State Bank of India
Clerks’ Grade Recruitment Examination (Ist Shift)
Held on 08-11-2009
Test I
General Awareness
1. Which of the following is/are the major objectives of the Union Budget 2009-10 presented by Sri Pranab Mukherjee ? Emphasis on/to
(A) Faster and m ore inclusive growth
(B) Equitable development
(C) Improve the delivery mechanism
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B and C
(5) None of these
2. As per the Budget 2009-10, the government has made an allocation of Rs 1542 crore to purchase the shares held by the RBI in which of the following organizations ?
(1) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
(2) State Bank of India (SBI)
(3) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India (ECGC)
(4) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(5) All of the above
3. Which of the following apex body and regulators has asked banks to swap customer related information so that the frauds and defaults may be prevented in future ?
(1) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
(2) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA)
(3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(5) None of the above
4. The SBI has signed an agreement with which of the following agencies to obtain a guarantee cover to its loans to Micro and Small Enterprises ?
(1) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(2) Credit Guarantee Trust
(3) Small Industrial Development Bank of India
(4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(5) None of the above
5. Which of the following is the short from the name of the Indian Space Shuttle which puts various satellites into orbit ?
(1) RISAT
(2) PSLV
(3) ANUSAT
(4) ISRO
(5) INTESSAT
6. ‘Astra’ which was in news in recent past in the name of a newly developed ____
(1) Air to Air Missile
(2) Battle Tank
(3) Spy Rocket
(4) Submarine
(5) Air to Surface Missile
7. The telecom industry of which of the following countries made a world record by adding about 16 million new subscribers in just one month (March, 2009) ?
(1) China
(2) Iran
(3) India
(4) South Africa
(5) None of these
8. The President of India recently signed three key trade agreements with a country whose Prime Minister is Mr. J L R Zapatero belongs to which of the following countries ?
(1) Spain
(2) Mexico
(3) Italy
(4) Greece
(5) Ghana
9. Who amongst t he following has taken over as the New Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India recently ?
(1) Mr. Ashwani Kumar
(2) Mr. N. Gopalaswami
(3) Mr. V. S. Sampath
(4) Mr. Naveen Chawla
(5) None of the above
10. Which of the following is the Reverse Repo Rate at present ?
(1) 3%
(2) 4%
(3) 5%
(4) 5.5%
(5) None of the above
11. Which of the following is true about the exports from India during March 2009 ?
(A) Exports went down by 33% per cent in terms of US dollars during the period
(B) It was the highest drop in exports in more than a decade
(C) This drop was because Indian Tea has lost its demand in the global market
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) All, A, B and C
(5) None of these
12. As per the reports of the National Saving Institute (NSI) which of the following has shown an improvement in last few months by registering a 10% growth in it across the country ?
(1) Bank deposits
(2) Investments in commodity exchanges
(3) Investments in infrastructure bonds
(4) Small savings
(5) None of the above
13. The President of Maldives was awarded the Anna Lindh Prize – 2009 for his efforts in which of the following areas ? Efforts to _______
(A) Combat climatic changes
(B) Bringing democracy in country in a peaceful manner
(C) Save his country from financial crisis
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A and B
(5) All A, B and C
14. Who amongst the following is the author of the book (released recently) “India and Global Financial Crisis : Managing Money and Finance ?”
(1) Dr. Bimal Jalhan
(2) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(4) Mr. Pranab Mukherjee
(5) Dr.. Y. V. Reddy
15. Who amongst the following is the winner of the prestigious ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award’ given in April 2009 ?
(1) Manoj Kumar
(2) Rajesh Khanna
(3) Amitabh Bachchan
(4) Jaya Bachchan
(5) Jitendra
16. India recently finalized its National Solar Mission. The mission envisages an installed solar energy generation capacity of about _____
(1) 5000 MW (by 2030)
(2) 10000 MW (by 2030)
(3) 15000 MW (by 2030)
(4) 20000 MW (by 2030)
(5) 25000 MW (by 2030)
17. As per the news published in major newspapers/magazines four Central Public Sector Undertakings, NTPC, NHPC, PGCIL and DVC signed an agreement for a joint venture. All these four PSUs are working in which of the following areas/sectors ?
(1) Textile Sector
(2) Power Sector
(3) Coal Sector
(4) Transport Sector
(5) Telecom Sector
18. Which of the following countries wanted to come back again as an active member of the Organization of American States after its expulsion from there several years back ? (The summit of the same was organized in April 2009)
(1) Cuba
(2) Brazil
(3) Argentina
(4) Turkey
(5) None of these
19. Who amongst the following was the first elected President f the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal ?
