National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2011
General Ability Test
1. What is the approximate answer of the following?
12833 + 133% of 1655 – 7/5 of 3533 = ?
(A) 10000
(B) 10500
(C) 11000
(D) 9500
2. 9999 + 8888 + 777 + ? = 19700
(A) 36
(B) 16
(C) 64
(D) 26
3. 60?6 × 111 = 666666
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 6
4. Find the least number of 3 digits, which is exactly divisible by 14.
(A) 112
(B) 100
(C) 114
(D) None of these
5. What fraction is 6 bananas in 5 dozens?
(A) 5/6
(B) 1/10
(C) 1/5
(D) 10/11
6. A person went to the market and purchased a pen for Rs. 15. If he is still left with 2/5th of his total money, find the total amount of money he had initially.
(A) Rs. 40
(B) Rs. 37.50
(C) Rs. 55
(D) None of these
7. Find the distance covered b a man walking for 12 min. at a speed of 3.5 k m/h.
(A) 0.7 km
(B) 7 km
(C) 1.7 km
(D) 7.7 km
8. Find the greatest number of 5 digit which is exactly divisible by 463.
(A) 99082
(B) 99545
(C) 99568
(D) 99999
9. What percentage is equivalent to 3/5?
(A) 15%
(B) 85%
(C) 65%
(D) 60%
10. If Mohan’s salary is 10% than that of Sohan, then how much per cent is Sohan salary less than that of Mohan?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
11. The radius of a circular wheel is 
How many revolutions it has to make in travelling 11 km?
(A) 1500
(B) 1200
(C) 1000
(D) 1600
12. What is the compound interest on Rs 5,000 for 4 years if the rate of interest is 10% p.a. for the first 2 years and 20% p.a. for the next 2 years?
(A) Rs 2,320.50
(B) Rs 3,712
(C) Rs 3,745
(D) Rs 5,368
13. What is the number of numbers between 400 and 500 if both the numbers are counted?
(A) 101
(B) 100
(C) 99
(D) 102
14. How many bricks are required to build a wall of 15 metres length, 12 metres height and 20 cm thickness if the brick is 36 cm long, 25 cm wide and 10 cm thick?
(A) 2000
(B) 4000
(C) 12000
(D) None of these
15. A certain type of bacteria reproduce itself at the rate 10 every 5 minutes. In how many minutes will the number double itself?
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 40 minutes
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 16-18): What approximate value will come in place of the question-mark (?) in following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
16. 465.84 + 764.86 – 211.99 = ?
(A) 1100
(B) 10800
(C) 1000
(D) 1020
17. 149.9% of 149.9 + 149.9 = ?
(A) 375
(B) 400
(C) 350
(D) 425
18. 3001 × 749 ÷ 1001 – 1399 = ?
(A) 650
(B) 700
(C) 950
(D) 850
19. The average of five numbers is 56. If the average of first four numbers is 54. What is the value of the firth number?
(A) 68
(B) 72
(C) 56
(D) 64
20. If a number is added to seven-ninth of thirty five percent of 900, the value so obtained is 325. What is the number?
(A) 60
(B) 120
(C) 90
(D) 80
21. What least numbers should be subtracted from 1740, so that it will be completely divisible by 88?
(A) 156
(B) 68
(C) 58
(D) 146
.
Directions (Q. Nos. 22-25): What will come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions?
22. 36 × 15 – 56 × 784 ÷ 112 = ?
(A) 138
(B) 238
(C) 158
(D) 148
23. 28314 – 31.427 + 113.928 = ? +29.114
(A) 81.711
(B) 80.701
(C) 71.711
(D) 81.701
24. 
(A) 378
(B) 756
(C) 252
(D) 332
25. 36% of 420 – 56% of 350 = ? – 94
(A) 48.2
(B) 49.2
(C) −138.8
(D) −158.8
26. It takes 6 technicians a total of 10 hours to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11 a.m., and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5 p.m., at what time will the server the complete?
(A) 6 : 40 p.m.
(B) 7 p.m.
(C) 7 : 20 p.m.
(D) 8 p.m.
27. A child was asked to add first few natural numbers (that is, 1 + 2 + 3+….) so long his patience permitted. As he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong the child discovered he had missed on number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was
(A) less than 10
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) more than 15
28. After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder if 84 divide the same number?
(A) 80
(B) 76
(C) 41
(D) 53
29. Find the least number which when divided by 36, 48 and 64 leaves the remainders 25, 37 and 53 respectively.
(A) 565
(B) 321
(C) 454
(D) 981
30. A man reads 3/8 of a book on a day and 4/5 of the remainder, on the second day. If the number of pages still unread is 40, how many pages did the book contain?
(A) 300
(B) 315
(C) 320
(D) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34): Choose the missing term from given alternatives.
31. GBC, HDF, IFI, …………
(A) JKL
(B) JLH
(C) JHI
(D) JHL
32. a_ab_babab_b
(A) bbb
(B) aaa
(C) baa
(D) aab
33. The next number in the series 2, −4, 8, −16, 32, ……… is
(A) −64
(B) 64
(C) 128
(D) −128
34. The next number in the series 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, 23, …….. is
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 39
35. If in a certain language ‘rom pom to’ means ‘girl is bad’ ‘maim to tee’ means ‘boy is ugly’ and ‘dum po’ means ‘they are bad’, which word in that language means ‘girl’?
(A) to
(B) tee
(C) pom
(D) rom
36. It in a certain code ‘nee time see’ means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are you’? What is the code for ‘where’?
(A) see
(B) tim
(C) nee
(D) ble
37. A watch reads 12 : 15. If the h our hand points towards North – East, in which direction does its minute hand points?
