National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2013
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
Directions: Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.
PASSAGE-I
Having investigated the nature of the relationship between price and trading volume for 50 Indian stocks, our findings indicate evidence of positive contemporaneous correlation between price changes and trading volume in Indian stock markets. All the stocks, except Reliance Power, show symmetric behaviour, which is in line with the research findings. Investigation of dynamic relationship between returns and trading volume shows very interesting results. We find evidence that in the Indian market, past returns cause trading volume, which can be easily conceived in an emerging market where the state of development of the market possibly does not’ allow instantaneous information dissemination. These results are further supported by the variance decomposition. However, in most cases the relationship lacks economic significance even though it is statistically significant. The results of impulse response analysis indicate that both returns and volume are mostly affected by their own lag and that volume is more autoregressive than returns, that is, any shock in either returns or volume does not affect the return series beyond one lag. In case of unconditional volatility and trading volume, we find a positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and unconditional volatility.
1. According to the passage, the research findings show
(1) positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and volatility
(2) Reliance Power confirms the general trend
(3) information is not disseminated instantaneously in the stock market
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
2. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) the trading volume does not depend on the past returns
(B) the trading volume largely depends on the past returns
(C) the trading volume has no positive correlation with volatility
(D) the trading volume depends on the variance decomposition
3. According to the passage, subjects that are discussed do not include
(A) trends in returns vis-a-vis volatility
(B) stock market losses during recession
(C) information dissemination being slow within the market
(D) results of the research have more of statistical significance than economic
4. According to the passage, which one of the following inferences is false?
(A) Any shock in either returns or volume affects ,the return series beyond one lag
(B) In case of unconditional volatility and trading volume, there exists a positive contemporaneous relationship between trading volume and unconditional volatility
(C) Both returns and volume ate mostly affected by their own lag
(D) The state of development possibly does not allow information dissemination
PASSAGE-II
There’s an old journalistic axiom that bad news sells. That is reflected every day on our television screens and newspaper headlines. From the lingering impact of the global economic meltdown to acts of terrorism, new pandemics and lately, natural disasters, the bad news seems unending. Yet, in every depressing story there is always a silver lining, an act of courage, independence and enterprise that shows the resilience of the human spirit. Nothing faces more daunting odds than the crucial area of infrastructure. India is the fifth-largest producer of’ electricity in the world. It has the second-largest road network in the world. The second-largest rail network under a single management, and a civil aviation market that will touch 100 million passengers by next year. It also has the third-largest number of telephone subscribers the world over. Yet the Indian infrastructure story is usually one of shortages, blockages and leakages. Whether it is energy or urban infrastructure, roads or ports’, India has unfortunately rarely been known for its efficiency. There have been a few shining examples that have been written about but there are others lesser known but equally important for the role they have played in the infrastructure arena. There are challenges, of course, and we have picked an array of experts to address them. Infrastructure, as everyone knows, will be the key challenge for India’s growth story and John F. Kennedy’s famous words come to mind: ‘American roads are not good because America is rich, but America is rich because American roads are good.’ Hopefully, the same will happen in India too.
5. As per the passage,
(A) infrastructure is not all that relevant for development of a country
(B) India does not have the required know how to build up the infrastructure
(C) infrastructure is relevant for development
(D) infrastructure is most essential for development
6. In the field of infrastructure, India
(A) has shown remarkable progress
(B) is not doing satisfactorily
(C) has shown adequate progress
(D) does not experts to deal with various problems
7. According to the passage,
(A) people love to read good news
(B) people do not prefer good news
(C) band news generally spreads fast
(D) no one wants to hear bad news
8. As per the passage, India
(A) is capable of dealing with problems of building required infrastructure
(B) may not be able to build its infrastructure
(C) is well known for its efficiency in dealing with problems of infrastructure
(D) will continue to struggle in dealing with problems of building the required infrastructure
PASSAGE-III
Power and possession have been central pursuits of modern civilization for a long time. ‘They blocked out or distorted other features of the western renaissance (revival) which promised so much for humanity. But people have been and are still being taught to prize ate money, success, control over the lives of others, acquisition of more and more objects. Modern social, political, and economic systems, whether capitalist, fascist or communist, reject in their working the basic principle that the free and creative unfoldment of every man, woman and child is the true measure of the worth of any society. Such infoldment requires understanding and imagination, integrity and compassion, co-operation among people and harmony between the human species and the rest of nature. Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power have made the modern man an aggressor against everything that is non-human, an exploiter and oppressor of those who are poor, meek and unorganized, a pathological type which hates and distrusts the world and suffers from both acute loneliness and false pride. The need for a new renaissance is deeply felt by those sensitive and conscientious men and women who not only perceive the dimensions of the crisis of our age but who also realize that only through conscious and cooperative human effort may this crisis be met and probably even overcome.