(1) Mr. Ram Baran Yadav
(2) Mr. B. P. Koirala
(3) Mr. Madhav Kumar Nepal
(4) Mr. Pushpa Kamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’
(5) None of the above
20. As per news in major newspapers Sri Lankan Governments has offered conditional Amnesty to which of the following groups with a view to end internal conflict in the country going on since last several years ?
(1) Association of Civilians Trapped in War Area
(2) Janmukti Morcha
(3) Naxalite Group of Sri Lanka
(4) Madhesi Janadhikar Forum
(5) LTTE
21. As per the reports the Indo-Pak Trade reached at about which of the following levels during 2008-09 ? About ______
(1) Rs 200 crores
(2) Rs 300 crores
(3) Rs 400 crores
(4) Rs 500 crores
(5) Rs 600 crores
22. Which of the following States in amongst the top five power selling States in India ?
(1) Meghalaya
(2) Chhattisgarh
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Kerala
(5) Rajasthan
23. India and Russia recently signed an agreement so that India can get a supply of Uranium fuel from Russia. Uranium is used in which of the following sectors ?
(1) Pharma Sector
(2) Transport Sector
(3) Agro Industry
(4) Telecom Sector
(5) Energy Sector
24. The Government of India recently decided to finalise a big defence deal of Rs 45000 crore for which finally five contenders are shortlisted. This deal is to purchase ________
(1) Fighter jets
(2) Radar system
(3) Spy rockets
(4) Battle tanks
(5) Warships
25. Who amongst the following is NOT a Padma Awards Winner of 2009 given in 2009 ?
(1) Dr. G. Madhavan Nair
(2) Mr. Sundarlal Bahuguna
(3) Mr. Abhinav Bindra
(4) Mrs. Aruna Sairam
(5) Mr. Manoj Kumar
26. As per the news in all major newspapers, the African National Congress (ANC) got an overwhelming victory in the general elections held recently in _____
(1) Ghana
(2) Uganda
(3) South Africa
(4) Kenya
(5) None of the above
27. After a long cold war of several decades Taiwan recently signed an agreement to expand air links and accept main land investment with which of the following countries in its neighbourhood ?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) Malaysia
(4) Indonesia
(5) Japan
28. As per the news in major newspapers Iran has agreed to welcome talks with world powers after a deadlock of several months. Which of the following is the major issue over which Iran has a difference with the most of the world powers ? Its ______
(1) Nuclear Programme
(2) Dispute with Iraq on several oil fields
(3) Views on subsidy on agro products in the meetings of the WTO
(4) Claim to have permanent seat in UN Security Council
(5) None of the above
29. Union Government provides subsidy on which of the following commodities in India ?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Seeds
(C) Tractors
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) B and C
(5) None of these
30. World famous Tennis Star Rafael Nadal is from which of the from which of the following countries ?
(1) USA
(2) Spain
(3) Germany
(4) Italy
(5) France
31. ‘Azlan Shah Cup’ is associated with the game of ______
(1) Cricket
(2) Hockey
(3) Badminton
(4) Table Tennis
(5) Golf
32. What is the full form of NFSM an initiative of the National Development Council of India ?
(1) New Food Security Mechanism
(2) National Food Security Management
(3) National Farmer’s Service Manch
(4) New Fastest Space Missile
(5) None of the above
33. Financial year in Banks is a period between _______
(1) January to December
(2) May to June
(3) April to March
(4) January to April
(5) None of the above
34. The cooperative movement in which of the following fields has achieved a great visible success in India ?
(1) Milk production
(2) Banking sector
(3) Textile sector
(4) Cotton production
(5) None of the above
35. The Reserve Bank of India does not print currency notes of the denominations of Rs _______
(1) 20
(2) 50
(3) 3000
(4) 1000
(5) 500
36. Which of t he following is considered as the financial capital of India ?
(1) New Delhi
(2) Kolkata
(3) Bangluru
(4) Ahmedabad
(5) None of the above
37. Olympic Games are organized after a gap of every _______
(1) two years
(2) three years
(3) four years
(4) five years
(5) six months
38. Which of the following is a very well known name in the field of Banking in India ?
(1) Mrs. Meira Kumar
(2) NMrs. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
(3) Mrs. Arun Jaitley
(4) Dr. D. Subbarao
(5) All of the above
39. Which of the following is the currency of Spain ?
(1) Dollar
(2) Pound
(3) Yen
(4) Krona
(5) None of these
40. FIFA is an organization working in the field of ______
(1) Banking
(2) Textiles
(3) Power Generation
(4) Social Service
(5) Sports
Test II
General English
Directions (Q. 41-55) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of t he questions.
