PGI CHANDIGARH
Postgraduate Medical Entrance Examination
May-2014
Anatomy
1. All are true about ulnar nerve except:
(a)Root value C8T1
(b) Pass through cubital tunnel
(c) Supply flexor digitorum superficialis
(d) Supply flexor carpi ulnaris
(e) Passes behind medial epicondyle
2. Branch of internal ilicac artery is/are:
(a) Inferior vesical artery
(b) Inferior epigastric artery
(c) Iliolumbar artery
(d) Internal pudendal artery
(e) Obturator artery
3. Compression of cervical rib can causese:
(a) Thenar hypertorphy
(b) Neurovascular symptom
(c) Reynaud’s phenomenon
(d) C8T1 paresthesia
4. True about attachment of suprapleural membrane:
(a) Attached to Calvicle
(b) Attached to 1st rib & its costal cartilage
(c) Attached to 2nd rib & its costal cartilage
(d) Attached to junction of manubrium & body of sterum
(e) Attached to tip of the transverse process of the 7th cervical vertebrae
5. Which of the following sinuses open into middle matus:
(a) Frontal sinus
(b) Anterior ethmoidal sinus
(c) Posterior ethomoidal sinus
(d) Maxillary sinus
(e) Sphenoid sinus
6. True about anatomy of Eustachian tube:
(a) Aerate middle ear
(b) Open during swallowing
(c) Lager & wider in adult than children
(d) More horizontal in infant & children
(e) Open in oropharynx
7. All are true about palatine tonsil except:
(a) Develop from 2nd pharyngeal pouch
(b) Irritation cause referred pain in ear via auricular branch of vagus
(c) Mainly supplied by facial artery
(d) Situated in the lateral wall of the oropharynx
(e) Lymphatics pass to jugulo-omohyoid node
8. Features of stellate ganglion lesions include:
(a) Miosis
(b) Vasodilation in ipsilateral arm
(c) Mydriasis in contralateral eye
(d) Ydraisis in ipsilateral eye
(e) Visual loss
9. True about parietal peritoneum:
(a) Supplied by lower 6 thoracic & 1st lumar
(b) Supplied by lower 4 thoracic & upper 3 lumbar
(c) Pain is somatic in nature
(d) Stretching of parietal peritoneum cause pain
10. True regarding saphenous vein:
(a) Long saphenous vien-formed as continuation of medial side of deep venous arch
(b) Long saphenous vein-situated posterior to mdial malleolus
(c) Long saphenous vein-closely related to saphenous nerve
(d) Short saphenous vein-open into great saphnous vein
(e) Short saphenous vein-associated with sural nerve
Physiology
11. True about Hering-Breuer reflex:
(a) Signal initiated through mechanoreceptor receptors of lung
(b) Signal initiated through Chemoreceptor of lung
(c) Signal initiated through Cartoid & aortic body
(d) Transmit signals through the vagus nerve
12. True about blood supply of kidney:
(a) Flow is 600 ml/min each kidney
(b) It receives more blood supply per unit mass than the brain
(c) Renal medulla have more supply than renal cortex
(d) It is under direct sympathetic control
13. All are true about Brunner’s gland except:
(a) It lies in duodenum only
(b) It lies in duodenum & ileum
(c) It secretes bicarbonate rich fluid
(d) It secretion neutralizes acidic pH of stomach
(e) Secretes mucus rich fluid
14. Blood brain barrier is not found in:
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Median eminence of hypothalamus
(c) Posterior pituitary
(d) Thalamus
(e) Basal ganglion
15. Oxygen binding to hemoglobin cause allosteric activation. This allosteric property of Hb results in:
(a) Maintaining iron in ferrous state (Fe2+)
(b) Increase oxygen supply to tissue
(c) Increases oxygen binding
(d) Increases 2,3-DPG in blood
16. Secretion of insulin is increased by:
(a) Fatty acid
(b) Aminoacid
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Acetylcholine
(e) Somatostatin
17. Nerve velocity is increased by:
(a) Myelination
(b) Smaller axon diameter
(c) Decreased temperature
(d) Increase in intracellular calcium
(e) Increase in extracellular sodium
18. True about carbohydrate metabolism:
(a) It supplies 4 kcals per gram
(b) It increases insulin secretion
(c) Stored in liver
(d) In starvation glycogen in liver is exhausted only after 24-48 hr
(e) It provide 80% calorie need of body
19. Calcitriol in children is formed in:
(a) Glormerulus
(b) Bowmann capsule
(c) PCT
(d) DCT
(e) Collecting duct
20. Which of the following is/are Pain scale:
(a) McGill pain questionnaire
(b) Visual analogue scale
(c) Numeric rating scale 1-10
(d) Coloured Analogue Scale
(e) CHEOPS scale for adult
Biochemistry
21. Terminal product(s) of phenylalanine is:
(a) Fumarate
(b) Acetyl CoA
(c) Oxaloacetate
(d) Acetoacetate
22. NADPH is produced by:
(a) Pyruvate dehydrogense
(b) Isocitrate dehydrogense
(c) α-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense
(d) Succinate Dehydrogense
(e) Malate dehydrogense
23. Optically inactive amino acid is/are:
(a) Threonine
(b) Thyronine
(c) Valine
(d) Glycine
(e) Serine
24. In forming 3D structure of protein following components help:
(a) Hydrogen bonds