(A) South – East
(B) South
(C) East
(D) South – West
38. Seema walks 40 m South. Then she turns right and walks 60 m. Then she turns right and walks 55 m. Then she again turns left and walks 35 m. Then she again turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how far is she from the starting point?
(A) 105 m East
(B) 105 m West
(C) 75 m East
(D) 95 m West
39. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 10 km
(B) 7 km
(C) 20 km
(D) 5 km
Directions (Q. Nos. 40-43): Study the following information carefully and answer these questions.
An exhibition is open for public since 9 a.m. till 3 p.m. and again since 4 p.m. till 10 p.m. In a day there are 12 batches of 1 hour each. The entry ticket bears a pass-code made up of seven words, which changes every hour following a particular rule. The pass-codes for 4 p.m. to 10 p.m. are same as those for respective hours during 9 a.m. till 3 p.m. i.e., the pass-code for 4 p.m. to 5 p.m. is same as of 9 a.m. to 10 a.m. and so on. Following is an illustration of the code and steps of rearrangement for subsequent clock hours and so on.
40. If the pass-code for 7 p.m. to 8 p.m. batch is pen with write pencil nice time day’, what will be the pass-code for 11 a.m. to 12 noon?
(A) Day nice with pencil write pen time
(B) Day with nice pencil write pen time
(C) Nice day with pencil write pen time
(D) None of these
41. If the pass-code for the batch 4 p.m. to 5 p.m. is ‘go to office in time every clay, what will be the pass-code for 2 p.m. to 3 p.m. batch?
(A) Day to go in every office time
(B) To day go in every office time
(C) To go day in every office time
(D) To go in day every office time
42. If the pass-code for third batch is ‘any cold and at is hill station’, which batch will have the pass-code station is cold at and any hill?
(A) Fifth
(B) Fourth
(C) Second
(D) First
43. If the pass-code for the second batch is ‘do not play the near eater dirty’, what will be the pass-code for 2 p.m. to 3 p.m. batch?
(A) Dirty near play the not do water
(B) Near dirty not the play do water
(C) Dirty near not the play do water
(D) Near dirty not the play water do
Directions (Q. Nos. 44-48): In these questions a statement is given followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Mark the answer as:
(1) If only argument I is strong
(2) If only argument II is strong
(3) If both the arguments are strong
(4) If neither I nor II is strong.
44. Statement : Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life?
Argument I: Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increases the span of life.
Argument II : No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.
45. Statement: Should mass media be fully controlled by the government?
Argument I : Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.
Argument II: No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.
46. Statement : Should sales tax be abolished?
Argument I : Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption.
Argument II : Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and, hence consumers will be benefited.
47. Statement : Should there be women chief ministers in states?
Argument I: Yes, only then will the plight of women be removed and their conditions will improve.
Argument II: No, a woman is not capable of ruling a state.
48. Statement : Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India.
Argument I : Yes, accuracy, fast product and fineness are possible through computer technology.
Argument II : No, it will increase unemployment in the country.
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-53): Study the following data and answer these questions.
Exactly six person from amongst five boys – A, B, C, D, E – and four girls – P, Q, R, S – are to sit in six chairs, which are arranged in a row from left to right, and the others must stand. The following conditions are to be adhered to while making the arrangement.
(i) No two girls sit in adjacent seats.
(ii) Exactly three boys should be among those who are seated in these six chairs.
(iii) A and P are seated next to each other.
(iv) If E sits, hen R also sits and vice versa, but they are not sit n ext to each other.
(v) If P or R sits, then Q will stand.
50. Which of the following is not a valid arrangement of persons sitting from left to right?
(A) P, A, E, S, C, R
(B) A, P, E, S, C, R
(C) S, E, P, A, R, D
(D) B, R, E, A, P, Q
51. If D is second from the extreme right, then the total number of possible arrangement is
(A) 9
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 5
52. If P is sitting at the extreme left end, then who could be sitting at the extreme right end?
(A) R or E
(B) E or S
(C) S or R
(D) R or E or S
53. If it is known that S sits in the third seat from the extreme left end and B sits in the second seat from the extreme right, then who sits exactly next to two girls?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) B
(D) Data Inadequate
54. Which combination figure best represents the relationship between mosquitoes, ants and insects?
55. Which of the following diagrams best depicts cousins, nephews and males?
56. Which of the following combinations of circles best represents athletes, sprinters arid marathon runners?
57. Which of the following combination of figures best represents males, dogs and pets?
Directions (Q. Nos. 58-60): In each of the following questions, there is a set of four figures labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the Problem Figures followed bya set of four other figures labelled A, B, C and D called the Answer Figures. One figure contains a question mark. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures which will substitute this question mark so that a series is formed by the figures A, B, C and D taken in order. The number of the selected figure is the answer.
58.
59.
60.
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-90): Answer three questions independent of each other.
61. Which folk dance is from Gujarat?
(A) Giddha
(B) Garva
(C) Ras
(D) Nachani
62. India’s position in terms of medals tally at 16th Asian Games 2010 at Guangzhou was
(A) Fifth
(B) Sixth
(C) Seventh
(D) Third
63. Hero group and Honda terminated their 26-year-old joint venture known as Hero Honda. Signed MoU allows Hero Honda group to use Honda brand name on new models until
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
64. How many Navratna Companies have been upgraded and awarded the status of ‘Maharatna’ companies?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
65. SAARC Trade Fair was organized between December 15 – 19, 2010 in
(A) Kathmandu (Nepal)
(B) Hyderabad (India)
(C) Dhaka (Bangladesh)
(D) Islamabad (Pakistan)
66. Which of the following public sector enterprise does not posses ‘Maharatna’ status given to four Navratna Companies?
(A) SAIL
(B) BHEL
(C) ONGC
(D) NTPC
67. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of
(A) 13th Plan
(B) 14th Plan
(C) 15th Plan
(D) 16th Plan
68. The term ’16 yards hit’ is associated with
(A) Badminton
(B) Baseball
(C) Polo
(D) Hockey
69. Detroit city is known for which industry?
(A) Textiles
(B) Automobiles
(C) Aircraft
(D) None of these
70. Who wrote ‘Gulliver’s Travel’, a book famous all over world?
(A) C. S. Lewis
(B) J. K. Rowling
(C) Jonathan Swift
(D) Elizabeth Gilbert
71. ‘Indian Railways’ Rail Wheel Factory is located at which place?