9. The author appears to be advocating which of the following approaches to be adopted
(A) Capitalistic
(B) Communist
(C) Humanistic
(D) Authoritarian
10. Which of the following best describes the behaviour of modern man?
(A) Imaginative and sympathetic
(B) Cruel and greedy
(C) Conscientious and cooperative
(D) Perceptive and creative
11. The author hopes that the present crisis can be solved by
(A) devoted individual efforts
(B) different political systems
(C) collective human efforts
(D) spiritually developed individuals
12. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘central’ as used in the passage?
(A) Lateral
(B) Inadequate
(C) Peripheral
(D) Major
PASSAGE-IV
The history of literature really began long before man learned to write. Dancing was the earliest of the arts. Man danced for joy round his primitive camp fire after the defeat and slaughter of his enemy. He yelled and shouted as he danced and gradually the yells and shouts became coherent and caught the measure of the dance and thus the first war song was sung. As the idea of God, developed prayers were framed. The songs and prayers became traditional and were repeated from one generation to another, each generation adding something of its own. As man slowly grew more civilized, he was compelled to invent some method of writing by three urgent necessities. There were certain things that it was dangerous to forge! and which, therefore, had to be recorded. It was often necessary to communicate with persons who were some distance away and it was necessary to protect one’s property by making tools, cattle and so of,, in some distinctive manner. So man taught himself to write and having learned to write purely for utilitarian reasons he used this new method for preserving his war songs and his prayers. Of course, among these ancient people, there were only a very few individuals who learned to write, and only a few could read what was written.
13. As for the war songs and prayers, each generation
(A) added something of its own to the stock
(B) Blindly repeated the songs and prayers
(C) composed its own songs and prayers
(D) repeated what has handed down to it
14. The first war-song
(A) was inspired by God
(B) developed spontaneously
(C) was a song traditionally handed down
(D) was composed by leading dancers
15. The war song evolved out of
(A) creative inspiration
(B) literature
(C) artistic urge
(D) yelling and shouting
16. Man invented writing because he wanted to
(A) be artistic
(B) write war song
(C) write literature
(D) record and communicate
PASSAGE-V
Economists, ethicists and business sages persuade us that honesty is the best policy, but their evidence is weak. We hoped to find data that would support their theories and thus, perhaps encourage higher standards of business behaviour. To our surprise, our pet theories failed to stand up. Treachery, we found, can pay. There is no compelling economic reason to tell the truth or keep one, s word punishment for the treacherous in the real world is neither swift nor sure. Honesty is, in fact, primarily a moral choice. Business people do tell themselves that, in the long fur, they will do well by doing good. But there is little factual or logical basis for this conviction. Without values, without a basic preference for right over wrong, trust based on such self-delusion would crumble in the face of temptation. Most of us choose virtue because we want to believe in ourselves and have others’ respect and belief in us. And for this, we should be happy. We can be proud of a system in which people are honest because they want to be, not because they have to be. Materially, too, trust based on morality provides great advantages. It allows us to join in great and exciting enterprises that we could never undertake if we relied on economic incentives alone. Economists tell us that trust is enforced in the market place through retaliation of reputation. If you violate a trust, your victim is apt to seek revenge and others are likely to stop doing business with you, at least under favourable terms. A man or woman with a reputation for fair dealing will prosper. Therefore, profit maximizers are honest. This sounds plausible enough until you look for concrete examples. Cases that apparently demonstrate the awful consequences of trust turn out to be few and weak, while evidence that treachery can Pay seems compelling.
17. What did the author find out about the theory that honesty is the best Policy?
(A) It is a useless theory
(B) It is correct on many occasions
(C) It is correct for all businessmen
(D) It is correct only occasionally
18. What do economists and ethicists want us to believe?
(A) Businessmen are honest only at times
(B) Businessmen should be honest at all times
(C) Businessmen cannot be honest at all times
(D) Businessmen turn dishonest at times
19. Which of the following is false according to the passage?
(A) People are generally honest because it pays in the long run
(B) Virtuous behaviour earns the self respect of others
(C) Economists believe that all businessmen are dishonest
(D) Generally people are honest to earn self-respect
20. Why do businessmen, according to economists, remain honest, because dishonest businessmen
(A) are flogged in the market place
(B) are always prosecuted
(C) can make more money
(D) cannot stay in business for long
21. Find the sum of the cubes of first 10 natural numbers.
(A) 3010
(B) 3040
(C) 3025
(D) 3020
22. Three natural numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. If the sum squares of these numbers is 116, then determine the numbers.