(b) Amino acid sequence
(c) Interaction between amino acid side chains
(d) Chaperon
25. Test used for protein is/are:
(a) Western blot
(b) Southern blot
(c) ELISA
(d) CHIP essay
(e) Dot blotting
26. Full form of LCAT is:
(a) Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase
(b) Lecithin choline acyl transferase
(c) Lecithin cholesterol alkyl transferase
(d) Lechithin choline alcohol transferae
(e) Lecithin CoA transferase
27. Which vitamin deficiency cause dementia:
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B12
(d) Vitamin B1
(e) Nictotinic acid
28. Which of the following organ can not use ketone body:
(a) Brain
(b) RBC
(c) Muscle
(d) Heart
(e) Liver
Immunogenetics & Molecular Biology
29. Which of the following is/are component of innate immunity:
(a) Macrophages
(b) NK cell
(c) Platelet
(d) B cell
(e) T cell
30. Which of the following disease occurs due to DNA molecule repair defect:
(a) Krabe’s disease
(b) Angelmann syndrome
(c) Xeroderma pigmentosum
(d) Marfan syndrome
(e) Ataxia telengiectasia
31. cDNA is sued in gene amplification in bacteria instead of genomic DNA because:
(a) Easy to replicable because of small size
(b) cDNA lacks intron whereas this is present in genomic DNA
(c) Promoter are not found in bacteria
(d) Complete genome can not easily replicated in bacteria
32. Function of mRNA is/are:
(a) Gene silencing
(b) Gene activatation
(c) Transcription inhibition
(d) Translation repression
(e) Breaking of messenger RNA
Pathology
33. Which of the following is are CD 15 & CD 30 positive:
(a) Lymphocyte predominance Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(b) Mantle cell lymphoma
(c) Burkit’s lymphoma
(d) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(e) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
34. B cell antigens are:
(a) CD 1
(b) CD 2
(c) CD 3
(d) CD 19
(e) CD 20
35. True about proto-oncogene:
(a) Only found in virus
(b) Only found in malignant cell
(c) Normally involved in cell cycle proliferation
(d) Can be converted to oncogene
(e) On mutation it causes cancer
36. Thrombosis is predisposed by:
(a) Protein S deficiency
(b) Complement deficiency
(c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
(d) Homocysteinuria
37. Pancytopenia can occur in:
(a) CML
(b) Kala-azar
(c) Typhoid
(d) Hairy cell leukemia
38. Non-small cell lung carcinoma is/are associated:
(a) K-ras
(b) EGFR
(c) WT1
(d) P53
39. True about carotid body tumor:
(a) Slow growing tumour
(b) Uncapsulated
(c) Mostly Bilateral
(d) Mostly benign
40. Which of the following is/are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease except:
(a) Many patient may be asymptomatic till 3rd or 4th decade
(b) Pancreatic cyst
(c) Associated with hypertension
(d) Subarachnid haemorrahe is most common extrarenal complication
41. Which of the following are not feature of reversible cell injury:
(a) Microvilli disruption
(b) ER dilation
(c) Disintegration of plasma membrane
(d) Nuclear lysis
(e) Creation of myelin figures
42. Red infarct occur in:
(a) Venous occlusion
(b) Lung
(c) Organ with dual supply like small intestine
(d) Ovarian torsion
(e) Seen in solid organ which are supplied by end arteries
43. True about fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver:
(a) Common in old age
(b) Associated with cirrhosis
(c) Associated with hepatitis B infection
(d) Good prognosis than hepatocellular carcinoma
44. Which of the following is/are true about Prothrombin time:
(a) Assess extrinsic pathways
(b) ↑ in Liver disease
(c) ↓ in Vit. K deficiency
(d) Normal value is 2-4 minute
45. True about Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura:
(a) Indirect hyperbilirubenia
(b) Spherocytosis with thrombocytopenia
(c) Scistocytosis with thrombocytopenia
(d) Thrombi formation
46. In which of the following diseases antinuetrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are not found:
(a) Polyarteritis nodosa
(b) Microscopic polyangitis
(c) Wegner granulomatosis
(d) Bechet syndrome
(e) Churg-Strauss syndrome
47. Anti-nuclear antibodies are not found in:
(a) SLE
(b) Diffuse Scleroderma
(c) Drug induced lupus
(d) Limited sceleroderma
(e) Sarcoidosis
48. At 30 yr of age, blood forming bone marrow are found in
(a) Sternum
(b) Sacrum
(c) Pelvis
(d) Upper end tibia
(e) Upper end humerus
49. Pericardial effusion is/are seen in all except:
(a) Uraemia
(b) SLE
(c) Rheumatic fever
(d) Endothelial cell
(e) Keratinocyte
50. Epidermal growth factor is/are formed by:
(a) Platelet
(b) Fibroblast
(c) Mast cell
(d) Endothelical cell
(e) Keratinocyte
51. Cyclin dependent kinase-2 (CDK2) acts via:
(a) Cyclin A
(b) Cyclin B
(c) Cyclin C
(d) Cyclin D
(e) Cyclin E
52. Which of the following pair of G receptor is correctly matched with its action:
(a) Gi-Activation of calcium channel
(b) Gq-↑ cytoplasmic calcium
