PGI CHANDIGARH
Postgraduate Medical Entrance Examination
May-2013
Anatomy
1. During a thyroid operation, a nerve coursing along with the superior thyroid artery is injured. What can be the possible consequence(s):
(a) Loss of sensation above vocal cord
(b) Loss of sensation below vocal cord
(c) paralysis of lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
(d) Paralysis of cricothyroid muscle
(e) Loss of sensation in pyriform fossa
2. Nerve of Wrisberg contain(s):
(a) Motor fibers
(b) Sensory fibers
(c) Secretory fibers
(d) Parasympathetic fibers
(e) Sympathetic fibers
3. Causes of facial palsy include(s):
(a) Lacunar infarct
(b) Parotid tumour surgery
(c) Bell’s palsy
(d) GBS
(e) Melkersson syndrome
4. Roof of Inguinal canal is/are formed by:
(a) Internal oblique muscle
(b) Fascia transversalis
(c) Transversus abdominis muscles
(d) 344 oblique muscle
(e) Conjoint tendon
5. After surgery on right side of neck, a person could not raise his arm above head and also could not shrug the shoulder. What is the possible causes:
(a) Damage to spinal accessory nerve
(b) Paralysis of trapezius muscle
(c) Injury to axillary nerve
(d) Paralysis of latissimus dorsi
(e) Paralysis of deltoid muscles
6. An person in unable to dorsiflex the foot and there is loss of sensations on dorsal foot. Possible nerve injury is:
(a) Damage to common peroneal nerve at neck of fibla
(b) Damage to common peroneal at medial malleolus
(c) Compression of anterior tibial nerve at ankle
(d) Damage to superficial peroneal nerve
(e) Damage of deep peroneal nerve
7. A person having difficulty in opening in mouth but not in closing the mouth. Which of the following statement is correct about concerned muscle:
(a) Origin from lateral pterygoid plate
(b) Origin from medial pterygoid plate
(c) Insertion to anterior margin in articular disc
(d) Supplied by mandibular nerve
(e) Depress mandible while opening it
8. Cranial nerve passing through internal auditory meatus:
(a) 7th cranial nerve
(b) 9th cranial nerve
(c) 10th cranial nerve
(d) 11th cranial nerve
(e) 12th cranial nerve
9. A person can not able to adduct this thumb. The nerve involved is characterized by:
(a) Having C7 8 T1 root value
(b) Arise from medial cord of brachial plexus
(c) Arise from lateral cord of brachial plexus
(d) Arise from posterior cord of brachial plexus
(e) Supplies 1st two lumbricals
10. True about anatomy of lateral wall of nose:
(a) Superior turbinate is a separate bone
(b) Ethmoid bone forms an important part of the lateral wall
(c) Middle turbinate is formed by medial process of the ethmoidal layrinth
(d) Opening of inferior meatus is present
Physiology
11. Not found in seminal fluid:
(a) Fructose
(b) Prostaglandins
(c) Spermine
(d) Citric acid
(e) Inositol
12. Which of the following sugar is/are found in aminotic fluid:
(a) Mannose
(b) Sucrose
(c) Glucose
(d) Fructose
(e) Galactose
13. True about Shear stress on vessel:
(a) Parallel to the long axis of blood vessel
(b) Perpendicular to long axis of blood vessel
(c) Increases with increase in axial velocity of fluid
(d) Poiseuille-Hagen equation correlate flow with viscosity
(e) Depend upon viscosity
14. Carbon monoxide transfer factor is/are increased in:
(a) Polycythemia
(b) Anaemia
(c) L→R shunt
(d) R→L shunt
(e) Pulmonary embolism
15. Which hormone regulate(s) serum calcium level:
(a) PTH calcitonin
(b) Adrenaline
(c) 1, 25-Dihydroxy-cholecalciferol
(d) Procalcitonin
16. True statement regarding arterial BP:
(a) Diurnal variation present
(b) Low when taken with small cuff
(c) Standing increases both SBP & DBP
(d) Should be measured in both arms
(e) Exercise increases both SBP & DBP
17. Features of ECF as compared to ICF:
(a) High K
(b) High Na
(c) High proteins
(d) High Cl
(e) Nearly equal osmolarity in both fluid
18. Calcium sensing receptors is/are present at:
(a) PCT
(b) DCT
(c) Loop of Henle
(d) Apical brush-border membrane of the intestinal
(e) Epithelium of intestine
Biochemistry
19. Which of the following is/are not sphingolipidosis:
(a) Tay Sach’s disease
(b) Sandhoff’s disease
(c) Krabbe’s disease
(d) Fabry’s disease
(e) Wolman disease
20. Disease of branched chain amino acid includes
(a) Phenylketonuria
(b) Maple syrup disease
(c) Tayscah’s disease
(d) Isovaleric acidemia
(e) Niemann-Pick disease
21. True about gluconeogenesis:
(a) Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting
(b) Occur in both muscle and liver
(c) Fructose2, 6- biphosphate stimulate it
(d) Excess of acetyl CoA cause stimulation
(e) Carbon skeleton of amino acid is involved in gluconeogenesis
22. Essential fatty acid is/are:
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Linoleic acid
(c) Linolenic acid
(d) Oleic acid
(e) Free fatty acid
23. Which substrate is/are used to provide energy for body:
(a) Ketone bodies
(b) Glucose
(c) Free fatty acids
(d) Creatine phosphate
(e) Collagen
24. Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders:
(a) Phenylketonuria-Mousy odour
(b) Tyrosinemia-Rotten cabbage
(c) Hawkinsuria-Potato smell
(d) Maple syrup disease-Rotten tomato
