt awkward
(B) he went home on leave
(C) the animal fell sick
(D) he had no one else to call on
8. To the district officer’s proposal, the author
(A) replied in the affirmative
(B) gave a vague reaction
(C) expressed disagreement
(D) agreed reluctantly
9. Chumley’s appearance gave the author a shock because of
(A) its ungainly shape
(B) its large proportions
(C) its unkempt looks
(D) its menacing movement
10. Chumley was
(A) an inmate of London Zoo
(B) a wild ape living in the forest
(C) a pet of a district officer
(D) a domestic help
PASSAGE III
This workshop of Edison’s was an astonishingly busy centre of industry as far as activity and hours of labour were concerned. Edison never asked his men to do anything that he would not do himself; his one order was ‘follow me’ and that meant working with him through endless hours. It is said that on one occasion he even locked himself and his men in, until a difficult piece of work was done-sixty hours on end. Generally the men were employed on piece-work and the longer and the more skilfully they worked the more they earned.
11. According to the passage, Edison’s workshop
(A) was marked by din and squalor
(B) remained often closed owing to lack of orders
(C) was affected by labour unrest
(D) was a scene of intense activity
12. Following Edison would mean
(A) working by fits and starts
(B) working without thoughts of safety
(C) working without interruption
(D) working will fully
13. The men earned more when they worked longer, since
(A) they were regular employees
(B) they were paid on the basis of their output
(C) they were highly skilled
(D) they were not bound by any rules
14. Edison never asked his workers
(A) to carry out things he would rather do himself
(B) to do things he would not do himself
(C) to give up a piece of work when it was easy
(D) to work at a stretch if necessary
15. Edison once locked himself and others in , because
(A) he thought it unsafe to go outside
(B) he had lost the key to the workshop entrance
(C) he wished to explain some difficult operations to the workers
(D) he wanted to get a certain job completed
PASSAGE IV
Experiments with the Sulphonamides have made clear a fact about germs which is gaining increasing importance in fighting them. Germs, it seems, have the same ability as all the other living things gradually to change themselves to suit new conditions. But, as the generation of germs lasts only twenty, twenty-five or thirty minutes, before all the germs divide to form new ones, changes that would take many years in animals can be achieved by germs in a few hours. Perhaps, then you give the attacking germ a dose of Sulphonamides which upsets them somewhat but is not strong enough to prevent them from multiplying; if so, they very rapidly develop new powers which enable them to resist the effects of the drug. After this, has happened, even the strongest dose will fail to disturb them.
16. Since germs can change themselves to suit new conditions, the task of fighting them has become
(A) much easier
(B) much more difficult
(C) absolutely impossible
(D) increasingly important
17. One generation of germs expires, bringing into existence the next generation
(A) in a few hours
(B) in twenty minutes
(C) in twenty-five minutes
(D) in not more than half an hour
18. Like all other living things, germs can change themselves to suit new conditions. This adjustment is possible because the germs have