(A) Ludhiana
(B) Kapurthala
(C) Bangalore
(D) Varanasi
72. Headquarter of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is located in which city?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
73. Paradip Port is located in which state of India?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
74. Presently, who is the Chief of the Censor Board?
(A) Shebana Azmi
(B) Hema Malini
(C) Sharmila Tagore
(D) Asha Parekh
75. Which of the following games/sports was not included in the list Commonwealth Games 2010?
(A) Golf
(B) Boxing
(C) Hockey
(D) Weight lifting
76. “Transforming Lines’ is the new tagline of which of the following PSUs?
(A) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(B) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(C) NTPC Ltd.
(D) BHEL
77. Bull fighting is the national game of _______.
(A) Spain
(B) Italy
(C) Russia
(D) Sudan
78. SAFTA stands for ______.
(A) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(B) South Asian Festival of Tourism and Aviation
(C) South Asian Free Tourism Association
(D) South Asian Free Trade Acts
79. The book ‘Malgudi Days’ has been written by _____.
(A) K. R. Narayanan
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) R. K. Narayan
(D) Prem Chand
80. Adlne ‘The bankers to every Indian’ is linked with which bank?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Bank of India
81. MNP stands for _____.
(A) Mobile Number, Password
(B) Maha Nagar Palika
(C) Mobile Number Possession
(D) Mobile Number Portability
82. Which Five Years plan will start from the year 2012-13?
(A) 13th
(B) 12th
(C) 11th
(D) 14th
83. National Youth Day is observe on which day?
(A) 12 January
(B) 14 February
(C) 05 September
(D) 14 November
84. Michaei Douglas is a well known _____.
(A) Golfer
(B) Actor
(C) Politician
(D) Cricketer
85. Which of the following airlines has recently gone ahead ordered 180 brand new Airbus A-320s to be delivered between 2016 and 2025?
(A) Kingfisher Airlines
(B) IndiGo
(C) Sahara Airlines
(D) Jetlite
86. Compact Car model ‘Live’ has been recently launched in India by which automobile company?
(A) Toyota
(B) Maruti-Suzuki
(C) Hyundai
(D) None of these
87. Proposed changes in RTI Act include restricting questions per RTI query to one and world count to _____ per query.
(A) 250
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 150
88. ‘Safal’ is the fruit and vegetable division of _____.
(A) Delhi Milk Scheme (DMS)
(B) Mother Dairy
(C) Nestle
(D) ITC
89. Eleventh Five Year Plan covers the period _____.
(A) 2007-12
(B) 2006-11
(C) 2008-13
(D) 2009-14
90. Which country gives Magsaysay awards?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Australia
(C) The Philippines
(D) South Korea.
Directions (Q. No. 91-120): Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow each passage.
PASSAGE-I
How many really suffer as a result of labour market problems? This is one of the most critical yet contentious social policy questions. In many ways, our social statistics exaggerate the degree of hardship. unemployment does not have the same dire consequences today as it did in the 1930s when most of the unemployed were primary breadwinners, when income and earnings were usually much closer to the margin of subsistence, and when there were no countervailing social programmes for those failing in the labour market. Increasing affluence, the rise of families with more than one wage earner, the growing predominance of secondary earners among the unemployed, and improved social welfareprotection have unquestionably mitigated the consequences of joblessness. Earnings and income data also overstate the dimensions of hardship. Among the millions with hourly earnings at or below, the minimum wage level, the overwhelming majority are from multiple-earner, relatively affluent families. Most of those counted by the poverty statistics are elderly or handicapped or have family responsibilities which keep them out of the labour force, so the poverty statistics are by no means an accurate indicator of labour market pathologies. Yet there are also many ways our social statistics underestimate the degree of labour-market-related hardship.
The unemployment counts exclude the millions of fully employed workers whose wages are so low that their families remain in poverty. Low wages and repeated or prolonged unemployment frequently interact to undermine the capacity for self-support. Since the number experiencing joblessness at same time during the year is several times the number unemployed in any month, those who suffer as a result of forced idleness can equal or exceed average annual unemployment, even though only a minority of the jobless in any month really suffer’ For every person counted in the monthly unemployment tallies, there is another working part-time because of the inability to find full-time work, or else outside the labour force but wanting a job. Finally, income transfers in our country have always focused on the elderly, disabled, and dependent, neglecting the needs of the working poor, so that the dramatic expansion of cash and in-kind transfers does not necessarily mean that those failing in the labour market are adequately Protected.
As a result of such contradictory evidence, it is uncertain whether those suffering seriously as a result of labour market problems number in the hundreds of thousands or the tens of millions, and, hence, whether high levels of joblessness can be tolerated or must be countered by job creation and economic stimulus. There is only one are of agreement in this debate that the existing poverty, employment and earnings statics are inadequate for their primary applications, measuring the consequences of labour market problems.
91. Which of the following is the principal topic of the passage?
(A) What causes labour market pathologies that result in suffering.
(B) Why income measures are imprecise in measuring degrees of poverty.
(C) Which of the currently used statistical procedures are the best for estimating the incidence of hardship that is due to unemployment.