(A) 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 6, 8
(C) 6, 9, 12
(D) 8, 12, 16
23. HCF of 150 and 210 is 30, then the HCF of 210 and 360 will be
(A) 60
(B) 30
(C) 90
(D) 70
24. If a piece of rod is 3000 m and we have to supply some lamp posts. One post is at each end and distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 75 m. Find the number of posts required.
(A) 41
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 36
25. The numerator of the fraction which is equivalent to 15/35 with denominator 7, is
(A) 5
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 9
26. Naina gave 1/2 piece of cake to Neha and 1/3 piece of cake to Gunjan. Find what part of cake she has?
(A) 1/6
(B) 5/6
(C) 1/3
(D) 2/3
27. Jaidev take 
to walk across the school ground. Rahul takes 7/4 minutes to do the same. Who takes less time and by what fraction
(A) Rahul, 9/20
(B) Jaidev, 9/20
(C) Rahul, 3/10
(D) Jaidev, 3/10
28. 
(A) 0.2689
(B) 2.689
(C) 2689
(D) 26890
29. A number x is short of y by 40%. By what per cent is y in excess of x?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
30. A’s income is 40% more than B’s income. How much per cent is B’s income less than A’s?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
31. The entry fee for a musical concert was Rs 1, later it was reduced by 20% which increased the net collection of the amount by 40%. The increase in the number of visitors is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 75%
(D) 
32. If P is ‘a’ % more than Q and Q is ‘b’ % less than P, then
(A) 1/a – 1/b = 100
(B) 1/a – 1/b = 1/100
(C) 1/a + 1/b = 100
(D) 1/b – 1/a = 1/100
33. On what sum of money lent out at 9% per annum simple interest for 6 years does the simple interest amount to Rs 810?
(A) Rs 1,500
(B) Rs 1,000
(C) Rs 1,200
(D) Rs 1,800
34. Two equal sums of money were lent at simple interest at 10% per annum for 4 yrs. and 5 yrs. respectively. If the difference in interests for two periods was Rs 220, then each sum is
(A) Rs 880
(B) Rs 1,100
(C) Rs 2,200
(D) Rs 1,640
35. A sum of money amounts to Rs 6272 in 2 yrs and Rs 7024.64 in 3 yrs. The rate of interest per annum is
(A) 8% per annum
(B) 12% per annum
(C) 6% per annum
(D) 10% per annum
36. Effective annual rate of interest, corresponding to a nominal rate of 4% per annum payable half-yearly is
(A) 4.04% per annum
(B) 4.15% per annum
(C) 4.18% per annum
(D) 4.10% per annum
37. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C can do it in 15 days and C and A can do the same work in 20 days. Find the number of days in which A alone can do the same work.
(A) 20 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 45 days
(D) 60 days
38. A supplies 20 men who work for 8 h a day for 6 days. B supplies 15 men working at 9 h a day for 7 days and C supplies 10 men working 6 h a day for 8 days to do a certain work. If Rs 636 is paid for all the men, what is C’s share?
(A) Rs 128
(B) Rs 136
(C) Rs 148
(D) Rs 154
39. There is a leak in the bottom of a cistern. When the cistern is in through repair, it would be filled in 
It now takes half an hour longer. If the cistern is full, how long would the leak empty the cistern?
(A) 28 h
(B) 29 h
(C) 30 h
(D) 31 h
40. The fourth proportional to 5, 6 and 150, is
(A) 30
(B) 125
(C) 180
(D) 120
41. If a : b = 5 : 9, b : c = 6 : 11 , find a : b : c.
(A) 11 : 18 : 33
(B) 10 : 19 : 34
(C) 11 : 19 : 34
(D) 10 : 18 : 33
42. If all the members of a team are juniors or seniors and if the ratio of juniors to seniors in the team is 3 : 5. What per cent of the team members constitute the seniors?
(A) 37.5%
(B) 62.5%
(C) 65.2%
(D) 35.7%
43. A man is walking at a speed of 10 km/h. After every kilometer, he takes rest for 5 min. How much time will he take to cover a distance of 5 km?
