Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Chennai Traffic Apprentice (TA) & Commercial Apprentice (CA) Examination Held on 08-01-2006
1. Red panda tigers are found in
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Goa
2. Birbal Sahani was
(a) Zoologist
(b) Founder of CDRT
(c) Botanist
(d) Traveller
3. The Nobel Prize of literature 2003 was awarded to Mr. JM Coetzee. he belonged to
(a) South Africa
(b) USA
(c) Iran
(d) UK
4. The father of taxonomy is
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Aristotle
5. Rayon fibre is manufactured from
(a) Petroleum
(b) Cellulose
(c) Naphtha
(d) Chemical
6. Primary sector is related to
(a) Industry
(b) Trade
(c) Agriculture
(d) Banking
7. The rare species couple is
(a) Indian peacock-Carrot grass
(b) Rhesus monkey-Teakwood
(c) Garden lizard-Mexican animal
(d) None of the above
8. Rajya Sabha is called a permanent body because
(a) all the members are members for life
(b) it can never b e dissolved
(c) one-third members retire after every two years
(d) It remains in session throughout the years
9. The Constitutional amendment cannot be made
(a) by simple majority o f Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) by 2/3rd majority of members of parliament
(c) by 2/3rd majority of MPs and 1/3rd majority of States
(d) plebiscite
10. A republic is
(a) only a democratic state
(b) a presidential type government ruled state
(c) a parliamentary type government rule state
(d) a state where head of the state is not hereditary
11. The rainfall at a place is based on
(a) the direction of mountains
(b) the evaporation of water in the sea
(c) the strength of summer season
(d) None of the above
12. In which article of the constitution the right to amend the Constitution has been provided to the Parliament?
(a) 370
(b) 368
(c) 390
(d) 376
13. When was the National Emergency promulgated in India for the first time?
(a) 1962
(b) 1966
(c) 1978
(d) 1987
14. A political party is recognized as a National Party
(a) when it contests elections in all states
(b) when it secures atleast 5% of the total votes cast in the national elections
(c) if it is recognized as a political party in four or more states
(d) if it captures power in atleast three states
15. Which gland in the human body is called the master gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Pituitary
(d) Spleen
16. Which one of the methods was not adopted by Wellesley to achieve his political aims?
(a) Subsidiary
(b) Mediatization
(c) War
(d) Trickery
17. Who established the tradition of laying out formal gardens with running water?
(a) Babar
(b) Sher Shah
(c) Akbar
(d) Shah Jahan
18. Which one of the following is an autobiography?
(a) Akbar-nama
(b) Humayun-nama
(c) Padshah-nama
(d) Babar-nama
19. Which one of the following was not written by Mulk Raj Anand?
(a) Coolie
(b) The Sword and the Sickle
(c) The Village
(d) The Dark Room
20. Which one of the followings places was famous for the manufacture of carpets in the Vijayanagar empire?
(a) Pulicat
(b) Vijayanagar
(c) Calicut
(d) Warangal
21. In a division sum, the divisor is 12 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder. If the remainder is 48, what is dividend?
(a) 4848
(b) 676
(c) 250
(d) 5800
22. Which pair of national numbers lies between 1/5 and 2/5?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
23. If 
then the value of 
is
(a) 1.49985
(b) 14.9985
(c) 149.985
(d) 1499.85
24. 21 mango trees, 42 apple trees and 56 orange trees have to be planted in rows such that each row contains the same number of trees of one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the above trees may be planted is
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 120
25. Four bells toll at interval of 6, 8, 12 and 18 s. If they begin to toll at 12 together, the least time after than they will again toll together is
(a) 1 min and 12 s
(b) 1 min and 15 s
(c) 1 min and 20 s
(d) None of the above
26. If the length of a train is 150 m and it clears a pole in 12 s, what is the speed of the train in km/h?
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 45
27. A hare, preceded by a greyhound is 87.5 m before him. While the hare takes 4 leaps, the greyhound takes 3 leaps. If the greyhound and the hare go 
respectively in one leap, in how many leaps will the greyhound overtake the hare?
(a) 120
(b) 210
(c) 170
(d) 200
28. A monkey climbing up a greased pole, ascends 5 m and slips down 2 m in alternate minutes. If the pole is 35 m high, then the monkey will reach the top in
(a) 11 min
(b) 11 min 24 s
(c) 11 min 36 s
(d) None of the above
29. Walking 6/7 of his usual rate, a man is 25 min late, find his usual time.
(a) 1 h 20 min
(b) 2 h 30 min
(c) 3 h
(d) 4 h 10 min
30. If two numbers are respectively 30% and 40% more than a third number, what per cent is the first to the second?
(a) 85
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
31. A large watermelon weights 20 kg with 96% of its weight being water. It is allowed to stand in the sun and some of the water evaporates so that now only 95% of its weight is water. Its reduced weight will be
(a) 18 kg
(b) 17 kg
(c) 16.5 kg
(d) 16 kg
32. The petrol prices are reduced by 10%. Find by how much a user must increase the consumption of petrol so as not to decrease his expenditure on petrol?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 14%
33. A sum of Rs 20000 is to be divided between two brothers aged 15 yr and 13 yr so that at that age of 18 they get equal amount while the compound rate of interest is 5% per annum. What is the amount received b y the younger brother?
(a) Rs 8123.50
(b) Rs 1213.50
(c) Rs 9512.50
(d) Rs 1000.50
34. In a class there are 30 boys whose average weight is decreased by 200 g. When one boy whose weight is 25 kg leaves the class a new one is admitted. Find the weight of the newcomer.
(a) 16 kg
(b) 17 kg
(c) 18 kg
(d) 19 kg
35. If one side of a rectangle is increased by 50% while the other side is decreased by 50%, the area of the resulting rectangle will be how many per cent more or less than the area of the original rectangle?
(a) No change in area
(b) 10% decrease in area
(c) 25% increase in area
(d) None of the above
36. 
in lowest form is
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) None of the above
37. If x > 0 and 
to infinity, then the value of x is equal to
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
38. In a group of 75 persons 25 read, The Times of India but not Hindustan Times, 30 read Hindustan Times but not The Times of India. How many persons read both the newspapers? When there is not a single person who does not read any of these papers.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) None of these
39. If the sum and difference of two expressions are 5a2 – a – 4 and a2 + 9a – 10 respectively, then their LCM is
(a) (a – 1) (a + 1) (3a – 7)
(b) (a – 1) (3a – 7) (2a – 3)
(c) (a – 1) (3a + 7) (2a – 3)
(d) (a – 1)(3a – 7) (2a + 3)
40. If the HCF and LCM of x2 – 4 and the polynomial P(x) are x2 – 4 and x(x2 – 4) respectively, then P(x) is
(a) x
(b) x(x2 – 4)2
(c) x(x2 – 4)
(d) x2 – 4
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-44) In the following questions, three out of the four alternatives are same in a certain way and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belong to the group.
41.
(a) Java
(b) Tasmania
(c) Malaysia
(d) Cuba
42.
(a) Madurai
(b) Ellora
(c) Khajuraho
(d) Dilwara
43.
(a) JKNQ
(b) DEGJ
(c) QRTW
(d) YZBE
44.
(a) 10 : 91
(b) 9 : 80
(c) 1 : 0
(d) 6 : 35
45. England is related to ‘Atlantic Ocean’ in the same way as ‘Greenland’ is related to
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Antarctic Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
46. Inspiration : Poetry as
(a) Music : Notes
(b) Dirt : Disease
(c) Brush : Painting
(d) Though : Mind
47. Choose the missing word in the place of the sign(?). On the basis of the relationship between the words given on the left and side of the sign (?). Anaemia : Blood : : Anarchy
(a) Disorder
(b) Monarchy
(c) Government
(d) Lawlessness
Directions (Q. Nos. 48-52) Read the information and answer the questions based on them.
The members of a Bank are Mr. A, Mr. B, Mrs. C, Miss D, Mr. E and Miss F. The positions they occupy are Manager, Asst. Manager, Cashier, Steno, Teller and a Clerk, though not necessarily in order. The Asst. Manager is Manger’s grandson. Cashier is Stenographer’s son-in-law. Mr. A is bachelor. Miss D is Teller’s stepsister and Mr. E is Manager’s neighbour. Mr. B cannot have a grandson or son-in-law as he is only 20 yr old.
48. Who is the Manager?
(a) Mr. A
(b) Mrs. C
(c) Mr. E
(d) Cannot be determined
49. Who is the Asst. Manager?
(a) Mr. A
(b) Miss F
(c) Mrs. C
(d) Mr. B
50. Who is Teller?
(a) Miss F
(b) Mrs. C
(c) Mr. A
(d) Miss D
51. Who is the Clerk?
(a) Mr. B
(b) Miss D
(c) Miss F
(d) Cannot be determined
52. Who is the Cashier?
(a) Either Mr. A or Mr. B
(b) Miss F
(c) None
(d) Mr. B
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-57) In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the given options (a), (b), (c) and (d) the right figure to fit in the missing place.
53. 
54. 
55. 
56. 
57. 
58. How many squares are there in the following figure?
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) None of these
59. How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 13
(d) None of these
60. Radha remembers that her father’s birthday is after 16th but before 21st of March, while her brother Mahesh remembers that his father’s birthday is before 22nd but after 19th of March. On which date is the birthday of their father?
(a) 20th
(b) 19th
(c) 21st
(d) Can’t be remembered
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-64) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench.
(i) A is sitting next to B
(ii) C is sitting next to D
(iii) E is on the left end of the bench
(iv) E is on the left end of the bench
(v) C is on second position from right
(vi) A is on the right side of B and to the right side of E
(vii) A and C are sitting together
61. At what position is A sitting?
(a) Between B and C
(b) Right side of C
(c) Between E and D
(d) Between C and E
62. Who is sitting at the centre?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
63. What is the position of B?
(a) Second from right
(b) Centre
(c) Extreme left
(d) Second from left
64. What is the position of D?
(a) Extreme left
(b) Extreme right
(c) Third from left
(d) Second from left
Directions (Q. Nos. 65-69) In the following items some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to re-arrange these parts which are labeled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence.
65. The collector said that the
P : supply of water for irrigation
Q : dams should receive water
R : upto a particular level
S : to ensure uninterrupted
The correct sequence should be
(a) QRSP
(b) RQSP
(c) SPRQ
(d) SRPQ
66. Jawaharlal Nehru
P : under the Cabinet Mission Scheme
Q : was the first to articulate
R : long before such an assembly was set up
S: the idea of a Constituent Assembly
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRSQ
(b) QPSR
(c) QSPR
(d) RPSQ
67. We have increased
P : in the atmosphere
Q : the amount of carbon dioxide
R : despite a scientific consensus
S : that global temperatures are rising as a result
The correct sequence should be
(a) QPRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) PRSQ
(d) QPSR
68. Work is the one thing
P : and without it
Q : that is necessary
R : to keep the world going
S : we all should die
The correct sequence should be
(a) QPSR
(b) QRPS
(c) RPQS
(d) SRPQ
69. Though my father
P : he is deeply concerned
Q : about their needs
R : makes h is children
S : carry out their duties promptly
The correct sequence should be
(a) RSPQ
(b) PRQS
(c) RSQP
(d) PQRS
Directions (Q. Nos. 70-74) Each of the following five items consist of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
70. PREPOSTEROUS
(a) heartless
(b) hypnotical
(c) absurd
(d) abnormal
71. CHAOTIC
(a) unclear
(b) unruly
(c) disorderly
(d) noisy
72. GRANDEUR
(a) magnificence
(b) divinity
(c) holiness
(d) power
73. INDOLENT
(a) sluggish
(b) slow
(c) inactive
(d) slothful
74. LETHAL
(a) unlawful
(b) deadly
(c) sluggish
(d) smooth
Directions (Q. Nos. 75-79) Each of the following five items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.
75. OBSCURE
(a) pedantic
(b) explicit
(c) implicit
(d) obnoxious
76. INEPTITUDE
(a) efficiency
(b) readiness
(c) resourcefulness
(d) intervention
77. REPULSIVE
(a) lovely
(b) attractive
(c) delightful
(d) distinctive
78. RETICENT
(a) cooperative
(b) generous
(c) helpful
(d) frank
79. PERFUNCTORY
(a) through
(b) careful
(c) systematic
(d) superficial
Directions (Q. Nos. 80-84) In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S1) and the six sentences (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences.