(D) How social statistics give an unclear picture of the degree of hardship caused by low wages and insufficient employment opportunities.
92. The author contrasts the 1930s with the present in order to show that
(A) more people were unemployed in the 1930s.
(B) unemployment now has less severe effects.
(C) social programmes are more needed now.
(D) there now is a greater proportion of elderly and handicapped people among those in poverty.
93. Which of the following proposals best responds to the issues raised by the author?
(A) Innovative programmes using multiple approaches should be set up to reduce the level of unemployment.
(B) A compromise should be found between the positions of those who view joblessness as an evil greater than economic control and those who hold the opposite view.
(C) New statistical indices should be developed to measures the degree to which unemployment and inadequately paid employment cause suffering.
(D) Consideration should be given to the ways in which statistics can act as partial causes of the phenomena that they purport to measure.
94. The author’s purpose in citing those who are repeatedly unemployed during a twelvemonth period is most probably to show that
(A) there are several factors that cause the payment of low wages to some members of the labour force.
(B) unemployment statistics can underestimate the hardship resulting from joblessness.
(C) recurrent inadequacies in the labour market can exist and can cause hardships for individual workers.
(D) a majority of those who are jobless at any one time do not suffer server hardship.
95. The author states that the mitigating effect of social programmes involving income transfers on the income level of low-income people is often not felt by
(A) the employed poor.
(B) dependent children in single earner families.
(C) workers who become disabled.
(D) retired workers.
96. According to the passage, one factor that causes unemployment and earnings figures to overpredict the amount of economic hardship is the
(A) recurrence of periods of unemployment for a group of low-wage workers.
(B) possibility that earning may be received from more than one job per worker.
(C) fact that unemployment counts do not include those who work for low wages and remain poor.
(D) prevalence, among low-wage workers and the unemployed, of members of families in which others are employed.
PASSAGE-II
The contribution of small and medium enterprises to the overall growth of the economy is well documented. Not only do they provide more employment opportunities for every rupee of capital invested vis-a-vis the large companies, but the manufacturing sector is also a net earner of foreign exchange. Notwithstanding their contribution, the SME sector is still starved of capital, both from the organized banking sector as also from alternate sources like private equity. Venture capital funds, as also institutions like SIDBI, are wholly inadequate to meet the diverse needs of the SME, spread across the length and breadth of the country. One reason for private equity funds dragging their feet in spotting the winners of tomorrow is the relatively low returns on their time and effort in grooming an SME as compared to a mid-size company.
Their argument is that the management time invested in grooming the SME is almost the same if not more, even as their capacity to absorb large investments is virtually non-existent. Commercial banks who work on set parameters of lending often find the SME discipline wanting in case of accounting norms, inventories and management of working capital. The cost of, zeroing in on the next super-star inevitably acts as a deterrent to private equity firms who prefer to stick to the traditional path. And nowadays all the erstwhile venture capital funds prefer to act like Private Equity (PE) funds. Fear of private equity firms asking for a controlling interest is also one of the factors dissuading promoters from actively seeking, private equity funds. Given this scenario, it is important to create an environment and build an infrastructure which allows SMEs to access risk capital. Given that these companies cannot meet the rigorous listing criteria of the larger stock exchanges, at least till such time as they are able to grow to a sizeable level, there is a need to provide an alternate mechanism/ window for the SME. Earlier attempts made by both BSE and NSE have failed to address the problem.
On both exchanges save for the top few hundred stocks, illiquidity is rampant across more than half of the listed companies. Against this background, the government’s initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SME is indeed a laudable step. SEBI’s latest proposal defining the framework and requirement of Rs 100 crore net worth with nationwide trading terminals will ensure that only serious players will enter the fray. The condition that the clearing function must be performed by a recognized clearing house will also provide a degree of comfort to investors venturing on this exchange. The minimum trading lot of Rs 1 lakh is meant to ensure that only investors who are well aware of the risks involved participate. All major exchanges in the world have a separate window for smaller companies. London Stock Exchange’s Alternate Investment Market (AIM) is gaining popularity amongst Indian companies. Nasdaq, NYSE and even Japan have similar windows for smaller companies which are subsequently allowed to graduate to the main markets once they grow in size.
The problem of creating liquidity in shares is addressed by Nomads on the AIM market who are required to give a two-way quote, like the jobbers on the BSE when the open cry system was in vogue., SEBI which currently mandates either an order driven or quote driven system could learn from the international experience of specialized brokers for SMEs listed on the exchanges. Given the spread of the SMEs across the country at least three or four exchanges will be needed.
A geographic spread would also help in getting regional investors as those who are well-versed with the development in the regions to invest in the companies from those regions. Further, competition amongst exchanges would also ensure quality of services and inculcate discipline amongst the management. One of the reasons cited for OTCEI failure was inadequate attention by the management in developing the infrastructure. Remember, OTCEI was set up at a time when the infrastructure for electronic trading was just not there. While modalities for improving the functionality can be changed along the way, the important thing for SEBI is to do two things. First, spell out the funding requirements for any SME to list. It has to be simple, quick and cheap. In the UK licensed Nomads are authorized to clear documents, satisfying themselves that there is adequate disclosure. And second, to provide a time-frame for the exchangers to start operations as quickly as possible.
97. Which of the following factors lead(s) to SMEs being starved of capital?
(I) Geographically they are scattered across the country.
(II) They do not have the capacity to absorb large investments.
(III) The fear that private investors could ask for controlling stake in the company, dissuades SMEs from seeking their funds.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) III only
(D) I, II and III
98. The government has taken the initiative to set up a separate stock exchange for SMEs mainly because
(A) this step will be lauded by one and all.
(B) it is important to create an environment which encourages SMEs to access risk capital for growth.