(c) Gs- Opening of calcium channel
(d) Go- Opening potassium channel
(e) Gt-Activation of potassium channel
53. Mineralcorticoid receptors antagonist(s) is/are:
(a) Spironolactone
(b) Triamterene
(c) Epleroenone
(d) Amiloride
(e) Acetazolamide
54. Which of the following is function of muscarinic receptor:
(a) Increase in conduction velocity of A-V node & His-purkinje fibres
(b) Eye-mydriasis
(c) Ciliary muscle contraction
(d) Contraction of circular muscle of iris
(e) Deutruosr muscle contraction
55. Unwanted interactions of MAO inhibitors occur with:
(a) Levopoda
(b) Hydrochlorothiazide
(c) Reserpine
(d) Pethidine
56. Which of the following is/are true about Sulfonylurea except:
(a) Increase insulin secretion
(b) Cause hypoglycemia
(c) Cause weight loss
(d) disulfiram-like reaction after alcohol intake
(e) Safe in pregnancy
57. Weight gain is not seen with:
(a) Clozapine
(b) Risperidone
(c) Olanzapine
(d) SSRI
(e) Zotepine
58. Weight gain is not seen with:
(a) Selective β 2 receptor agonist
(b) ↑ ventricular filling pressure
(c) Half life is about 2 min
(d) Dopamine receptor agonist
59. A person has given 0.175 gm oral digoxin with bioavailabilty 70%. The amount of drug reaching in systemic circulation is:
(a) 0.175
(b) 0.175 × 0.7
(c) 0.175/7
(d) 0.175+0.7
(e) 0.175+1/0.7
60. True about Placebo:
(a) It works only psychiatric person
(b) Response is both objective & subjective
(c) Effect also seen in normal person
(d) It is an inert substance
61. Treatment of nocardia infection includes:
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Floroquinolones
(c) Azithromycin
(d) Cotrimoxazole
(e) Amikacin
62. True about morphine:
(a) Act as antagonist μ receptor with no agonist action
(b) Activation in liver
(c) Half life 4 hr
(d) Cause miosis
(e) Clearance time is around 20 hr
63. Which of the following is/are true about phenytoin
(a) Inactivation by Liver enzyme
(b) Causes Vit B12 deficiency
(c) Causes thiamine deficiency
(d) Gum hypertrophy is commonest side-effect
(e) Inhibitor of CYP3A4/5
64. Drugs active against MRSA:
(a) Vancomycin
(b) Ceftriazine
(c) Linezolid
(d) Piperacillin-tazobactam
(e) Meropenam
Ans: (a, c)
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65. True about daptomycin:
(a) Causes diarrhea as side-effect
(b) It is glycopeptides anitbiotic
(c) Cause myopathy
(d) It can be used orally
(e) Excretion through kidney
66. True about doxorubicin:
(a) Antineoplastic drug
(b) Alkylating agent
(c) Topoisomerase III inhibitor
(d) Anthracycline antibiotic
(e) Cardiotoxic
67. TNF-α inhibitors are:
(a) Bevacizumab
(b) Ranibizumab
(c) Adalimumab
(d) Infliximab
(e) Etanercept
68. Side-effect of cisplatin is/are
(a) Ototoxic
(b) Nephrotoxic
(c) Cardiotoxic
(d) Neurotoxic
(e) Retinopathy
69. Which of the following CLASP human experiment:
(a) Main center for the experiment was Geneva
(b) Main center for the experiment was Tokoyo
(c) Main center for the experiment was in United kingdom
(d) Heparin low dose given
(e) Drug used in experiment significantly reduces eclampsia in subjects
Microbiology
70. Which of the following is not niacin positive
(a) Mycobacterium bovis
(b) Mycobacterium sonei
(c) Mycobacterium cheloneii
(d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(e) Mycobacterium simiae
71. Feed oral transmission occur in:
(a) Hepatitis A
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Hepatitis E
(d) Rotavirus
(e) Herpes simplex
72. Oroya fever is caused by:
(a) B. bacilliformis
(b) B. henselae
(c) B. quintana
(d) B. elizabethae
(e) B. clarridgeiae
73. Vector for O. tusugamusi is/are:
(a) Chigger
(b) L.deliensis larva
(c) Xenopsylla cheopis
(d) Pediculus humanus corporis
74. Well flix reaction in scrub typhus is/are positive for:
(a) OX-19
(b) OX-2
(c) Both OX-19 & OX-2
(d) OX-K
(e) OX-19, OX-2 & OX-K
75. Minimum infective does of shigella is:
(a) 1-10
(b) 10-100
(c) 103-106
(d) Same as enteric fever
(e) Same as V.cholera
76. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is/are caused by:
(a) Coxsackie virus type A 24
(b) Corona virus
(c) Enterovirus-70
(d) Herpes simplex
(e) Adeno virus
77. Zones of operation theatre includes:
(a) Septic zone
(b) Protective zone
(c) Clean zone
(d) Sterile zone
(e) Disposal zone
78. True about achanthamoeba infection:
(a) Causes keratitis
(b) Contact lens increases risk of keratitis
(c) Cause keratitis only in contact lens wearer
(d) Also causes encephalitis
(e) Immunodeficiency is a risk factor
79. parainfluenzae requires factor:
(a) V
(b) VI
(c) VII
(d) X
(e) XII
80. Meningococcal infection is predisposed by which of the following deficiency of complement factor
(a) C1-C3
(b) C3-C4
(c) C5-C9
(d) C1-C4
(e) Properdin
81. True about 8th pandemic of cholera:
(a) Caused by serotype 0 classical
(b) Caused by serotype 0 Eltor
(c) Caused by serotype 0 139