(e) Alkaptonuria-Rotten egg
25. Which group of amino acid is responsible for peptide bond:
(a) Amino group
(b) Carboxyl group
(c) Side chain
(d) Aldehyde group
(e) Amide group
Immunogenetics & Molecular Biology
26. In a sample of DNA, if Adenine is 23%. What will be amount of guanine present:
(a) 23%
(b) 25%
(c) 46%
(d) 27%
(e) 54%
27. True about DNA polymerase used in PCR:
(a) Obtained from virus
(b) Obtained from bacteria
(c) Used for joining the two strands
(d) It is heat stable
(e) Add nucleotide
28. Post transcriptional modification includes:
(a) All RNA undergo post transcriptional modification
(b) Capping of the pre-mRNA involves the addition of 7-methylgunaosine to the 5’ end
(c) Poly A tailing occur at 3’ end
(d) Intron excision by spliceosome
(e) Primarily occur in cytoplasm
29. True about prokaryotic DNA replication:
(a) Conservative
(b) Semi conservative
(c) Unidirectional
(d) Bidirectional
(e) Semidiscontinuous
30. Immunoflorescent probes are used in:
(a) FRET
(b) Microarray
(c) RIA
(d) Recombinant DNA
(e) ELISA
Pathology
31. Which of the following gene combination is/are found in sarcoma:
(a) EWS-ETV1
(b) EWS-ERG
(c) EWS-CHN
(d) EWS-ATF1
(e) EWS-WT1
32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about pilocytic astrocytoma:
(a) Slow growing
(b) Increase in vascularity
(c) Most commonly involve cerebellum
(d) Mostly cystic in nature
(e) Mostly malignant
33. Human Papilloma Virus does not causes:
(a) Oropharyngeal carcinoma
(b) Cervical carcinoma
(c) Oesophageal carcinoma
(d) Cutaneous carinoma
(e) Burkitt’s lymphoma
34. True about cholelithiasis:
(a) Cholesterol stones are most common
(b) 90% of gallstone are radio-opaque
(c) Mirrizi syndrome is due to impaction of stone in hartmann’s pouch
(d) Hemolytic anaemia cause black colored stone
(e) Carcinoma is not a risk associated with gallstone
35. All are true about ascending cholangitis except:
(a) Most commonly caused by gram positive organisms
(b) In severe cases collapse can occur
(c) Urgent removal of stone by ERCP can be done
(d) Cholecystectomy is also done
(e) Commonly caused by obstruction of bile duct by stone
36. Not true about von Willebrand disease:
(a) aPTT is normal
(b) Bleeding time is normal
(c) Most common pattern of inheritance is autosomal recessive
(d) Bleeding from mucosa in oral cavity may present
(e) Normal platelet count
37. True about Peutz-jeghers syndrome:
(a) Pigmentary changes in skin an mucous membrane around mouth
(b) Adenomatous polyp in intestine
(c) Most common of pattern inheritance is autosomal recessive
(d) 20-30% premalignant
(e) May presents as anemia in children
38. All are true about Mantle cell lymphoma except:
(a) Associated with an (11:14) translocation
(b) Overexpression of the BCL protein
(c) CD 5 positive
(d) CD 23 positive
(e) Centroblasts frequently seen
39. Which of the following statement is true about Congenital nephritic syndrome caused by Nephrin protein mutation:
(a) Cause steroid resistant nephritic syndrome
(b) Nephrin is a key component of the slit diaphragm
(c) Coded by NPHS1 gene
(d) Symptom occur only after 1st month of age
(e) Autosomal dominant pattern
40. Reed Sternberg like cell are seen in:
(a) Adult T cell lymphoma
(b) Extranodal NK/T-Cell Lymphoma
(c) Marginal zone lymphoma
(d) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
(e) Infectious mononucleosis
41. If a patient has bilirubin 20 mg/dl, AST=313, ALT=103 & GGT=44 IU/L. Most probable diagnosis is:
(a) Viral hepatitis
(b) Alcoholic hepatitis
(c) Billiary atresia
(d) Drugs
(e) Autoimmune hepatitis
42. Not raised in liver disorder:
(a) Lipase
(b) Urease
(c) ALP
(d) AST
(e) ALT
43. Presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome includes:
(a) Recurrent abortion
(b) Fetal death
(c) Both arterial and venous thrombosis
(d) Prolonged aPTT
(e) Prolonged PT
44. Feature of Goodpasture syndrome is/are:
(a) Antibody to α chain of Type IV collagen (COL-4A)
(b) Basement membrane involvement
(c) Pulmonary haemorrhage
(d) Crescent formation
(e) Subendothelial deposits
45. Which of the following disease is caused by point mutation:
(a) Colon cancer
(b) Diabetes mellitus type II
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Sickle cell
(e) Gauchers disease
46. True about protooncogene:
(a) Regulate cell growth and expression
(b) Found in normal cells
(c) Induced by virus
(d) Inactivated by virus
(e) May convert to oncogene
47. True about beta thalassemia:
(a) Common in India
(b) Change in globin gene
(c) Microcytosis
(d) HbF
(e) Secondary hemochromatosis may occur
48. Mitochondrial inheritance:
(a) Mothers transmit their mtDNA to both their sons and daughters
(b) Both parents can transmit their mtDNA to both their children
(c) Mitochondrial DNA codes for 37 genes
(d) Mitochondrial disease commonly affect neuromuscular system
(e) Mutation cause Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
49. True about serum AFP level:
(a) Raised in testicular tumor
(b) Raise in 70% cases of HCC
(c) Correlation between tumor recurrence after surgery in HCC.
