Railway (RRC) Allahabad Khalish-Gangmen Examination 1st Sitting 16.11.2014
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I
(a) Ursa Major
(b) Sirius
(c) Galaxy
(d) Titan
List II
(i) Star
(ii) Constellation
(iii) Satellite
(iv) Star Cluster
(v) Planet
(1) (a) – ii; (b) – iv; (c) – i; (d) – iii
(2) (a) – i; (b) – ii; (c) – iii; (d) – iv
(3) (a) – i; (b) – ii; (c) – iv; (d) – iii
(4) (a) – ii; (b) – i; (c) – iv; (d) – iii
2. Which of the following is a Great Circle?
(1) Arctic Circle
(2) Tropic of Cancer
(3) Equatorial line
(4) Tropic of Capricorn
3. The largest desert of the word is situated in
(1) Israel
(2) Iraq
(3) Saudi Arabia
(4) Northern Africa
4. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(1) Panagudi : Tamil Nadu
(2) Haldia : Odisha
(3) Jamnagar : Maharashtra
(4) Numaligarh : Gujarat
5. What is Willy-Willy?
(1) A tropical cyclone near India
(2) A tropical cyclone near Australia
(3) An earthquake
(4) Extremely high tide
6. Assertion (A) : The State of Jammu and Kashmir has been accorded special status.
Reason (R) : This has been granted by the India Independence Act, 1947.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
7. The famous Indo-Greek ruler who embraced Buddhism was
(1) Alexander
(2) Strato I
(3) Menander
(4) Democritus
8. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Metamorphic Made of rock
(1) Quartzite – Sandstone
(2) Schist – Dolomite
(3) Slate – Granite
(4) Niche – Basalt
9. Mauna Loa is an example of
(1) Dormant volcano
(2) Active volcano
(3) Dead volcano
(4) A plateau in volcanic region
10. Which of the following is a warm ocean current?
(1) None of these
(2) Kuroshio current
(3) Peruvian current
(4) Labrador current
11. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) A new star rises, the star of freedom in the east – Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it – B. G. Tilak
(3) Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom! – J. L. Nehru
(4) Do or Die – S. C. Bose
12. Consider the following four saints :
(i) Kabir (ii) Nanak
(iii) Chaitanya
(iv) Tulsidas
What is the correct chronological sequence of their ascendance?
(1) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(4) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
13. Shivaji was coronated _____ as an independent ruler in
(1) Singhgarh
(2) Poona
(3) Surat
(4) Raigarh
14. Match List with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I
(a) Establishment of Mughal Empire in North India
(b) Battle of Plassey
(c) Arrival of Ibn Batuta
(d) Ascent of Razia Sultan in Delhi Sultanate
List-II
(i) 1757 (ii) 1331
(iii) 1236 (iv) 1287
(1) (a) – ii; (b) – iii; (c) – i; (d) – iv
(2) (a) – iv; (b) – iii; (c) – ii; (d) – i
(3) (a) – i; (b) – ii; (c) – iii; (d) – iv
(4) (a) – ii; (b) – i; (c) – iii; (d) – iv
15. Which of the following among the Europeans were the first to come to India for the establishment of trade relations?
(1) French
(2) Dutch
(3) British
(4) Portuguese
16. Which of the following fundamental rights is available even to foreigners in India?
(1) Protection of life and personal liberty against any action without the jurisdiction of law
(2) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(3) Freedom of movement, residence and profession
(4) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex
17. Prohibitory order is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts against
(1) Administrative officers and the government
(2) Judicial or quasi-judicial officers
(3) Administrative and Judicial officers
(4) Administrative officers and private individuals
18. Who among the following decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?
(1) Finance Minister
(2) President
(3) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(4) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
19. Which of the following universities was not established by Lord Dalhousie?
(1) Calcutta
(2) Bombay
(3) Madras
(4) Delhi
20. Who was the founder of Pala dynasty in Bengal?
(1) Dharmapala
(2) Mahipala
(3) Devapala
(4) Gopala
21. The first Gupta ruler who was decorated with the epithet of ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was
(1) Ghatotkacha
(2) Srigupta
(3) Chandragupta I
(4) Samudragupta
22. Complying with the directives of Supreme Court in the Mandal Commission episode, the Parliament of India passed the National Commission of Backward Classes (NCBC) Act 1993. Which of t he following is not a function of NCBC?