(d) It spread in Indonesia in 1961
(e) It spread in Bangladesh in 1992-93
82. Which is not spirochetes:
(a) Borrelia
(b) Leptospira
(c) Fusobacterium
(d) Lactobaccilus
(e) Varinella
83. During separation, sexual intercourse between husband & wife:
(a) Non-bailable offence
(b) Only a crime if complained by victim
(c) It is defined under IPC 376 C
(d) Min9imum punishment of 2 year
(e) Minimum punishment of 5 year
84. Which of the following is/are true about euthanasia:
(a) Passive euthanasia now allowed in India but with some condition
(b) Passive euthanasia is allowed in some states in USA
(c) Active euthanasia is withholding life support by doctor
(d) Passive euthanasia is allowed in Belgium & Netherland
85. Early onset rigor mortis is/are seen in:
(a) TB
(b) Cholera
(c) Arsenic
(d) Asphyxia
(e) Aconite
86. All are true about organophosphorus poisoning except:
(a) Atropinisation is a adequate or not, can be judged by dilation of pupil
(b) Atropinisation is adequate or not, can be judged by dryness of mouth
(c) Decreased secretion from salivary gland
(d) Seizure is controlled by phenytoin
(e) Diazepam decreases anxiety
87. Pinpoint pupil not seen in:
(a) Aconite
(b) Opium
(c) Alcohol
(d) Cannabis
(e) Organophosphorus
SPM
88. Which of the following is/are true regarding population growth in India:
(a) During 1921-1971: It become more than double
(b) In 1971, population was more than 500 million
(c) In 1991, population was around 1 billion
(d) Between 1971-2011, the decadal growth rate was > 20%
(e) 1921-2011, the decadal growth rate was in double digit
89. All are true about pasteurization except:
(a) Phosphate test is used to check the efficiency of pasteurization
(b) In standard plate count, limit of bacteria is 30,000 bacterial count per ml
(c) It kill 100% bacteria
(d) Milk is heated to 125℃ in ultra high temperature method
(e) Methylene blue test is method of detection of microorganism in milk
90. Feature about anopheles mosquito:
(a) Spotted wings
(b) Lay eggs in cluster
(c) When adult anopheles rests, it makes an angle to surface
(d) Larva makes at angle to water surface when it takes rest
(e) White strip on black body
91. Which of the following is/are source of mortality related data”
(a) Sample registration system
(b) Death certificate
(c) Central births & deaths registration act
(d) All
(e) None
92. Which of the following statement is correct for data:
70, 70, 70, 74, 75, 79, 81, 81 & 83:
(a) Median = 75
(b) Median = 70
(c) Mode = 79
(d) Mean = 76.22
(e) Range = 6
93. Which of the following is/are probability sampling:
(a) Judge sampling
(b) Cluster sampling
(c) Simple random sampling
(d) Snowball sampling
(e) Stratified sampling
94. Catheter placed in which type of colour coded bag:
(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
(e) Transparent white
95. Which of the following is/are correct regarding drug resistance in T.B: efnition of Multi drug resistance T.B (MDR) is/are:
(a) Multi drug resistance T.B (MDR) is defined as resistance to rifamipcin only
(b) MDR is defined as resistance to Rifampicin + Isoniazid
(c) MDR is defined as resistance to Kanamycin + oflaxacin + Isoniazid + Rifmipicin
(d) Extensive drug resistance is defined as MDR + resistance to Ofloxacin
(e) Extensive drug resistance is defined as MDR + resistance to ofloxacin + resistance to
96. Which of the following is true regarding frost bit:
(a) Occurs at temperature above freezing point
(b) Reperfusion injury is more dangerous than frostbite
(c) Rewarming should be gradual & spontaneous
(d) Occurs t temperature below freezing point
(e) Intake of hot fluids promotes general rewarming
97. Which of the following is true regarding Revised national tuberculosis control programme (RNTCP):
(a) DOTS + kit is given free of cost
(b) Minimum 3 sputum smear is done
(c) New T.B patient: A person with sputum positive who has taken drug for < 2 month
(d) Target for cure is at least 85%
(e) The prevalence of infection in the age group below 14 years is brought down to less than 1%
98. According to WHO, recommended treatment for uncomplicated plasmodium falciparum is/are:
(a) Mefloquine
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Artermether + lumefantrine
(d) Artemesin only
(e) Lumefantrine only
99. True about orbital rhabdomyosarcoma:
(a) Arise from pleuripotent mesenchymal cell
(b) Origin from skeletal muscle cell
(c) Usually B/l
(d) Female predisposition
(e) More common in children
100. All are true about treatment of Age related macular degeneration except:
(a) Intravitreal anti-VEGF therapy
(b) Laser abalation
(c) Photodynamic therapy (PDT)
(d) Transpupillary thermotherapy
(e) Prognosis after treatment for non-exudative variety is very good
101. Cause(s) of shallow anterior chamber is/are:
(a) Anterior sublaxation of lens