There was a country long time ago where the people would change a king every year. The person who would become the king had to agree to a contract that he would be sent to an island after one year of his being a king.
One king had finished his term and it was time for him to go to the island and live there. The people dressed him up in expensive clothes and put him on an elephant and took him around the cities to say goodbye to all the people. This was a moment of sadness for all the people. This was a moment of sadness for all kings who ruled for one year. After biding farewell, the people took the king to a remote island in a boat and left him there. On their way back, they discovered a ship that had sunk just recently. They saw a young man who had survived by holding on to a floating piece of wood. As they needed a new king, they picked up the young man and took him to their country. They requested him to be king for a year. First he refused but later he agreed to be the king. People told him about all the rules and regulations and that how he would be sent to an island after one year.
After three days of being a king, he asked the ministers if they could show him the island where all the other kings were sent. They agreed and took him to the island. The island was covered with a thick Jungle and sounds of vicious animals were heard coming out of it. The king went a little bit further to check. Soon he discovered dead bodies of all the past kings. He understood that as soon as they were left on the island, the wild animals had come and killed them.
The king went back to the country and collected 100 strong workers. he took them to the island and instructed them to clean the jungle, remove all the deadly animals and cut down all excess trees. He would visit the island every month to see how the work was progressing. In the first month, all the animals were removed and many trees were cut down. In the second month, the whole island was cleaned out. The king then told the workers to plant gardens in various parts of the island. He also took with himself useful animals like chickens, ducks, birds, goats, cows etc. In the third month, he ordered the workers to build big houses and docking stations for ships. Over the months, the island turned into a beautiful place. The young king would wear simple clothes and spend very little from his earnings as a king. he sent all the earnings to the island for storage. When nine months passed like this, the king called the ministers and told them : “I know that I have to go the island after one year, but I would like to go there right now.” But the ministers didn‘t agree to this and said that he had to wait for another three months to complete the year.
Three months passed and now it was a full year. The people dressed up the young king and put him on an elephant to take him around the country to say goodbye to others. However, this king was unusually happy to leave the kingdom. People asked him, “All the other kings would cry at this moment. Why is it that you are laughing?” He replied, “Don’t you know what the wise people say ? They say that when you come to this world as a baby, you are crying and every9onje else is smiling. Live such a life that when you die, you will be smiling and everyone around you will be crying. I have lived that life. While all the other kings were lost into the luxuries of the kingdom, I always thought about the future and planned for it. I turned the deadly island into a beautiful adobe for me where I can stay peacefully.”
41. Why did the people of the kingdom change the king every year ?
(1) As their first king had invented this system and had recorded it in the form of a contract
(2) As they believed that the new king would bring better ideas to the kingdom.
(3) As they wanted their king to relax on an island after one year of hard work
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of the above
42. What would happen to the king once his term of one year was over ?
(1) He would be paraded in the cities as farewell and then be taken to a remote island
(2) He would be gifted with expensive clothes and jewellery
(3) He would be sent on an island which required a lot of work to be done
(4) He would be asked to buy an elephant and go to the remote island himself
(5) None of the above
43. What did the young man notice on his visit to the remote island after three days of being king ?
(1) That the animals on the island were too many to killed
(2) That the island was very big
(3) That the jungle on the island was full of animals that had killed all the previous kings placed on the island
(4) That the island was very beautiful and clean
(5) Not mentioned in the passage
44. What happened to the island in the first month of the young king’s tenure ?
(A) The wild animals were removed from the island
(B) The whole island was cleaned.
(C) Many unnecessary trees were cut down.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) B and C
(5) A and C
45. What could be said about the island after the young king had made his servants work on it ?
(1) The dangerous island had been turned to a beautiful place
(2) The island still remained the same despite all the young king’s efforts
(3) The island was barely tolerable now
(4) The island was safe from all types of attacks
(5) None of the above
46. Which of the following describes the young king correctly ?
(A) He was intelligent
(B) He had foresight
(C) He was cunning
(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) Only C
(4) B and C
(5) All A, B and C
47. What was the king’s request to the ministers after the completion of nine months ?
(1) That he should not be sent to the island after completion of one year
(2) That he would like to go the island immediately
(3) That he should be paid more in order to improve work on the island
(4) That he should be sent to the island after year
(5) None of the above
48. How did the young king arrange for money on the island ?
(1) By selling a large amount of his property
(2) By spending all the money derived from his income as a king
(3) By borrowing money from the ministers and sending it to the island
(4) By spending very less of his income as a king and sending it to the island for storage
(5) None of the above
49. Why were the people of the kingdom puzzled when the young king was taken around the country to say goodbye to everyone ?
(1) As they could not believe that one year had elapsed so soon
(2) As they were not aware that the young king was actually wise sage
(3) As the young king was happy to go to the island unlike the previous kings
(4) Not mentioned in the passage
(5) None of the above
50. What can possibly be the moral of the story ?
(1) Always put others before yourself
(2) Give respect to others
(3) Live in the present and forget about the future
(4) Do not put things off until tomorrow
(5) Always think and plan ahead
Directions (Q. 51-53) : Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
51. CONTRACT
(1) work
(2) signature
(3) deal
(4) temporary
(5) get
52. BIDING
(1) wishing
(2) auctioning
(3) wasting
(4) playing
(5) talking
53. ABODE
(1) stop
(2) mountain
(3) plenty
(4) house
(5) dwelling
54. SURVIVED
(1) scratched
(2) died
(3) lived
(4) fell
(5) suffered
55. VICIOUS
(1) simple
(2) small
(3) tough
(4) harmless
(5) ferocious
Directions (Q. 56-60) : Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) All of a sudden the mother duck saw a fox in the distance, was frightened and shouted, “Children, hurry to the lake, there’s a fox !”
(B) The mother duck ran, leading the fox away from the lake and as soon as the fox away from the lake and as soon as the fox came very close, the mother duck quickly spread her wings and rose up in the air.
(C) The ducklings hurried towards the lake and the mother duck began to walk back and forth dragging one wing on the ground.
(D) A mother duck and her little ducklings were on their way to the lake one day.
(E) The fox stared is disbelief at the mother duck and her ducklings as he could not reach the ducklings because they were in the middle of the lake by now.
(F) When the fox saw her he became happy as he thought that the mother duck was hurt and couldn’t fly and t hat he could easily catch and eat her !
56. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
57. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
58. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
59. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
60. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) E
(5) F
Directions (Q. 61-65) : Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (5) as the answer.
61. As it was a dark and stormy night, Lata was too scared to go home alone.
(1) very scary to
(2) much scared to
(3) as scared to
(4) to scared too
(5) No correction required
62. Since it was her engagement party, Riya was dress to kill.
(1) dresses to kill
(2) dressed to kill
(3) dressed to killings
(4) dressing to killed
(5) No correction required
63. Ramesh worries endlessly about his son’s future as he was so poor in studies.
(1) worry endless
(2) worried endless
(3) worried endlessly
(4) worries endless
(5) No correction required
64. Now that the actual criminal had been caught, Kunal was happy that he was finally let of the hook.
(1) off the hook
(2) of the hookings
(3) off the hooks
(4) of the hooks
(5) No correction required
65. The little boy appeared all of a sudden out of nowhere and take everyone by surprise.
(1) took everyone as surprised
(2) take everyone with surprised
(3) took everyone by surprises
(4) took everyone by surprise
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 66-70) : In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is y our answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5), ie, “All correct’ as your answer
66. It is not unusual (1) / for guests of t he hotel to carry (2) / souveniers (3) /back with them when they return (4) / All correct (5)
67. She vested (1) / her time in chatting (2) / over the phone and ultimately (3) / ended up not finishing (4) /her work. All correct (5)
68. She had not eaten (1) / anything (2) / for a very long time now and her stomach (3) /was groling (4) / All correct (5)
69. Half of the harm (1) / that is done in this world (2) / is due to people (3) /who want to feel important (4) / All correct (5)
70. Life is like a mirror (1) / smile at it and its charmeg (2) / frown (3) / at it and it becomes sinister (4) / All correct (5)
Directions (Q. 71-80) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately, Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A lam was (71) with a flock of sheep one day. She soon found some sweet grass at the (72) of the field. Farther and farther she went, away from the others. She was enjoying herself so much that she did not (73) a wolf coming nearer to her. However, when it (74) on her, she was quick to start pleading, “Please please don’t eat my yet. My stomach is full of grass. If you wait a while, I will (75) much better.” The wolf (76) that was a good idea, so he sat down and waited. After a while, the lamb said, “If you (77) me to dance, the grass in my stomach will be digested faster.” Again the wolf agreed. While the lamb was dancing, she had a new (78). She said, “Please take the bell from around my neck. If you ring it as hard as you can, I will be able to dance even faster.” The wolf (79) the bell and rang it as hard as he could. The shepherd heard the bell ringing and quickly sent his dogs to find the missing lamb. The (80) dogs frightened the wolf away and saved t he lamb’s life.
71.
(1) watching
(2) laughing
(3) willing
(4) tiring
(5) grazing
72.
(1) height
(2) edge
(3) midst
(4) first
(5) base
73.
(1) notice
(2) trust
(3) saw
(4) worry
(5) maintain
74.
(1) lunge
(2) visited
(3) ate
(4) stand
(5) pounced
75.
(1) walk
(2) die
(3) taste
(4) mix
(5) reveal
76.
(1) believe
(2) thought
(3) wished
(4) smiled
(5) rejoiced
77.
(1) make
(2) let
(3) pay
(4) allow
(5) request
78.
(1) idea
(2) luck
(3) necklace
(4) cry
(5) presence
79.
(1) opened
(2) snatch
(3) decorated
(4) took
(5) ring
80.
(1) smiling
(2) hurried
(3) barking
(4) much
(5) friendly
Test III
Quantitative Aptitude
Direction (Q. 81-95) : What will come in place of question mark (?) ini the following questions ?
81. 7855 – 4236 + 388 = ? + 3974
(1) 133
(2) 73
(3) 33
(4) 43
(5) None of these
82. 48% of 525 + ? % of 350 = 399
(1) 42
(2) 46
(3) 28
(4) 26
(5) None of these
83. 28 × 2.5 – 6.5 × 2.4 = ?
(1) 16.4
(2) 16.2
(3) 15.6
(4) 15.1
(5) None of these
84. 
(1) 115
(2) 105
(3) 108
(4) 116
(5) None of these
85. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
86. √? + 172 = 335
(1) 46
(2) 42
(3) 1764
(4) 2116
(5) None of these
87. 125% of 560 + 22% of 450 = ?
(1) 799
(2) 700
(3) 782
(4) 749
(5) None of these
88. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
89. 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
90. 76 + 222.24 + 3242.15 = ?
(1) 3384.15
(2) 3483.15
(3) 3283.25
(4) 3383.25
(5) None of these
91. 784 ÷ 16 ÷ 7 = ?
(1) 49
(2) 14
(3) 21
(4) 7
(5) None of these
92. 
(1) 448
(2) 476
(3) 480
(4) 464
(5) None of these
93. 6425 ÷ 125 × 8 = ?
(1) 411.2
(2) 41.12
(3) 64.25
(4) 421.25
(5) None of these
94. 05% of 2500 + 2.5% of 440 = ?
(1) 37.50
(2) 37.25
(3) 370.25
(4) 372.50
(5) None of these
95. 4900 ÷ 28 × 444 ÷ 12 = ?
(1) 6575
(2) 6475
(3) 6455
(4) 6745
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?
96. 7 9 12 16 ?
(1) 22
(2) 19
(3) 20
(4) 21
(5) None of these
97. 384 192 96 48 ?
(1) 36
(2) 28
(3) 24
(4) 32
(5) None of these
98. 5 6 14 45 ?
(1) 36
(2) 28
(3) 24
(4) 32
(5) None of t hese
99. 8 9 13 22 ?
(1) 30
(2) 31
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
100. 6 11 21 41 ?
(1) 81
(2) 61
(3) 71
(4) 91
(5) None of these
101. Number of students studying in colleges A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. If 50 more student join college A and there is no change in the number of students in college B, the respective ratio becomes 5 : 6. What is the number of students in college B?
(1) 450
(2) 500
(3) 400
(4) 600
(5) None of these
102. Cost of 12 belts and 30 wallets is Rs 8940. What is the cost of 4 belts and 10 wallets ?
(1) Rs 2890
(2) Rs 2980
(3) Rs 2780
(4) Rs 2870
(5) None of these
103. 80% of a number is equal to three-fifth of another number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number respectively ?
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 5
(4) 5 : 4
(5) None of these
104. Ghanshyam purchased an article for Rs 1850. At what p rice should he sell i t so that 30% profit is earned ?
(1) Rs 2450
(2) Rs 2245
(3) Rs 2405
(4) Rs 2425
(5) None of these
105. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 8500 in two years @ interest 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs 1875
(2) Rs 1885
(3) Rs 1775
(4) Rs 1765
(5) None of the above
106. A train running at the speed of 60 kmph crosses a 200 m long platform in 27 s. What is the length of the train ?
(1) 250 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 240 m
(4) 450 m
(5) None of these
107. Which of the following has the fractions in ascending order ?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
(5) None of these
108. Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 8 and the digit in the ten’s place is three times the digit in the unit’s place. What is the number ?
(1) 26
(2) 36
(3) 71
(4) 62
(5) None of these
109. 10 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can 16 men complete that work ?
(1) 4 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 6 days
(4) 3 days
(5) None of these
110. 71% of a number is more than its 46% by 120. What is 30% of that number ?
(1) 160
(2) 150
(3) 140
(4) 148
(5) None of these
111. Average of five consecutive odd numbers is 95. What is the fourth number in descending order ?
(1) 91
(2) 95
(3) 99
(4) 97
(5) None of these
112. Find the average of following set of numbers. 76, 48, 84, 66, 70, 64
(1) 72
(2) 66
(3) 68
(4) 64
(5) None of these
113. Latika spends 45% of her monthly income in food and 30% of the monthly income on transport. Remaining amount of Rs 4500 she saves. What is her monthly income ?
(1) Rs 16000
(2) Rs 18000
(3) Rs 16500
(4) Rs 18500
(5) None of these
114. Amount of simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 28500 in seven years is Rs 23940 what is the rate of interest % per annum ?
(1) 10.5
(2) 12.5
(3) 11
(4) 12
(5) None of these
115. A and B started a business investing amounts of Rs 150000 and Rs 250000 respectively. What will be B’s share in the profit of Rs 160000 ?
(1) Rs 100000
(2) Rs 60000
(3) Rs 80000
(4) Rs 110000
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 116-120) : Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.
116. What is the average population of State B (in lakhs) for all the years together ?
(1) 25.24
(2) 24.44
(3) 24.24
(4) 25.44
(5) None of these
117. What is the ratio between the population of State A in 2003 and the population of State E in 2007 respectively ?
(1) 37 : 22
(2) 22 : 37
(3) 47 : 26
(4) 26 : 47
(5) None of these
118. Population of State E in 2004 is approximately what per cent of the population of State B in 2006 ?
(1) 85
(2) 95
(3) 110
(4) 130
(5) 120
119. What is the total population of all the states together (in lakhs) in 2005 ?
(1) 106.4
(2) 98.4
(3) 96.8
(4) 102.8
(5) None of these
120. Population of State E in 2007 is what per cent of the total population of all the states together in that year ? (rounded off to nearest integer).
(1) 26
(2) 25
(3) 23
(4) 21
(5) None of these
Test IV
Reasoning Ability
121. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHANNEL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
122. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ATLE using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
123. In a certain code GROWN is written as 7 @ % 36 and NAME is written as 64 ⋆ $. How is GEAR written in that code ?
(1) 74$@
(2) 7$4@
(3) 7%4@
(4) 7@$4
(5) None of these
124. How many pairs of digits are there in the number 6315784 each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are rearranged in descending order ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
125. What should come next in the following letter series ?
B D F H J L N A C E G I K M B D F H J L A C E G I K B D F H J
(1) B
(2) L
(3) M
(4) F
(5) None of these
126. In a certain code DISPLAY is written as RHCQZBM. How is GROUPED written in that code ?
(1) PSHTEFQ
(2) NQFVCDO
(3) NQFVEFQ
(4) PSHTCDO
(5) None of these
127. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 169
(2) 441
(3) 361
(4) 529
(5) 289
128. Among P, Q, R, T and W each having different weight, T is heavier than W and lighter than only P. Q is not the lightest. Who among them is definitely the lightest ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) R or W
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
129. If ‘R’ denotes ‘÷’; ‘P’ denotes ‘×’; ‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘V’ denotes ‘−‘; then 14 W 16 R 14 V 3 P 5 = ?
(1) 15
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3
(5) None of these
130. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) PM
(2) EB
(3) TQ
(4) IF
(5) VY
131. In a row of thirty children M is sixth to the right of R who is twelfth from the left end. What is M’s position from the right end of the row ?
(1) Twelfth
(2) Thirteenth
(3) Fourteenth
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. 132-137) : In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.
132. Statements : Some desks are chairs. All chairs are tables are mats.
Conclusions : I. Some mats are desk.
II. Some tables are desks.
III. Some mats are chairs.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) None of the above
133. Statements : All sweets are fruits. No fruit is pencil. Some pencils are glasses.
Conclusions : I. Some glasses are sweets.
II. Some pencils are sweets.
III. No glass is sweet.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) either I or III follows
(5) None of these
134. Statements : Some books are flowers; Some flowers are chains. Some chains are hammers.
Conclusions : I. Some hammers are flowers.
II. Some chains are books.
III. Some hammers are books.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) II and III follow
135. Statements : All roofs are cameras. Some cameras are photographs.
Some photographs are stores.
Conclusions : I. Some stores are cameras.
II. Some stores are roofs.
III. Some cameras are roofs.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) II and III follow
(5) None of these
136. Statements : Some nails are horses. All horses are tablets. All tablets are crows.
Conclusions : I. Some crows are nails.
II. Some tablets are nails.
III. Some crows are horses.
(1) Only I follows
(2) I and II follow
(3) I and III follow
(4) II and III follow
(5) All I, II and III follow
- Statements : All buildings are towers. All towers are roads. All roads are huts.