(1) Identification of creamy layer among the backward
(2) Examining the plea of a class of citizens for inclusion in the list of backward classes
(3) Hearing the complains regarding the under inclusion of any backward class
(4) Hearing the complains regarding the over inclusion of any backward class
23. On which of the following issues can Governor make recommendation to the President?
(i) Dismissal of the council of ministers of state.
(ii) Removal of High Court judges.
(iii) Dissolution of the state legislative assembly.
(iv) Proclamation of failure of constitutional machinery in the state.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
24. Which of the following features is not consistent with federal government?
(1) Both Central and State Governments have coordinate status
(2) The government has two distinct levels, State Government and Central Government
(3) State governments are agents of the central government
(4) Both central and state governments derive powers from the constitution
25. A common high court can be set up for two or more states or for two or more states and a union territory by
(1) Chief Justice of India
(2) President
(3) Law of parliament
(4) Governor of state
26. Which article of Indian Constitution gives power to the President to get information from the government?
(1) Article 78(2)
(2) Article 75(1)
(3) Article 75(2)
(4) Article 78(1)
27. President Pranab Mukherjee on February 6, 2016 inspected an International Fleet Review (IFR) in Vishakhapatnam. The last IFR was held in Mumbai in the year :
(1) 2000
(2) 2001
(3) 2002
(4) 2003
28. According to a report released by the United Nations on February 8, 2016 how many people are being starved to death in South Sudan war zone on the brink of famine?
(1) 35,000
(2) 40,000
(3) 42,000
(4) 38,000
29. According to the Railway Budget 2016-17 presented on February 25, 2016 in the Parliament by the Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu what amount was envisaged as gross traffic receipts in the Budget Estimates for 2016-17?
(1) Rs. 1,89,386 crore
(2) Rs. 1,84,820 crore
(3) Rs. 1,87,468 crore
(4) Rs. 1,85,916 crore
30. National Science Day is celebrated on
(1) 1 March
(2) 26 February
(3) 27 February
(4) 28 February
31. How much amount was allocated for the rural sector in the Union Budget 2016-17, tabled in the Parliament on February 29, 2016 by the Union Finance Minister Arun Jaitley?
(1) Rs. 86,654 crore
(2) Rs. 84,718 crore
(3) Rs. 87,765 crore
(4) Rs. 85,452 crore
(5) Rs. 88,216 crore
32. Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu while announcing the Railway Budget on February 25, 2016 sought to raise how much amount in 2016-17 from institutional finances?
(1) Rs. 20,985 crore
(2) Rs. 22,593 crore
(3) Rs. 21,874 crore
(4) Rs 23,642 crore
(5) Rs. 20,198 crore
33. Which of the following terms was not used to define the ‘Theme and Strategy’ of the Railway Budget 2016-17, presented on February 25, 2016?
(1) Reorganize and Restructure
(2) Rejuvenate
(3) New Outlook
(4) New Revenues
(5) New Norms
34. Assertion (A) : A particle moving in a uniform circular motion has uniform velocity.
Reason (R) : The particle also has a uniform speed.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
35. The distances between the pair of opposite vertices of a rhombus shaped field are 14 metre and 48 metre. What will e the cost of fencing this field at the rate of Rs. 20 per metre?
(1) Rs 1,800
(2) Rs 1,500
(3) Rs 2,000
(4) Rs 2,500
36. According to the Economic Survey 2015-16 presented in the Parliament on February 26, 2016, within a year the number of technology start ups in India has grown by 40 per cent to over 4200, making India the _____largest base of technology startups in the world.
(1) fourth
(2) third
(3) fifth
(4) sixth
37. Who among the following won the Best Actor Oscar on February 28, 2016 in Los Angeles?
(1) Leonardo DiCapario (The Revenant)
(2) Bryan Cranston (Trumbo)
(3) Michael Fassbender (Steve Jobs)
(4) Eddie Redmayne (The Danish Girl)
38. Who among the following won the Best New Artist Award at the 58th annual Grammy Awards on February 15, 2016 in Los Angeles?
