NIFT (Undergraduate) SOLVED PAPER-2019
1. A sum of Rs 16800 is divided into two parts One part is lend at the simple interest of 6% per annum and the other at 8% per annum. After 2 yr total sum received is Rs 19000. The sum lend at 6% of simple interest is
(a) Rs 12200
(b) Rs 12000
(c) Rs 11000
(d) Rs 10000
2. 2 men and 3 women together or 4 men together can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 3 men and 3 women will complete the same work in
(a) 12 days
(b) 16 days
(c) 18 days
(d) 19 days
3. A vessel has 30 L of wine and 10 L of water. 4L of mixture is taken out from vessel and 4 L of water is added. This process is repeated one more time. The ratio of quantity of wine is left and initial quantity of wine is
(a) 80 : 92
(b) 81 : 100
(c) 45 : 47
(d) 89 : 91
4. A man bought toffees at 6 for Rs. 1. How many toffees for Rs 1 must he sell to gain 50%?
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
5. A sum of Rs 221 is dived among X, Y and Z such that X gets Rs 52 more than Y. Y gets Rs 26 more than Z. The ratio of the shares of X, Y and Z respectively is
(a) 9 : 5: 3
(b) 9 : 3 : 5
(c) 5 : 9 : 3
(d) 10 : 6 : 5
6. 11 friends went to a hotel and decided to pay the bill amount equally. But 10 of them could pay Rs 60 each, as a result 11th has to pay Rs 50 extra than his share. Find the amount paid him.
(a) Rs 105
(b) Rs 110
(c) Rs 115
(d) Rs 120
7. If on selling 12 notebooks any seller makes a profit equal to the selling price of 4 notebooks, what is his per cent profit?
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 
(d) Data inadequate
8. The respective ratio between the present ages of Parag and Sapna is 21 : 19. Six years ago, the respective ratio between their ages was 9 : 8. How old is Lina, if her present age is 12 yr less than Sapna’s present age?
(a) 38 yr
(b) 28 yr
(c) 26 yr
(d) 30 yr
9. Samir drove at the speed of 45 km/h from home to a resort. Returning over the same route, he got stuck in traffic and took on hour longer, also her could drive only at the speed of 40 km/h. How many kilometers did he drive each way?
(a) 250 km
(b) 360 km
(c) 310 km
(d) 275 km
10. X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less than Y. Then, the time in which they can complete the work together, is
(a) 15 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 
(d) 5 days
11. Samira, Malura and Kaira rented a set of DVDs at a rent of Rs 578. If they used it for 8h. 12 h and 14 h. respectively. What is Kiara’s share of rent to be paid?
(a) Rs 238
(b) Rs 204
(c) Rs 192
(d) Rs 215
12. In a division sum, the divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 46, then the dividend is
(a) 4236
(b) 4306
(c) 4336
(d) 5336
13. Rs 730 were divided among A, B, C in such a way that if A gets Rs 3, then B gets Rs 4 and if B gets Rs 3.50 then C gets Rs 3. The share of B exceeds that of C by
(a) Rs 30
(b) Rs 40
(c) Rs 70
(d) Rs 210
14. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 37°C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 34° If the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then what was the temperature of Thursday?
(a) 36.5°C
(b) 36°C
(c) 35.5°C
(d) 34°C
15. If x : y :: 2 : 3 and 2 : x :: 4 : 8 the value of y is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 12
16. A copper rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length is drawn into a wire of uniform diameter and 128 m length. The radius (in cm) of wire is
(a) 1/15
(b) 1/30
(c) 2/15
(d) 15
17. A box filled with paper bundles weight 36 kg. If the weight of the box and paper bundles respectively are in the ratio of 3 : 22, then the weight of papers (in g) is
(a) 30680
(b) 30710
(c) 31500
(d) 31680
18. A solid sphere of 6 cm diameter is melted and recast into 8 solid spheres of equal volume. The radius (in cm) of each small sphere is
(a) 1.5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 2.5
19. Three taps A, B and C together can fill an empty cistern in 10 min. The tap A alone can fill it in 30 min and the tap B alone in 40 min. How long will the tap C alone take to fill it?
