SBI PO Preliminary Online Examination Held on April 30, 2017
Part I English Language
Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10) Which of the phrases given against the sentences should replace the word/phrase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it given and no correction is required, select ‘No correction required’ as the answer.
1. The presence of new players on the basketball team is to additionally attract for the audience.
(a) with add attraction
(b) for addition attractive
(c) an added attraction
(d) of adding attraction
(e) No correction required
2. The dire need of amusement to escape boredom made him cultivate various hobbies.
(a) escape boredom
(b) as escaping boredom
(c) escapes bored
(d) for escape being bored
(e) No correction required
3. We were credibly informed that the conman has gave himself to the police.
(a) given over
(b) given himself in
(c) given himself over
(d) given himself up
(e) No correction required
4. We tempted Karen with many promises but nothing would worked her up.
(a) working with her
(b) worked her over
(c) worked upon her
(d) work on her
(e) No correction required
5. The soil of India saw growths of one of the oldest culture in the world that is the Harappan Civilisation.
(a) seen the growth
(b) saw the growth
(c) had saw growing
(d) see the growths
(e) No correction required
6. A renowned organization has recent appointed a highly acclaimed scientist to head new research and development assistant.
(a) recently appointed
(b) a recent appointed
(c) is to appoint
(d) to recently appointed an
(e) No correction required
7. The serene lush green slope of the hill station make it up ideal venue for the meditation camp.
(a) making so ideal
(b) is ideal for
(c) makes it an ideal
(d) as of ideal
(e) No correction required
8. Taking good care of yourself is paramount for succession of your goals.
(a) about being a success
(b) to the success
(c) about being successful
(d) to succeed
(e) No correction required
9. The tambourine to gain popularity in the mid 18th century in Western Europe as an orchestral instrument.
(a) was been popular
(b) have popularity
(c) has being popular
(d) gained popularity
(e) No correction required
10. Varun advised Aman that give off wrong pleasure is not self-sacrifice but self-culture.
(a) gave up
(b) gives away
(c) giving through
(d) giving up
(e) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
There is a market failure in cyber security. Solutions being suggested or tried include increasing transparency about data losses, helping consumers and firms to make more informed decisions about cyber-security; shedding more light on how Internet-Service Providers (ISPs) tackle malware infections, they spot on customers’ computers; and using liability laws to force software companies to produce safer code. On transparency, America has led the way. Almost all American States now have data-breach laws that require firms to reveal any loss of sensitive customer information. In Europe, telecom firms have been obliged to notify customers of breaches for some time now, and there are plans to extend reporting to a wider range of industries.
Breach laws have encourage insurance companies to offer coverage against potential losses. This is helpful because they are in a position together and share information about best practice across a wide range of companies. A cyber-insurer advises companies on defensive tactics, and also on how to minimize the damage if something goes wrong. The American government should create a cyber-equivalent of the National Transportation Safety Board, which investigates serious accidents and shares information about them. Such a body could look into all breaches that cost over, $ 50 m and make sure the lessons are shared widely. But insurers are likely to remain wary of taking on broader risks because the costs associated with a serious cyber-incident could be astronomic. Insurers can deal with acts of God, but not acts of Anonymous (hacking groups or acts of state sponsored hacking). This explains why the overall cyber-insurance market is still small.
Governments are weighing in, too, not least by supporting private-sector efforts to clean up ‘botnets’, or networks of compromised computers controlled by hackers. These networks, which are prevalent in countries, such as America and China, can be used to launch attacks and spread malware. In Germany, an initiative called Bot-Frei, which helps people clean up their infected computer, received government support to get started, though it is now self-financing. The American government has also worked closely with private firms to bring down large botnets. Another strategy involves issuing standards to encourage improved security. America’s National Institute of standards and Technology published a set of voluntary guidelines for companies in critical-infrastructure sectors, such as energy and transport. Britain has also launched a scheme called ‘cyber-essentials’ under which firms can apply for a certificate showing they comply with certain minimum security standards. Applicants undergo an external audit and, if successful, are awarded a badge which they can use on marketing materials. Whether governments are best placed to set minimum standards is debatable, but they have certainly raised awareness of cyber-security as an issue that needs attention.