(1) Meghan Trainor
(2) Tori Kelly
(3) James Bay
(4) Courtney Barnett
39. The price of bricks is Rs 750 per 1,000 bricks and their dimensions are 25 cm ×5 cm × 7.5 cm. What will be the cost of bricks used in making a 200 m long, 1.8 m high and 37.5 cm broad wall?
(1) Rs 41,860
(2) Rs 42,600
(3) Rs 43,200
(4) Rs 40,750
40. The agricultural cost in a square field at the rate of Rs 160 per hectare is Rs 1,440. What will be the cost of fencing this field at the rate of 75 paise per metre?
(1) Rs 810
(2) Rs 900
(3) Rs 1,800
(4) Rs 360
41. The salaries earned by a person in three consecutive months were in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 5. If the difference between the product of salaries of first two months and that of last two months is Rs. 4,80,00,000., what will be the salary of the second month earned y the person?
(1) Rs 7,800
(2) Rs 7,500
(3) Rs 8,000
(4) Rs 8,500
42. A dice is tossed until it shows 4. What is the probability that sixth throw is the last throw?
(1) 52/66
(2) 57/67
(3) 59/69
(4) None of these
43. India’s first Republic Day was celebrated on 26 January 1950. This day was
(1) Friday
(2) Monday
(3) Tuesday
(4) Thursday
44. On increasing Madan’s monthly salary by Rs. 60, it becomes 50% of Kamal’s monthly salary. What is the present monthly salary of Kadan?
(1) Data inadequate
(2) Rs 180
(3) Rs 240
(4) Rs 300
45. A sum of Rs. 550 was borrowed. It is to be returned in two equal installments. If the rate of compound interest (compounded annually) be 20% per annum, what is the value of each installment?
(1) Rs. 350
(2) Rs. 421
(3) Rs. 396
(4) Rs. 360
46. 5 years hence father’s age will be thrice his son’s age at that time, while 5 years ago his age was 7 times the age of his son at that time. What is father’s present age?
(1) 50 years
(2) 35 years
(3) 40 years
(4) 45 years
47. A grocery shopkeeper claims to sell sugar at the cost price but hides a 100 gm weight below the pan on which he weighs sugar. By mistake his son interchanges sugar and keeps the 100 gm weight on the other pan. He loses on selling 1 kg of sugar by
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 10%
48. One third of the marks obtained b y Vinod in mathematics is 30 more than half of the marks obtained by him in Social Studies. If he obtained a total of 240 marks in both subjects, how many marks did he get in Social Science?
(1) 90
(2) 40
(3) 60
(4) 80
49. Assertion (A) : The Indian Constitution closely follows the British parliamentary model.
Reason (R) : In India, the Upper House of Parliament h as judicial powers.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
50. When light does not travel exactly in straight line, it is known as
(1) Diffraction
(2) Dispersion
(3) Polarization
(4) Refraction
51. The distance between two stations A and B is 220 km. A train starts from station A towards station B at an average speed of 80 kmph. After half an h our, another train starts from station B towards station A at an average speed of 100 kmph. The distance of the point where they meet from station A is
(1) 150 km
(2) 120 km
(3) 130 km
(4) 140 km
52.
(1) 13/7
(2) 2/7
(3) 7/9
(4) 9/7
53. In a business A is a working partner while B is a sleeping partner. A invests Rs. 1200 and B invests Rs. 2000. A gets 10% of the total profit for managing the business, the remaining profit is distributed in the ratio of their capitals. Out of the total profit of Rs. 9600, the share of A in the profit is
(1) Rs 4,500
(2) Rs 3,240
(3) Rs 4,200
(4) Rs 3,600
54. The nucleotides of DNA molecule contain
(1) Pentose Glucose + Phosphoric acid
(2) Nitrogenous base + Pentose Glucose
(3) Nitrogenous base + Pentose Glucose + Phosphoric acid
(4) Only Nitrogenous base
55. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Typhoid
(b) Malaria
(c) AIDS
(d) Ringworm
(i) Bacteria
(ii) Virus
(iii) Protozoa
(iv) Worm
(v) Fungus
(1) (a) – i; (b) – ii; (c) – iii; (d) – iv
(2) (a) – ii; (b) – iii; (c) – v; (d) – ii
(3) (a) – i; (b) – ii; (c) – iii; (d) – v
(4) (a) – iii; (b) – i; (c) – ii; (d) – v
56. The polarity of an unmarked horseshoe magnet can be determined by
(1) An unmarked bar magnet
(2) A charged glass rod
(3) A magnetic compass
(4) An electroscope
57. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to the
(1) Force of cohesion
(2) Force of adhesion
(3) Force of friction
(4) Centrifugal force
58. Which part of human body is commonly known as Adam’s Apple?
(1) Thymus
(2) Adrenal
(3) Liver
(4) Thyroid
59. X-ray region comes between
(1) Short radio wave and ultraviolet region
(2) Short radio wave and visible region
(3) Visible and ultraviolet region
(4) Gamma rays and ultraviolet region
60. Half life of radius is 1600 years. What will be its mean lifetime?
(1) 4217 years
(2) 3200 years
(3) 4800 years
(4) 2319 years
61. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I
(a) BCG vaccination
(b) BPL vaccination
(c) Chloroquine
(d) Penicillin
List-II
(i) Malaria
(ii) Ludwig’s Angina
(iii) Tuberculosis
(iv) Rabies
(1) (a) – iv; (b) – iii; (c) – i; (d) – ii
(2) (a) – iii; (b) – iv; (c) – i; (d) – ii
(3) (a) – iii; (b) – iv; (c) – ii; (d) – i
(4) (a) – iv; (b) – iii; (c) – ii; (d) – i
62. How does common salt help in separating soap from the solution after saponification?
(1) By increasing density of soap
(2) By decreasing solubility of soap
(3) By increasing solubility of soap
(4) By decreasing density of soap
63. Vulcanization is a
(1) Process of hardening of rubber by heating it with sulphur
(2) Science of studying volcanoes
(3) Method to degrade polymers
(4) Process connected with the manufacture of voltaic cells
64. Glucose in blood and urine is tested by
(1) Iodine solution
(2) Benedict solution
(3) Brine solution
(4) Hypo solution
65. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(1) Washing Soda : Calcium hydroxide
(2) Baking soda: Sodium bicarbonate
(3) Caustic soda: Calcium carbonate
(4) Soda lime: Calcium carbonate
66. The frequency of ultrasound waves is typically
(1) Below 2 kHz
(2) Below 20 kHz
(3) Below 20,000 kHz
(4) Below 200 kHz
67. An example of buffer solution is
(1) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
(2) KOH and KCl
(3) K2SO4 and H2SO4
(4) NaOH and KOH
68. Milk is an example of
(1) Suspension
(2) Pure solution
(3) Emulsion
(4) Gel
69. Assertion (A) : Parasites of malaria are nourished by human blood.
Reason (R) : The digestive system is damaged in some forms of parasitic adaptation, as a result of which they have to depend on the host for food.
Select the correct answer using the codes:
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
70. Which tree is pollinated by bats?
(1) Zostera marina
(2) Kigelia pinnata
(3) Sunflower
(4) Mustard
71. On the cells of which epithelium is microvillus generally found?
(1) Ciliated
(2) Squamous
(3) Columnar
(4) Cuboid
72. Two spheres each having charge q are hung by 1 metre long threads from the same point that free from gravitational force. What will be the distance between them?
(1) Cannot be determined
(2) 0 metre
(3) 0.5 metre
(4) 2 metre
73. Transpiration in terrestrial plants is mainly carried out by:
(1) Mesophyll
(2) Xylem
(3) Roots
(4) Stomata
74. Plants need Mn for activating which of the following?
(1) Carboxylase
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Amylase
(4) Trypsin
75. Dog : Puppy : : Lion : ?
(1) Calf
(2) Lamb
(3) Fawn
(4) Cub
76. In this question, some words are given which are related in some way. The same relationship obtains among the words in one of the four alternatives given below. Select the correct alternative :