(A) the power of adaptability
(B) the power of adoptability
(C) the power of compliance
(D) the power of fluctuation
19. Germs which are not disturbed even by the strongest possible dose of the Sulphonamides are said to have become.
(A) immune
(B) immortal
(C) immobile
(D) improvised
20. Experiments with Sulphonamides have led to the important discovery that
(A) germs are living things, and can change themselves to suit new conditions
(B) one generation of germs lasts only twenty, twenty-five or thirty minutes
(C) germs can adjust themselves to live and multiply in new conditions
(D) germs are not disturbed even by the strongest possible dose of Sulphonamides
PASSAGE V
This is the era of information explosion in a world that has shrunk to drawing room proportions. In an era of information explosion, everything is as close as you want it to be. The communication revolution has made its effect on the world of sports too. Today the fax machines and computers have made it that if Stefan Edberg suffers a shock at Wimbledon at 1.30 a.m. IST, the news can comfortably make the morning papers in New Delhi. Today the Media, specially TV and Press attention on sportspersons has turned the best of them into national heroes international celebrities. There were days when top players walked out of tournament sites to neighbourhood markets for a window shopping after matches or events. Today Ramesh Krishnans, Kapil Dev and Ashwini Nachappas cannot afford such a privilege. They would be mobbed at every turn, whether it is New Delhi, or Lords of Beijing. Inevitably, the information boom triggered by the media obsession with sportspersons has been both a blessing and a curse for the superstars of sport. While, on the one hand, the media focus has made them more marketable, and therefore considerably richer with all the endorsements and the lucrative contracts than they would have been otherwise, the constant glare has also put enormous pressures on the best of them. Tennis fan of the 50s or 60s would hardly know the name of Rod Laver’s wife. Now any 12 of l3 years old seems to be able to tell you the name of Stefan Edberg’s girlfriend. This is just one example. There are hundreds of others in the world of sports. In such cases, where the information, if you can call it that has nothing to do with a player’s game or even the player can take the media shelter behind the public’s right to know? Is that right absolute’? If one’s right to swing his arms ends where the other’s nose begins, then doesn’t the right of the media to inform and that of the public to be informed and where the sportsperson’s private life begins? Is not there a line between journalistic licence and licentious journalism in the sports columns? There is, of course, no attempt at pompous sermonising here but merely an effort to see if there is a sense of awareness in a section of the sports press of the responsibilities that go with inalienable freedom to inform.
21. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(A) The private life of sportspersons is reported by the press
(B) The national players cannot shop around easily now
(C) Stefan Edberg does not have any friend
(D) The media has helped players to become rich
22. The author’s objective in writing the passage seems to be to
(A) make a comparison of old and current trends in sports journalism
(B) highlight the role of media in communication revolution
(C) make a case for a balanced flow of information in sports journalism
(D) praise the role of media in global coverage of sports events
23. The players of today do not enjoy the same freedom as was enjoyed by the earlier players because
(A) they are constrained by the contract they sign
(B) their admirers surround them when they go out
(C) computers have made their life miserable
(D) today there are hundreds of players and nobody cares for them
24. The author’s attitude evidently is
(A) idealistic
(B) orthodox
(C) cynical
(D) critical
25. How does media help the sportspersons?
(A) By using them in commercial advertisements
(B) By informing about their private life to public
(C) By providing them good contracts
(D) By giving large coverage to their activities
26. Which of the following, according to the passage, is not an outcome of information boom?
(A) Players are earning more money these days
(B) Sportspersons are now being treated as celebrities
(C) Quick and fast communication of sports news
(D) Poor performance of players
27. The author is trying to highlight
(A) the benefits of speedy communication system
(B) the importance of exposure of personal life of sportspersons
(C) the responsibility of journalism
(D) the need for licentious journalism
28. According to the passage, which of the following is the ‘right’ in the sentence ‘is that right absolute’?
(A) Right to play
(B) Right to information
(C) Right to worldwide coverage of sports events
(D) Right to secrecy
29. According to the author, it is not necessary for journalists to make any comments on the
(A) poor performance of players
(B) techniques of sports journalism
(C) public’s right to have information
(D) personal life of the sports personalities
30. According to the author, what is going on in the world of sports under the name of ‘information boom’ is really
(A) misreporting
(B) reporting of things not related with the performance of the players
(C) worldwide coverage of various sports events and other aspects of sportspersons
(D) development of communication network and modernization of media machinery
Directions (Qs. 31-33): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.
31. 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 13, ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 14
(D) 16
32. 198, 202, 211, 227, ?
(A) 210
(B) 212
(C) 252
(D) 27
33. 210, 195, 175, 150, 120, ?
(A) 75
(B) 80
(C) 85
(D) 90
Directions (Qs. 34-39): Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
34.
(A) Lion
(B) Wolf
(C) Panther
(D) Tiger
35.
(A) Square
(B) Triangle
(C) Cube
(D) Rectangle
36.
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
37.
(A) SU
(B) IK
(C) BD
(D) PN
38.
(A) Branch
(B) Leaf
(C) Root
(D) Plant
39.