They could also help to get more information into the public domain. Researchers have argued persuasively that collecting and publishing data about the quantity of spam and other bad traffic handled by ISPs could encourage the worst performers to do more to tackle the problem, thus improving overall security. Another debate has revolved around getting software companies to produce code with fewer flaws in it. One idea is to make them liable for damage caused when, say, hackers exploit a weakness in a software program. Most software companies currently insist costumers accept end-user licensing agreements that specifically protect firms from legal claims unless local laws prohibit such exclusions. The snag is that imposing blanket liability could have a chilling effect on innovation.
Companies that are selling millions of copies of programmes might take fright at the potential exposure and leave the business. Strict liability be applied only to firms which produce software that cannot be patched if a security flaw i s found. There is quite a lot of that sort of code around.
11. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘Broader’ as used in the passage?
(a) Spacious
(b) Subtle
(c) Weaker
(d) Comprehensive
(e) Approximate
12. Which of the following is/are the argument(s) in favour of cyber-essentials?
A. It boosts transparency and promotion of firms.
B. The certification is given by hackers which makes it authentic.
C. Firms benefit from paying attention to cyber-security and so do users.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) A and C
(d) B and C
(e) All of these
13. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘Tried’ as used in the passage?
(a) Convicted
(b) Accused
(c) Attempted
(d) Exasperated
(e) None of the given options
14. Which of the following is the opposite of the word ‘Serious’ as used in the passage?
(a) genuine
(b) witty
(c) noisy
(d) insignificant
(e) irresistible
15. Which of the following is the opposite of the word ‘Chilling’ as used in the passage?
(a) Promoting
(b) Reassuring
(c) Encouraging
(d) Fostering
(e) All the given options
16. Which of the following best describes the author’s view of liability laws?
(a) These will act as incentives for computer firms to produce more secure software.
(b) These are pointless as they cannot be uniformly or strictly implemented.
(c) These will not greatly impact computer firms as the financial profits from software are huge.
(d) These are not an appropriate approach to cyber security.
(e) None of the given options
17. Which of the following can be said about government efforts with regard to cyber security ?
A. Government efforts have been coupled with private sector cooperation.
B. Government efforts have been focused on destroying botnet infrastructure.
C. These are not worthwhile and too small in magnitude.
(a) Only A
(b) Only B
(c) Only C
(d) B and C
(e) A and B
18. Why has the author mentioned the National Transportation Security Board in the passage?
A. To urge America to set-up a body to share data in cyber-related instances.
B. To monitor cyber security episodes whose losses are over a certain sum.
C. To publish and enforce standards for cyber-security for sectors like energy.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) Only B
(d) B and C
(e) All of these
19. Which of the following is/are theme(s) of t h e passage?
(a) Holding cyber firms accountable for flaws in their products.
(b) Cyber-crime infrastructure in certain countries.
(c) Ways to secure cyber-space.
(d) Limits of cyber-insurance
(e) All t he given options are themes.
20. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage?
(a) Breach laws can be helpful for organizations.
(b) America is leading the way in terms of laws for disclosure of cyber-breaches.
(c) Pressure is increasing on software companies to produce safer products.
(d) Varied efforts are being made to create a market which values cyber-security.
(e) All the given options are true in the context to the passage.
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) In the given passage there are words/groups of words highlighted in bold and underlined. You have to decide if the word/group of words given is correct (in terms of grammar and context). If not, find out the appropriate word/group of words from the given options. In case, the suggested word/group of words is correct mark the option ‘The given word(s) is/are correct’ as your answer.
Every knows that (21) Sustenance brainboxes is good for an economy. In Thailand, school reforms have an extra incentive to narrow (22) contrasting between rich people in cities and their poorer rural cousins, which have (23) fulfilled to a decade of political tension and occasional eruptions of violence. For years shoddy teaching has favoured urban children whose parents can afford to send them to cramming schools or to study abroad. Dismal instruction in the countryside has made it easier for city slickers from posh colleges to paint their political opponents as pliable bumpkins.