(C) SMEs prefer their own stock exchange rather than go with the bigger companies.
(D) all major exchanges in the world have done the same.
99. OTCEI, the failed stock exchange venture, was set up in
(A) UK only
(B) India only
(C) India, USA, UK and Japan
(D) Not clear from the passage
100. Which of the following captions would be most appropriate for this passage?
(A) Funding the Smaller Sector.
(B) SEBI Recommendations – The Way Forward for SMEs.
(C) Smaller Stocks vs. Larger Stocks.
(D) Globalization of Stock Markets.
101. Which of the following statements is not implied in the passage?
(A) SMEs are contributing significantly to the growth of the economy.
(B) All major stock exchanges have a separate window for SMEs.
(C) Liquidity for SME stocks is assured in BSE and NSE.
(D) SEBI is well equipped to define the way forward as regards setting up of separate exchanges for SMEs.
PASSAGE-III
Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development, possibly, the most important is human labour. Since the English language suffers from a certain weakness in its ability to describe groups composed of both male and female members, this is usually described as ‘manpower’. Without it productive labour force including effective leadership and intelligent middle management no amount foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization.
The manpower for development during the next quarter century will come from the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents. But we are not sure that they will be equal to the task. Will they have the health, the education, the skills, to socio-cultural attitude essential for the responsibilities of development?
For fat too may of them the answer is no. The reason is basic. A child’s most critical years, with regard to physical, intellectual, social and emotional development, are those before he reaches five years of age. During those critical formative years he is cared for almost exclusively by his mother, and in many parts of the world the mother may not have the capacity to raise a superior child. She is incapable of doing so because of her own poor health, ignorance and lack of status and recognition of social and legal rights, and economic parity of independence.
One essential factor has been overlooked or ignored the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens, uneducated, without ally voice in family or community decisions, without legal or economic status, married when they are still practically children, and thereafter producing one baby after another, often only to see half of them die before they are of school going age.
We can enhance development by improving “woman power”, by giving women the opportunity to develop themselves. Statistics show that the average family size increases in inverse ratio to the mother’s years of education − is lowest among college graduates, highest among those with only primary school training or no education. Malnutrition is most frequent in large families and increases in frequency with each additional sibling.
The principle established seems that an educated mother has healthier and more intelligent children, and that this is related to the fact that she has fewer children. The tendency of educated, upper-class mothers to have fewer children exists even without access to contraceptive services.
The educational level of women is significant also because it has a direct influence upon their chances of employment; and the number of employed women in a country’s total labour force has a direct bearing on both the Gross National Product and the disposable income of the individual family. Disposable income, especially in the hands of women, influences food purchasing and therefore the nutritional status of the family. The fact that this additional income derives from the paid employment of women provides a logical incentive to restrict the size of the family.
102. Among the natural resources that can be called upon in national plans for development
(A) the most important is certainly human labour.
(B) the most important is possibly human labour.
(C) the least developed is certainly human labour.
(D) the least developed is undoubtedly human labour.
103. Without a productive labour force, including effective leadership and intelligent middle management,
(A) no productive work is possible
(B) entrepreneurs will incur heavy losses.
(C) economic development will not keep pace with nationalist movements.
(D) no amount of foreign assistance or natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization.
104. The manpower development during the next quarter-century
(A) will be adversely affected by the threat of war.
(B) will come from the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents.
(C) will be well taken care of by the current emphasis on free education for women.
(D) will be adversely affected by the country’s economic losses and political instability.
105. The statement made by the writer is that
(A) the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is very healthy.
(B) the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is very sickly.
(C) the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents may not be equal to the task.
(D) the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents is likely to become morally bankrupt.
106. The writer directly or indirectly made three of the following statements; which is one he didn’t make?
(A) Many of the world’s present population of infants, children and adolescents will not have the health, the education, the skills, the socio-cultural attitudes essential for the responsibilities of development.
(B) A child’s most critical years with regard to physical, intellectual, social and emotional development, are those before he reaches five Years of age
(C) Development will be handicapped as long as women remain second-class citizens.
(D) In the advanced countries of the world women are regarded as, first-class citizens but in developing countries they are third-class citizens.
PASSAGE-IV
Globalisation, liberalisation and free market are some of the most significant modern trends in economy. Most economists in our country Seem captivated by the spell of the free market. Consequently, nothing seems good of normal that does not accord with the requirements of the free market. A price that is determined by the seller or, for that matter, established by anyone other than the aggregate of consumers seems pernicious. Accordingly, it requires a major act of will to think of price-fixing as both normal and having a valuable economic function. In fact, price-fixing is normal in the industrialised societies because the industrial system itself provides, an effortless consequence of its own development, the price-fixing that it requires. Modern industrial planning requires and rewards great size.
Hence, a comparatively small number of large firms will be competing for the same group of consumers. That each large firm will act with consideration of its own needs and thus avoid selling its products for more than what its competitors charges is commonly recognised by advocates of free-market economic theories. But each large firm will also act with full consideration of the needs that it has in common with the other large firms competing for the same customers. Each large firm will thus avoid significant price-cutting, because price-cutting will be prejudicial to the common interest in a stable demand for products. Most economists do not see price-fixing when it occurs because they expect it to be brought about by a number of explicit agreements among large firms; it is not.
Moreover, some economists argue that allowing the free-market to operate without interference is the most efficient method of establishing prices in all cases, except for the economics of non-socialist countries. – Most of these economics employ international price-fixing, usually in an overt fashion. Formal price-fixing by cartels and informal price-fixing by agreements covering the members of an industry are common. Were there something peculiarly efficient about the free market and inefficient about price-fixing, the countries that have avoided the first and used the second would have suffered drastically in their economic development. There is no indication that they have.