(A) 20 min
(B) 30 min
(C) 40 min
(D) 50 min
44. A man can row 
win still water. If in a river which is running at 
it takes him 1 hr 35 min. to row to a place and back, how far off is the place?
(A) 8.6 km
(B) 8 km
(C) 8.4 km
(D) 7 km
45. A train 150 m long is running at 40 km/h. In what time will it pass a man running at 4 km/h in the same direction in which the train is going?
(A) 16 sec
(B) 12 sec
(C) 15 sec
(D) 18 sec
46. The value of 
is
(A) 6/17
(B) 7/16
(C) 17/6
(D) None of these
47. 
(A) 2 + √2
(B) 2 – √2
(C) 0
(D) None of these
48. What must be the side of an equilateral triangle so that its area may be equal that of a square of which the diagonal is 15 metre?
(A) 16.11 m
(B) 18 m
(C) 21.11 m
(D) 10.22 m
49. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high, from two points on the level ground on its opposite sides are 45° and 60°. What is the distance between the two points?
(A) 47.32 m
(B) 55.32 m
(C) 40.21 m
(D) None of these
50. From the vertex of an obtuse angle, perpendiculars are drawn to the arms of the angle. If the angle between the above perpendiculars is 35°, then what is the measure of the obtuse angle?
(A) 145°
(B) 135°
(C) 160°
(D) 165°
Directions (Qs. 51 and 52): Read the following information to answer these questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle facing the centre. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the right of A. C is sitting between A & G and B & E are not sitting opposite to each other.
51. Who is third to the left of D?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) A
(D) None of these
52. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(A) D and A are sitting opposite to each other
(B) C is third to the right of D
(C) E is sitting between F and D
(D) A is sitting between C and F
Directions (Qs. 53 and 54): Study the sequence and replace the “?” mark from the given alternatives.
53. 2, 3, 4, 9, 3, 4, 5, 12, 4, 5, 6, 15, 5, “?”, 7, 18
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 6
(D) 9
54. ab “?” d “?” bc “?” c “?” ab “?” d
(A) cadbdc
(B) cabbcd
(C) abbcdd
(D) caddbc
Directions (Qs. 55 and 56): Numbers in the following figures follow a certain arrangement. What will come in place of ‘?’ from the given alternatives.
55. 
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 28
(D) 20
56. 
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 9
(D) 3
57. Asha walks 3 km Southward and then turns right and walks 2 km. She again turns right and walks 3 km and turns towards her left and starts walking straight. In which direction is she walking now?
(A) East
(B) North
(C) South
(D) West
58. Madhuri travels 14 km Westwards and then turns left and travels 6 km and further turns left and travels 26 km. How far is Madhuri now from the starting point?
(A) √180 km
(B) √80 km
(C) √100 km
(D) None of these
59. Pointing towards a boy Veena said “He is the son of only son of my grandfather”. How is that boy related to Veena?
(A) Uncle
(B) Brother
(C) Cousin
(D) Data inadequate
60. Kamal told Vimal, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother.” Whom did Kamal defeat?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Brother
(D) Father in law
Directions (Qs. 61 and 62): From amongst the given figures (1) to (4), choose the figure that represents the relationship among the three given classes in these questions.
61. India, Lucknow, USA
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
62. Batsmen, Bowlers, All-rounders
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Directions (Qs. 63 and 64): In each of these questions, two pairs of numbers are given but one number in the second pair is missing. Identify the relationship between the two numbers in the first pair and find the missing number in the second pair such that the numbers in second pair also follow the same relationship.
63. 13 : 5 :: 1010 : ?
(A) 100
(B) 1
(C) 10
(D) 1000
64. 16 : 240 :: 11 : ?
(A) 100
(B) 90
(C) 110
(D) 80
Directions (Qs. 65-67): Complete the given series of figures by replacing ‘?’ from the answer figures.
65.
66.
67.
Directions (Qs. 68-73): Each question consists of a problem followed by two statements numbered as I and II. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Mark answer as
(A) if statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) if statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) if both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) if statements I and II together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question
68. How many ewes (female sheep) in a flock of 50 sheep are black?
(I) There are 10 rams (male shop) in the flock
(II) Forty per cent of the animals are black
69. If a and b are both positive, what per cent of b is a?
(I) a = 3/11 (II) b/a = 20
70. What is the ratio of male to female officers in the police force in town T?
(I) The number of female officers is 250 less than half the number of male officers.