The dangerous social divide is all the more reason is (24) worry about Thailand’s poor rating in an educational league table published in December. Thailand limped into the bottom quarter of 70 countries whose pupils participated in the mathematics, reading and science tests organized under the Programme for International Student-Assessment (PISA). Its scores (25) been crushed since a pervious assessment in 2012, when researchers found that almost one-third of the country’s 15-year-olds were ‘functionally illiterate’, including almost half of those studying in rural schools.
Thailand’s (26) error performance is not dramatically out of step with countries of similar incomes. But it is strange given its unusually generous (27) allocation of on education, which in some years has hovered up more than a quarter of the budget. Rote learning is common. There is a shortage of maths and science teachers, but a 28 overflow of physical-education instructors. Many head teachers lack the authority to hire or fire their own staff. A big problem is that Thailand spends too much money propping up small schools, where teaching is the poorest. Almost half of Thai schools have fewer than 120 students, and most of those have less than one teacher per class. Opening lots of village schools once helped Thailand (29) achieve impressive attendance rates, but road-building and other improvements in infrastructure mean most schools are now within 20 minutes of another. Over the next ten years falling birth rates will reduce school rolls by more than 1 m, making it even more (30) fulfilled for tiny institutions to provide adequate instructions at a reasonable cost.
21.
(a) diluting
(b) nurturing
(c) alleviating
(d) ornamental
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
22.
(a) contracts
(b) characteristic
(c) distinct
(d) differences
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
23.
(a) preceded
(b) managed
(c) compelled
(d) led
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
24.
(a) concern
(b) apprehension
(c) fearful
(d) distress
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
25.
(a) deteriorated
(b) sink
(c) decomposed
(d) declining
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
26.
(a) extreme
(b) cheerful
(c) dismal
(d) inauspicious
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
27.
(a) employed
(b) investing
(c) spending
(d) setting
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
28.
(a) satiety
(b) surplus with
(c) saturated
(d) surfeit
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
29.
(a) complete
(b) conclude
(c) acquired
(d) adhere
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
30.
(a) difficult
(b) ambition
(c) troubling
(d) doubtful
(e) The given word(s) is/are correct.
Part II Reasoning Ability
31. Five movies-D, E, F, G and H are released on five different days of the same week starting from Monday and ending on Friday, but not necessarily in the same order. F is released on one of the days before Thursday. Only two movies are released between F and G. H is released immediately before G. D is released on one of the days after H. Which movie was released on Wednesday?
(a) E
(b) Either G or D
(c) G
(d) H
(e) D
32. Four cartons-A , B, Y and Z are placed above one another, but not necessarily in the same order. Each carton contains a different drink-Pepsi, Coffee, ,Frooti and Milkshake, but not necessarily in the same order. Only carton B is kept between the cartons of Pepsi and Frooti. Carton of Coffee is kept immediately below carton of Frooti. Carton of Coffee is kept at one of the position is below Z. What is the position of the carton of Milkshake in the stack?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Immediately below the carton of Frooti
(c) First from the bottom
(d) Second from the top
(e) First from the top
Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Each of the six stores P, Q, R, S, T and U sold different number of books in one day. Only three stores sold less books than U. P sold more books than R. T did not sell the highest number of books. S sold more books than R and P but less than U. The store which sold the second highest number of books sold 72 books.
33. How many books did Q probably sell?
(a) 43
(b) 58
(c) 71
(d) 65
(e) 89
34. Which of the following stores sold the second lowest number of books
(a) T
(b) P
(c) S
(d) R
(e) Q
35. If the total number of books sold by P and T is 125, then how many books did P sell?
(a) 51
(b) 76
(c) 68
(d) 45
(e) 53
36. In a vertical queue of 13 people, all facing North, K stands exactly at the centre of the queue. No one stands between K and W. Only five people stand between W and P. L stands at one of the positions before P, but not at the beginning of the queue. How many people stood after W?
(a) Three
(b) None
(c) Five
(d) Seven
(e) Nine
37. In which of the given expressions, does the expression ‘C < P’ definitely holds false?
(a) P ≥ A ≥ L ≤; C ≥ L ≥ O > N
(b) P < A ≤ L ≥ E; C ≥ L ≤ O < N
(c) P = A ≥ L = E; C = L > O < N
(d) P > A > L > E; C < L < O < N
(e) P = A ≥ L < E; C < L ≤ O ≥ N
38. A person stars from Point A, walks 30 m towards South and reaches Point B. He then takes a right, walks 7 m, followed by a right turn, and walks for 6 m. He then takes a right turn and walks 7 m. He takes a final left turn, walks a certain distance and reaches Point R. Point R is 17 m to the North of Point B. What is the distance between Point A and Point R?
(a) 18 m
(b) 23 m
(c) 21 m
(d) 27 m
(e) 13 m
39. S is the only son of V. V is married to R. M is the daughter of R. R is the grandmother of A. How is S definitely related to A?
(a) Uncle
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) Father
(d) Brother
(e) Sister
40. What should come in place of $ and # respectively in the expression:
P ≥A $ R ≤ O < T; S < L ≤ A # M, so that the expression T > M definitely holds true?
(a) >, ≤
(b) ≤, =
(c) <, <
(d) ≤, ≤
(e) ≥, ≥
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
C, D, E, F, W, X, Y, and Z have to attend a wedding in January, April, September and December months of the same year. In each month the wedding on either the 11th or the 24th of the month. Not more than two of the given people have to attend a wedding in the same month. W has to attend a wedding on the 11th of the month which has only 30 days. Only three people have to attend a wedding between W and Y. C and Y have to attend a wedding neither on the same date nor in the same month. C does not have to attend a wedding in April. Only two people have to attend a wedding between C and F. X and F have to attend a wedding on the same date. D has to attend a wedding on one of the days before X. Only one person has to attend a wedding between D and E. Less than four people have to attend a wedding between E and Z.
41. How many people have to attend a wedding between F and Z?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) More than three
(e) One
42. When does X have to attend a wedding?
(a) April 24
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) January 11
(d) September 24
(e) December 11
43. If all the people are made to attend the wedding in alphabetical order starting from January 11 and ending on December 24, the schedule of how many people will remain unchanged?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) None
(e) Three
44. Who among the following has to attend a wedding before Y?
(a) C and X
(b) Only W
(c) None
(d) F and W
(e) Only F
45. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) W
(b) F
(c) Z
(d) Y
(e) E
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-48) In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.
Give answer
(a) if only conclusion I is true
(b) if only conclusion II is true
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true
(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) if both conclusion are true.
46. Statements M < O ≤ U ≤ R ≥ T; P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L
Conclusion I. L > M II O ≤ C
47. Statements C < L = I ≤ N < G; I < M ≥ O > R > T
Conclusions I. C < O II. G > T
48. Statements M < O ≤ U ≤ R ≥ T; P ≥ R ≤ I ≤ C < L
Conclusions I. P > T II. P = T
Directions (Q. Nos. 49-53) Read the given information to answer the given questions.
Eight people viz, X, G, T, C, P, J, A and M live on different floors of a building. The ground floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered eight. All of them can perform a different form of dance viz. Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhangra, Lavani, Odissi, Mohiniyattam and Sattriya.
(Note None of the given information in necessarily in the same order.)
T lives on an even numbered floor below floor number five. Only three people live between T and the one who performs Garba. As many people live between T and C as above the one who performs Lavani and sattrita. Number of people living between the one who performs Garba and Odissi, is equal to the number of people living between C and P. C lives on an even numbered floor below P. Neither C nor P performs Garba or Lavani. The one who performs Kathak lives on an odd numbered floor below floor number four. P does not perform Kathak. The number of people between T and the one who performs Kathak is same as the number of people living between C and the one who performs Lavani. X lives on one of the floors below the one who performs Lavani. Number of people living between C and X is equal to the number of people living between C and X is equal to the number of people living between C and M. The one who performs Odissi lives on an odd numbered floor immediately above the one who performs Bhangra. Only one people live between G and J. G lives on one of the floors above J. The one who performs Bhangra lives immediately above the one who performs Kathak.
49. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?
(a) C performs Odissi
(b) The one who performs Garba lives on floor number six
(c) T lives immediately above J
(d) None of the given statements is true
(e) Only to people live between M and G
50. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) T-Bhangra
(b) C-Dandiya
(c) Floor number 3-Odissi
(d) G-Floor number eight
(e) J-Floor number six
51. How many people live between the one who performs Lavani and Bhangra?
(a) More than three
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) One
(e) Two
52. Who performs Sattriya?
(a) G
(b) A
(c) P
(d) T
(e) C
53. Which dance M performs?
(a) Bhangra
(b) Lavani
(c) Odissi
(d) Mohiniyattam
(e) Kathak
Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F G and H were born in different years, viz. 1961, 1970, 1974, 1980, 1983, 1987, 1996 and 2000 but not necessarily in the same order.
D was born after 1983 but not in the year 2000. The sum of the present ages of A and D is 64. The difference between the present ages A and G is equal to 6. B was born in an odd numbered year. B was born in an odd numbered year. B is older than G. The sum of present ages of F and C is 64. F is younger than C. H is not the youngest.
Note
A. All calculations are done with respect to the present year, 2017 assuming the month and date to be same as that of the years of birth as mentioned above.
B. Each person is assumed to born on the same date and same month of the respective years.
54. Four of the following give are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) F
(e) G
55. How many persons is/are younger than E?
(a) Two
(b) More than three
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) One
56. Who amongst the following was born in the year 1996?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) A
(d) G
(e) D
57. If A’s uncle is 21 years older than A, then how old is A’s uncle at present?
(a) 77 yr
(b) 68 yr
(c) 89 yr
(d) 64 yr
(e) 85 yr
58. Which of the following represents the difference between the present ages of B and H?
(a) 22 yr
(b) 9 yr
(c) 25 yr
(d) 32 yr
(e) 13 yr
59. In the number 76534218, each digit is replaced by the next digit i.e, ‘1’ is replaced by ‘2’, ‘2’ is replaced by ‘3’ and so on and then the digit are arranged in ascending order from left to right, which digit will fifth from the left end?
(a) None
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) 4
60. In a certain code language, ‘job requires expertise’ is written as ‘la nu si’. ‘expertise in area’ is written as ‘li bo la’ and ‘requires area inspection’ is written as ‘si dm bo’. How is ‘inspection’ written in that code language? (All the given codes are two letter codes only)
(a) si
(b) Either ‘nu’ or ‘si’
(c) Either ‘bo’ or ‘si’
(d) dm
(e) bo
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Study the following information to answer the given questions.
Eight persons F, G, H, I, O, P, Q and R are seated in a straight line facing North. Each of them works on different floors of an office building viz. 7th 16th, 18th, 23rd, 31st, 35th, 44th, 47th. None of the given information in necessarily in the same order.
• O sits fourth to the right of the one who works on the 31st floor. The one who works on the 23rd floor sits second to the right of O.
• Q sits third to the left of I. I is not an immediate neighbour of O. Q does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
• Only two people sit between Q and P. The one who works on the 44th floor sits to the immediate right of H. H is not an immediate neighbour of P .
• The difference between the numerical values of floor numbers in which P and one to the immediate right of P work is 13.
• Only one person sits between F and the one who works on the 35th floor. F is not an immediate neighbour of I.
• More than two people sit between R and the one who works on the 18th floor. O does not work on the 16th floor.
• H works on a floor lower than O.
61. Which of the following pairs represents the persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
(a) G and the one working on the 7th floor.
(b) I, R
(c) The ones working on the 18th and 44th floors.
(d) I and the one working on 35th floor
(e) R and P
62. What is the difference between the floor numbers in which P and R work?
(a) 31
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 16
(e) 15
63. F is related to the one working on the 47th floor following a certain pattern based on the given arrangement. In the same pattern, P is related to the one working on the 44th floor. To who amongst the following is H related to following the same pattern?
(a) The one working on the 35th floor
(b) The one to the immediate left of R
(c) The one sitting second to the left of O
(d) The one working on the 16th floor
(e) O
64. Fill in the blanks (respectively in the same order in order to make the statement correct based on the given arrangement.
G …………… and O………..
(a) works on the 35th floor, sits to the immediate left of R
(b) works on one of the floors above H; works on one of the floors below F
(c) sits to immediate left of I; works on the 44th floor
(d) sits second to the right of Q; work three floors above Q
(e) Other than those given as options
65. How many people sit to the left of the one working on the 35th floor?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Four
(e) Three
Part III Numerical Ability
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) What Approximate value will come in place of question marks in the given equations?
(You are not expected to calculated the exact value)
66. ?2 – 137.99 ÷6 = 21.99 ×01
(a) 23
(b) 50
(c) 42
(d) 29
(e) 35
67. ? % of 400.02 + 12.932 = 285
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 24
(d) 34
(e) 29
68. (3327.99 – 27.93) ÷ ? = 110 ×999
(a) 9
(b) 1
(c) 19
(d) 15
(e) 5
69. 
(a) 350
(b) 550
(c) 500
(d) 450
(e) 250
70. 01 + 40 ÷ (16.5 ÷ 33) = ?
(a) 310
(b) 290
(c) 250
(d) 350
(e) 240
Directions (71-75) Refer to the graph and answer the given questions.
71. Number of students who opted for Course B in 2013 was, what percent more than that who opted for Course A in 2013?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) 
72. What is the difference between the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2012 and that who opted for both courses together in 2014?
(a) 50
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 40
(e) 20
73. In 2014, if ‘X’ students passed Courses A and B each and the ratio of number of students that failed Courses A and B respectively was 5 : 2, what is the value of ‘X’?
(a) 190
(b) 220
(c) 160
(d) 150
(e) 180
74. What is the average number of students who opted for Course A in 2010, 2011 and 2012?
(a) 225
(b) 250
(c) 230
(d) 240
(e) 260
75. The number of students who opted for Courses A and B in 2011 was respectively 25% more and 35% less than that in 2009. What was the total number of students who opted for Courses A and B together in 2009?
(a) 600
(b) 540
(c) 575
(d) 560
(e) 584
76. The respective ratio between numerical values of curved surface area and volume of right circular cylinder is 1 : 7. If the respective ratio between the diameter and height of the cylinder is 7 : 5, what is the total surface area of the cylinder?
(a) 2992 m2
(b) 3172 m2
(c) 2882 m2
(d) 3576 m2
(e) 3992 m2
77. The time taken by the boat to cover a distance of ‘D-56’ km upstream is half of that taken by it to cover a distance of ‘D’ km downstream. The respective ratio between the speed of the boat downstream and that upstream is 5:3. If the time taken to cover ‘D-32’ km upstream is 4 hours, what is the speed of water current?
(a) 5 km/h
(b) 3 km/h
(c) 4 km/h
(d) 16 km/h
(e) 8 km/h
78. Poonam invests Rs 4200 in Scheme A which offers 12% per annum simple interest. She also invests Rs 4200-P in scheme B offering 10% per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The difference between the interests Poonam earns from both the schemes at the end of 2 years is Rs 294, what is the value of P?
(a) 1500
(b) 800
(c) 600
(d) 1000
(e) Other than those given as options
79. A man sold two articles-A (at a profit of 40%) and B (at a loss of 20%). He incurred a total profit of Rs 18 in the whole deal. If article-A costs Rs 140 less than article-B, what is the price of article-B?