(b) Pupil block due to vitreous blulge after ICCE
(c) Anterior dislocation of lens in anterior chamber
(d) Aphakia
(e) Myopia
102. True about pigmentary glaucoma
(a) More common in females
(b) More common in myopes
(c) Slit-like transillumination defects in the mid periphery is pathognomonic feature
(d) Occur due to clogging up of the trabecular meshwork
103. Uveitis is/are seen as side-effect of caused by:
(a) Latanoprost
(b) Moxifloxacin
(c) Cidofovir
(d) Rifabutin
ENT
104. Which of the following is/are true about posterior epistaxis:
(a) Posterior packing is done
(b) Often due to chronic hypertension
(c) Persistant case-ligation of anterior ethomoidal artery
(d) Severe bleeding in comparison with anterior epistaxis
(e) More commonly occur in elderly
105. Which of the following is true:
(a) Internal laryngeal nerve : supply cricothyorid muscle
(b) Internal laryngeal nerve-sensory supply below vocal cord
(c) Internal laryngeal nerve-tense vocal cord
(d) External laryngeal nerve-tense vocal cord
(e) Internal laryngeal nerve-sensory supply above vocal cord
106. All are true about Meniere’s disease except:
(a) Triad of recurrent vertigo, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus are found
(b) Treatment consists of use of thiazide
(c) Drop attack occurs
(d) Onset only after > 50 year
107. True about pure tone audiometry:
(a) The frequency tested is 2000-9000Hz
(b) Done in silent room
(c) Air conduction for right ear is represented on audiogram by symbol ‘X’
(d) Air conduction for left ear is represented an audiogram by symbol ‘O’
108. True about presbycusis:
(a) Degeneration of outer Hair cell of organ of Corti in sensory type
(b) High frequency is affected first in sensory type
(c) Can be treated with hearing aids
(d) Usually unilateral hearing loss occurs
109. Toby Ayer’s test is/are used for:
(a) CSF rhinorrhoea
(b) Lateral sinus thrombosis
(c) Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
(d) To check patency of Eustachian tube
110. Stridor is/are caused by all except:
(a) Vocal cord palsy
(b) Stenosis after tracheostomy
(c) Ludwig angina
(d) Retropharyngeal abscess
(e) Right bronchus foreign body
Medicine
111. Non-exertional classic heat stroke is/are predisposed in:
(a) Person with previous chronic illness
(b) Elderly
(c) Young & healthy person
(d) Adolescent
112. Features of Parkinsonism is/are:
(a) Rigidity
(b) Hypokinesia
(c) Intension tremor
(d) Rest tremor
(e) Dementia
113. Which of the following cause(s) motor neuropathy:
(a) GBS
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Diabetes
(d) Frideric ataxia
114. Which of the following is/are feature of pre-renal ARF in comparison to intrinsic renal failure:
(a) Fractional excretion of Sodium < 1
(b) Renal failure index > 1
(c) Urine osmolality > 500 mosmol > kg H2O
(d) Urine creatinine/plasma creatinine > 40
(e) Plasma BUN/creatinine ratio <20
115. Drug causing pulmonary fibrosis is/are:
(a) Amiodarone
(b) Cisplatin
(c) Gold
(d) Bleomycin
116. Which of the following causes hyperkalemia:
(a) Bartter syndrome
(b) RTA 1
(c) RTA II
(d) Tumor lysis syndrome
(e) Addison’s disease
117. Treatment of Hyperkalemia includes:
(a) Insulin
(b) CaHCO3
(c) Hemodialysis
(d) β2 agonist
(e) 50 ml of 50% dextrose with insulin
118. Which of the following is/are true regarding diabetic ketoacidosis:
(a) Fluid deficit is often 5-10 liter
(b) pH is usually > 7.35
(c) Hypokalemia initially present do not administer insulin until the potassium is corrected
(d) Ketosis
(e) Bicarbonate should be given in all cases
119. Which of the following is/are not feature of anorexia nervosa:
(a) Strict dieting
(b) Hallucination
(c) Amenorrhoea
(d) Distrotion of body image
(e) Endocrine bnormlities
120. Which of the following is/are true about inflammatory bowel disease:
(a) Smoking decreases risk of crohn’s disease & increases risk of ulcerative colitis
(b) pANCA-ulcerative colitis
(c) Linear ulcer-Crohn’s disease
(d) Pseudopolyp-Crohn’s disease
(e) Cobblestoning – ulcerative colitis
121. True about Pulmonary embolism:
(a) Most common presentation is asymptomatic
(b) Systemic hypertension usually occur
(c) Cardiovascular collapse
(d) Dyspnea is the most common symptom
(e) S1Q3T3 sign on ECG
122. Which of the following causes acute pancreatitis:
(a) Hypertriglyceridemia
(b) Hypercalcemia
(c) Steroid
(d) Stavudine
(e) Gall stone
123. Paradoxical/reverse splitting of second heart sound is/are seen in:
(a) AS
(b) PS
(c) Complete left bundle branch block
(d) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
124. Herpes encephalitis findings are:
(a) Most commonly involves frontal & temporal lobe
(b) Commonly involves basal ganglia
(c) Hyperintense lesion in temporal lobe on T1-weighted images
(d) Hyperintense lesion in temporal lobe in T2-wieghted images