(II) The number of female officers is 1/7 the number of male officers.
71. What is the value of n?
(I) 3n + 2m = 18
(II) n – m = 2n – (4 + m)
72. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?
(I) x + y = 20 (II) x = y2
73. Is w an integer?
(I) 3w is an odd number.
(II) 2w is an even number.
Directions (Qs. 74and 75): Each of these questions consists of a statement followed by two arguments numbered as I and II. Decide which of the arguments is ‘strong’ or ‘not strong’ from the-statement.
Mark answer as
(A) is only argument I is strong.
(B) if only argument II is strong.
(C) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
(D) if both arguments I and II are strong.
74. Statement: Should school education be made free in India?
Arguments: I. Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
75. Statement: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire-crackers in India?
Arguments: (I) No, this will make thousands of workers jobless.
(II) Yes, the fire-cracker manufactures use child labour to a large extent.
76. “Consumer Electronic Imaging Fair 2013” formally known as “Photo Fair” was organized during January 2013 at
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
77. Who is the brand ambassador of NOKIA Phones in India?
(A) Shah Rukh Khan
(B) Aamir Khan
(C) Abhishek Bachchan
(D) M S Dhoni
78. Which are the rivers that originate from the Mansarovar region?
(A) Narmada, Tapti, Beas
(B) Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra
(C) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
(D) Ganges, Yamuna, Hooghly
79. Where are the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee located?
(A) Italy
(B) Switzerland
(C) Belgium
(D) France
80. What is common about famous personalities Manish Malhotra J. J. Valya and Rohit Bal?
(A) Male Modelling
(B) Film Direction
(C) Novel Writing
(D) Fashion Designing
81. Which Indian State is the leading Cotton producer?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Mahrashtra
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
82. Mahindra & Mahindra has acquired the manufacturing of _____ by naming its next generation electric car as the Mahindra e20 that is ‘E-too-oh’.
(A) Reva
(B) Punto
(C) Nano
(D) Bolero
83. World’s largest roller coaster named ‘Ferrari World’ is located in
(A) Tokyo
(B) Abu Dhabi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Beijing
84. Who won the men’s national table tennis championship in January 2013 held in Raipur?
(A) Soumyajit Ghosh
(B) Sharat Kamal
(C) Shourabh Chakraborty
(D) G. Jalyan
85. Who won the reality TV show “Bigg Boss Season 6” in January 2013 hosted by actor Salman Khan?
(A) Sana Khan
(B) Urvashi Dholakia
(C) Imam Siddique
(D) Niketan Madhok
86. ‘Canterbury’, the premium Indian brand of woolen cardigans and pullovers is from the house of