(A) Ears
(B) Eyes
(C) Hands
(D) Heart
40. If the word PENCIL is coded as LICNEP, how the word INKPOT would be coded?
(A) TOPINK
(B) JOLQPU
(C) HMKOPS
(D) TOPKNI
41. If in a code language, “SUDHA” is written as “UWFJC” then how “RAM” will be written in the same code language?
(A) AMR
(B) TCO
(C) SCN
(D) TCN
Directions (Qs. 42-46): Read the following information and answer the questions given below.
(1) P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members in a family in which there are who married couples.
(2) T a teacher is married to the doctor who is mother of R and U.
(3) Q the lawyer is married to P.
(4) P has one son and one grandson.
(5) Of the two married ladies one is a housewife.
(6) There is also one student and one male engineer in the family.
42. How R is related to U?
(A) Brother
(B) Sister
(C) Brother or Sister
(D) Data inadequate
43. How is P related to R?
(A) Grandfather
(B) Mother
(C) Grandmother
(D) Data inadequate
44. Who is doctor?
(A) P
(B) S
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
45. Which of the following is true about the granddaughter in the family?
(A) She is a student
(B) She is an engineer
(C) She is a lawyer
(D) Data inadequate
46. Who among the following is the housewife?
(A) Q
(B) P
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
47. Which letter will be 6th to the right of the third letter from left of the letter which is exactly in the middle of the letter in the series given bylow?
ABCDEZYXWVQRSTUFGHIJKLMNOPA
(A) R
(B) Q
(C) F
(D) G
48. From a point P. Samir started walking towards South and walked 40 m. He then turned towards his left and walked 30 m and reached a point Q. The point is at what minimum distance and at what direction from the point P?
(A) 50 m South-West
(B) 45 South-East
(C) 50 South-East
(D) 35 South-East
49. ‘Bank’ is related to ‘Money’ in the same way ‘Transport’ is related to
(A) Goods
(B) Road
(C) Movement
(D) Traffic
50. Which letter will be the 5th from right if the first and the second, the third and the fourth and so on are interchanged from the word COMPANIONATE?
(A) I
(B) O
(C) A
(D) N
51. ‘Swim’ is related to ‘Fish’ in the same way as ‘Walk’ is related to
(A) Man
(B) Bird
(C) Legs
(D) Foot
52. One day John left home and cycled 10 km Southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kms will he have to cycle to reach his home straight?
(A) 10 km
(B) 15 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 25 km
53. In a cricket session, India defeated Australia twice, West Indies defeated India twice. Australia defeated West Indies twice, India defeated New Zealand twice and West Indies defeated New Zealand twice. Which country has lost most number of times?
(A) India
(B) Australia
(C) New Zealand
(D) West Indies
54. If P is husband of Q, and R is the mother of S and Q, how is R related to P?
(A) Mother
(B) Sister
(C) Aunt
(D) Mother-in-law
55. If H = 8, HE = 13, then “HEN” will be equal to
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 27
Directions (Qs. 56-60): In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if either I or II follows
(D) if neither I nor II follows
56. Statements: All poets are goats.
Some goats are trees.
Conclusions:
(I) Some poets are trees.
(II) Some trees are goats.
57. Statements: Some pens are tables.
No table is blue.
Conclusions:
(I) Some tables are pen.
(II) No pen is blue.
58. Statements: Some hens are cows.
Al cows are horses.
Conclusions:
(I) Some horses are hens.
(II) All hens are horses.
59. Statements: Some dogs are bats.
Some bats are cats.
Conclusions:
(I) Some dogs are cats.
(II) Some cats are dogs.
60. Statements: All books are pencils.
All pencils are flowers.
Conclusions:
(I) All books are flowers.
(II) All pencils are books.
61. Which of the following is used as the logo of the World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature?
(A) Lion
(B) Deer
(C) Giraffe
(D) Panda
62. The first navigator who had sailed round the earth and proved that the shape of the earth is round, was
(A) James Cook
(B) Ferdinand Magellan
(C) Plotemy
(D) Vasco-da-Gama
63. An air bubble in water will act like
(A) Convex mirror
(B) Convex lens
(C) Concave mirror
(D) Concave lens
64. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Alla Rakha – Tabla
(B) Pt. Ravi Shankar – Sitar
(C) Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod
(D) M. S. Subbalakshmi – Bharatnatyam
65. Maximum number of daily newspapers in India are published in
(A) Bengali
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) Malayalam
66. Plants take nitrogen in the form of
(A) nitrites
(B) ammonia
(C) nitrates
(D) element N
67. The prestigious Ramon Magasaysay award was conferred upon Ms. Kiran Bedi for her excellent contribution in which of the following fields?