80. S1 : Satyajit Ray made several films for children.
S6 : But today few think of Ray as a maker of children’s films.
P : Later film-makers have followed his lead.
Q : Today other nations are making children’s films in a big way.
R : This ways at a time when no director considered children as potential audience.
S : Ray was thus a pioneer in the field.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PSRQ
(b) RSQP
(c) RSPQ
(d) SQRP
81. S1 : We are what our thoughts have made us.
S6 : If good impressions prevail, the character becomes good, if bad it become bad.
P : And do take care of what you think.
Q : Every man’s character is determined by the sum total of these impressions.
R : Every work we do, every thought that we think, leaves an impression on the mind stuff.
S : Thoughts live; they travel far.
The correct sequence should be
(a) SPRQ
(b) RQSP
(c) SPQR
(d) RQPS
82. S1 : The invention of printing is a milestone in the history of civilization.
S6 : With this invention to aid, new ideas spread all over Europe.
P : In the middle ages all books were copied by hand.
Q : As time went on, all could possess copies of the great classics.
R : Books were hence rare and costly.
S : After1460, printing made a plentiful of books possible.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PSQR
(b) PRSQ
(c) SQRP
(d) SRPQ
83. S1 : Growing up means not only getting larger, but also using our brains to become more aware of the things around
S6 : In other words, we must develop and use our ability to reason, because the destruction or the preservation of the places in which we live depends on us.
P : Not only does he have a memory but he is able to think and reason.
Q : In this, man differs from all other animals.
R : Before we spray our roadside plants or turn sewage into our rivers, we should pause to think what the results of our actions are likely to be.
S : This is to say, he is able to plan what he is going to do in the light of his experience before he does it.
The correct sequence should be
(a) QRSP
(b) SPQR
(c) SPRQ
(d) QPSR
84. S1 : There was a boy named Jack.
S6 : Atleast she turned him out of the house.
P : So the mother asked him to find work.
Q : They were very poor.
R : He lived with his mother.
S : But Jack refused to work.
The correct sequence should be
(a) RQPS
(b) PQRS
(c) QPRS
(d) RPSQ
85. Substances which are obtained from micro-organisms but used to destroy micro-organisms are
(a) Antigens
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Antibodies
(d) Antiseptics
86. Which of the following is a chemical compound?
(a) Air
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Mercury
87. Consider the following statements.
(i) Alluvial soil is rich in chemical properties and is capable of yielding Rabi and Kharif crops.
(ii) Black soil is suitable for cotton, groundnut.
(iii) Rabi crops are reaped in autumn after sowing in June.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
88. Which of the following is detected and estimated by the “Pollution Check” carried out on motor cars at service stations?
(a) Lead and carbon particles
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbon dioxide
89. Which one of the following elements is not naturally found in human beings?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Iodine
(d) Lead
90. The name ‘Bihar’ derived its name from
(a) Stupa
(b) Place of recreation
(c) Buddhist hall of worship
(d) Buddhist monastery
91. Source of river Burhigandak is
(a) Rajmahal Hills
(b) Mandar Hills
(c) Barare Hills
(d) Someshwar Hills
92. Treaty of Sugauli was signed in which year?
(a) 1796 AD
(b) 1810 AD
(c) 1816 AD
(d) 1860 AD
93. Why does a train stop when you pull the chain?
(a) By pulling the chain the bakes of the engine are pulled and the train stops
(b) As soon as the chain is pulled, vacuum breaks, air rushes in and bakes are applied
(c) By pulling the chain the driver gets the alarm signal and he applies the brakes
(d) Automatic brakes are attached to the engine
94. Who were involved in designing the city of New Delhi?
(a) Edward Lutyens and Edward Baker
(b) RF Chisholm and H irwin
(c) FS Grose and Agq.
(d) G Wittet and Swifon Jacob
95. Which of the following is/are true in respect of the Bhakti Movement in South India?
(i) It was led by a series of popular Saints.
(ii) Its protagonists spoke and wrote in Sanskrit.
(iii) It opposed the caste system as such.
(iv) Women did not take an active part in its propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) Only (iv)
96. Who among the following has mentioned with horror the scenes of a woman burning herself in the funeral pyre is her husband with great beatings of drums?