Socialist industry also works within a framework of controlled prices. In the early 1970s, the Soviet Union began to give firms and industries some flexibility in adjusting prices that a more informal evolution h as accorded the capitalist system Economists in the USA have hailed the change as a return to the free market. But the Soviet firms were not in favour of the prices established by a free market, over which they exercised little influence Rather, Soviet firms acquired some power to fix prices.
107. The authors primary objective of writing the passage seems to
(A) belie the popular belief that the free-market helps enhance development of industrial societies.
(B) advocate that price-fixing is unavoidable and it is beneficial to the economy of, any industrialized society.
(C) explain the methodology of fixing price to stabilize free-market.
(D) prove that price fixing and free-market are compatible and mutually beneficial to industrialized societies.
108. Which of the following statements I, II and/ or III is/are TRUE in the context of the information given in the passage?
The information in the passage is helpful to
(I) know some of the ways in which prices can be fixed.
(II) identify the products for which price-fixing can be more beneficial.
(III) differentiate between the economies of various countries.
(A) Only I
(B) Only II
(C) Only III
(D) Only I and II
109. Considering the literal meaning and connotations of the words used in the passage, the author’s attitude towards “most economists” can best be describe as
(A) derogatory and antagonistic.
(B) impartial and unbiased.
(C) spiteful and envious.
(D) critical and condescending.
110. The author feels that price fixed by seller seems pernicious because
(A) people don’t have faith in large firms.
(B) people don’t want the Government to fix prices.
(C) most economists believe that consumers should determine prices.
(D) most economists believe that no one group should determine prices.
111. Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage?
(A) A profitable result of economic development.
(B) An inevitable result of the industrial system.
(C) The joint result of a number of carefully organized decisions.
(D) A phenomenon uncommon to industrialized societies.
PASSAGE-V
We call a man irrational when he acts in passion –when he cuts off his nose to spite his face. He is irrational because he forgets that by indulging the desire that he happens to feel most strongly about at the moment, he will thwart other desires which, in the long run, are more important to trim. If men were rational, they would take a more correct view of their own interest than they do at present; and if all men acted from enlightened self-interest, the world would be a paradise in comparison with what it is now. I do not maintain that there is nothing better than self-interest as a motive to action; but I do maintain that self-interest, like altruism, is better when it is enlightened than when it is unenlightened. In an ordered community it is very rarely to a man’s interest to do anything which is very harmful to others. The less rational a man is, more often he will fail to perceive how what injures others would also injure him, because hatred or envy will blind him. Therefore, although I do not pretend that enlightened self-interest is the highest morality, I do maintain that, if it became common, it would make the world an immeasurably better place than it is.
Rationality, in practice, may be defined as the habit of remembering all our relevant desires, and not only the one that happens at the moment to be strongest. Like rationality in opinion, it is a matter of degree. Complete rationality is no doubt an unattainable idea, but so long as we continue to classify some men as lunatics it is clear that we think some men more rational than others. I believe that all solid progress in the world consists of an increase in rationality, both practical and theoretical. To preach an altruistic morality appears to me somewhat useless, because it will appeal only to those who already have altruistic desires. But to peach rationality is somewhat different, since rationality helps us to realise our own desires on the whole, whatever they may be, a man is rational in proportion as his intelligence informs and controls his desires. I believe that the control of our acts by our intelligence is ultimately what is of most importance, and that alone will make social life remain possible as science increases the means at our disposal for injuring each other. Education, the press, politics, religion-in a word, all the great forces in the would-are at present on the. side of irrationality-they are in the hands of men who flatter King Demos in order to lead him astray. The remedy does not lie in anything heroically cataclysmic, but in the efforts of individuals towards a more sane and balanced view of our relations to our neighbours and to the world. It is to intelligence, increasingly side-spread that we must look for the solution of the ills from which our world is suffering.
112. What is the central idea of the passage?
(A) The problems of the world can best be solved by rationality and enlightened self interest.
(B) Altruism and rationality are the main indicators of intelligence
(C) Altruism can make this world heaven.
(D) Man is absolutely irrational.
113. What is the author’s attitude to modern development in science and communications?
(A) Cynical about their use.
(B) Sceptical about the uses they put to.
(C) One of cautious acceptance.
(D) One of concern about their harmful potential.
114. Rationality, according to the passage, means mainly
(A) having regard for others.
(B) intelligent control of one’s desires.
(C) the ability to cultivate a balanced view of one’s surroundings.
(D) power to resist yielding to strong passions.
115. The author feels that it is impractical to appeal to altruism because
(A) not all people are altruistic by nature.
(B) altruism is weaker than rationality.
(C) altruism is more refined than rationality
(D) None of these
116. ‘The king Demos’ refers to
(A) Populace
(B) Politician
(C) Scientist
(D) Despot
PASSAGE-VI
At the time Jane Austen’s novels were published − between l811 and 1818 English literature was not part of any academic curriculum. In addition fiction was under strenuous attack. Certain religious and political groups felt novels had the power to make so-called immoral characters so interesting that young readers would identify with them; these groups also considered novels to be of little practical use. Even Coleridge, certainly no literary reactionary, spoke for many when he asserted that “novel-reading occasions the destruction of the mind’s powers.” These attitudes towards novels help explain why Austen received little attention from early nineteenth-century literary critics. (In any case, a novelist published anonymously, as Austen was, would not be likely to receive much critical attention). The literary response that was accorded to her, however, was often as incisive as twentieth-century criticism. In his attack in 1816 on novelistic portrayals “outside of ordinary experience”, for example, Scott made an insightful remark about the merits of Austen’s fiction. Her novels, wrote Scott, “present to the reader an accurate and exact picture of ordinary everyday people and places, reminiscent of seventeenth-century Flemish painting.” Scott did not use the word ‘realism’, but he undoubtedly used a standard of realistic probability in judging novels. The critic Whately did not use the word ‘realism’ either, but he expressed agreement with Scott’s evaluation, and went on to suggest the possibilities for moral instruction in what we have called Austen’s ‘realistic method’. Her characters, wrote Whately, are persuasive agents for moral truth since they are ordinary persons “so clearly evoked that we feel an interest in their fate as if it were our own”. Moral instruction, explained Whately, is more likely to be effective when conveyed through recognizably human and interesting characters than when imparted by a sermonizing narrator. Whately especially praised Austen’s ability to create characters who “mingle goodness and villainy, weakness and virtue, as in life they are always mingled”. Whately concluded his remarks by comparing Austen’s art of characterization to Dickens’, stating his preference for Austen’s.