(d) Correlation with HCC size
(e) Upper limit normal in the serum is 200 ng/mL
50. Maternal serum AFP raised in:
(a) Gestational Trophoblastic disease
(b) Down syndrome
(c) Omphalocoele
(d) Sacrococcygeal tetatoma
(e) Neural tube defect
51. True about Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA):
(a) Used for monitoring of recurrence of colon cancer
(b) Specific for colon cancer
(c) Increased in smokers
(d) Increased in colon cancer
52. True about CA125:
(a) Glycoprotein
(b) It is a specific marker
(c) Increased in colon carcinoma
(d) Normal range in pre menopausal females is 200 U/ml
(e) May elevated in Pelvic inflammatory disease
Pharmacology
53. Which of the following drug is/are contraindicated/warning the sulphonamide allergy
(a) Brinzolamide
(b) Levobunolol
(c) Bumetanide
(d) Nitrate
(e) Acetazolamie
54. Isoniazid metabolised in body by:
(a) Acetylation
(b) Sulfation
(c) Hydroxylation
(d) Methylation
(e) First metabolized in liver and then excreted in urine
55. ATT drug which is not bacteriostatic:
(a) INH
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Pyrazinamide
(d) PAS
(e) Ethambutol
56. Regarding drug transport which of the following is/are true except:
(a) Active transport: it is energy dependent
(b) Passive diffusion: Most common method of drug transport
(c) Faciliated diffusion: not need energy
(d) Faciliated diffusion: carrier mediated diffusion
(e) Pinocytosis: transport by diffusion
57. Beta blocker with no α, antagonastic property:
(a) Labetalol
(b) Carvedilol
(c) Atenolol
(d) Nebivolol
(e) Betaxolol
58. True statement about essential medicines:
(a) Emergency medicine
(b) Costly but necessary
(c) Drug listed in pharmacopoeia
(d) Need for society
(e) Should be available at all times
59. Adrenergic receptor effects includes:
(a) Piloerection
(b) Urine retention
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Pupillary dilation
(e) Bronchodilation
60. Antibiotics acting through cell wall inhibition:
(a) Cephalosporin
(b) Vancomycin
(c) Penicillin
(d) Aminoglycosides
(e) Sulfonamides
61. Antagonistic drug combination(s) is/are:
(a) Penicillin + Aminoglycosides
(b) Penicillin + Tetracyclin
(c) Vancomycin + Ceftriaxone
(d) Ceftriaxone + Tazobactam
(e) Amphotericin B + Flucytosine
62. KD constant of drug-receptor interactions is:
(a) Concentration of drug at which half the receptors are bound
(b) Concentration of drug at which maximal response is seen
(c) Concentration at which antagonist is able to bind to half of the receptors
(d) Concentration of drug at which half of the maximal response is seen
Microbiology
63. Antibodies present in person with O blood group:
(a) Anti-A antibody only
(b) Anti-B antibody only
(c) Both Anti-A & Anti-B antibody
(d) No antibody
(e) Anti-O antibody
64. According to drug and cosmetic act which is not mandatory for screening of donated blood:
(a) HIV
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) West Nile virus
(e) CMV
65. All vaccines developed from embryonated eggs except:
(a) Influenza
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Rabies
(e) CMV
66. True about gas gangrene:
(a) Underlying skin and muscle are normal
(b) Caused by tetanospasmin toxin
(c) Muscle rigidity & spasm are characteristic
(d) Most common organism implicated is Cl. perfringes
(e) Passive immunization does not help
67. Urine dipstick is /are useful for detection of:
(a) Microalbunemia
(b) RBC detection
(c) WBC detection
(d) Bence-Jones protein
68. Disorders of phagocytosis are all except:
(a) Job’s syndrome
(b) Chediak-Hegashi syndrome
(c) Myeloperoxidase deficiency
(d) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
(e) Tuftsin deficiency
69. Which of the following are used for sterilization of surgical instrument:
(a) Ethylene oxide
(b) Gamma radiation
(c) Autoclaving
(d) Glutaraldehyde
(e) Hot air oven
70. True about H.influnzae:
(a) Also called as Pfeiffer’s bacilli
(b) In acute infections capsulated strains are often isolated
(c) Gram negative motile bacilli
(d) Easily stainable
(e) VP Test positive
71. Which is used in digestion and decontamination of sputum in smear preparation:
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) NaCl
(d) KCl
(e) N-acetyl-L-cysteine
72. Heterophile agglutination is/are used in all test except:
(a) Widal test
(b) Weil-Felix reaction
(c) Paul-Bunnel test
(d) ELISA
(e) Cold agglutination test
73. Active immunity can be induced by:
(a) Toxoids
(b) Subclinical infection
(c) Antitoxin
(d) Immunoglobulins
(e) Antigen exposure
74. True about passive immunity:
(a) Can not be given with active immunity
(b) Last for 4-5 days only
(c) It can be given before disease occurrence
(d) Can be transferred by antibodies from another host
(e) Takes long time to develop
75. Anaphylaxis is mediated by:
(a) 5-hydroxytryptamine
(b) Heparin
(c) Prostaglandin
(d) Anaphylotoxins from complement activation
(e) Platelet activating factor
76. True statement about Enteroviruses:
(a) Composed of segmented RNA genome
(b) Stable at pH 4
(c) Cause pleurodynia
(d) Cause encephalitis
(e) Cause meningitis
77. True about dengue fever:
(a) Caused by 4 serotypes
(b) Effective vaccine is available
(c) Presents with fever and joint pain
(d) Virus belongs to flavivirus genus
(e) Contain segmented RNA
78. A stool examination was carried out which showed organism with darting motility. Which of the following organism maybe in stool:
(a) V.cholerae
(b) Shigella
(c) Salmonella
(d) Camplyobacter jejuni
(e) E.coli
79. True about Vibrio alginolyticus:
(a) Non-halophilic
(b) Voges Proskauer (VP) positive
(c) Swarming
(d) Cause sea borne auricular infections
(e) Does not grow in 10% NaCl
80. Not a cause of epidemic encephalitis:
(a) Herpes simplex virus
(b) Rabies
(c) West Nile virus
(d) Nipah virus
(e) Japanese encephalitis virus