125. Which of the following included in ATP III criteria for Metabolic syndrome:
(a) B.P ≥ 130/85
(b) Triglyceride ≥ 150 mg/dl
(c) Fasting glucose ≥ 100
(d) Waist circumference in female > 80 cm
126. Which of the following is/are true about pneumothorax:
(a) Decreased chest movement
(b) Dull on purcussion
(c) Decrease breathing sound
(d) Hyper-resonant note on percussion
(e) End-expiratory crepitation
127. A person’s X-ray chest showing homogenous opacity on right side with shifting of mediastinum on opposite side. Most probable diagnosis is/are:
(a) Collapse
(b) Pleural effusion
(c) Pneumothorax
(d) Consolidation
(e) Post-pnemectomy
128. Paraneoplastic syndromes on lung carcinoma includes:
(a) Hypercalcemia
(b) SIADH
(c) Hypocalcemia
(d) Hypoglycemia
(e) Hypernatremia
129. Which of the following investigation is useful for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (gastrinoma):
(a) USG
(b) MRI
(c) CT scan
(d) OctreoScan
(e) Endoscopic ultrasound
130. Community acquired pneumonia is/are caused by:
(a) Staph. aureus
(b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
(c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(d) Influenza virus
(e) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
131. Treatment of facio-cervical actinomycosis includes:
(a) Surgery is treatment of choice
(b) Drug of choice is penicillin G
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Amoxicillin
132. Neoplastic Lesion in AIDS includes:
(a) Anal carcinoma
(b) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
(c) Esophageal carcinoma
(d) Burkit’s lymphoma
(e) Cervical carcinoma
133. Which of the following is/are true regarding CPR:
(a) Compression to ventilation ratio should be 15:2 in adult
(b) Compression to ventilation ratio should be 30:2 in adult
(c) End tidal Co2 > 20 is sign of effective CPR
(d) End tidal CO2 > 20 is sign of effective CPR
(e) Sequence should be CBA
Surgery
134. True about Amoebic liver abscess:
(a) More common in right lobe
(b) Patients usually present with fever, chills & upper quadrant abdominal pain
(c) Usually multiple
(d) Abscess cavity contains anchovy sauce-like fluid
(e) Most commonly presents with jaundice
135. True about ulcer:
(a) Arterial ulcer-painless
(b) Venous ulcer-penetrates deep fascia
(c) Arterial ulcer-punched out
(d) Neuropathic ulcer-may involve bone
(e) Trophic ulcer-Puched out edge
136. True about Buerger disease
(a) Affects larger artery only
(b) Younger males are more commonly affected
(c) Phlebitis migrans is characteristic
(d) Cold intolerance
(e) Veins may involved
137. All are true about squamous cell carcinoma of skin except:
(a) It is called marjolin ulcer when develops in scar
(b) Radiotherapy may be used in treatment
(c) Hematogenous spread is common & occur early
(d) May develop in chronic ulcer
138. Indication of circumcision includes:
(a) Hypospadias
(b) Epispadias
(c) Phimosis
(d) Balanitis
(e) Balanoposthitis
139. Inguinal hernia surgery may be complicated by:
(a) Testicular atrophy
(b) Urinary retention
(c) Impotence
(d) Constipation
(e) Pain
140. True about physiological hernia
(a) Herniation of Foregut
(b) Herniation of Foregut + midgut
(c) Herniation of Midgut
(d) Goes back around 4 week after herniation
(e) Goes back around 10 week of fetus age
141. Burn involving one lower limbs in adult correspondence to area:
(a) 4.5%
(b) 9%
(c) 13.5%
(d) 18%
(e) 27%
142. True about thyroid tumor:
(a) Follicular – lymphatic metastasis more common than papillary
(b) Papillary- blood metastasis more common than follicular
(c) Hurthle- lymphatic spread is common
(d) Hurthle-less aggressive than follicular carcinoma
(e) Follicular-invasion of capsule & vascular spaces in capsular region
143. Common tumour (s) found in anterior mediastinum:
(a) Teratoma
(b) Cervical thymoma
(c) Lymphoma
(d) Schwannoma
(e) Thyroid carcinoma
144. True about Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric stenosis
(a) Bilous vomiting never occurs
(b) No palpable mass
(c) Surgery treatment of choice
(d) Hypochloremic alkalosis occurs
145. Bilateral parotid swelling is/are seen in all except:
(a) Mump
(b) Epstein-Barr virus
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Brucella
(e) Sjogren syndrome
Obstetrics & Gynaecology
146. True about Down syndrome:
(a) Maternal serum AFP is increased
(b) Trisomy 21
(c) ↑Unconjugated estradiol
(d) Quadruple test contains – PPP,MSAFP, Estrdiol & hCG
(e) Ideal timing for CV sampling carried out trascervically is 13-16 week
147. Which of the following is/are true regarding changes in pregnancy at term:
(a) Systemic vascular resistance decreases
(b) 40-50% increase in cardiac output
(c) Heart rate decreases
(d) Vital capacity increases
(e) Respiratory rate increases
148. In Pregnancy, which of the following decreases
(a) Serum ALT
(b) S. Alkaline phosphatase