Conclusions : I. Some roads are buildings
II. All towers are huts.
III. All huts are roads.
(1) I and II follow
(2) I and III follow
(3) II and III follow
(4) All I, II and III follow
(5) None of the above
Directions (Q. 138-143) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
D 5 δ R @ A K © 3 9 B J E ⋆ F $ M P I 4 H I W 6 2 # U Q 8 T N
138. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
139. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(1) E
(2) I
(3) D
(4) N
(5) More than three
140. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
141. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the eleventh from the left end ?
(1) B
(2) H
(3) $
(4) ⋆
(5) None of these
142. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed b y another consonant ?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
143. Four of the following fie are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 41I
(2) 6#W
(3) QTU
(4) RAδ
(5) J9E
Directions (Q. 144-149) : In the following questions, the symbols #, %, @ © and ? are used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ mans ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor greater than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to smaller than nor greater than Q’.
In each question, three statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion (s) is/are definitely true.
144. Statements : M © K, K δ T, T © J
Conclusions : I. J # K
II. T # M
III. M # J
(1) None is true
(2) Only I is true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true
(5) II and III are true
145. Statements : F @ T, T % M, M # R
Conclusions : I. R © T
II. F @ M
III. F © M
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) either II or III is true
(5) II and III are true
146. Statements : J δ K, H @ B,, B % N
Conclusions : I. N δ H
II. N @ J
III. J δ B
(1) I and II are true
(2) II and III are true
(3) I and III are true
(4) All I, II and III are true
(5) None of the above
147. Statements : B # T, T © K, K % M
Conclusions : I. K # B
II. M # T
III. B # M
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true
(4) II and III are true
(5) None of the above
148. Statements : D % F, F δ K, K @ R
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. R % D
III. R @ D
(1) Only I is true
(2) Only II is true
(3) Only III are true
(4) I and II are true
(5) None of the above
149. Statements : W © M, M % F, D # F
Conclusions : I. D # M
II. W © F
III. W © D
(1) Only I is true
(2) I and II are true
(3) II and III are true
(4) I and III are true
(5) All I, II and III are true
Directions (Q. 150-155) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below
M, D, K, R, T, H, W and A are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. D is second to the right of M who is fifth to the left to T. K is third to the right of R who is second to the right of D. H is second to the right of W.
150. Who is second to the right of A ?
(1) M
(2) D
(3) K
(4) data inadequate
(5) None of the above
151. Who is third to the left of M ?
(1) A
(2) T
(3) R
(4) K
(5) None of these
152. Who is fourth to the right of H ?
(1) A
(2) T
(3) R
(4) K
(5) None of these
153. In which of the following combinations is the first person sitting between the second and the third person ?
(1) KMW
(2) MWD
(3) RHT
(4) TAK
(5) None of the above
154. If A and W interchange their positions who will be third to the left of R ?
(1) M
(2) D
(3) A
(4) K
(5) None of these
155. In which of the following pairs i the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?
(1) MW
(2) AK
(3) TA
(4) RH
(5) WD
Directions (Q. 156-160) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?
156. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
157. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
158. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
159. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
160. Problems Figures
Answer Figures
Test V
Marketing Aptitude/Computer Knowledge
161. If text was highlighted and “Edit’ “Copy” was clicked, what should happen ?
(1) Text would be copied from the document and placed in the clipboard
(2) Text would be removed from the document and placed in the clipboard
(3) Text from the clipboard would be placed in the document at the place where the cursor is blinking
(4) ‘2’ and ‘3’
(5) None of the above
162. The blinking point which shows your position in the text is called ____
(1) Blinker
(2) Cursor
(3) Causer
(4) Pointer
(5) None of these
163. For seeing the output, you use _______
(1) Monitor
(2) Keyboard
(3) Mouse
(4) Scanner
(5) None of these
164. CDs are of which shape ?
(1) Square
(2) Rectangular
(3) Round
(4) Hexagonal
(5) None of these
165. A scanner scans ______
(1) Pictures
(2) Text
(3) Both Pictures and Text
(4) Neither Pictures nor Text
(5) None of the above
166. A directory within a directory is called ______
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
167. For opening and closing of the file in Excel, you can use which bar ?
(1) Formatting
(2) Standard
(3) Title
(4) Formatting or Title
(5) None of these
168. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system ?