(A) Journalism
(B) Literature
(C) Community welfare
(D) Government service
68. KONARK is situated in which State?
(A) Orissa
(B) West Bengal
(C) Bihar
(D) Rajasthan
69. India’s first successful surface-to-surface missile is
(A) Prithvi
(B) Agni
(C) Akash
(D) Vayu
70. Zero was invented by
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Varahamihira
(C) Bhaskara I
(D) Brahamagupta
71. The sugar contained in honey is
(A) fructose
(B) glucose
(C) maltose
(D) sucrose
72. Secular State means that
(A) the State has a religion
(B) the State is opposed to religions
(C) the State favours no religion
(D) the State patronises all religions
73. The Parliament of which country is known as National panchayat?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) None of these
74. Where are the ‘Pyramids’ situated?
(A) Egypt
(B) Jakarta
(C) Rome
(D) None of these
75. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which of the following games?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Basketball
(D) Cricket
76. Which of the following receives minimum rainfall in India?
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Leh
(C) Delhi
(D) Pune
77. Barometer is used to measure which of the following?
(A) Quantity of heat
(B) Electric current
(C) Density of liquids
(D) Atmospheric pressure
78. Which of the following is not the source of industrial finance in India?
(A) ICICI
(B) IDBI
(C) Foreign Banks in India
(D) Indian Commercial Banks
79. During the reign of which of the following rulers did Tulsidas, the author of ‘Ramcharitmanas’ flourish?
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Humayun
(D) Sher Shah Suri
80. April 22 is observed as
(A) World Health Day
(B) Earth Day
(C) National Maritime Day
(D) Manav Ekta Divas
81. The ‘Planning Commission’ was set up in the year
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1952
(D) 1954
82. Corbett National Park is located in
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Assam
(D) Uttarakhand
83. Which one of the following is the headquarters of the US defence services ‘The Pentagon’?
(A) Hague
(B) Washington DC
(C) Paris
(D) London
84. Soap is sodium salt of
(A) amyl alcohol
(B) stearic acid
(C) carbolic acid
(D) picric acid
85. The Himalayas have snowline at 4300 m whereas in the Alps mountain, it is at 3000 m. This is because the
(A) Himalayas are higher than the Alps
(B) Himalayas face the monsoon winds
(C) Himalayas are located in lower latitudes
(D) Himalayas have dense forest cover
86. The highest civilian award in India is
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Jnanpith
(C) Padma Vibhushan
(D) None of these
87. Conduction of current in an aqueous solution of sodium chloride is by
(A) electrons only
(B) sodium ion only
(C) chloride ions only
(D) sodium and chloride ions
88. In which year Indian National Congress was founded?
(A) 1885
(B) 1869
(C) 1890
(D) 1894
89. Which one of the following is known as Pearl City?
(A) Cochin
(B) Tuticorin
(C) Rameswaram
(D) Masulipatanam
90. The main constituent of cooking gas (LPG) is
(A) Butane
(B) Ethane
(C) Methane
(D) Propane
Directions (Qs. 91-95): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best express the meaning of the given word.
91. QUIT
(A) continue
(B) with breaks
(C) bring to an end
(D) leave
92. CAB
(A) bus
(B) driver
(C) horse
(D) taxi
93. FLAIR
(A) natural ability
(B) creativity
(C) hidden quantity
(D) strength
94. ZEAL
(A) slow
(B) sober
(C) enthusiasm
(D) simplicity
95. ENVELOP
(A) fold
(B) cut
(C) wrap
(D) open
Directions (Qs. 96-100): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
96. ISOLATION
(A) seclusion
(B) association
(C) hardness
(D) segregation
97. OPPONENT
(A) rival
(B) ally
(C) antagonist
(D) faithful
98. CONTENT
(A) satisfied
(B) disagree
(C) proud
(D) displease
99. MOBILITY
(A) movement
(B) still
(C) energy
(D) skill
100. HYPOTHESIS
(A) fact
(B) theory
(C) conjecture
(D) suppressed
Directions (Qs. 101-105): Given below are few sentences along with some blank spaces. Read the sentences carefully and fill in the blanks with the help of the words given below.
101. Child labour has become a ……… burning issue for the ……… few years.
(A) subtle, past
(B) particularly, gone
(C) particularly, past
(D) dirty, next
102. We cannot……… our spiritual teachings from our learning, nor can we separate our beliefs about who and what we are ……… our values and our behaviours.
(A) separate, from
(B) see, near
(C) upset, about
(D) distinguish, on
103. The Chief Minister ………… the house that ……….. action would be taken against all those found involved in corruption.
(A) instructed, preventive
(B) called, strict
(C) assured, stringent
(D) reiterated, strictly
104. Mahesh ………… me coming to his table, he smiled and ……. me a chair.
(A) looked, gave
(B) welcome, took
(C) saw, offered
(D) found, signaled
105. The state government employees………… threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to ………. the demands.
(A) have, press
(B) did, get
(C) were, met
(D) nearly, fulfil
Directions (Qs. 106-110): In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways. Out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
106.
(A) detergent
(B) datergent
(C) ditergent
(D) detargent
107.
(A) tarrif
(B) tariff
(C) teriff
(D) taarif
108.
(A) enterpreneur
(B) entrepreneur
(C) entreprenuer
(D) entreprneur
109.
(A) intelligence
(B) intilligence
(C) intalligence
(D) intelligance
110.
(A) expact
(B) expactt
(C) expect
(D) expait
Directions (Qs. 111-115): In the questions some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which of parts A, B, C and D has an error.
111. (A) While going / (B) through the report/(C) yesterday I find/ (D) several factual mistakes.
112. (A) No sooner did/(B) the chairman begin speaking/(C) some participants started/(D) shouting slogans.
113. (A) Although the patient/ (B) was rude with the / (C) nurses, the hehaved / (D) niece with the doctor.
114. (A) After the humiliating exposure/ (B) he hanged his head/ (C) in shame. / (D) No error.
115. (A) Sachin is so best / (B) a player that/ (C) he would be certainly/ (D) included in the team.
Directions (Qs. 116-120): In the following questions the first and the last sentence of the passage are 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and are named P, Q, R, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the passage and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer.
116. 1 : There is a fashion now-a-days
P : as an evil
Q : to bewail poverty
R : to bewail poverty
S : and to pity the young man
6 : in his mouth
(A) PSQR
(B) RSQP
(C) RPSQ
(D) SQPR
117. 1 : Yet so few of us have
P : walls of daily routine
Q : the time or the means
R : that enclose our lives
S : to break through the narrow
6 : to yet to so known this land
(A) SRQP
(B) RPSQ
(C) QSPR
(D) PQRS
118. 1 : India has been a land
P : but in the sense that learning has always been very highly valued
Q : not indeed in the sense that education has been universal.
R : and the learned man has been held in higher esteem
S : of learning throughout the ages
6 : then the warrior or the administrator
(A) PQSR
(B) RQPS
(C) RSQP
(D) SQPR
119. 1 : It was obvious
P : made by him
Q : submitted at the meeting
R : from the comments
S : on the draft proposals
6 : that he was not satisfied with them
(A) QRSP
(B) SQRP
(C) RPSQ
(D) PSRQ
120. 1 : If all the nations
P : for the common good of mankind
Q : then they will never fight with each other
R : work together
S : and help each other
6 : and there will be no war
(A) PRQS
(B) RPSQ
(C) PQRS
(D) SQRP
121. If a sum of money doubles itself in 8 yr at simple interest, then the rate of interest per annum is
(A) 11.5
(B) 12.0
(C) 12.5
(D) 13.0
122. The ratio between the length and breadth of a rectangular field is 3 : 2. If the length is increased by 5 m, the new area of the field will be 2600 sq m. What is the breadth of the rectangular field?