(a) 16 min
(b) 24 min
(c) 32 min
(d) 40 min
20. A man travelled a distance of 80 m in 7 h partly on foot at the rate of 8 km/h and partly on bicycle at 16 km/h. The distance travelled on the foot is
(a) 32 km
(b) 48 km
(c) 36 km
(d) 44 km
21. The average of six number is 32. If each of the first three numbers is increased by 2 and each of the remaining three numbers is decreased by 4, then the new average is
(a) 35
(b) 34
(c) 31
(d) 30
22. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work is
(a) 11 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 42 days
23. A shopkeeper sells an article at a loss of 
. Had he sold an article for Rs 51.80 more, he would have earned a profit of 6%. The cost profit of an article is
(a) 280
(b) 580
(c) 370
(d) 450
24. A moving train passes a platform 50 m long in 14 s and a lamp-post in 10 s. The speed of the train is
(a) 24 km/h
(b) 36 km/h
(c) 40 km/h
(d) 45 km/h
25. Ramesh bought 10 cycles for Rs 500 each. He spent Rs 2000 on the repair of all cycles. He sold five of them for Rs 750 each and the remaining for Rs 550 each. Then, the total gain or loss % is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
26. Ratio between the monthly incomes of A and B is 9 : 8 and the ratio between their expenditures is 8 : 7. If they save Rs 500 each. Find A’s monthly income.
(a) Rs 3500
(b) Rs 4000
(c) Rs 4500
(d) Rs 5000
27. When n is divided by 5 then remainder is 2. What is the remainder when n2 is dived by 5?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
28. In an election there were only two candidates. One of the candidates secured 40% of votes and is defeated by the other candidate by 298 votes. Then the total number of votes polled is
(a) 745
(b) 1460
(c) 1490
(d) 1500
29. At some rate of simple interest. A lent Rs 6000 to B for 2 yr and Rs 1500 to C for 4 yr and received Rs 900 as interest from both of them together. The rate of interest per annum was
(a) 5%
(b) 6%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
30. If the annual income of A, B and C is in the ratio 1 : 3 : 7 and the total annual income of A and C is Rs 80000, then the monthly salary of B (In Rs) is
(a) 20000
(b) 25000
(c) 30000
(d) 15000
Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.
31. The boy turned a deaf ear to the pleading of all his well-wishers.
(a) listened carefully
(b) was deadly opposed
(c) posed indifference
(d) did not pay any attention
32. Jones is in the habit of fishing in troubled waters.
(a) taking advantage of troubled conditions for personal profits.
(b) putting others in trouble
(c) indulging in evil conspiracies
(d) aggravating the situation
33. He rides the high horse because of his high connection.
(a) is famous
(b) talks in a flattering way
(c) puts on airs
(d) is prosperous
Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.
34.
(a) Insolance
(b) Insolence
(c) Insoolence
(d) Insolense
35.
(a) Parlamentary
(b) Parliamentary
(c) Parliamantry
(d) Parliamentery
Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt words.
36.
(a) Acknowledgment
(b) Acrostic
(c) Audible
(d) Accommodate
37.
(a) Occasion
(b) Commitment
(c) Brevity
(d) Commitee
Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.
38. Knives
(a) Knive
(b) Kniveses
(c) Knife
(d) None of these
39. Teeth
(a) Tooths
(b) Teeths
(c) Tooth
(d) Toth
40. Baby
(a) Babys
(b) Babies
(c) Babes
(d) None of these
41. Sheep
(a) Sheeps
(b) Sheepes
(c) Sheep
(d) Sheepesis
Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.
42. The bullet would proved to be fatal and the soldier died immediately.
(a) serious
(b) dangerous
(c) deadly
(d) grievous
43. It is very difficult to retain all that you hear in the class.
(a) ignore
(b) recall
(c) preserve
(d) conserve
44. In spite of their efforts, the team of scientists could not make much headway to solve the problem.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) start
45. We didn’t believe in his statements but subsequent events proved that he was right.
(a) later
(b) many
(c) few
(d) earlier
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.
46. I commenced work ……. the 1st of January.
(a) to
(b) of
(c) from
(d) on
47. An old feud existed ………… the two families.
(a) among
(b) within
(c) in
(d) between
48. She ………. being questioned unnecessarily.
(a) is disliking
(b) has disliked
(c) dislikes
(d) disliked
49. It was cloudy in the morning but the sun ….. now.
(a) shines
(b) is shining
(c) has been shining
(d) shine
Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of the questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
50. The king consolidated the empire into a powerful nation.
(a) divided
(b) isolated
(c) fragmented
(d) weakened
51. Unsettled conditions in the land led to the exodus of hundreds of its citizens.
(a) departure
(b) evacuation
(c) entrance
(d) retreat
52. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.
(a) optional
(b) superfluous
(c) necessary
(d) advisable
53. The actor is well-known both for his humility and courage.
(a) gentleness
(b) courage
(c) honesty
(d) pride
Directions (Q. Nos. 54 ad 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
54. A child who stays away from school without any good reason.
(a) vagabond
(b) delinquent
(c) truant
(d) schizophrenia
55. An office or post with no work but high pay.
(a) Honorary
(b) Sinecure
(c) Gratis
(d) Ex-officio
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
PASSAGE I
Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable changes in form, structure, growth habits and even mode of reproduction, in becoming adapted to different climate environment, types of food supply or mode of living. This divergence in response to evolution is commonly expressed by altering form and function of some parts of the organism, the original identification of which is clearly discernible e.g., The creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine pteropods to be modified into flapping organ useful for swimming and is changed into prehensile arms that bear suctorial disks in the squids and other cephalopods.
The limbs of modes of life for swift running (cursorial) as in the horse and antelope for swinging in trees (arboreal) as in the monkeys, for digging (fossorial) as in the moles and gophers, for flying (Volant) as in the bats, for swimming (aquatic) as in the seals, whales and dolphins and for other adaptations. The structure or organs that show man change in connection with this adaptive divergence are commonly identified readily as homologous, in spite of great alternations. Thus the finger and wrist bones of a bat and whale, for instance, have virtually nothing in common except that they are definitely equivalent element of the mammalian limb.
56. Which is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content?
(a) Evolution
(b) Our Changing Bodies
(c) Adaptive Divergence
(d) Changes in Organs
57. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
(i) What factors cause change in organism?
(ii) What is the theory of evolution?
(iii) Could structurally different organs be similar in evolution?
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) All of these
58. The author organises the passage by
(a) comparison and contrast
(b) general statements followed by examples
(c) hypotheses and proof
(d) definition of key terms
59. Which of the following words could best be substituted to ‘homologous’ without substantially changing the author’s meaning?
(a) divergent
(b) corresponding
(c) altered
(d) tactile
60. The author’s style can best be described as
(a) objective
(b) humorous
(c) esoteric
(d) patronising
PASSAGE 2
A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply. Because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of governments to manage them effectively over the long term becomes of paramount importance.
Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. In February 1981, for example AID funded a National Academy of Sciences panel to advise Nepal on their severe natural resources degradation problems. Some countries such as Senegal. India. Indonesia and Thailand, are now including conservation concerns in their economic development planning process. Because so many governments of developing nations have recognize the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management regimes that are essential to the achievement of sustained development.
61. Some of the developing countries of Asia and Africa have
(a) formulated very ambitious plans of protecting habitat in the region
(b) laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavour
(c) carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategy of planned economic development.
(d) sought the help of US experts in solving the problem of environmental degradation.
62. Technical know-how developed in the USA
(a) cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats of the developing countries
(b) can be properly utilized on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems
(c) can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the problem of environmental degradation
(d) can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.
63. There has been a pronounced deterioirationof habitat all over the globe because of
(a) rigorous operation of the Malthusian principle
(b) unprecedented urbanization and dislocation of self contained rural communities
(c) optimum degree of industrialization in the developing countries
(d) large scale deforestation and desertification
64. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if
(a) there is a North-South dialogue and aid flows freely to the developing world.
(b) industries based on agriculture are widely developed.
(c) economic development takes place within the ambit of conservation of natural resources.
(d) there is an assured supply of food and medical care.
65. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?
(a) There has been a marginal pollution of environment in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.
(b) There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.
(c) There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed and the developing world.
(d) The environmental pollution that has taken place all over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.
PASSAGE III
It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or despised. A successful business man does nothing to increase his popularity by being careful with his money. He is expected to display his success, to have a smart car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with his hospitality. If he is not so, he is considered mean, and his reputation in business may even suffer in consequence. The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first place, he would never have achieved his present wealth.
Among the low income group, a different set of values exists. The young clerk, who makes his wife a present of a new dress when he hasn’t paid his house rent, is condemned as extravagant. Carefulness with money to the point of meanness is applauded as a virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills. The ideal wife for such a man separates her housekeeping money into joyless little piles so much for rent, for food, for the children’s shoes; she is able to face the milkman with equanimity every month, satisfied with her economizing ways, and never knows the guilt of buying something she can’t really afford.
As for myself, I fall into neither of these categories. If I have money to spare, I can be extravagant, but when as is usually the case, I am hard up, then I am the meanest man imaginable.
66. We understand from the passage that
(a) thrifty may lead to success.
(b) wealthy people are invariably successful.
(c) all mean people are wealthy.
(d) carefulness generally leads to failure.
67. As far as money is concerned, we get the impression that the writer
(a) doesn’t often have any money to save
(b) would like to be considered extravagant
(c) is never inclined to be extravagant
(d) is incapable of saving anything
68. It seems that low paid people should
(a) feel guilty if they overspend
(b) borrow money to meet their essential needs
(c) not keep their creditors waiting
(d) not pay their bills promptly
69. How does the housewife, described by the writer, feel when she saves money? She…..
(a) wishes she could sometimes be extravagant
(b) is still troubled by a sense of guilt
(c) wishes life were less burdensome
(d) is content to be so thrifty
70. The statement “she is able to face the milkman with equanimity” implies that
(a) she is not upset as she has been paying the milkman his dues regularly.
(b) she loses here nerve at the sight of the milkman who always demands his dues.
(c) she manages to keep cool as she has to pay the milkman only a month’s dues.
(d) she remains composed and confidant as she knows that she can handle the milkman tactfully.
PASSAGE IV
The sole aim of journalism should be service. The newspaper press is a great power, but jus as an unchained torrent of water submerges whole countryside and devastates crops, even so an uncontrolled press serves but to destroy.
If the control is from without, it proves more poisonous than want of control. It can be profitable only when exercised from within. If this line of reasoning is correct, how many of the journals in the world would stand the test? But who would stop those that are useless? And who should be the judge? The useful and the useless must, like good and evil, go on together, and man must make his choice. The superficiality, the one-sidedness, the inaccuracy and often even dishonesty that have crept into modern journalism, continuously mislead honest men who want to see nothing but justice done.
I have before me extracts from journals containing some gruesome things. There is communal incitement, gross misrepresentation and incitement to political violence bordering on murder. It is of course easy enough for the government to launch out prosecutions or to pass repressive ordinances. These ‘fail’ to serve the purpose intended except very temporarily, and in no case do they convert the writers, who often take to secret propaganda, when the open forum of the press is denied to them.
The real remedy is healthy public opinion that will refuse to patronize poisonous Journals. We have our journalists associations. Why should it not create a department whose business would be to study the various journals and find objectionable articles and bring them to the notice of the respective editors?
The function of the department will be confided to the establishment of contact with the offending journals and public criticism of offending articles where the contact fails to bring about the desired reform. Freedom of the press is a precious privilege that no country can forego. But if there is, as there should be, no legislative check say that of the mildest character, an internal check, say as I have suggested should not be impossible and ought not to be resented?
I hold that it is wrong to conduct newspapers by the aid of immoral advertisements. I do believe that if advertisements should be taken at all there should be a rigid censorship instituted by newspaper proprietors and editors themselves and that only healthy advertisement should be taken.
The evil of immoral advertisements is overtaking even what are known as the most respectable newspapers and magazines.
The evil has to be combated by refining the conscience of the newspapers proprietors and editors. That refinement can come not through the influence of an amateur editor like myself but it will come when their own conscience is roused to recognition of the growing evil or when it is superimposed upon them by a government representing the people and caring for the people’s morals.
71. Which of the following is correct in terms of what is stated in the passage?
(i) External control of press is more dangerous than a press without any checks and control
(ii) Legislative checks are an important means for governing the conduct of press
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
72. What measure is suggested by the author for regularizing the standard of advertisement in newspapers?
(a) Development of a healthy public opinion against them
(b) Regulation by journalist association
(c) Censorhip instituted from within by the newspapers proprietors and editors
(d) All of the above
73. According to the author the real remedy to improve quality of newspapers and journals lies in………
(a) to put a total ban
(b) to initiate a healthy public opinion
(c) bring the objectionable matter to the notice of its proprietors and editors.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
74. The author laments that most of the journals and newspapers would fail the ‘test’. Which test is being referred to here?
(i) The test of accurate reporting
(ii) The test of control from within
(iii) The test meeting the standards laid by legislative provisions
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) Only (ii)
75. In order to improve the quality of newspapers and journals; the government should do all of the following except …………. .
(a) contact the editors of the offending journals
(b) stop the freedom of press
(c) to conduct newspapers by the aid of useful advertisements.