(1) user interface
(2) language translator
(3) platform
(4) screensaver
(5) None of these
169. Computer language used on the Internet is ______
(1) BASIC
(2) COBOL
(3) Java
(4) Pascal
(5) None of these
170. You click at B to make the text ______
(1) Italics
(2) Underlined
(3) Italics and Underlined
(4) Bold
(5) None of the above
171. Which part is the “brain” of the computer ?
(1) CPU
(2) Monitor
(3) RAM
(4) ROM
(5) None of these
172. A disk’s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user is ________
(1) memory-only
(2) write-only
(3) read-only
(4) run-only
(5) None of these
173. Help Menu is available at which button ?
(1) End
(2) Start
(3) Turnoff
(4) Restart
(5) None of these
174. You can keep your personal files/folders in ________
(1) My folder
(2) My Documents
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
175. A central computer that holds collections of data and programs for many PCs, workstations and other computers is a(n) _______
(1) supercomputer
(2) minicomputer
(3) laptop
(4) server
(5) None of these
176. A Web site’s main page is called its _________
(1) Home Page
(2) Browser Page
(3) Search Page
(4) Bookmark
(5) None of these
177. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the _______
(1) Driver
(2) Terminal
(3) Prompt
(4) Clipboard
(5) None of these
178. Changing an existing document is called _________ the document.
(1) creating
(2) deleting
(3) editing
(4) adjusting
(5) None of these
179. In a spreadsheet program the ________ contains related worksheets and documents.
(1) workbook
(2) column
(3) cell
(4) formula
(5) None of these
180. Which of the following is not an input device ?
(1) Keyboard
(2) Monitor
(3) Joystick
(4) Microphone
(5) None of these
181. Marketing is the combined study of _______
(1) Buyer’s behaviour and consumer tasks
(2) Product demand and Product supply
(3) Brand building and Publicity
(4) Sales force abilities and customer responses
(5) All of the above
182. Effective Marketing helps in _______
(1) Boosting the sales
(2) Boosting the purchases
(3) Boosting the demand and supply
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
183. Market size means _______
(1) Size of the sales teams
(2) Size of the company
(3) Scope for profit
(4) Scope for marketing
(5) None of the above
184. Market share means _______
(1) Share market
(2) Sensex
(3) market changes
(4) Market demands
(5) Share of business among pears
185. Direct Marketing means _________
(1) face to face marketing
(2) over the counter marketing
(3) door to door marketing
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
186. A “Lead” means ______
(1) a buyer
(2) a seller
(3) employee
(4) employer
(5) None of these
187. DSA means ________
(1) District Sales Authority
(2) Direct Selling Agent
(3) Distributor and Sales Agents
(4) Distributor and State Agent
(5) None of the above
188. A DSA’s main function is_____
(1) to boost customer contacts
(2) to boost emails
(3) to boost telemarketing
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
189. A “Prospect” means_______
(1) Company’s Prospectus
(2) Company’s Memorandum of Association
(3) A likely buyer
(4) A likely seller
(5) None of the above
190. To “close a call” means ______
(1) To clinch the sales
(2) To abandon the sales
(3) To lose the business
(4) To annoy the customer
(5) To exit from the sales team
191. Good selling skill calls for ________
(1) Patience
(2) Perseverance
(3) Persuasion
(4) Pursuit
(5) All of these
192. Marketing channels means _______
(1) Delivery time
(2) Delivery period
(3) Sales outlets
(4) Purchase outlets
(5) All of these
193. Value added services means _______
(1) Additional cost
(2) Additional production
(3) Additional staff
(4) Additional services
(5) All of the above
194. A ‘Target Group’ means ______
(1) group o f salesmen targeting the customers
(2) likely buyers
(3) group of products
(4) group of companies
(5) All of the above
195. “USP” in Marketing means _______
(1) Useful Sales Procedures
(2) Useful Selling Propositions
(3) Useful Sales Persons
(4) Used Sales Plans
(5) Unique Selling Propositions
196. “ATM” stands for _______
(1) Anywhere Marketing
(2) Any Time Marketing
(3) Any Time Money
(4) Automated Teller Machine
(5) Automatic Timely Machine
197. Market Plans is a _______
(1) selling process
(2) year-end-budget
(3) calendar
(4) business document for marketing strategies
(5) All of the above
198. Market segmentation means dividing ________
(1) the market group into homogenous groups
(2) the market process into easy steps
(3) the sales teams into small groups
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above
199. “HNI” means _______
(1) Highly Non-interested Individuals
(2) Highly Needy Individuals
(3) High Networth Individuals
(4) Highly Negative Individuals
(5) None of the above
200. Digital Marketing, includes. Find the incorrect answer ________
(1) Web advertisement
(2) E-mail canvassing
(3) Blogs
(4) SMS campaigns
(5) Mobile alerts
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