(A) Monte-Carlo
(B) Woodland
(C) Digjam
(D) OCM
87. Which state has the traditional dress of men known as “Sola or Fotua” and “Eri-Chaddar”?
(A) Assam
(B) Tripura
(C) Nagaland
(D) Meghalaya
88. Which one of the following cosmetic companies has launched Colour Riche Nail Collection “Le nail Art”?
(A) Lakme
(B) L’Oreal
(C) Garnier
(D) Clinique
89. The ‘more mega store’, retail chain belongs to which Indian Industry?
(A) Reliance Industry
(B) Bharti Enterprises
(C) Aditya Birla Group
(D) None of these
90. Who is the brand ambassador of the Hockey India League (HIL) 2013?
(A) Pragat Singh
(B) Dhanraj Pillai
(C) Navjot Singh Sidhu
(D) Virat Kohli
91. ‘Van Heusen’ is a leading International brand of
(A) formal wear
(B) fashion accessories
(C) jewellery
(D) None of these
92. ‘Sonata’, ‘Ajanta’ and ‘Maxima’ are the well known Indian brands of
(A) jewellery
(B) watches
(C) cosmetics
(D) home furnishing
93. Lionel Messi, the winner of four FIFA-Ballion d’Or and world player of the year belongs to
(A) Brazil
(B) Spain
(C) Argentina
(D) Germany
94. Who has been crowned ‘Miss Earth’ Beauty Pageant at the 12th edition held in November 2012?
(A) Stephany Stetanowitz
(B) Tereza Fajksova
(C) Osmariel Villalobos
(D) Camila Brant
95. FDI stands for
(A) Fashion Directorate of India
(B) Foreign Direct Investment
(C) Fashion Designer’s Initiative
(D) Foreign Directory of Industries
96. The international awards given by the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, California (USA) for excellence in the field of cinema are popularly known as
(A) IIFA Awards
(B) Oscar Awards
(C) BAFTA Awards
(D) Grammy Awards
97. The largest continent in terms of area is
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) North America
98. The space agency NASA belongs to
(A) Germany
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) France
99. The basic function of technology ‘Blue tooth’ is to allow
(A) landline phone to mobile phone communication
(B) signal transmission on mobile phones only
(C) satellite television communication
(D) wireless communication between equipment
100. Which among the following is the source of a non-conventional energy?
(A) Solar Power
(B) Coal
(C) Uranium
(D) Petroleum
Directions (Qs. 101-104): Each of these questions consists of two statements followed by two conclusions I and II respectively. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the statements.
Mark answer as
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow
101. Statements: (I) All jungles are tigers.
(II) Some tigers are horses.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are jungles.
(II) All horses are jungles.
102. Statements: (I) All birds are tall.
(II) Some tall are hens.
Conclusions: (I) Some birds are hens.
(II) Some tall are hens.
103. Statements: (I) All artists are smokers.
(II) Some smokers are drinkers.
Conclusions: (I) Some smokers are artists.
(II) Some drinkers are not smokers
104. Statements: (I) Some hens are cows.
(II) All cows are horses.
Conclusions: (I) Some horses are hens.
(II) Some hens are horses.
Directions (Qs. 105-108): The questions given below have a statement followed by two assumptions I and II. Decide which of the assumptions is implicit from the statement.
Mark answer as
(A) if only assumption I is implicit
(B) if only assumption II is implicit
(C) if neither assumption I nor II is implicit
(D) if both assumptions I and II are implicit
105. Statement: ‘Invest in our regular scheme and earn an interest of at least 10%’. Advertisement by a financial institution.
Assumptions:
(I) 10% interest may attract a good number of investors.
(II) No other scheme offers interest as high as 10%.
106. Statement: ‘For easier and faster communication, use our broadcast connections’. An advertisement.
Assumptions:
(I) Many people are looking up for the best communication facilities.
(II) Broadband connections are the preferred modes of communications.
107. Statement: ‘You must refer to learn to dictionary, if you want to become a good writer’, A advises B.
Assumptions:
(I) Only writers refer to the dictionary.
(II) All writers, good or bad, refer to the dictionary.
108. Statement: A advises B, ‘If you want to study English, joint Institute Y.’
Assumptions:
(I) B listens to A’s advice.
(II) Institute Y provides good coaching for English.
Directions (Qs. 109-118): Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding passage. Evaluate each statement and mark answer as
(A) if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision: one of the goals sought by the decision maker
(B) if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision
(C) if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major objective directly
(D) if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision: a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative
PASSAGE-I
The Delhi University’s (DU) decision to convert its three-year undergraduate (UG) programmes into four years with multiple exit points and greater freedom for students to pick their subjects is an excellent step. Unlike the top universities in the US, Britain and in other developed nations, most Indian universities continue to thrust a mandatory course structure down the throats of students, giving them little opportunity to figure out where their real interests and abilities lie. At present, if a student wants to change her stream, she will have to drop a year and apply afresh. In the new scheme of things, multiple exit points will allow students to leave the course after three years and come back later to continue it. The new four-year programme will align with international degree programmes, making it easier for students to apply abroad for post-graduate (PG) courses. Only India’s professional education schools that teach engineering, architecture, law and medicine have internationally aligned course structures. At present, humanities and science students can’t go to the US to study after they finish a their three-year UG programmes because they fall short of the requirement of 16 years (10+2+4) of formal education that American varsities want. Earlier in the Year, DU launched meta-university, which gives students from one varsity the chance to study in another varsity. These two reforms-coupled with the shift to a semester system-indicate that administrators and policymakers are now willing to move forward. That DU is at the forefront of these reforms is a welcome sign because it is the country’s largest university (in terms of numbers of full-time students) and has historically shown the way to India’s higher education system. But such changes can be introduced and sustained only with the support of all stakeholders. As the fracas between the last DU vice-chancellor and his faculty over the semester system showed, the absence of discussions with teachers, students and independent academicians can make the reform process painful.