81. True about Visceral leishmaniasis:
(a) Neutropenia
(b) Eosinophilia
(c) Hypergammaglobulinemia
(d) Lymphadenopathy
(e) Skin hyperpigmentation
82. True about antibody:
(a) IgM is produced in primary response
(b) IgD protects mucosa
(c) IgE is main antibody in secondary response
(d) IgG is main antibody in secondary response
(e) IgA protects body surface
83. True about Yaws:
(a) Sexually transmitted disease
(b) Transmitted by fomites
(c) Mother-chi9ld transmission
(d) Periostitis occurs
(e) Caused by T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
84. True about mechanism of bacterial toxins:
(a) Cholera toxin acts by inhibition of guanyl cyclase
(b) Botulinum toxin inhibits Ach release
(c) Shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae act by inhibiting protein synthesis
(d) Diphtheria toxin act by inhibiting protein synthesis
Forensic Medicine
85. True statement about Adipocere:
(a) Offensive smell
(b) Seen if body is buried in moist soil
(c) Also called saponification
(d) In widespread adipocere body become dry
(e) Formation of wax-like substance
86. Various names of post mortem colour change in dependant parts of the body are:
(a) Post mortem lividity
(b) Livor mortis
(c) Cadaveric lividity
(d) Suggilations
(e) Vibices
87. Abrasion collar seen in:
(a) Firearm entry wound
(b) Firearm exit wound
(c) Rail track accident
(d) Lathi injury
(e) Incised wound
88. Confiramatory test for blood stain is
(a) Benzidine test
(b) Spectroscopic test
(c) Ortho-tolidine test
(d) Microscopic test
(e) Precipitin test
SPM
89. Quadrivalent vaccine for HPV contains all except:
(a) Type 7
(b) Type 11
(c) Type 16
(d) Type 26
(e) Type 18
90. Which of the following is Millenium development Goals in India for 2015:
(a) Have haited by 2015 and begun to reverse the spread HIV/AIDS
(b) Have halted by 2015 and begun to reverse the incidence
(c) Reduce the maternal mortality ratio by two-third
(d) Reduce the under-fie mortality rate by half
(e) Half the extreme poverty & hunger
91. Outbreak of avian influenza epidemic in china in 2013 is caused due to stain:
(a) H1N1
(b) H3N2
(c) H5N1
(d) H7N7
(e) H7N9
92. Feature of case control study is/are:
(a) Can be used for rare disease
(b) Error is high
(c) Study multiple potential causes of disease
(d) Association seen in terms of relative risk
(e) Large sample required
93. Xpert MTB/RIF test is/are used for:
(a) For assessing resistance of isonized
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant TB
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR TB
(e) Diagnosis of TB
94. Which of the following statement is true about Women empowerment:
(a) Power over resources
(b) Involvement in Political decision making
(c) Involvement in economic decision making
(d) Improved standard of living
(e) Increased life expectancy
95. Criteria of drinking water quality recommended by WHO includes:
(a) Colour > 15 TCU
(b) pH 6.5-8.5
(c) Chloride 200-600 mg/l
(d) Turbdity 5< NTU
(e) Turbidity 15 < NTU
96. Criteria for diagnosing multibacillary leprosy include(s):
(a) ≥ 6 skin lesion
(b) Skin smear 1+
(c) Skin smear 2+
(d) Deformity ±
(e) Eye lesion +
97. One has following data regarding village: population on july 1=500, total birth throughout year=40, total death = 20, emigration = 15 & immigration = 10. Calculate crude birth rate of the village:
(a) 13.33 per thousand
(b) 42 per thousand
(c) 44 per thousand
(d) 38 per thousand
(e) 49 per thousand
98. A city have population of 10000 with 500 diabetic patients. A new diagnostic test gives true positive result in 350 patients and false positive result in 1900 patients. Which of the following is true regarding the test:
(a) Prevalence is 5%
(b) Sensitivity is 70%
(c) Specificity is 80%
(d) Sensitivity is 80%
(e) Specificity is 70%
99. True about tuberculin test:
(a) Patients with sarcoidosis show energy
(b) TB pericarditis patient may have positive test
(c) Milliary TB may comes out as negative test
(d) Tuberculin test is the only way to diagnose pulmonary TB if sputum smear and microscopy is negative
(e) Used for measuring the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community
Ophthalmology
100. Ectopia lentis is/are seen in:
(a) Maple syrup disease
(b) Homocystinuria
(c) Ehler Danlos syndrome
(d) Myotonic dystrophy
(e) Sulfite oxidase deficiency
101. True statement about accommodation:
(a) Mainly occur due to change in curvature of posterior surface of lens
(b) Helps to improve steriopsis
(c) It is abolished by sympathomimetic drugs
(d) Produced due to an increase in curvature of the anterior surface of the lens
(e) Elasticity of capsule has bearing on accommodation
102. True about ciliary body:
(a) Located 10 mm from corneoscleral junction
(b) Consists of pars plana and pars plicata
(c) Contraction of ciliary body helps on accomodation
(d) Secretes aqueous humour
(e) Derives its blood supply from the short posterior ciliary arteries
103. Which of the following is/are caused by bacterial infection:
(a) Phlyctenularconjunctivitis
(b) Marginal keratitis
(c) Morren ulcer
(d) Vogt-Koyanagi –Harada syndrome
(e) Hypopyon ulcer
104. Which of following is the feature of papilloedema:
(a) Normal blind spot
(b) Normal visual acuity even at last stage
(c) Los of venous pulsation at disc
(d) Sluggish papillary reaction from early stage
(e) Normal colour vision
105. Anterior uveitis is/are caused by:
(a) Sarcoidosis
(b) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
(c) Juvenile chronic arthritis
(d) Juvenile xanthogranuloma
(e) T.B
106. Most common site of congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction is:
(a) Upper canaliculus
(b) Lower canalicus
(c) Common canaliculus
(d) Valve of Hassner
(e) Middle turbinate near canthus
107. Least affected cranial nerve in retro-orbital block:
(a) 1 CN
(b) 2 CN
(c) 3 CN
(d) 4 CN
(e) 6 CN
108. Select the correct match:
(a) Wilson disease-sunflower cataract
(b) Alport syndrome-posterior lenticonus
(c) Amiodarone-anterior subcapsular cataract
(d) Myotonic dystrophy-Christmas tree
(e) Down syndrome: Cortical cataract
ENT
109. Method of speech communication after laryngectomy include:
(a) Electrolarynx
(b) Oesophageal speech
(c) Tracheo-oesophageal speech
(d) Tracheal speech
(e) Transoral pneumatic device
110. Most common site of laryngeal papilloma in adult:
(a) Anterior commissure
(b) Posterior commissure
(c) Anterior half of vocal cord
(d) Middle of vocal cord
(e) False vocal cords
111. Most common site of vocal nodule of larynx:
(a) Anterior part of epiglottis
(b) False vocal folds
(c) Anterior commisure
(d) Posterior commisure
(e) On true vocal cord at junction A 1/3 with P 2/3
112. True about benign paroxysmal positional vertigo:
(a) Hearing loss is often present
(b) Most commonly seen in 2nd decade
(c) Hallpike manoevuvre is not helpful in diagnosis
(d) Epley maneuver is used for treatment
(e) Disorder of posterior semicircular canal
113. Most common cause of B/L Recurrent laryngeal paralysis:
(a) Thyroid surgery
(b) Cancer cervical oesophagus
(c) Blow from nasal cavity
(d) Thyroid cancer
(e) Bronchogenic carcinoma
114. True about otosclerosis:
(a) Most common site is footplate of stapes
(b) More common in female
(c) Schwartz sign indicated active focus
(d) Autosomal recessive
(e) Corhort note become –ive after successful stapedectomy
115. Most common location of nasal hemangioma:
(a) Nasal Septum
(b) Inferior turbinate
(c) Vestibule
(d) Uncinate process
(e) Nasopharynx
116. Veins not involved in spreading infection to cavernous sinus from danger area of face:
(a) Lingual vein
(b) Pterygoid plexus
(c) Facial vein
(d) Opthalmic vein
(e) Cephalic vein
Medicine
117. All are true about Berger disease except:
(a) Mesangial proliferation
(b) Increased polyclonal IgA
(c) IgA, C3 & IgG deposits in the mesangium
(d) Heamturia may be gross or microscopic
(e) Absence of proteinuria is pathognomonic
118. True about acute pancreatitis:
(a) Amylse has prognostic value
(b) CT is the best imaging study for initial evaluation
(c) Nasojejunal feeding is better than total parenteral nutrition
(d) ERCP is better than CT
(e) Ultrasound confirms the diagnosis in most cases
119. True about Enteric nutrition:
(a) Given early in Post-op period to prevent mucosal atrophy
(b) More change of spread of infection than total parenteral nutrition
(c) It must be given in all post-operative patients
(d) Enterocutaneous fistula is indication of parenteral nutrition
(e) Stimulates the production of immunoglobulins in the gut
120. True about esophageal adenocarcinoma:
(a) Majority of cases arise in Barret’s oesophagus
(b) Common in upper part oesophagus
(c) Commonly arise in the distal esophagus
(d) Tobacco exposure and obesity are risk factors
(e) Incidence is increasing
121. All are true about systemic sclerosis except:
(a) Skin involvement occur
(b) Generalized blood vessel involvement
(c) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
(d) Belomycin may cause systemic sclerosis like illness
(e) Raynaud’s phenomenon precedes skin involvement diffuse cutaneous form
122. All are true about Acute Intermittent Porphyria except:
(a) Occur due to HMB-synthase enxyme deficiency
(b) Increased amount of prophobilinongen in the urine during an acute attack
(c) Neurovisceral symptoms occurs
(d) Cutaneous photosensitivity is always p resent
(e) Intermittent abdominal pain may occur
123. Drug used to relive facial flushing associated with niacin toxicity:
(a) Fometidine
(b) Foxafenadine
(c) Ranitidine
(d) Laropiprant
124. True about Wernicke encephalopathy:
(a) Cerebellar involvement occur
(b) Occur due to VIt B1 deficiency
(c) Bilateral frontal lobe atrophy
(d) Persistent seizure
(e) Ophthalmoplegia
125. True about subarachnoid hemorrhage:
(a) CT scan has 95% sensitivity if done within 72 hours
(b) Lumbar puncture shows xanthochromia
(c) 10% of SAH are caused by ruptured AV malformation
(d) 20% risk of re-bleeding within first 2 week
(e) Rupture of secular aneurysm is most common cause
126. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is/are seen in:
(a) G. B Syndrome
(b) HSP
(c) Good pasture syndrome
(d) Hanta virus infection
(e) Microscopic polyangitis
127. All drugs are used in management of psoariatic arthritis expect:
(a) Methotrexate
(b) Leflunomide
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Alefacept
(e) Infliximab
128. Orally used direct thrombin inhibitor(s) is/are:
(a) Argatroban
(b) Bivalirudin
(c) Lepirudin
(d) Dabigatran etexilate
(e) Rivaroxaban
129. Causes of reversed splitting of the Second Heart Sound:
(a) ASD
(b) MPW syndrome
(c) Pulmonary hypertension
(d) Pulmonary stenosis
(e) Patent ductus arterious
130. Cause of diarrhea include(s):
(a) Hyperparathyroidism
(b) Hypothyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism
(d) Carcinoid syndrome
(e) Diabetes mellitus
131. Which finding favours diagnosis of MR rather than MS:
(a) Loud S1
(b) Third heart sound
(c) Tapping apex
(d) Displaced apex beat
(e) Left ventricular hypertrophy
132. All are features of psuedohypoparathyriosim except:
(a) Hypocalcemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Resistance to parathyroid hormone
(d) Raised levels of PTH
(e) Defect in PTH receptor
133. Feature(s) of Duchenne muscular dystrophy includes:
(a) Defective gene is dystrophin
(b) Ragged red fibres
(c) Autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
(d) Anticentromere antibody present
(e) Seurm CK levels are raised
134. True about ankylosing spondylitis:
(a) Presents with backache and joint stiffness
(b) Associated with HLA B27