(a) Rs 380
(b) Rs 280
(c) Rs 340
(d) Rs 370
(e) Rs 300
80. A is eighteen years older to B. The respective ratio of B’s age six years hence and C’s present age is 3 : 2. If at present A’s age is twice the age of C, what was B’s age four years ago?
(a) 24 yr
(b) 28 yr
(c) 29 yr
(d) 20 yr
(e) 26 yr
81. Time taken by A alone to finish a piece of work is 60% more than that taken by A and B together to finish the same piece of work. C is twice as efficient as B. If B and C together can complete the same piece of work in 
in how many days can A alone finish the same piece of work?
(a) 36
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 28
(e) Other than those given as options
82. Out of her monthly salary, Ridhi spends 34% various expenses. From the remaining, she gives one-sixth to her brother, two-third to her sister and the remaining she keeps as savings. If the difference between the amounts she gave to her sister and brother was Rs 10560, what was Ridhi’s savings?
(a) Rs 3740
(b) Rs 3520
(c) Rs 4230
(d) Rs 3230
(e) Other than those given as options
83. A bag contains 63 cards (numbered 1, 2, 3 ……., 63). Two cards are picked at random from the bag (one after another and without replacement), what is the probability that the sum of numbers of both the cards drawn is even?
(a) 11/21
(b) 34/63
(c) 7/11
(d) 11/63
(e) Other than those given as options
84. Car M takers 5 hours to travel from point A to B. It would have taken 6 hours, if the same car had travelled the same distance at a speed which was 15 km/h less than its original speed, what in the distance between point A and B?
(a) 350 km
(b) 300 km
(c) 450 km
(d) 420 km
(e) 400 km
Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) In these questions,, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and
Given answer
a. if x > y b. if x ≥ y
c. x < y d. if x ≤ y
e. if x = y or relationship cannot be established
85. 3x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 II. 15y2 – 8y + 1
86. x2 + 14x + 45 = 0 II. y2 + 19y + 88 = 0
87. x2 – 2x – 8 = 0 II. y2 + 15y + 54 = 0
88. 2x2 – 9x + 9 = 0 II. y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
89. x2 = 121 II. y2 – 23y + 132 = 0
90. A jar contains mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 3 : 1. 24 L of the mixture is taken out and 24 L of water was added to it. If the resultant ratio between milk and water in the jar was 2 : 1, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the jar?
(a) 160 L
(b) 180 L
(c) 200 L
(d) 250 L
(e) 216 L
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) What will come in place of questions mark in the given number series?
91. 17 9 10 5 ? 90
(a) 44
(b) 35
(c) 48
(d) 38
(e) 33
92. 7 6 10 27 ? 515
(a) 112
(b) 104
(c) 114
(d) 96
(e) 108
93. 33 40 29 42 25 ?
(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 52
(d) 48
(e) 46
94. 316 307 282 233 152 ?
(a) 35
(b) 25
(c) 31
(d) 41
(e) 47
95. 5 9 33 72 121 ?
(a) 169
(b) 163
(c) 171
(d) 184
(e) Other than those given as options
Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Stud the table and answer the given questions.
96. What is the average number of people who voted at Centres, B, D and E?
(a) 1700
(b) 1880
(c) 1720
(d) 1640
(e) 1560
97. What percent of the total number of registered voters cast invalid votes at Centre D, if the number of invalid votes cast at Centre D was 10% of the number of votes cast?
(a) 5.5%
(b) 8.5%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 6.5%
(e) Other than those given as options
98. At Centre F, the total number of registered voters was 25% less than that at Centre C. At Centre F, number of people who voted was 450 less than that at Centre C and 150 votes cast were declared invalid. What was the respective ratio between the number of valid votes cast and the total number of registered voters at Centre F?
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 6 : 1
(e) 5 : 8
99. Number of people who did not vote at Centre D was what percent more than that who did not vote at Centre A?
(a) 
(b) 
(c) 
(d) 
(e) Other than those given as options
100. What is the difference between the total number of people who did not vote at Centres A and B together and that who did not vote at Centres D and E together?
(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 106
(e) 118
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