(c) Serum AST
(d) S. Urea
(e) S. Creatitine
149. All are true about PCOD except:
(a) Metformin is used for treatment
(b) Acanthosis nigra may associated
(c) Occur in postmenopausal women only
(d) Associated with obesity
(e) Infertility may be present
150. True about cervical cancer screening in female:
(a) Start from 21 yr of age irrespective of sexual activity
(b) Start from 21 yr of age in sexually active women
(c) After 30 yr, screening is done every 2-3 years if 3 previous PAP negative smear
(d) In 70 plus age group, if previous PAP smear is negative-then annual survey
(e) Risk group should be screened through HPV DNA testing combined with cytology
151. On cervical cancer screening, a CIN-II lesion detected. Which of the following can be included in management:
(a) Hysterectomy
(b) Colposcopy
(c) Conization
(d) Always keep under observation with HPV testing
152. Which of the following is/are true about locked twins:
(a) First fetus-breech presentation & second fetus cephalic presentation
(b) First fetus- cephalic presentation & second fetus breech presentation
(c) Decapitation of head can be done, if the fetus is dead
(d) Caesarean delivery is TOC
(e) Usually delivered by vaginal route
153. True about female pelvis:
(a) Obstetric conjugate is 2 cm less than Diagonal conjugate
(b) Obesetrical conjugate is the distance b/w the midpoint of the sacral promontory to prominent bony projection in the midline on the inner surface of the symphysis pubis
(c) Intertuberous diameter is 8 cm
(d) Bispinous diameter is 10.5 cm
154. Feature(s) of chronic hypertension in pregnancy:
(a) Hypertension occurring after 20 week of pregnancy
(b) Hypertension occurring before 20 week of pregnancy
(c) > 10 times common in obese women
(d) Hypertension before onset of pregancy
(e) Hypertension occur upto 12 week postpartum
155. In a primi female, Differential diagnosis of shock includes:
(a) Uterine inversion
(b) Postpatrum massive haemorrhage
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism
(d) Pospatrum eclampsia
156.In pregancy, counseling for therapeutic termination is generally done in case of:
(a) Eisenmenger syndrome
(b) Multi valvular disease
(c) Congenital heart disease
(d) Marfan syndrome
(e) Primary pulmonary hypertension
157. OCP is absolutely contraindicated in :
(a) Age > 40 year with smoking
(b) Carcinoma breast & genitalia
(c) H/o Epilepsy
(d) Thrombophlebitis
(e) Hyperlipidemia
158. Infertility is defined as:
(a) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 18 month of unprotected & regular intercourse
(b) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 15 month of unprotected & regular intercourse, it is an indication to investigate the couple
(c) If a couple fails to achieve pregnancy after 1 year of unprotected & regular intercourse
(d) Termed primary if conception has never occurred
(e) It is termed secondary if conception has never occurred
159. Which of the following is/are true regarding management of ectopic pregnancy:
(a) Intrauterine sac may be visible by TVS when the βhCG levels is > 1000 mIU/ml
(b) Hemoperitoneum is indication for medical treatment
(c) Methotrexate is drug of choice
(d) Laproscopy can be used for diagnosis
160. Most common site of CIN is:
(a) Squamo-columnar junction
(b) Ectocervix
(c) Endocervix
(d) Nabothain gland
161. True about Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster –Hauser syndrome
(a) 46 XY
(b) Upper 2/3 vagina absent
(c) Ovary atrohic
(d) Uterus abnormality
(e) Amenorrhoea
Paediatrics
162. All are true about Down syndrome except:
(a) Duodenal atresia
(b) Trisomy 21
(c) Simian crease
(d) Hypoplasia of middle phalanx of 1st finger
(e) Epicanthic fold
163. True about ventricular septal defect:
(a) MC congenital heart anomaly
(b) Presentation depends on size of lesion
(c) Membranous type closes early than muscular type
(d) Mid-diastolic murmur
(e) CHF never develops
Orthopaedics
164. A 65 year old male presented with femur neck fracture. he was managed with closed reduction + cancellous screw. 6 month later X-ray was done in lateral vies. X-ray shows non-union & leg shorting. Now, appropriated management options is/are:
(a) Unipolar hemiarthroplasty
(b) Bipolar hemiarthroplasty
(c) Subtrochanteric osteotomy
(d) Osteosynthesis
(e) Total hip arthroplasty
165. Carpal tunnel syndrome is associated with all except:
(a) Dupuytren’s contracture
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Idiopathic
(d) Rheumatoid arthritis
(e) Acromegaly
166. Which of the following is/are not feature(s) of rheumatoid arthritis:
(a) Pannus formation in joint
(b) Osteoscelrosis osteocalstic activity in underlying bone
(c) Erosoin of cartilage
(d) Osteophyte
(e) Plasma cell infiltration of synovial stroma
167. True about fracture neck Talus:
(a) Avascular necrosis of body is common complication
(b) Lateral view X-ray is important for diagnosis
(c) Displaced fracture require below knee plaster only
(d) Displaced fracture require open reduction & internal fixation
168. True about acute osteomyelitis:
(a) Secondary osteomyelitis associated with compound fracture is more common than primary type
(b) Can not detected on X-ray before 2 wk
(c) Present with severe pain
(d) Only after > 2 wk, bone scan can detect
169. True about osteoclastoma
(a) Mostly malignant
(b) Most common site-mandible & vertebrae
(c) Recurrence is common after excision
(d) Located at epiphysis
170. Fracture site of Monteggia fracture is:
(a) Proximal ulna
(b) Distal end of radius
(c) Distal radius
(d) Dislocation of radial head
(e) Lower ratio-ulnar joint dislocation
Anaesthesia
171. All are true regarding Laryngeal Mask Airway except:
(a) Big oral tumor is contraindication for its use
(b) May be used when intubation with ET is not possible
(c) Can be used in child’s eye surgery
(d) May be used in CPR
172. Which of the following circuit is preferred in child for spontaneous respiration:
(a) Mapleson A
(b) Jackson & Rees circuit
(c) Mapleson C
(d) Mapleson E
(e) Mapleson F
173. Weaning is generally done by:
(a) SIMV
(b) Controlled mode ventilation (CMV)
(c) CPAP
(d) Pressure controlled Ventilation
(e) Assisted controlled Ventilation
174. A child on immediate postoperative, is complaining of nausea & vomiting after squint surgery. Which of the following drugs may be not used during operation in controlling this symptom:
(a) Propofol
(b) Ketamine
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Ondansetron
(e) Palonosetron
175. Which of the following fluid used in perioperative period is isotonic:
(a) RL
(b) DNS
(c) 5% Dextrose
(d) HES
(e) NS
Skin
176. True about P. Versicolor:
(a) Previously called taenia versicolor
(b) Also called Dobhi itch
(c) Also called Joke itch
(d) Caused by dermatophyte
(e) Caused by malasseia furtur
177. True about Impetigocontagiosa:
(a) Asboe- hausen sign
(b) Honey coloured crust
(c) Caused by staph. aureus
(d) Contagious
(e) Bullous disorder
178. Dermatitis herpetiformis:
(a) Caused by herpes
(b) Affect mainly flexor surface
(c) Associated with gluten sensitive enteropathy
(d) Dapsone is used in treatment
179. Maculopapular rashs are seen in all except
(a) Scarlet fever
(b) Measles
(c) Exanthemsubitum
(d) Infectious mononucleosis
(e) German measles
180. Androgenic alopecia in female is caused by:
(a) Myxedema
(b) Cushing disease
(c) Stein-Leventhal syndrome
(d) Addison’s disease
181. Findings in psoarisis includes:
(a) Parakeratosis
(b) Involving almost 100% of Basal cell in multiplication
(c) Micro-munro abscess
(d) Autoimmune disease with T-cell involvement
(e) Frequently involving mucosal surface
182. True about bullous pemphigoid:
(a) Nikolsky sign positive
(b) Bulla spread sign positive
(c) Common in children
(d) Darier sign
(e) Itching is common
183. All are true about lichen planus except:
(a) Not associated with oral ulcer
(b) Wikham’s striae present
(c) Colloid body on histology
(d) Morphology can be represented by 5 ‘P’
(e) Koebner’s or isomorphic phenomenon may be present
184. Which is caused by bacteria:
(a) Anal wart
(b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
(c) Molluscumcontagiosum
(d) Condylomatalattum
Psychiatry
185. Which of the following is rue regarding catatonia
(a) Prominent sensory symptom
(b) Prominent motor symptom
(c) ECT is TOC for life threatening catatonia
(d) May be associated with CNS disease
186. All are true about narcolepsy except:
(a) Day dreaming
(b) Hypnagogic hallucinations
(c) Cataplexy
(d) Sudden sleep
(e) Decreased REM latency
187. Which of the following is true about OCD:
(a) Anxiety
(b) Compulsion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Obscession
(e) Egoalien
188. Features of Mania includes:
(a) Cheerfulness
(b) Anhedonia
(c) Cataonia
(d) Delusion of grandeur
(e) Negative thinking
Radiology
189. 18-FDG stands for:
(a) 18-Fluorodeoxy glucose
(b) 18-Fluorodioxy glucose
(c) 18-Fluorodioxy galactose
(d) 18-Fluorodioxy galactose
(e) 18-Fluorodeoxy glycogen
190. Half-life of radius is:
(a) 14 da
(b) 27 day
(c) 1626 years
(d) 5.25 yr
191. 1 curie is equivalent to:
(a) 1.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(b) 2.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(c) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(d) 4.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
(e) 5.7 × 1010 disintegration/second
192. Radiation not emitted by Co-60:
(a) α rays
(b) β rays
(c) γ rays
(d) Positron
(e) δ rays
193. Which of the following areas are not examined in FAST:
(a) Perisplenic
(b) Perihepatic
(c) Suprapubic
(d) Chest
(e) Cardiac window
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