Hunt : Pleasure : Panic
(1) Rain : Cloud : Flood
(2) Death : Disease : Germs
(3) Game : Match : Win
(4) Theft : Gain : Loss
77. Which of the following is replenished in soil by growing leguminous plants between two crops of food grains?
(1) H2O
(2) N
(3) S
(4) P
78. Bacillus thuringiensis is an example of
(1) Genetically Modified Food
(2) Biofertiliser
(3) Single cell protein
(4) Biocide
79. Assertion (A) : The President can nominate two members to the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The nomination is given to representation to the specialists in the fields of art, literature, theatre etc.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Directions (80-83) : In each of the following questions, select the word which is least like the other words given in the group :
80.
(1) Alzheimer’s disease
(2) Kleptomania
(3) Schizophrenia
(4) Agoraphobia
81.
(1) Monastery
(2) Cathedral
(3) Mosque
(4) Church
82.
(1) Chanakya
(2) Vikramaditya
(3) Chandragupta
(4) Harshavardhan
83.
(1) Nymph
(2) Larva
(3) Pupu
(4) Caterpillar
84. If ‘L’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘M denotes ‘×’, ‘P’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘Q’ denotes ‘−’, then which of the following expressions is correct ?
(1) 9 P 9 L 9 Q 9 M 9 = −71
(2) 32 P 8 L 16 Q 4 = 3/2
(3) 6 M 18 Q 26 L 13 P 7 = 173/13
(4) 1 1 M 3 4 L 1 7 Q 8 L 3 = 38/3
85. Assertion (A) : Unpolished rice should be eaten.
Reason (R) : Polished rice is deficient in Vitamin B.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
86. Which of the following shows the correct relationship between National Income (Y), Consumption (C) and Investment (I) in the famous Keynes’ model?
(1) Y = C – I
(2) Y = C ÷ I
(3) Y = C + I
(4) Y = C × I
87. If the all the words of the sentence “She showed several sample snaps” are arranged in alphabetically order then which of the following words would come in the middle?
(1) She
(2) Snaps
(3) Sample
(4) Several
88. Valleyroute : Pass :: Meander : ?
(1) Mountain
(2) Glacier
(3) Tributary
(4) Delta region
89. If ‘orange’ is called ‘Butter’, ‘Butter’ is called ‘Soap’, ‘Soap’ is called ‘Ink’, ‘;Ink’ is called ‘Honey’ and ‘Honey’ is called ‘Orange’, then which of the following would be used to wash clothes?
(1) Ink
(2) Honey
(3) Butter
(4) Orange
90. The headquarters of GATT is located in
(1) The Hague
(2) Geneva
(3) Paris
(4) Washington
91. Which of the following is not correct regarding repo operations?
(1) Repo operation aims to control liquidity in the financial system
(2) It is regulated by commercial banks
(3) It increases the availability of foreign currency exchange
(4) Regulation of credit flow is the goal of repo operation
92. Removal of poverty was the main goal of which five year plan?
(1) Fifth
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth
93. Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?
(1) President of India
(2) Prime Minister
(3) Chief Minister of States
(4) Members of the Planning Commission
94. Who gave the definition that Economics is the study of relationship between unlimited desires and very limited resources?
(1) Friedrich von Hayek
(2) J. S. Keynes
(3) Jan Tinbergen
(4) Lionel Robins
95. Which of the following is not a program of rural development?
(1) TRYEM
(2) NREP
(3) RDCI
(4) IRDP
96. Assertion (A) : Panchayati Raj institutions were established for the decentralization of plans at state level.
Reason (R) : Gram Panchayats are seemingly better placed to understand their development needs.
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Both (A) and (R) individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
97. Human Development Index is and index is
(1) None of these
(2) Status of country in spatial
(3) Status of country in regional spectrum
(4) Status of country in global spectrum
98. When was the Reserve Bank of India brought under government control?
(1) 1956
(2) 1945
(3) 1948
(4) 1952
99. Excise tax is imposed on
(1) Import of goods
(2) Sale of goods
(3) Export of goods
(4) Production of goods
100. India’s financial year beings on which of the following dates?
(1) None of these
(2) 1 January
(3) 1 April
(4) 1 July
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