(c) Inflammation of ligament and tendon at attachment to bones
(d) Foot joint involvement
(e) Spin involvement
135. Eosinophilia is/are seen in:
(a) Visceral leishmania
(b) Churg-Strauss syndrome
(c) Visceral larva migrans
(d) Drug reaction
(e) Parasitic infestations
136. Clubbing is/are seen in:
(a) Lung carcinoma
(b) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
(c) COPD
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Lung abscess
Surgery
137. Which is seen after total gastrectomy:
(a) Anaemia due to iron deficiency
(b) Anaemia due to folate deficiency
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Collapse after taking meals
(e) Post-prandial hypoglycemia
138. True about cryptorchidism:
(a) Occur in 10% of newborns
(b) It has malignant potential
(c) Sterility can occur
(d) Laproscopy has a role in diagnosis & treatment
(e) Orchidopexy done at 5 yr of age to prevent cancer
139. Which of the following dyads is/are correct for Glasgocoma scale:
(a) E2: Eye opening to pain
(b) V2: Incomprehensible sounds
(c) M3: Withdrawl to pain
(d) V3: Confused in Verbal Response
(e) M2: Abnormal extension
140. True about epigastric hernia:
(a) Caused by defect in linea alba
(b) Caused by defective healing of surgical wound
(c) Multiple in 20% of cases
(d) More common in males
(e) Incidence increases in pregnancy
141. True about varicocele:
(a) More common in right side
(b) May lead to infertility
(c) Aneurysmal dilatation of testicular artery
(d) May be associated with left sided renal cell carcinoma
(e) Surgery always required
142. Bladder cancer not associated with:
(a) Occupation exposure in indstralised countries
(b) Schistosomiasis
(c) Smoking
(d) Alcohol
(e) Bladder catheterization
143. Absorbable suture(s) is/are:
(a) Polyglyconate
(b) Polydioxanone
(c) Polyamide
(d) Polyester
(e) Polyglactin
144. Risk factors of breast carcinoma include(s):
(a) Alcohol
(b) Late menarche
(c) Late pregnancy
(d) Late menopause
(e) Early menopause
145. Complication of craniofacial surgery:
(a) Sudden death
(b) Convulsion
(c) Encephalitis
(d) CSF leak
(e) Meningitis
146. Anterior triangle neck mass is/are:
(a) Thyroglossal cyst
(b) Carotid body tumor
(c) Supraclavicular nodes
(d) Branchial cyst
(e) Submandibular gland
147. True about arterial ulcer:
(a) Punched out margin
(b) Painless
(c) Usually at the tip of toe
(d) Almost all arterial ulcers have surrounding lipodermatosclerosis
(e) Characteistically develops in the skin of the gaiter region
148. True about Kasabach-Merrit syndrome:
(a) Thromocytopenia
(b) Large haemangioma
(c) Hypofirbogenmia
(d) Massive splenomegaly always present
(e) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
149. Common presentation of carcinoma of right colon:
(a) Presents as mass in RIF
(b) Bleed per rectum
(c) Change in blwel habits
(d) Obstruction
(e) Anaemia
150. Medullary thyroid carcinoma has:
(a) Arise from parafollicular cell or C cell
(b) Amyloid deposit
(c) Orphan-Annie nuclei
(d) Secrete calcitonin
(e) Psammoma body
151. True about acute appendicitis:
(a) Pain migrates from RIF to umbilical area
(b) Pain occur only after vomiting
(c) USG is useful for making diagnosis
(d) Faecolith can cause this
(e) Treatment is appendectomy
152. True about abscess:
(a) Infective endocarditis can cause microabscess in other part of body
(b) Hematogenous spread is common
(c) Type of drainage depends on size of abscess & location
(d) Needle aspiration and antibiotics can be given for breast abscess
153. Angiodysplasia mainly affects:
(a) Duodenum
(b) Jejunum
(c) Caecum
(d) Ascending colon
(e) Rectum
154. True about Hirshsprung:
(a) Absence of ganglion in auerbach plexus
(b) Increased acetylcholinesterase in affected tissue
(c) Dilation of aganglionic segment
(d) In 10% of cases rectum & sigmoid region is involved
(e) May presents with delayed passage of meconium in the neonatal period
155. True about Haemorrhoid:
(a) Internal haemorrhoid is dilation of superior rectal artery
(b) Internal haemorrhoid lined by- Squamous & transitional epithelium
(c) External haemorrhoid line by – Squamous & transitional epithelium
(d) Internal haemorrhoid is classified on basis of prolpase
(e) Seen in portal hypertension
156. True about Firbcystic disease of breast:
(a) Most common age group of presentation is 35-45 year
(b) Common in post-menopausal period
(c) Predispose to carcinoma
(d) Pain occur after menstruation
157. True about post-splenectomy complication:
(a) Pneumococcal vaccination indicated
(b) Penicillin prophylaxis is to be given for three weeks
(c) Malaria protection is given when travelling to endemic area
(d) Heinz bodies are seen in RBC
158. True about acute peritonitis:
(a) Colicky pain
(b) Pain initially located over area of inflammation
(c) Patient prefers t lie still
(d) Patient tosses in bed
(e) USG diagnostic
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
159. All are features of Turner’ syndrome except:
(a) Karyotype is 46 XO
(b) Normal breast
(c) Uunderdeveloped uterus
(d) Normal secondary sexual characters
(e) Primary amenorrhoea
160. Indications for termination of pregnancy includes:
(a) Aortic stenosis
(b) Eisenmengers syndrome
(c) Triscuspid stenosis
(d) Severe mitral stenosis + NYHA grade II
(e) NYHA grade 4 heart disease with history of decompensation in the previous pregnancy
161. All statement(s) is/are about use of magnesium sulphate except:
(a) Therapeutic level is 4-7 mEq/L
(b) Used in spinal anesthesia
(c) Used in seizure prophylaxis
(d) Decrease neuromuscular blockage
(e) Used in Pre-emptive analgesia
162. HIV transmission from mother to child can be prevented by:
(a) Elective LSCS
(b) Breast feeding
(c) Vaginal delivery
(d) Antiretroviral therapy
(e) Formula feed
163. Abnormal uterine bleeding is/are:
(a) Blood loss of more than 80 ml.