109. The new four-year programme will align with international degree programme.
110. Humanities and science students fall short of the requirement of sixteen years of formal education.
111. Students will get enough opportunities to pursue courses of their abilities and interests.
112. Students can apply abroad for post graduate courses.
113. Delhi University (DU) is the largest university in the country.
PASSAGE-II
Over half of the total number of malls in the Delhi-National Capital Region (NCR) are vacant due to reasons like economic and lack of robust revenue generation model, according to a survey conducted by the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (Assocham). The total rate of vacancy in malls in Delhi NCR is 55% while in Mumbai it is 52% followed by Ahmedabad-5l%, Chennai -50%, Hyderabad-48% and Bangaluru-41% The survey further said that construction of several malls have significantly been delayed and withdrawn due to lukewarm response from retailers. Vacancy levels are due to poor location, poor design and poor parking facilities while some are operating at 60% occupancy. The industry is also facing problems like multiple taxes, lack of clarity in policies and shortage of experts in areas such as supply chain and store management, Biggest shopping malt can feel like a pretty lonely place. Majority of retailers said that they are holding back on new store openings and focusing on existing stores. The sharpest decline in mall rental values are also recorded high in Delhi-NCR followed by Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangaluru, Kolkata and Pune. Most of the shop owners, who participated in the survey said that increasing rents will not work because at the end of the day, it has to be affordable for retailers to do business. There are about 1,200 shopping malls in the country. Due to high rent and lack of proper infrastructure for luxury retailing, many international brands are opting for online retailing.
114. The designing of malls is poor.
115. The industry is facing problems like multiple taxes, lack of clarity in policies and shortage of experts.
116. The biggest shopping mall feels like a lonely place.
117. Business in malls should be affordable to the retailers.
118. Rents are high and there is a lack of infrastructure for luxury retailing.
Directions (Qs. 119-121): Read the following situation to answer these questions.
SITUATION
Urban areas in India are extremely dirty and the conditions are deteriorating day by day. Big heaps and mounds of piled garbage can be seen not only around slums, but also around busy market places, where transactions in millions take place. Public health is the immediate sufferer and during the spread of any epidemic, lives of people are at the risk. The problems can be overcome by adopting an alternate method of New Public Management (NPM). According to a survey, a traditional bureau chief carries out garbage at present with battalions of sweepers and fleets of trucks. So, much of time is spent in handling inputs to the workers. NPM is the new technique of extension of market principles to public administration. It includes giving contracts of services to the private sectors, which could include cooperatives of former municipal employees. By this method, the bureau chief can supervise the output of his bureau, instead of focusing on inputs. This is the need of the hour as we need clean towns to ensure hygienic atmosphere.
119. What would the former employees of municipal corporations do, if New public Management is implemented?
(A) Supervise the outputs of the bureau
(B) Become jobless as the contacts wilt be in the hands of private sector and hence they will form unions and go on strikes
(C) Form co-operatives and start delivering the same services they have been rendering
(D) Be paid more due to increase in efficiency and adaptability
120. What can be inferred from the given situation?
(A) Poverty is also responsible for epidemics break through
(B) Dirty surroundings not always reflect poverty
(C) Lives of the poor people are at a greater risk
(D) Poverty is an indication of dirty surroundings
121. What is the advantage of New Public Management over traditional system?
(A) The bureau chief can devote more time and attention to the result of the work undertaken
(B) The New Public Management is more efficient and economical than the traditional system
(C) The new Public Management will ensure cleaner cities and towns
(D) None of these
Directions (Qs. 122-125): A business situation is given below followed by four possible conclusions which can be drawn from the facts stated in the situation, You have to examine each conclusion separately in the context of the situation and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark answer as
(A) if conclusion is definitely true
(B) if conclusion is probably true
(C) if information given in passage is inadequate to provide the answer
(D) if conclusion is definitely false
‘Indian rice exporters might face tough competition in the International market’, allege the exporters. International demand for Indian rice surfaced, either due to its low prices or due to the mop failure in other competitive countries. However, our competitors are having a good crop of rice this year and which indeed sounds as a threat for India, they pointed out. The leading producing countries like Thailand, Vietnam, Myanmar, USA and Pakistan are bringing down their prices at par with Indian prices. Internationally, these countries have reduced price by $50 per tonne in lower grades, coming almost at par with Indian prices. Indian rice currently quoting price between $ 260 and $ 265 per tonne. However, in high grade the difference still remains high. Therefore, India can expect to be competitive in high grades provided the quality and deliveries are ensured in time. Pakistan is our main competitor and it has reduced its price by 15 per cent coming almost in line with the Indian prices. The very fact that international producers have started to reduce their price is a signal for Indian exporters to gear up for 2013-14.