Yet, the response of nineteenth-century literary critics to Austen was not always so laudatory, and often anticipated the reservations of twentieth-century critics An example of such a response was Lewes’ complaint in 1859 that Austen’s range of subjects and characters was too narrow. Praising her verisimilitude, Lewes added that, nonetheless, her focus was too often only upon the unlofty and the common place. (Twentieth-century Marxists, on the other hand, were to complain about what they saw as her exclusive emphasis on a lofty upper-middle class). In any case, having been rescued by some literary critics from neglect and indeed gradually lionised by them, Austen steadily reached, by the mid-nineteenth century, the enviable pinnacle of being considered controversial.
117. The passage supplies infor3mation to suggest that the religious and political groups (mentioned in the third sentence) and Whately might have agreed that a novel
(A) has little practical use.
(B) has the ability to influence the moral values of its readers.
(C) is of utmost interest to readers when representing ordinary human characters.
(D) should not be read by young readers.
118. The author quotes Coleridge in order to
(A) refute the literary opinions of certain religious and political groups.
(B) make a case for the inferiority of novel to poetry.
(C) give an example of a writer who was not a literary reactionary.
(D) indicate how widespread the attack on novels was in the early nineteenth century.
119. The passage suggests that twentieth-century Marxists would have admired Jane Austen’s novels more if the novels, as the Marxists understood them, had
(A) described the values of upper-middle class society.
(B) avoided moral instruction and sermonizing.
(C) depicted ordinary society in a more flattering light.
(D) portrayed characters from more than one class of society.
120. It can be inferred from the passage that Whately found Dickens’ characters to be
(A) especially interesting to young readers.
(B) ordinary persons in recognizably human situations.
(C) less liable than Jane Austen’s characters to have a realistic mixture of moral qualities.
(D) more often villainous and weak than virtuous and good.
Directions (Q. 121-124): Sentences given in the each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is lablled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices of construct a coherent paragraph.
121. (A) There was a pile of pumpkins sitting on a flatbed truck, and both Allen and Bush tried to hoist an aesthetically pleasing pumpkin by the stem.
(B) Both stems snapped. “If you break it, you pay for it, Mr. President”, said Richard Keil of Bloomberg News, echoing Colin Powell’s famous rule at the outset of the Iraq war.
(C) Everything seemed to be going wrong for Bush last week, even the metaphors.
(D) On the way to the Allen fund raiser we stopped for a photo at a picturesque farm stand outside Richmond.
(E) Bush didn’t seem to get the joke “I suppose you’re right”, he said, and tried to buy the broken pumpkin.
(A) ABEDC
(B) BECAD
(C) CDABE
(D) ABECD
122. (A) We all know that exercises is good for you.
(B) Staying physically active helps keep your heart healthy and you and in cancer patients it has even been shown to ward off relapse.
(C) Now a series of independently conducted studies on the effects of exercise in healthy older adults, published on Monday in the Archives of Internal Medicine, confirms that.
(D) Logging time at the gym not only helps maintain good health but’ m ay even prevent the onset of chronic diseases, such as heart diseases, osteoarthritis and dementia.
(A) ABCD
(B) DABC
(C) CDAB
(D) CDBA
123. (A) Borderlines are the patients psychologists fear most.
(B) They are power connected to the people close to them and terrified by the possibility of losing them yet attach those people so unexpectedly that they often ensure the every abandonment they fear.
(C) When they want to hold they claw instead.
(D) Borderline patients seem to have no internal governor; they are capable of deep love and profound rage almost simultaneously.
(E) As many as 75% hurt themselves, and approximately 10% commit suicide, an extraordinarily high suicide rate.
(A) AEDBC
(B) CAEDB
(C) BDCAE
(D) DBCAE
124. (A) He read it in an oddly methodical way.
(B) The moment he had laid aside the body of the paper a masseuse stepped into the room.
(C) First he tore off Page One and the editorial page of the bulky newspaper.
(D) Rapidly, his marble-bright blue eyes took in every story.
(E) When the rite was over, he sat up, and as the masseuse worked at the fingers of his right hand, stiff from a palm affliction, Sulzberger picked up the detached Page One of the Times in his left.
(A) EACDB
(B) ADEBC
(C) CBDEA
(D) ACBED
Directions (Q. Nos. 125-129): Each question consist of sentences which are divided into four parts, numbered (1) through (4). Only one part in each sentence is not a acceptable in standard written English. Identify that part in each of the sentences which contains the error.
125. (A) Her acceptance of speech
(B) was well received
(C) eliciting thunderous applause
(D) at several points
126. (A) An oppressive solemnity
(B) and not the festive mood
(C) one might have expected
(D) characterized the mood by the gathering
127. (A) All aspiring artists must
(B) struggle by the conflict
(C) between faith in their own talent
(D) and knowledge that very few are great enough to succeed.