(b) Cycle duration is more than 35 days or less than 21 days
(c) Bleeding period lasting 7 days or more
(d) Irregular bleeding during a regular cycle
164. Minimum criteria to diagnose PID include(s):
(a) Lower abdominal pain
(b) Fever
(c) Andexal tenderness
(d) Leucocytosis
165. Most important investigation for ectopic pregnancy:
(a) TVS
(b) Serial βhCG levels
(c) Doppler USG
(d) Progesterone
(e) Culdocentesis
166. True statement about symmetrical IUGR with respect to assymetrical IUGR:
(a) Worse prognosis
(b) Neurological defects
(c) Head larger than abdomen
(d) Less common
(e) Total number of cell is normal
167. True about timing of LH surge:
(a) Occur 12 hr before ovulation
(b) Occur 24 hr before ovulation
(c) Occur 12 hr after ovulation
(d) Occur 24 hr after ovulation
(e) Occur at time of ovulation
168. Regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome, which statement is/are true:
(a) Genotype is 46 XX
(b) Scanty pubic hair
(c) Well developed female external genitalia
(d) Uterus absent
(e) Breast development is adequate
169. Which of the following are used for prevention & treatment of post-partum haemorrhage:
(a) Misoprostol
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Ergometrine
(d) Carbiprost
(e) Mifepristone
170. Complications of diabetes in pregnancy includes all except:
(a) Macrosomia
(b) Shoulder dystocia
(c) Hyper glycemia in newborn
(d) IUGR
(e) Caudal regression
171. Site of placement of tension free vaginal tapes in stress urinary incontinence:
(a) At ureterovaginal junction
(b) At urethrovaginal junction
(c) AT upper apart of urethera
(d) At middle part of urethera
(e) At lower part of urethera
172. 2nd trimester USG is/are done for detection of:
(a) Sex determination
(b) No. of fetus
(c) Aminocentesis
(d) Gestational age estimation
(e) Congenital defect
Paediatrics
173. Indication of kidney biopsy in Post-streptococcal Glomerulonephritis in a child is/are:
(a) Presence of nephritic syndrome
(b) Presence of microscopic hematuria
(c) Low complement level in first week
(d) Acute renal failure
(e) Absence of evidence of streptococcal infection
174. Feature of scurvy in children include(s):
(a) Bleeding from gums
(b) Tibial edema
(c) Costochondral junction become angular
(d) Windswept hip deformity in children with cerebral palsy
(e) Splaying & cupping of metaphysic
175. Use of IV magnetism in children includes:
(a) Carpopedal spasm in calcium deficiency
(b) Vit. D resistant rickets
(c) Torsaded de pointes
(d) 20 AV heart block
(e) Sever hypmagnesimea
176. True statement regarding children:
(a) BMI more than 95 percentile for age as obesity
(b) BMI more than 85 percentile for age as overweight
(c) Weight more than 95 percentile for age as obesity
(d) Weight more than 85 percentile for age as overweight
(e) BMI is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the height in meters square (kg/m2).
177. True about autism:
(a) More common in girls
(b) Concordance in monozygotic twins is 60-90%
(c) MMR vaccine increases the risk
(d) Child may have mental retardation
178. Poor prognostic factor in bacterial meningitis in children include(s):
(a) Age less than 6 months
(b) Seizures occurring more than 4 days into therapy
(c) Neck regidity
(d) Focal neurological deficits
(e) High concentrations of bacteria in CSF
179. Hypercalcemia in children is/are seen in all of the following combinations except:
(a) Wolfram syndrome and MEN II syndrome
(b) William syndrome and thiazide diuretics
(c) MEN I and hypervitaminosis D
(d) Thyrotoxicosis and Hypervitaminosis A
(e) Hypervitaminosis C
180. Constipation in child is/are caused by:
(a) Stool consistency matters, not frequency
(b) Milk of magnesia
(c) Defect in auerbach plexus as occur in Hirschsprung disease
(d) In majority of infant organic cause is present
(e) Hypothyroidism
181. True regarding classical Tetralogy of Fallot:
(a) Right to left shunt
(b) Left to right shunt
(c) Severe pulmonary valvular stenosis
(d) Subvalvular pulmonary stenosis may be severe
(e) VSD is small
182. Most common cause of acute tracheitis in children is:
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) H. influenzae
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes
(d) Moraxella catarrhalis
(e) Mycoplasma
183. All of the following are the causes of neonatal cholestasis except:
(a) Extrahepatic Biliary atreisa
(b) Alagille syndrome
(c) Gilbert syndrome
(d) Rotor syndrome
(e) Gaucher’s disease
184. Causes of unconjugated bilirubinemia:
(a) Dubin Johnson syndrome
(b) Gilber syndrome
(c) Neoinatal hepatitis
(d) Rotor syndrome
(e) Crigler-Najjar’s syndrome
185. Which of the following match is correct regarding milestones(child can do):
(a) 4 month: recognize mother
(b) 2 yr: Can make tower of blocks 15-20 cubes
(c) 6 Month: Coos
(d) 1yr: Standing without support
(e) 2 yr- sentence of 2-3 words
Orthopaedics
186. A person with closed spiral fracture of shaft of humerus presents in emergency room with radial nerve palsy. Fracture was reduced and splinted. Radial nerve palsy still persists. What should be done in next line of management:
(a) Only wait & watch
(b) Wait for 1-3 months for recovery, do EMG & if needed then do surgery
(c) Explore immediately & do surgery
(d) Redo the cast & do nerve conduction velocity study and then surgery
187. True about Giant cell tumor:
(a) Treatment is extended curettage
(b) Seen before skeletal maturity
(c) Involve RNAK/RNAKL signaling pathway
(d) Affected most commonly in bones around knee
(e) Often erodes subchondral plate
188. Most common route of spread of septic arthritis in children:
(a) Hematogenous
(b) Direct invasion
(c) Bone involvement
(d) Lymphatic spread
(e) Latrogenic