(d) develop a healthy opinion
Directions (Q. Nos. 76 and 77) In the following series, replace the questions mark(?) with suitable option.
76. 7, 12, 22, 42, 82, ?
(a) 143
(b) 162
(c) 172
(d) 187
77. FUGT, HSIR, JQKP, ?
(a) KNLO
(b) LNNM
(c) LOMM
(d) LOMN
Directions (Q. Nos. 78-81) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, M, N, O and P are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at four corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing the centre and the ones sitting at the corners are facing outside (i.e., opposite to the centre). A sits in the middle of one of the sides. Only one person sits between A and M. A sits third to the right of B. Only three people sit between B and N. C sits second to the right of N. O and C face the same direction. M is not an immediate neighbor of O. P sits second to the right of D.
78. Who is to the immediate left of M?
(a) N
(b) B
(c) D
(d) C
79. What is the position of O with respect to P?
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Third to the right
(d) Immediate right
80. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?
(a) None of the given statements is true.
(b) Only three people sit between O and D.
(c) D sits third to the left of A.
(d) M sits at one of the corners of the table.
81. Who amongst the following sit exactly between B and the one who sits to the immediate right of N, when counted from the left of B?
(a) O, D
(b) M, P
(c) C, P
(d) M, C
82. In a certain code, PARTICLE is written as USBQFMDJ, how is DOCUMENT written in that code?
(a) VDEPUONF
(b) VDPENFUQ
(c) VDPENFOU
(d) VDPEUOFN
83. In a survey of a town, it was found that 65% of the people surveyed watch the news of TV, 40% read a newspaper and 25% read a newspaper and watch the news on TV. What per cent of the people surveyed neither watch the news on TV nor read a newspaper?
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
Directions (Q. Nos. 84 and 85) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Each of the five friends A, B, C, D and E scored different marks in an examination. B scored more than both C and D. A secured more than B but less than E. C did not score the minimum marks. The one who scored second highest marks scored 91 and the one who scored lowest scored 73 marks.
84. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
(a) Only one person scored less than D
(b) E scored the maximum marks
(c) There is a possibility that B scored 95 marks
(d) C’s score was definitely more than 91
85. If C scored 15 marks less than A’s marks, then which of the following can be B’s score?
(a) 76
(b) 83
(c) 94
(d) 91
86. Pointing to a boy in a photograph Sudhir said, “He is the son of the maternal grandfather’s only child. How is the boy related to Sudhir?
(a) Self
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin brother
(d) None of these
87. Pointing to a boy in a photograph Sudhir said, “He is the son of the maternal grandfather’s only child. How is the boy related to Sudhir?
(a) Self
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin brother
(d) None of these
88. Raj is standing in the middle of a square field. He starts walking diagonally to North-East. Then, he turns right and reaches the far end of the field. Then, he turns right and starts waling. In the mid-way, he again turns right and starts walking. In halfway, the turns to his left and reaches a new far end. In which direction is Raj now?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) North-West
(d) South-West
Directions (Q. No. 89) The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
(a) If only Argument I is strong
(b) If only Argument II is strong
(c) If either I or II is strong
(d) If neither I nor II is strong
89. Should the tenure of the President be longer?
Argument
(I) No, the President of India is non-executive head. Therefore, there is not need to extend his tenure.
(II) Yes, it will provide an opportunity to President to guide the Government to fulfil the long term objectives.
Directions (Q. No. 90) In question below a statement is given followed b two assumptions numbered I and II.
Give Answer
(a) If only Assumption I is implicit
(b) If only Assumption II is implicit
(c) If either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
(d) If neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
90. Statement The Municipal Corporation has announced 50 per cent reduction in water supply till monsoon arrives in the city.
Assumptions
(I) People may protest against the unilateral decision of the Municipal Corporation may reduce its taxes from the residents as it failed to provide adequate water.
91. Which one of the areas marked I-VII represents the urban educated who are not hard working?
(a) II
(b) I
(c) IV
(d) V
Directions (Q. Nos. 92 and 93) Read the following information and answer the given questions.
There are 3 females A, B and E and 4 males C, D, F and G standing in a straight line. No two females are together. B is to right of C, F and D are not together as A is placed between them G is not near B or E but E and F are together. D is not to the right of B. E is not sitting at the extreme end.
92. Who is in the extreme end?
(a) G and B
(b) C and F
(c) B and D
(d) None of these
93. Who is exactly in the middle?
(a) A
(b) F
(c) E
(d) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 94 and 95) In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two Conclusions I and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions and decide which of the following conclusions from the statement.
Given Answer
(a) If only Conclusion I follows
(b) If only Conclusion II follows
(c) If either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows
94. Statement No country is absolutely self dependent these days.
Conclusions
(I) It is impossible to grow and produce all that a country needs.
(II) Country’s men in general have become lazy.
95. Statement The nation X faced the increased international opposition due to its decision to go on with eight nuclear explosions.
Conclusions
(I) The citizens of the nation have favoured the decision.
(II) Some powerful nations don’t want others to become powerful.
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a school. Each them studies in different standard from standard IV to standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of them has favourite subject from English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not necessarily in the same order.
Q studies in VII standard and does not like either Mathematics or Geography. R likes English and does not study either in V or in IX. T studies in VIII standards and likes Hindi. The one who likes Science studies in X standard. S studies in IV standard. W likes Sanskrit. P does not study in X standard. The one who likes Geography studies in V standard.
96. In which standard does W study?
(a) VII
(b) IX
(c) X
(d) None of these
97. Which subject does P like?
(a) Geography
(b) Mathematics
(c) English
(d) History
98. Which subject does S like?
(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Mathematics
(d) Data inadequate
99. In which standard does P study?
(a) IV
(b) VII
(c) IX
(d) V
100. Which of the following combination of student-standard-subject is correct?
(a) T-VIII-Mathematics
(b) W-VII-Sanskrit
(c) Q-VII-Geography
(d) V-X-Science
101. ‘YOUR STYLE YOUR STORE’ is the tagline of which of the following retail chains?
(a) Lifestyle
(b) Pantaloons
(c) Landmark
(d) Shoppers Stop
102. The popular fabric and apparel brand J . Hampstead belongs to……..
(a) Raymond Group
(b) Aditya Birla Group
(c) Dinesh Suiting
(d) Siyaram Silk Mills
103. Which one of the following personalities is the brand ambassador of popular personal computers brand HP?
(a) Priyanka Chopra
(b) Deepika Padukone
(c) Anushka Sharma
(d) Kangana Ranaut
104. ‘Mia’, the workwear jewellery is from the house of………. .
(a) Joyalukkas Jewellers
(b) Malabar Jewellers
(c) Kalyan Jewellers
(d) Tanishq
105. Which one of the following clothing brands was the title sponsor of the Mr. India 2016 held in December 2016?
(a) Peter England
(b) Van Heusen
(c) Park Avenue
(d) Louis Philippe
106. ‘Ajile’, is the sports lifestyle brand from the house of ……… .
(a) Shoppers Stop
(b) Reliance Trend
(c) Lifestyle
(d) Pantaloons
107. ‘Yepme’ a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) India
108. Which one of the following clothing brands is not owned or marketed by Raymond Group?
(a) ColorPlus
(b) Arrow
(c) Park Avenue
(d) Parx
109. Who is the founder Lakme Cosmetics?
(a) JRD Tata
(b) Aditya birla
(c) Ratan Tata
(d) Mukesh Ambani
110. Which of the following retail stores belongs to Aditya Birla Retail Group?
(a) Big Bazaar
(b) Croma
(c) Hypercity
(d) MORE
111. Who is the CEO of Biotique herbal cosmetic company?
(a) Chandra Kochhar
(b) Vinita Jain
(c) Indra Nooyi
(d) None of these
112. Daikin is considered world’s number one air conditioning company from
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) Japan
(d) Indonesia
113. Which of the following is the bank established by BRICS group of countries?
(a) New Strategic Bank
(b) World Development Bank
(c) Fortune Development Bank
(d) New Development Bank
114. Who among the following is the CEO of ‘Google’?
(a) Sunder Pichai
(b) Satya Nadella
(c) Chuck Robbins
(d) Mark Zuckerberg
115. Anirban Lahiri is a well known Indian player of ……….. .
(a) Chess
(b) Golf
(c) Cricket
(d) Billiards
116. Which among the following products have not got GI tag?
(a) Salem Fabric
(b) Chanderi Sarees
(c) Kota Doria
(d) Bandhani
117. Where is the headquarters of ASEAN located?
(a) Beijing, China
(b) Jakarta, Indonesia
(c) Brazil, South America
(d) Geneva, Switzerland
118. Which among the following is a national acquatic animal of India?
(a) Dolphin
(b) Whale
(c) Ghariyal
(d) Rohu
119. Which is the only riverine island of India?
(a) Andaman
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Majuli
(d) Mannar
120. Name the Indian city which is also known as ‘Manchester of East’.
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Coimbatore
121. In which state is the famous Gir National Park located?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gujarat
(d) Kerala
122. Gaganyaan, a space mission, is scheduled to be launched by which year?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2023
(d) 2022
123. The classical dance from ‘Sattriya’ belongs to which Indian state?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam
124. Which Indian river is known as ‘Tasangpo’ in Tibet?
(a) Godavari
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga
(d) Kaveri
125. Name the private label brand launched by Deepika Padukone on Myntra APP?
(a) Be You
(b) All Bout You
(c) Your Fashion Your Style
(d) Today’s Fashion
Directions (Q. Nos. 126-138) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.
CASE 1
Sustainable fashion is today is highly debated and increasingly covered topic in media and at seminars worldwide.
More and more clothing companies are transforming their business models and improving their supply chains to reduce overall environmental impacts, improve social conditions in factories, etc. We also see a growing awareness among consumers, especially younger generations. When we learn about ‘sustainable fashion’, we soon realize that there are many forms of (more) sustainable fashion. Some individuals – usually younger-prefer to experiment with and renew their wardrobes often; using ‘Second hand & Vintage’, ‘Repair, Redesign & Upcycle’ and ‘Rent,, Loan & Swap’ would possibly be of most interest. For people who prefer newly manufactured clothes without’ history and who has a consistent style, ‘On demand’ and ‘High quality & Timeless design’ are likely to be most attractive. All strategies promoting more environmentally, socially and ethically conscious production and consumption are important steps towards a more sustainable industry.
126. Sustainable fashion today is a
(a) highly debated topic
(b) easy to understand
(c) local concern
(d) outdated
127. More and more clothing companies are transforming their business models into
(a) Environment friendly
(b) Socially acceptable
(c) Technology oriented
(d) All of these
128. Younger designers prefer to experiment with
(a) old clothes
(b) renew clothes
(c) new clothes
(d) both (a) and (b)
129. For people who prefer newly manufactured clothes would prefer those styles which are
(a) On demand
(b) Repaired
(c) Vintage
(d) Second hand
130. Important steps towards a more sustainable industry includes ………… sound production and consumption.
(a) environmentally
(b) socially
(c) ethically
(d) All of the above
131. Sustainable fashion encompasses
(a) reusage
(b) least wastage
(c) redesign
(d) All of these
CASE 2
In a sea of glitz and shimmer, Sabyasachi brought a new idea of beauty – dark shades, dull gold embroidery, mismatched patchwork, tea-stained hues, and a snob’s knowledge of textiles. His subversive aesthetic made him a disruptor, a badge he has worn with great pride for the past two decades. Several have come close, but not sustained their advance. Twenty years later, Sabyasachi still stands strong and stands alone. Here’s why Sabyasachi was the first Indian designer to earn Rs 100 crore a year, in 2014, and his company now notches up a turnover of Rs 253 crore. About seven years ago, there were some companies who were interested, most famously, L Capital, the investment arm of the international luxury conglomerate LVMH, but Sabyasachi says he was not ready then. It isn’t just the numbers, Sabyasachi’s intangibles are his greatest clout. He remains the most plagiarized designer and brand in India. Almost every big label seems to be inspired by him – either the clothes, or the multiple jewels, or even the presentation of ad campaigns.
132. Sabyaschi brought a new knowledge of
(a) textiles
(b) architecture
(c) designs
(d) brands
133. Sabyasachi is famous for his
(a) patchwork
(b) tea-stained hues
(c) dark shades
(d) All of these
134. Few years back Sabyasachi did not accept the investment from luxury conglomerate LVMH because
(a) his brand was not ready then
(b) money was insufficient
(c) company was small
(d) more time was required by him
CASE 3
Tanishq has taken one step further to be more accessible to its customers by launching into the Augmented reality experience at the Bangalore and Delhi airports. Tanishq is leaving no stone unturned to keep their customers happy by adopting innovative ways to display their product range. Tanishq is implementing MirrAR, an Augmented Reality software platform in collaboration with StyleDotMe, a startup focused in innovative application of Augmented Reality (AR) and Artificial Intelligence (AI) for providing the next generation experience to consumers who are interested in the Gems and Jewellery industry. Using the platform users can virtually try on the jewellery in real time, without actually having to wear them. With this technological advancement, customers will have the option of ‘Try and Buy’; trying out the jewellery virtually looking at the AR screen.
135. Tanishq has made its brand more accessible to its customers by launching
(a) Augmented Reality
(b) New Store
(c) Branch
(d) Virtual Reality
136. Augmented reality will help costumers
(a) to purchase more
(b) to try and buy
(c) to look at the store
(d) to get custom made design
137. Introducing such measures by Tanishq will
(a) increase their products
(b) increase their customers
(c) increase their market
(d) keep customer happy
138. Tanishq is implementing MirrAR in collaboration with
(a) StyleDotMe
(b) Oneforty
(c) Voicendo
(d) Hornet
Directions (Q. Nos. 139-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each interference separately in the context of the passage and secede upon its degree of truth or falsity.
(a) if the inference is definitely true i.e, it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(b) if the inference is probably true i.e, though not definitely true in the light of facts given;
(c) if you think the inference is probably false i.e., though not definitely false in the light of facts given;
(d) if you think the inference is definitely false i.e., contradicts the facts given.
CASELET 1
India ranks 153 out of 190 nations in the percentage of women in the lower house of world parliaments. According to a list compiled by the Inter-Parliamentary Union. Rwanda ranks first with 61% of its lower house representatives being women. Even Pakistan with 20% participation from women is ahead of India. India had 65 women out of 545 Members of Parliament (MPs) elected to the 16th Lok sabha in May 2014, for a 12% representation. Only the 15th and 16th Lok sabha changed a previously stagnant representation of under 9% recorded by Indian women MPs since Independence. While we allocate total seats to states by population, the resultant women’s representation at 12% is far below the actual population of women. So, on grounds of fairness, this is a anomaly/ A fully representative Parliament allows the different experiences of genders to craft priorities and shape the economic and social future of a democratic society.
139. India ranks 153 out of 190 nations in the percentage of women in the lower house of world parliaments which shows that India has poor record of women empowerment.
140. Pakistan with 20% participation from women has better representation of women in lower house of parliament than India.
141. A fully representative Parliament allows gender sensitive crafting of priorities and economic and social future of a democratic society.
142. Without proper representation of women in parliament, society cannot grow.
143. To empower woman, it is necessary to give them voice at political level also.
CASELET 2
Police personnel patrolling in the forest carrying rifles on their shoulder and looking for smugglers may appear to be a fancy idea. But for the forest department, an armed police patrol force is a much-needed last resort to ward off enemies of the mangroves. The mangrove ecosystem plays vital role in protecting the land against the ingress of sea water during a tidal surge. It’s an invaluable eco-wall and so, and armed police have had to be roped in. It’s been done, albeit rarely, in other parts of the country too. In Kendrapara, powerful prawn mafias have for decades illegally occupied vast stretches of area after clearing mangrove forests. Aquaculture is lucrative business: it gets very high returns, on minimal investment. This is why there is always a race to clear mangroves and convert it into fish ponds.
144. The mangrove ecosystem plays a vital role in protecting the land against the ingress of sea water during a tidal surge.
145. Mangroves in Kendrapara are facing threats from sand mafia.
146. People are clearing mangrove forests to gain benefits in aquaculture and converting them into fish pond.
147. Mangroves are protected because they give sufficient resources to the government.
CASELET 3
The creative director of Chanel since 1983, Lagerfeld was designing an average of 14 new collections a year, ranging from couture to the high street. In a show entitled Paris-Bombay Art Show, that he had organized in 2011, the designer took inspiration from India and incorporated heavy silks and traditional South Asian teekas on the women who walked the ramp. The show saw Indian influences being kept to the traditional, with the incorporation of churidar-style leggings as well as ornate teekas. In keeping the traditions, the show had even used the old moniker for Mumbai-Bombay. During his long career, Lagerfeld’s signature combinations attracted a host celebrities including Rihanna; Princess Caroline of Monaco; Christine Lagarde and Julianne Moore among others.
148. Lagerfeld took inspiration from India for his designs shows that Indian tradiational outfits are popular abroad
149. By incorporation of churidar-style leggings as well as ornate teekas in his western outfits, Lagerfeld tried to change the traditional concept of Indian fashion.
150. Lagerfeld’s signature combinations attracted a host of celebrities including Rihanna; Princess Caroline of Monaco; Christine Lagarde among others.
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