128. (A) Despite some bad news,
(B) Michel’s stature was not diminished
(C) and her fans or critics
(D) were unanimous in appreciating her work
129. (A) Jazz is an American art form
(B) which was now flourishing in Europe
(C) through the efforts of expatriates
(D) in France, Scandinavia and Germany
Directions (Q. Nos. 130-134): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
130. He puts on airs and claims himself to be omniscient.
(A) ignorant
(B) uneducated
(C) unqualified
(D) backward
131. The committee set about making provisional arrangements for the annual conference.
(A) unconditional
(B) abiding
(C) permanent
(D) lasting
132. The priest would not allow anyone to desecrate the sanctity of the temple.
(A) desist
(B) integrate
(C)intensify
(D) consecrate
133. I think you should undertake this job; it would really be a profitable venture of you.
(A) refrain
(B) leave
(C) conceal
(D) retrieve
134. I think it would be better if this paragraph is eliminated.
(A) added
(B) improved
(C) deleted
(D) shortened
Directions (Q. Nos. 135-138): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives choose the one which is closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence.
135. Parents should cultivate in their children the habit of helping others.
(A) propagate
(B) sprout
(C) create
(D) foster
136. Scientific knowledge is an intoxicating draught, and it may be one in which the human race is unable to sustain.
(A) drink
(B) product
(C) disease
(D) process
137. He is deluding himself with false hopes.
(A) satisfying
(B) entertaining
(C) misleading
(D) assuring
138. The obstacles seem to be insurmountable, but no one should what this fearless woman can accomplish.
(A) to easy to achieve
(B) too difficult to overcome
(C) too tail and too high
(D) too trivial to attract attention
Directions (Q. Nos. 139-142): In each of the following questions, out of the given group of wording choose the mis-spelt one.
139.
(A) Impression
(B) Competition
(C) Miscellanies
(D) Reproach
140.
(A) Exonerate
(B) Quatecmary
(C) Hurricare
(D) Surveillance
141.
(A) Incidently
(B) Publicity
(C) Codly
(D) Realy
142.
(A) Instructor
(B) Grammer
(C) Carrier
(D) Organiser
Directions (Q. Nos. 143-145): In each of the following question an idiomatic expression/Proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idioms/Proverb.
143. To read between the lines
(A) To concentrate
(B) To read carefully
(C) To suspect
(D) To grasp the hidden meaning
144. To flag a dead horse
(A) To act in a foolish way
(B) To waste one’s efforts
(C) To revive interest in an old subject
(D) To revive old memories
145. To pay one back in the same com
(A) To provoke a person to quarrel
(B) To offer another polite attention
(C) To retaliate
(D) To give a word of encouragement of praise to another
Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150) : In each of the following five items you have six sentences of a paragraph. The first and a last sentences of the paragraph are in their proper places at S1 and S6. The four middle sentences, that should occupy positions S2 to S5, have been jumbled and named P, Q, R and S. You should find the proper sequence of these your sentences that will reconstruct the original six-sentences paragraph.
146. S1: The distinction between state or sovereign and government is developed by Rousseau with utmost exactness and accuracy.
S6: Collectively they may be called ‘prence’ or ‘magistracy’.
P: While ‘state’ denotes the community as a whole, created by social pact and manifesting itself in supreme general will, ‘government’ denotes merely the
individual group of individuals that is designated by the community to carry
into effect the sovereign will.
Q: Government, to Rouseeau, means executive power.
R: The individuals, to whom this power is assigned are the officer or the agents of the sovereign.
S: The government is created not by any contract but by a decree of the sovereign, and its function is in no sense to make but only to administer law.
(A) RPSQ
(B) QSPR
(C) SQRP
(D) PSQR
147. S1: Work with retarded children, in particular, involves superhuman patience and long-delayed rewards.
S6: After five years, the girl finally began to simle, when her foster grandparents entered to room.
P: Another woman faithfully spent two hours a day, five days a week, with a bedridden retarded girl.
Q: It was three years before the girl made her first cut in a piece of paper.
R: The girl had never before responded to, or recognized anyone.
S: One woman decided to teach a young brain-damaged girl how to use scissors.
(A) PQRS
(B) PRQS
(C) QRPS
(D) QSPR
148. S1: A workman would not willingly have worked in such a place.
S6: However that may be, he offered nothing else and the couple, very pleased at not being put out into the street with their material thanked him.
P: Marie and Pierre, nevertheless resigned themselves to it.
Q: It was so untempting, so miserable that nobody thought of refusing them the sue of it.
R: The shed had one advantage.
S: The director of the school regretted that he had nothing better to offer.
(A) PQRS
(B) PRQS
(C) QRPS
(D) QSPR
149. S1: Suddenly there was a loud knocking on the other gate.
S6: Lady Macbeth took her husband by the arm and dragged him away to their own chamber.
P: Lady Macbeth at once saw that this meant danger.
Q: Macbeth’s hands were also covered with blood.
R: The knocking grew louder.
S: If any one saw them in the hall at this hour of the night, they would by suspected of murder.
(A) PQRS
(B) PRQS
(C) PSQR
(D) PSRQ
150. S1: Once there was an occasion for me to motor drown to Calcutta from aplace a hundred miles away.
S6: In a hot country, where travelers constantly need water and where water supply grows scantly in summer, the villagers consider it their duty to offer water to those who need it.
P: In fifteen other villages the same thing happened.
Q: It proved quite a task for him, but when we offered him reward, poor though he was, he refused to accept it.
R: Something wrong with the mechanism made it necessary for us to have repeated supply of water almost every half hour.
S: At the first village where we were compelled to stop, we asked the help of a man to find water for us.
(A) RSQP
(B) PSRQ
(C) QRPS
(D) SQPR
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