(A) 40 m
(B) 60 m
(C) 65 m
(D) None of these
123. Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages?
(A) 8 yr
(B) 20 yr
(C) 30 yr
(D) None of these
124. A retailer buys 30 pens from a wholesaler and pays equal to marked price of 27 pens. If he sells the pens at the marked price, his profit per cent in the transaction is
(A) 
(B) 10%
(C) 
(D) 20%
125. If the diameter of a cylinder is 28 cm and its height is 20 cm, then the surface area (in cm2) is
(A) 2993
(B) 2992
(C) 2292
(D) 2229
126. 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
127. 
(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 60
(D) None of these
128. 5152 ÷ 280 + 140 ÷5 = ?
(A) 58.40
(B) 42.93
(C) 35.40
(D) None of these
129. 
(A) 0.33
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D) None of these
130. 40 ÷80 ÷ 0.25 = ?
(A) 12.5
(B) 200
(C) 20
(D) 250
131. 51/4 × (125)25 is equal to
(A) √5
(B) 25
(C) 5
(D) 5√5
132. 
(A) 871/18
(B) 4
(C) 
(D) None of these
133. 
(A) 1
(B) 1/2
(C) 2
(D) 1/√7
134. 
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 16
(D) None of these
135. 6085 – 4017 + 1496 – 1124 = ?
(A) 2890
(B) 2350
(C) 2980
(D) None of these
136. A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days employed 75 men, each working for 8 h daily. After 90 days only 2/7 of the work was completed. How many more men would be put on now, each working 10h daily so as to finish the work in the stipulated time?
(A) 225
(B) 75
(C) 150
(D) 300
137. A horse worth Rs 9000 is sold by A to B at a loss of 10%. B sells the horse back to A at 10% gain. The result is
(A) A makes no profit or loss
(B) B gains Rs 900
(C) A loses Rs. 900
(D) A loses Rs. 810
138. The banks of a river are parallel. A swimmer starts from a point on one of the banks and swims in a straight line inclined to the bank at 45° and reaches the opposite bank which is 20 m from the starting point. The breadth of the river is
(A) 20 m
(B) 20√2 m
(C) 20/√2 m
(D) 40 m
139. The price of sugar increases by 32%. A family reduces its consumption so that the expenditure of the sugar is up only by 100%. If the total consumption of the sugar before the price-rise was l0 kg per month, then the consumption of sugar per month at present, in kg, is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 9
140. The ratio between the ages of A and B at present is 2 : 3. Five years hence the ratio of their ages will be 3 : 4. What is the present age of A in years?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) None of these
141. In a zoo, the rabbits and pigeons are kept together in a room. If heads are counted, then number of heads is 100; but if all the legs are counted,, then number of legs is 288. The number of pigeons is
(A) 56
(B) 44
(C) 50
(D) 65
142. Two trains start simultaneously from A and B and travel towards each other at the rates of 85 km/h and 77.5 km/h respectively. When they meet, one train has traveled 60 km more than the other. The distance between A and B is
(A) 1300 km
(B) 1350 km
(C) 650 km
(D) None of these
143. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4 per cent per annum for the first two years 6 per cent per annum for the next four years and 8 per cent per annum for the period beyond six years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum for a total period of nine years is Rs 1120, what is the sum?
(A) Rs 2000
(B) Rs 4000
(C) Rs 1500
(D) None of these
144. The income of A and B are in the ratio 5 :3, their expenses are in the ratio 8 : 5 and their savings are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the total annual savings of A and B are Rs 36000, find the monthly income of A.
(A) Rs. 1000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) None of these
145. The simplification 
is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
146. The value of 
is:
(A) 0.03
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.033
(D) 0.003
147. 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
148. 4/5 of 3125 + 250 = ? of 8250
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/3
(D) None of these
149. 7563 – 3948 + 1054 = ?
(A) 10457
(B) 2561
(C) 4669
(D) None of these
150. 35% of 240 + 30% of 180 = ?% of 552
(A) 25
(B) 75
(C) 50
(D) None of these
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