122. Indian rice exporters have no potential threat in the International market for exporting rice.
123. Quality and delivery of goods in time are the two main components for being in the forefont.
124. To remain in the International market, India should reduce its price.
125. Indian crops were inferior in quality than the leading rice-producing countries.
Directions (Qs. 126-128): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
126. The number of aboriginal inhabitants in Australia is considerable.
(A) primitive
(B) ancient
(C) unoriginal
(D) irrational
127. The American policy did much do escalate the conflict.
(A) spread in a wider area
(B) scale up
(C) reduce in intensity
(D) put an end to
128. The country’s resources should be judiciously
(A) sparingly
(B) reasonably
(C) inadequately
(D) immensely
Directions (Qs. 129-131): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning of the underlined word in the sentence.
129. He has delicate
(A) fit
(B) ungainly
(C) strong
(D) rugged
130. His appointment was confirmed last month.
(A) disappointment
(B) discharge
(C) suspension
(D) dismissal
131. It used to be said that travel broadens one’s outlook.
(A) restricts
(B) contracts
(C) shrinks
(D) narrows
Directions (Qs. 132-135): Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word.
132. Anomaly
(A) anomalys
(B) anomaly’s
(C) anomalice
(D) anomalies
133. Louse
(A) lice
(B) louses
(C) louse’s
(D) lousies
134. Mouse
(A) mice
(B) mouses
(C) mousse
(D) mouse
135. Syllabus
(A) sylabus
(B) syllabi
(C) syllabus’
(D) sylabuses
Directions (Qs. 136-139): In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words.
136. To examine one’s own thoughts and feelings.
(A) Meditation
(B) Retrospection
(C) Reflection
(D) Introspection
137. A song embodying religious and sacred emotions.
(A) Lyric
(B) Ode
(C) Hymn
(D) Ballad
138. List of headings of the business to be transacted at a meeting.
(A) Schedule
(B) Agenda
(C) Proceedings
(D) Excerpts
139. To confine within walls.
(A) Immure
(B) Immune
(C) Immolate
(D) Immigrant
Directions (Qs. 140-147): Fill in the blanks.
140. The main road neatly ______ the town and offers a panoramic of all its delights, ranging from nature parks to an amusement centre, a nine hole golf course to mountain resorts and a/an _____ of shopping and dining options for your family.
(A) bisects, plethora
(B) cuts, range
(C) divides, diversity
(D) demarcates, excess
141. I have seen many people go through a lifetime of anger, ______ at the rottenness of our society, at the inefficiency of our infrastructure, the _____ things they are not capable of doing.
(A) exploding, callous
(B) raving, cruel
(C) shouting, mean
(D) ranting, unhappy
142. The differentiated entitlements could be ______ to those who are economically or physically ______.
(A) confined, underprivileged
(B) concerning, lesser than
(C) capsule, privileged
(D) restricted, handicapped
143. Should it enable every child, woman and man to have an _______ for a healthy and productive life or just have _____ to the calories required for existence.
(A) interest, view
(B) opportunity, access
(C) occasion, sight
(D) end, reach
144. To ensure food security for all, we should be clear about the definition of the problem, the precise index of _______ impact and the road map to _____ the goal.
(A) gauging, promote
(B) measuring, achieve
(C) counting, reach
(D) checking, scale
145. We ______ to inform you that we cannot include your thesis in our library, on the ______ of not receiving permission from your supervisor.
(A) saddened, reason
(B) lament, pretext
(C) repent, justification
(D) regret, grounds
146. When her illness took a turn for the worse, the doctors took ____ to ____ the situation.
(A) steps, ameliorate
(B) approaches, better
(C) modes, improve
(D) measures, enhance
147. The public relations agency _____ out all the stops to ensure a _____ attendance at the gala.
(A) gave, phenomenal
(B) took, marvellous
(C) pulled, spectacular
(D) forked, staggering
Directions (Qs. 148-150): In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words.
148. To form a plot or scheme, especially one to do something wrong or wicked, or designed to cause harm.
(A) Machinate
(B) Conspire
(C) Machete
(D) Fatal
149. A place or state of uncontrollable confusion or destructive forces, especially one to which someone or something is inevitably drawn.
(A) Maelstrom
(B) Megilp
(C) Senate house
(D) Magistral
150. Very high-spirited; full of cheerfulness or enthusiasm.
(A) Eccentric
(B) Eburnean
(C) Sporting
(D) Ebullient
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