(a) Ibn Batutah
(b) Barani
(c) Badauni
(d) Amir Khusrau
97. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Name of works Authors
(a) Humayun-nama Humayun
(b) Babar-nama Babar
(c) Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri Jhangir
(d) Shah Jahan-nama Muhamm-mad Tahir
98. Who was given the title of Raja Birbal?
(a) Mahes Das
(b) Raja Bhagwan Das
(c) Banamali Das
(d) Raja Todar Mal
99. What are the causes for the success of Nur Jahan over Mahabat Khan?
(i) Growing unpopularity of the Rajput Soldiers in the service of Mahabat Khan.
(ii) Cool courage and sagacity of Nur Jahan.
(iii) Lack of soldierly qualities in Mahabat Khan.
(iv) Prince Khurram’s timely assistance of Nur Jahan.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All the four
100. Many buildings were not put up by Aurangzeb because
(a) he had no taste for art
(b) builders were not available
(c) he was economy minded
(d) he had to wage wars continuously all through his reign
101. During whose governor generalship was the Victoria Memorial Hall built at Kolkata?
(a) Elgin
(b) Curzon
(c) Minto
(d) Hardinge
102. Which one of the following places was not associated with the invasion of Nadir Shah?
(a) Lahore
(b) Karnal
(c) Delhi
(d) Kannauj
103. Who among the following signed Subsidiary Treaties with Lord Wellesley?
(i) Nizam of Hyderabad
(ii) Nawab of Awadh
(iii) The Raja of Mysore
(iv) The Nawab of Bengal
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
104. Who issued gold coins in large numbers?
(a) The Greeks
(b) The Mauryas
(c) The Kushana rulers
(d) The Sungas
105. What was the most important reason for the failure of the Cripps Mission?
(a) Reactionary attitude of Winston Churchill
(b) Difference on the question of the functions of the Indian Defence Minister
(c) Pacifism of Gandhi
(d) Take it or leave it’ attitude of Cripps
106. JAYA, PADMA, SONA and MADHU are varieties of which cereal?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Barley
(d) Maize
107. The Suzuki Car sold in America under the brand name SWIFT is marketed under which name in India?
(a) ZEN
(b) ESTEEM
(c) BALENO
(d) WAGON-R
108. Which Indian city was the first to go electric in 1899?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
109. For which of the following systems of medicine is the Kerala town of KOTTAKAL renowned?
(a) Yoga
(b) Unani
(c) Ayurveda
(d) None of these
110. Which of these is India’s highest honour?
(a) Bharat Ratna
(b) Ashok Chakra
(c) Param Vir Chakra
(d) None of the above
111. Vehicles made by which Indian company lead the salute to the President of India on Republic Day every year?
(a) Telco
(b) Hindustan Motors
(c) Mahindra and Mahindra
(d) Maruti
112. Where is Indian Oil Corporation’s biggest refinery located?
(a) Haldia
(b) Barauni
(c) Koyali
(d) Digboi
113. Two identical trains A and B move with equal speeds on parallel tracks along the equator. A moves from East to West and B from West to East. Which train will exert greater force on the tracks?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) They will exert equal force
(d) The mass and the speed of each train must be known to reach a conclusion
114. The conservation of linear momentum is
(a) Newton’s first law of motion
(b) Newton’s second law of motion
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) None of the above
115. The first law of thermodynamics supports
(a) Energy conservation
(b) Heat conservation
(c) Work conservation
(d) None of the above
116. The energy of ideal gas is based on
(a) Pressure
(b) Volume
(c) Temperature
(d) Number of moles
117. Yellow coloured glass is obtained by mixing compound of ……. with the molten mass during the preparation of glass.
(a) cadmium
(b) iron
(c) cobalt
(d) copper
118. The quality of petroleum is measured by
(a) Senate number
(b) Octane number
(c) Knocking compound
(d) None of the above
119. Iron oxide is reduced in blast furnace by
(a) silica
(b) carbon
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) None of these
120. In an orbit, a small part of a satellite is separated. It will
(a) fall to the Earth
(b) fall with circular motion
(c) remain revolving in space
(d) remain far from the Earth
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