189. Causes of avascular necrosis of head of femur includes all except:
(a) Gaucher’s disease
(b) Sickle cell anaemia
(c) Perthe’s disease
(d) Smoking
(e) Alcohol
190. True about Ewing sarcoma:
(a) Arise from diaphysis
(b) Arise from medullary cavity of tubular bones
(c) Radioresistance tumor
(d) N-myc chromosome expression
(e) t(11;22) translocation in involve in 5% cases
191. Below knee amputation:
(a) 5 cm below tibial tuberosity
(b) 10 cm below tibial tuberosity
(c) 15 cm below tibial tuberosity
(d) 5 cm below patella
(e) 10 cm below patella
192. Bullous/Blistering distal dactylitis is/are cause by:
(a) Staph. aureus
(b) Pseudomonas
(c) Streptococcus epidermidis
(d) Pneumococcus
(e) Meningococcus
193. Planter calcanera spur is/are not seen in:
(a) Reiter’s disease
(b) Scleroderma
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Psoriatic arthritis
(e) Ankylosing pondylitis
Anaesthesia
194. Acronym AMBU stands for:
(a) Automated Manual Breathing Unit
(b) Artificial Manual Breathing Unit
(c) Artificial Mechanical Breathing unit
(d) Automated Mechanical Breathing Unit
(e) Artificial Mechanical Baloon Unit
195. Important factor(s) deciding reduced dose of anesthetic drug in pregnancy:
(a) Mechanical factor of gravid uterus
(b) Hormonal factors
(c) Altered pharmacokinetic of drugs
(d) Alteration in CSF pH
196. True statement related to used of Hydroxyethyl starch:
(a) Cause coagulation abnormality due to factor X deficiency
(b) It is amylopectin etherfied with hydroxyethyl groups
(c) Hypersensitivity similar to gelatin
(d) Obtained from fermentation of gelatin
197. Which of the following local anesthetic is/are not used for surface analgesia:
(a) Benzocaine
(b) Prilocaine
(c) Mepivacaine
(d) Legnocaine
(e) Bupivacaine
198. Surgery done to prevent aspiration:
(a) Tracheostomy
(b) Tracehoseophageal division
(c) Total laryngectomy
(d) Feeding gastrostomy
(e) Feeding jejunostomy
199. Which of the increases change of malignant hyperthermia:
(a) Diazepam
(b) Halothane
(c) Suxamethonium
(d) Nitrous oxide
(e) Ketamine
Skin
200. Which of the following is/are not the cutaneous manifestation of diabetes mellitus:
(a) Necrobiosis lipodica
(b) Diabetic bulla
(c) Shin spots
(d) Calcinosis cutis
(e) Angiokeratoma
201. Microabscess is/are seen in:
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Lichen planus
(c) Pitryiasis versicolor
(d) Pitriasis roseas
(e) Mycosis fungoides
202. Drug used for pediculosis is/are:
(a) Malathion
(b) Permethrin
(c) Ivermectin
(d) Diethylcarbazine
(e) Nitrate
203. Causative factor of acne include(s):
(a) Hypersecretion of sebum
(b) ↑IgE level
(c) Follicular duct hypercornification
(d) ↑ Colonisation of Propionobacterium acnes
(e) IGF-I
Psychiatry
204. Feature of narcolepsy include(s) all except:
(a) Disorder of REM sleep regulation
(b) Disorder of NREM sleep regulation
(c) Hypnagogic hallucination
(d) Hypnopompic hallucinations
(e) Cataplexy
205. Usual sign of morphine withdrawal are all except:
(a) Dryness of secretion
(b) Constipation
(c) Miosis
(d) Lacrimation
(e) Generally occur after 6-8 hour of last
206. All are mood stabilizing drug in bipolar disorder except:
(a) Lithium
(b) Valproate
(c) Carbamazepine
(d) Clonazepam
(e) Lamotrigine
207. Not a feature of Alzheimer’s disease:
(a) Hirano bodies
(b) Amyloid angiopathy
(c) Granulo-vacuolar degeneration of neurons
(d) Senile plaque
(e) Cerebellar atrophy
208. Cause of organic amnestic syndrome include(s):
(a) Multiple sclerosis
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hypoxia
(e) Hypercapnia
209. Psychosurgery not indicated in:
(a) Intractable seizures
(b) Suicidal depression
(c) Severe depression not responding to medical treatment
(d) Dysthymia
(e) Psychotic depression
210. Drug used for long term treatment of OCD includes:
(a) Clomipramine
(b) Fluoxetine
(c) Fluvoxamine
(d) Citalopram
(e) Trifluperidol
Radiology
211. Colour Doppler is/are used in diagnosis of:
(a) Peripheral vascular disease
(b) Deep vein thrombosis
(c) Pulmonary embolism
(d) Bone tumors
(e) Fetal abnormality
212. True about FDG-PET scan:
(a) FDG is analogue of glucose
(b) Malignant cells shows high uptake due to increased metabolism
(c) It cannot be used to detect brain metastasis
(d) Used to detect tumor recurrence in patient who have undergone surgery for brain tumors
(e) Helpful in investigating brain lesion
213. MRI is better than CT scan to detect lesion located in:
(a) Head and neck tumour
(b) Extremity
(c) Thorax
(d) Retroperitoneum
(e) It is equally effective for all above
214. Metallic foreign body in eye can be detected by:
(a) X-ray
(b) CT
(c) MRI
(d) Color Doppler
(e) USG
215. Radiation exposure can be measured by:
(a) TLD badge
(b) Gamma camera
(c) Auger emission
(d) Linear accelerator
(e) Film badge
216. Most radioresistant tumour among following is:
(a) Ewing carcinoma
(b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Cervical ca
(d) Lymphoma
(e) Rhabdomyosarcoma
217. Which does not form right border of heart on X-ray:
(a) Superior vena cava
(b) Inferior vena cava
(c) Right atrium appendages
(d) Main pulmonary trunk
(e) Aortic arch
218. Most commonly uses radiation(s) in modern radiation therapy:
(a) X-ray
(b) Gamma ray
(c) Alpha beam
(d) Electron beam
(e) Proton beam
219. Which of the following is true about Gray(g):
(a) G = SI unit for absorbed dose
(b) 1G = 1 Joule/Kilogram
(c) 1G = 10 Joule/Kilogram
(d) 1G = 100 Joule/Kilogram
(e) 1 G = 100 Rad
220. Hypoxia cause cell to become:
(a) More radiosensitive
(b) More radioresistance
(c) No effect on radiosensitivity
(d) No effect on radiosensitivity
(e) May increase or decrease radiosensitivity
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: