TANCET MBA Question Paper-2008
SECTION-I
ANALYSIS OF BUSINESS SITUATIONS
Directions (Qns. 1-20): This section comprises of two passages. After each passage questions consisting of items relating to the preceding passage are given. Evaluate each items separately in terms of the respective passage and choose your answer as per the following guidelines:
(A) If the item is a MAJOR OBJECTIVE in making the decision; that is the outcome or result sought by the decision maker.
(B) If the items is a MAJOR FACTOR in arriving at the decision; that is consideration explicitly mentioned in the passage that is basic in determining the decision.
(C) If the item is a MINOR FACTOR in making the decision; a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective directly.
(D) If the item is a MAJOR ASSUMPTION made deliberately; that is supposition or projection made by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.
(E) If the item is an UNIMPORTANT ISSUE in getting to the point; that is a factor that is insignificant or not immediately relevant to the situation.
PASSAGE-I
For the past two years, Bennett Joseph, head of the regional firm R and S Packing Company, had been seriously considering the use U.S. government grade labeling for its high-quality canned fruits and vegetables. Having enjoyed an excellent reputation with the public under the trademark ‘Delish” for more than 30 years the canned goods were known throughout the area by distributors and consumers alike as among the best.
The grade-labeling problems had come to the fore as the result of new food super market chain called Gaynes. The new chain, a national organization, was making a depth penetration in the region by spending a sizeable portion of its large advertising and promotion budge for pushing its own private brands of frozen and canned fruits and vegetables. Its advertising emphasized that the public could find both grade and descriptive labeling on each package and can. The descriptive labels listed the type of food, the can size, the number of servings per can, the net contents, and the name and address, of the chain.
Joseph always paid careful attention to the descriptive labeling on R and S products but had been most reluctant to commit the company to the use of grade labeling. Joseph’s reluctance was supported by the company’s advertising and promotion manager and the production boss, who believed with him that grade labeling could hardly bring out the fresh flavor and taste upon which the company prided itself and had been able to capture through its own special heating processing and canning techniques.
A factor that seriously concerned Joseph in the use of grade labels on canned fruits and vegetables was the possible use of a high grade on one of the grading characteristics to offset a low score on another. This method could hardly help R and S,, whose pack was known by distributors and consumers alike to be much better even than the highest grades of its competitors.
While Joseph was pondering over this problem, he mulled over what he had read about grade labeling. In the first place grading and labeling of canned foods had been developed to protect and help the consumer. Though the Department of Agriculture, federal standard had been set up for standardization grading and inspection work. The encourage voluntary use of these standards, the Department of Agriculture hired inspectors who carried out the federal inspection program at production periods. For canned fruits and vegetables, the grades were A, B and C, which were based on such criteria as uniformity, succulence, and. colour, not flavor or food value.
Joseph certainly agreed that grade labeling could provide additional information for the consumer. R and S could also use it in company advertisements to supplement its own descriptive labels. But didn’t everyone known about the taste and quality of R and S products? He also wondered what happened when a company using grade labeling saw the qualities of fruits and vegetables change from year to year. At one period, that quality might be high for most growers; it might also be low during another. True, some factors that were very important in their effect on consumer choice could not be subjected to a grading discipline. For example, the range of individual tastes was impossible to standardize. Certainly taste, Joseph felt, should be at least as important as the other, more tangible criteria used to grade canned goods.
Joseph’s legal advisor pointed out that there was another aspect to the problem of grade labeling. He had been informed by colleagues employed at the Department of Commerce that while present use of standards was voluntary, such use might become mandatory in the not-too-distant future. His contacts explained that their information was based not on present government plans, but on possible Congressional legislation. The scenario went like this. Several consumer organizations were active in promoting “truth in labeling” legislation. Their objective was the provision of more information on packaging so that consumers could make better decisions on what products to buy. Simply put, it was argued that consumer could not distinguish between competing products on the basis of present labeling requirements. Present labels contained only the manufacturer’s name and address, the fact that the contents conformed to Federal Drug and Agriculture food standards, and net weight. No mandatory criteria existed for grade standards. Consumers could judge quality only on the basis of trial-and error, by trying the product or by reading the advertised claims of competing brands. Government official believed that if several of the larger consumer organizations combined efforts to lobby in Congress for passage of consumer legislation, there was an even chance that a “truth in labeling” law could be passed within year.
Joseph weighed the findings of his legal advisor. He realized that, while taste was the ultimate criterion for choosing one brand over another; the initial choice of particular brand could be influenced by products grade. Moreover, since R and S products were of the highest quality, they would undoubtedly carry the highest possible Federal grades. Joseph was not concerned about the timing of a decision to accept product grading which was at the present time still voluntary. Would it be to R and S’s advantage to adopt a voluntary labeling program, or would it be better or wait until grading became mandatory for all processors? What advantages and disadvantages would result from taking a wait-and-see attitude, rather than immediately commencing a voluntary grading program?
Before Joseph completed his study of the problem, one of his leading competitors, Team Foods, commenced a voluntary label standardization program. Joseph was worried about the possibility that some of Team Food’s products might be designated grade A quality. Team Foods could quickly exploit this advantage at the expense of R and S. Thus, grading had now become a competitive issue. Joseph felt that he had to make a quite decision one way or the other.
1. Establishment of a new supermarket
2. Mandatory standardization of food labeling practices.
3. Effects on sales of grade labeling of R and S products.
4. Federal food standards established by the Department of Agriculture.
5. Maintaining the R and S brand image.
6. Likelihood that grade labeling would become mandatory.
7. Present label requirement established by law.
8. Influence of consumer groups on government actions.
9. Team Food’s Labels
10. The 30 years of experience behind R and S packing company.
PASSAGE-II
The Parks company, located in New York City, had engaged exclusively in the manufacturer of baking powder in the seventy –five years since its founding. Sales were approximately $800,000 annually. The sales volume measured in commodity units instead of dollars, had showed a decline of about 11 percent over the past decade. The company had a small office force and employed approximately 50 people in the production process, which was divided into (1) the mixing department (2) the assembly department, and (3) the final inspection and packing department.
The Parks Company, located in New York City, had engaged exclusively in the manufacture of baking powder for seventy-five years since its founding. Sales were approximately $800,000 annually. The sales volume, measured in commodity units instead of dollars, h ad showed a decline of about 11 percent over the past decade. The company had a small office force and employed approximately 50 people in the production process, which was divided into (1) the mixing department, (2) the assembly department, and (3) the final inspection and packing department.
In 1935 distribution had been foreign as well as national. Forty years later, the sale of the product was confined to New England and the middle Atlantic states. Mr. Andrew H. Pendler, the president, attributed this significant decrease in both market area and sales volume to high tariff rates, sterner competition, and trade dislocations caused by World War II.
Mr. Gordon Janis, the sales manager, after studying the market closely, arrived at a different set of reasons why sales had been dropping. In the first place, according to Janis, sales to commercial consumers had diminished to practically nothing. Many modern bakeries bought the necessary chemicals and manufactured their own baking powder. Secondly, the population had become urbanized. Formerly, when a larger portion of the citizenry was suburban, many housewives had done their own baking. People in cities were close to bakeries and other outlets where they could buy the finished product, and improved transportation had enabled fresh bakery products to be readily available at retail outlets. The third reason which Mr. Janis considered significant was the growing popularity of ready-mixes. The natural tendency of practically all human beings is to get as much as they can for a minimum of effort. Since ready mixes did save housewives a good deal of labour, this type of product had been well received.
Mr Janis believed that the company could not cope with the first two factors, and therefore his suggestion for increasing sales was to branch out and manufacture ready mix baking products which would compare favorably with nationally known brands. Management was particularly receptive to Janis’s idea because production of ready-mixes would require only minor changes in personnel and the cost of addition machinery would be relatively small. Two additional machines were necessary, each costing approximately $10,000.
Mr. Pedndler was determined was determined to succeed in the marketing of the new products. He believed that a thorough market analysis was a prerequisite to making a final decision as to whether Janis’s idea was commercially sound. Pendler wanted to know whether a small company like Parks could battle for a share of the ready-mix market against much bigger competitors. His concern centered on two key variables. First, he questioned the ability of his marketing people to develop a product which would be sufficiently differentiated from competitors products. Parks would have to market a product which had some distinct advantage over competing products. This advantage could be in the form of an improvement over existing brands, for example, a mix that was easier to prepare. Second, a strong advertising campaign was necessary to enter the market within unknown product. Potential consumers would have to be made aware of the new brand and its advantages. Pendler wanted to know how much such an advertising campaign would cost and whether the company had the financial resources to finance it.
Janis was given the task of preparing a marketing research report which would provide answers to Pendler’s questions. Graduate students wre hired to poll housewives as they entered supermarkets. Each student questioned a number of housewives about their purchases of ready-mix, how frequently they used the products, what they liked and/or disliked about the mixes. Respondents were also asked to recall any advertising they remembered about ready-mixes. After about fifty interviews, Janis believed that he had collected enough information to reach certain conclusions.
Janis tabulated the research data and found the following trends. Most housewives said that they purchased ready-mixes and preferred to prepare their own cakes, rather than buy them from a bakery or supermarket. Housewives felt the ready-mixes were preferable to commercially prepared cakes because of their freshness and economy. In particular, respondents liked the convenience of being able to bake a cake “in an emergency” if unexpected company came to visit. Other reasons mentioned for preferring ready-mixes were : “Tastes fresh, “ modern thing to do, “my neighbours use it, “and “I can chose some of the ingredients.”
Few respondents using ready-mixes mentioned any dislikes. Some of the negative reactions mentioned were : Lack of the recipe variety,” “my husband doesn’t like them,” and “all the mixes are the same.”
Most of the housewives polled recalled seeing some advertising for ready-mixes during the last week. Half of the respondents recalled specific advertising themes of the major producers. Overall reaction to the advertising was favourable.
Examining the survey results, Janis concluded that Parks should market a ready-mix of its own. He reasoned that since consumer reaction was so favourable, there was room in the market for another brand. Janis recommended, however, that since the research did not reveal how Parks might differentiate its product from t hose already on the market, the best marketing strategy would be to charge a lower price than that of competing products. With a lower price, he asserted, Park’s ready-mix would well to the economy-minded housewife.
Advertising was a problem. It was clear that, given the relatively small marketing budget available to Janis, Parks could not emulate the sort of advertising campaign used by existing ready-mix manufacturers. Janis believed that if Parks would concentrate solely on the economy-minded market segment, advertising themes could be developed and a campaign launched within the company’s budget constraints. Janis’s report and conclusions were forwarded to Mr. Pendler. After a shot deliberation, Pendler approved the ready-mix project.
Without further investigation, the manufacture of Park’s ready-mixes was started. After several months, ready-mix sales still amounted to less than 10 percent of gross sales, and 85 percent of ready-mix sales were in New York City. The entire position of the company was in jeopardy. Both Mr. Pendler and Mr. Janis were worried about the business, but neither seemed to know what to do.
11. Declining sales volume.
12. New York City location of Parks Company.
13. Production of a successful ready-mix baking product.
14. Urbanization of the population
15. Increased world trade.
16. Start-up costs for development of ready-mix product.
17. Differentiation of Park’s ready-mix from competing products.
18. Specific advertising themes recalled by shoppers being interviewed.
19. $10,000 cost for the one additional machine.
20. Size of the office staff employed at Parks.
SECTION-II
COMPREHENSION READING
Directions (Qns. 21-40): Each passage in this section is followed by questions based on its contents. Read the passages carefully and them answer the questions given below them by choosing the best answer to each questions. Answer the questions on the basis of what is stated of implied in the passages.
PASSAGE-I
I am always a little uncomfortable when I find myself unable to admire something which all the rest of the word admires or at least is reported to admire. Am I, or is the world the fool? It is the world’s taste that is bad, or is mine? I am relevant to condemn myself, and almost resultant to believe that I alone am right. Thus when all men are not the professors of English literature only, but Milton too and Wordsworth and Keats assure me that Spenser is a great poet. I wonder what to do. For to me Spenser seems only a Virtuoso, a man with the conjuror’s tricks of extracting perfectly rhymed stanzas by the hundred, out of an empty mind. Perhaps I am unduly prejudiced in favour of sense; but it has always seemed to me that poets should have something to say. Spenser’s is the art of saying nothing, at length, in rhyme and rumbling meter. The world admires; but cannot. I wish I could.
Here at Agra If find myself afflicted by the same sense of discomfort. The Taj Mahal is one of the seven wonders. My guide assures me that it is “perhaps the most beautiful building in the world.” Following his advice, we drove out to have our first look at the marvel by the light of the setting sun. Nature did its best for the Taj. The west was duly red, and orange and yellow, and finally, emerald green, grading into pale and flawless blue towards the zenith. Two evening stars, Venus and Mercury, pursued the sunken sun. The sacred Jumna was like a sheet of silver between its banks. Beyond it the plains stretched gravly away into the vapours of distance. The gardens were rich with turf, with cypresses, palms and peepul trees. with long shadows and rosy light, with the noise of grasshoppers, the calling of enormous owls, the indefatigable hammering of a coppersmith bird. Nature, I repeat, did its best. But though it adorned, it could not improve the works of man. The Taj, even at sunset, even reverberated upside down from tanks and rivers, even in conjunction with melancholy cypresses – the Taj was disappointment.
My failure to appreciate the Taj is due, I think, to the fact that, while I am very fond of architecture and the decorative arts. I am very little interested in the expensive or the picturesque, as such and by themselves. Now the great qualities of the Taj are precisely those of expensiveness and picturesqueness. Milk-white amongst the dark cypresses, flawlessly mirrored, it is positively the ‘Toteninsel’ of Arnold Bocklin come true. And its costliness is fabulous. Its marbles carved and filigreed, are patterned with an inlay of precious stones. The smallest rose of poppy on the royal tombs is an affair of twenty or thirty cornelian onyxes, agates chrysolites. The New Jerusalem was not more rich in variety of precious pebbles. If the Viceroy took it into his head to build another.
Taj identical with the first, he would have to spend as much a fifteenth, or even perhaps a twelfth or tenth of what the spends each year on the Indian Army. Imagination staggers…
This inordinate costliness is what most people seem to like about the Taj. And if they are disappointed with it (I have met several who were, and always for the same reason) it I s because the building is not quite so expensive as they thought it was. Clambering among the roofs they have found evidence to show that the marble is only a veneer over cheaper masonry, not solid. It is a swindle! Meanwhile the guides and guardians are earning their money by instating on the Taj’s costliness. ‘All marble’, they say, ‘all precious stones’. They want you to touch as well as look, to realize the richness not with eyes alone, but intimately with the fingers. I have seen guides in Europe doing the same Expensiveness is everywhere admired. The average tourist is moved to greater raptures by St. Peter’s than by h is own St. Paul’s. The interior of the Roman basilica is all of marble. St. Paul’s is only Portland stone. The relative architectural merits of the two churches are not for a moment considered.
Architecturally, the worst features of the Taj are its minarets, These four thin tapering towers at the four corners of the platform on which the Taj is built are among the ugliest structures ever erected by human hands. True, the architect might offer a number of excuses for his minarets. He would begin by pointing out that, the dimensions of the main building and the platform being what they are, it was impossible to give the four subsidiary structures more than a certain limited mass between them, a mass small in proportion to the Taj itself. Architecturally, no doubt, it would have been best to put this definitely limited mass into four low buildings of comparatively large plan. But, unfortunately, the exigencies of religion made it necessary to put the available mass into minarets. This mass being small, it was necessary that the minarets should be very thin for their heights.
21. The author feels uncomfortable because he
(A) does not know what other to
(B) is ashamed of his lack of knowledge
(C) cannot admire what others admire
(D) is not able to appreciate art
(E) None of these
22. Why, according to the author, do people admire the Taj?
(A) It is a very picturesque building
(B) It is a very expensive building
(C) Its architecture if flawless
(D) It is a lovely layout of gardens
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of costliness of the Taj?
(A) It is made of milk white marble
(B) The marble all carved and filigreed
(C) There is an inlay work with precious stones
(D) The marble has been used as a veneer
(E) None of these
24. Which of the following is the worst feature of the Taj?
(A) The four subsidiary structures
(B) The main building
(C) The marble used as veneer
(D) The dimensions of the platform
(E) None of these
25. According to the author, a poet should
(A) say something in his poetry
(B) extract perfectly rhymed stanzas
(C) use appropriate meter in his poetry
(D) be sure of what he says
(E) None of these
26. Which of the following poets does the author NOT admire?
(A) Milton
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Spenser
(D) Keats
(E) None of these
27. “I find myself afflicted with the same sense of discomfort.” What discomfort does the author refer to?
(A) His belief that he alone is right
(B) His inability to admire what others admire
(C) His failure to appreciate the Taj
(D) His fondness of architecture
(E) None of these
28. “The indefatigable hammering of a coppersmith bird.” Here ‘indefatigable’ means
(A) tired
(B) rewarding
(C) untiring
(D) admirable
(E) None of these
29. What was the effect of the setting sun on the Taj according to the author?
(A) It made it appear rather gloomy
(B) It improved the beauty of the Taj
(C) It simply adorned the building
(D) It made it look ghostly
(E) None of these
30. One of the main qualities of the Taj is its picturesqueness. Which of the following does not indicate this quality?
(A) Milk-white among dark cypresses
(B) Flawlessly mirrored in the tanks and the river
(C) Set against the light of the setting sun
(D) The noise the grasshoppers and the hooting of the owls
(E) None of these
PASSAGE-II
The strength of Indian democracy lies in its tradition, in the fusion of the ideas of democracy and national independence, which was the characteristics of the Indian nationalist movement long before Independence. Although the British retained supreme authority in India until 1947, the provincial elections of 1937 provided real exercise in democratic practice’ before national independence. During the Pacific War, India was not overrun or seriously invaded by the Japanese and after the war was over, the transfer of power to a government of the Indian Congress Party was a peaceful one as far as Britain was concerned by 1947 ‘Indianisation’ had already gone far in the Indian Civil Service and Army, so that the new government could start with effective instrument of central control.
After Independence, however, India was faced with two problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low level of production and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub-nationalities. The Congress leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second; as a new political elite, which had rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against India’s old social order, they were conscious of the need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms, but as nationalist who had led a struggle against the alien on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too much for granted and underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which were bound to be accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The Congress party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and preferred to retain the old provinces of British India, which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a federal ‘Indian Union’. The rights granted to the States created new problems for the Central Government. The idea of making Hindi the national language of a united India was thwarted b y the recalcitrance of the speakers of other important Indian languages, and the autonomy of the States rendered central economic planning extremely difficult. Land reforms remained under the control of the States and many large sale economic projects required a degree of cooperation between the Central Government and one or more of the States which it was found impossible to achieve. Coordination of policies was difficult even when the Congress Party was in power both in the States and at the Centre. When a Congress Government in Delhi was confronted with non-Congress parties in office in the States, it became much harder.
31. Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word ‘thwarted’ as used in the passage.
(A) Opposed
(B) Diverted
(C) Implemented
(D) Advocated
(E) None of these
32. Why, according to the passage, was central economic planning found to be difficult?
(A) On account of multiplicity of States and Union Territories
(B) On account of lack of coordination in different Government Departments
(C) On account of autonomy given to the States in certain matters
(D) On account of lack of will in implementing land reforms
(E) None of these
33. Which of the following issues was not appropriately realized by the Central Government?
(A) Ethnic diversity of the people
(B) A national language for the country
(C) Implementation of the formulated policies
(D) Centre-State relations
(E) None of these
34. Which according to the passage, was an exercise in democratic practice in India before Independence?
(A) The handing over of power by the British
(B) The Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service
(C) The conductor of provincial elections in 1937
(D) Several democratic institutions created by the Indian National Congress
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) The Congress party was originally opposed to the idea of division of states on linguistic basis
(B) Economic development and social reform were initiated soon after Independence
(C) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj
(D) The Congress leadership was full conscious of the problems arising out of ethnic diversity in India at the time of Independence
(E) None of these
36. The new government could start with effective instrument of central control because the
(A) Process of Indianisation of the Indian Civil Service had already begun
(B) Indian army was organized on the pattern of the British army.
(C) People of India offered their whole hearted support to the Government
(D) Transfer of power to the Indian Congress Party was peaceful
(E) None of these
Directions (Qns. 37-40): Each of these questions consists of a capitalized word followed by five alternatives. Select the alternative that is most similar in meaning to the capitalized word, in each case.
37. GERMANE
(A) Middle European
(B) Prominent
(C) Warlike
(D) Relevant
(E) None of these
38. PIQUE
(A) Pyramid
(B) Revolt
(C) Resentment
(D) Inventory
(E) None of these
39. DECIMATE
(A) Disgrace
(B) Kill
(C) Search
(D) Collide
(E) None of these
40. ABERRATION
(A) Deviation
(B) Abhorrence
(C) Dislike
(D) Absence
(E) None of these
SECTION-III
PROBLEM SOLVING
41. The least number of five digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is
(A) 10010
(B) 10015
(C) 10020
(D) 10080
(E) None of these
42. When a certain number is multiplied by 13, the product consists entirely of fives. The smallest such number is
(A) 41625
(B) 42515
(C) 42735
(D) 42135
(E) None of these
43. The greatest number that will divide 187, 233 and 279 leaving the same remainder in each case is
(A) 30
(B) 36
(C) 46
(D) 56
(E) None of these
44. if 2x – 1+2x + 1 = 320, then the value of x is
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) None of these
45. If 1.5x = 0.04y, then the value of 
is
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) None of these
46. The value of 
is
(A) 100
(B) 0.001
(C) 1.01
(D) 1000
(E) None of these
47. The least perfect square number divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8 is
(A) 900
(B) 1200
(C) 2500
(D) 3600
(E) None of these
48. If 
the value of 
is
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/7
(E) None of these
49. A student was asked to multiply a given number by 8/17. Instead, he divided the given number by 8/17. His answer was 225 more than the correct answer. The given number was
(A) 8
(B) 17
(C) 64
(D) 136
(E) None of these
50. If 
the value of (6 * 15 * 3) is
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) None of these
51. The average salary per month of 30 employees in a company is Rs. 4000. If manager’s salary is added, the average salary increases to Rs. 4300. What is the salary of the manager?
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 13,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) Rs. 13,300
(E) None of these
52. If 2x + 4 – 2x + 2 = 3, then x is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) −1
(D) −2
(E) None of these
53. A certain number of two digits is three times the sum of its digits. If 45 be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is
(A) 27
(B) 32
(C) 57
(D) 72
(E) None of these
54. One year ago, a father was four times as old as his son. In 6 years time his age exceeds twice his son’s age by 9 years. The ratio of their present ages is
(A) 7 : 3
(B) 9 : 2
(C) 11 : 3
(D) 13 : 4
(E) None of these
55. The sum of two numbers is 184. If one third of the one, exceeds on seventh of another by 8, the smaller number is
(A) 64
(B) 72
(C) 84
(D) 76
(E) None of these
56. 
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 1/2
(D) xm + n
(E) None of these
57. Water tax is increased by 20% but its consumption is decreased by 20%. Then, the increase or decrease in the expenditure of the money is
(A) No change
(B) 5% increase
(C) 4% increase
(D) 4% decrease
(E) None of these
58. If a + b : b + c : c + a = 6 : 7 : 8 and a + b + c = 14,then the value of c is
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 14
(E) None of these
59. A discount of 30% on market price of a toy reduces its SP by Rs. 30. What is the new SP?
(A) Rs. 130
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 70
(D) Rs. 21
(E) None of these
60. An article when sold at a gain of 5% yields Rs. 15 more than when sold at a loss of 5%. What is the CP?
(A) Rs. 200
(B) Rs. 150
(C) Rs. 80
(D) Rs. 64
(E) None of these
SECTION-IV
DATA SUFFICIENCY
Directions (Qns. 61-85): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statement numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give your answer.
(A) If the data EITHER is STATEMENT (I) ALONE or in STATEMENT (II) ALONE are sufficient.
(B) If the data STATEMENT (II) ALONE are sufficient; while the data in STATEMENT (I) ALONE are not sufficient.
(C) If the data is STATEMENT (I) ALONE are sufficient; while the data in STATEMENT (II) ALONE are not sufficient.
(D) If the data even in both STATEMENTS (I) AND (II) together are not sufficient.
(E) None of these
61. What will be the area of a plot in sq. metres?
(I) The length of that plot is 
times the breadth of that plot.
(II) The diagonal of that p lot is 30 metres.
62. What will be the cost of the second necklace?
(I) The cost of the first necklace is 1/5 more than the second and the cost of the third necklace is 2/5 more than the second. The total cost of all the three necklaces is Rs. 1,20,000.
(II) The cost of the first necklace 2/5 more than the second. The cost of the third necklace is the least and total cost of all the three necklaces is Rs. 1,20,000.
63. What was the ratio between the ages of P and Q four years age?
(I) The ratio between the present ages of P and Q is 3 : 4
(II) The ratio between the present ages of Q and R is 4 : 5.
64. Which is the two-digit number?
(I) The number obtained by interchanging the digits is smaller than the original number by 63.
(II) Sum of the digits is 11.
65. What will be the average weight o f t he remaining class?
(I) Average weight of 30 children out of total 46 in the class is 22.5 kg and that of the remaining children is 29.125 kg. A child having weight more than 40 kg is excluded.
(II) Average weight of a class of 46 Children is 23.5 kg. A child weighing 46 is dropped out.
Directions (Qns. 66-68): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it, You have to study the questions and decide that the data in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.
66. Who earns most among M, N, P, Q and R?
(I) M earns less than P but not less than R.
(II) Q earns more than M but no t equal to N.
(III) N earns more than M and R.
Of these statements:
(A) Only I and II or only I and III
(B) I and II only
(C) Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements.
(D) Only I and III
(E) None of these
67. In how many days can 10 women finish a work?
(I) 10 men can complete the work in 6 days.
(II) 10 men and 10 women together can complete the work in 
(III) If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10 women replace them, the remaining work is complete in 4 days.
Of these statements :
(A) Only I and III
(B) Any two of the three
(C) Only I and II
(D) Only II and III
(E) None of these
68. What is the per cent profit earned by a shopkeeper on ‘selling the articles in h is shop’?
(I) Labeled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.
(II) Cost price of each article as Rs. 550.
(III) A discount of 10% on labeled price was offered.
Of these statements ;
(A) Only III
(B) Only II
(C) Only I
(D) All the three are required
(E) None of these
Directions (Qns. 69 & 70) : In each of the following questions a question is asked followed by three statements. You have to study the questions and all the three statements given and decide whether any information provided in the statement(S) is/are redundant and not required while answering the questions.
69. P, Q and R together invested an amount of Rs. 20,000 in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. What was the per cent profit earned by them at the end of one year?
(I) Q’s share in the profit is Rs. 2,400.
(II) The amount of profit received by P is equal to the amount of profit received by Q and R together.
(III) The amount of profit received by Q and R together is Rs. 4,000.
Of these statements:
(A) I and II both
(B) I or III only
(C) II and I or III only
(D) II and III both
(E) None of these
70. What will be the cost of fencing a circular plot? (π = 22/7)
(I) Area of the plot is 616 sq.m.
(II) Cost of fencing a rectangular plot whose perimeter is 120 m is Rs. 780.
(III) Area of a square plot with side equal to the radius of the circular plot is 196 sq.m.
Of these statement.
(A) I or III only
(B) III only
(C) I only
(D) II only
(E) None of these
Directions (Qns. 71-75) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Fare in Rupees for three Different Types of Vehicles
Note : Fare per km for investing distance is the same.
71. Shiva Kumar has to travel a distance of 15 km in all. He decides to travel equal distance by each of the three types of vehicles. How much money is to be spent as fare?
(A) Rs. 47.25
(B) Rs. 47.50
(C) Rs. 51.75
(D) Rs. 51.25
(E) None of these
72. Ajit Singh wants to travel a distance of 15 km. He starts his journey by Type A vehicle. After travelling 6 km, he changes the vehicle to Type B for the remaining distance. How much money will he be spending in all?
(A) Rs. 40.25
(B) Rs. 36.75
(C) Rs. 42.25
(D) Rs. 42.75
(E) None of these
73. X wants to travel a distance of 8 km by Type A vehicle. How much more money will be required to be spent if he decides to travel by Type B vehicle instead of Type A?
(A) Rs. 14
(B) Rs. 12.50
(C) Rs. 16
(D) Rs. 13.50
(E) None of these
74. Rita hired a Type B vehicle for travelling a distance of 18 km. After travelling 5 km, she changed the vehicle to Type A. Again, after travelling 9 km by Type A vehicle, she changed the vehicle to Type C and completed her journey. How much money did she spend in all?
(A) Rs. 55
(B) Rs. 45.50
(C) Rs. 50
(D) Rs. 40
(E) None of these
75. Fare for 14th km by Type C vehicle is equal to the fare for which of the following?
(A) Type A – 4th km
(B) Type B – 9th km
(C) Type B – 11th km
(D) Type C – 8th km
(E) None of these
Directions (Qns. 76-79): Study the following graph carefully and then answer the questions based on it. The percentage of five different types of cars produced by a company during two years is given b elow.
76. What was the difference in the production of C type cars between 2006 and 2007?
(A) 31000
(B) 7500
(C) 5000
(D) 2500
(E) None of these
77. If 85% of E type cars produced during 2008 and 2007 are being sold by the company, then how many E type cars are left unsold by the company?
(A) 29100
(B) 21825
(C) 142800
(D) 24380
(E) None of these
78. If the number of A type cars manufactured in 2007 was the same as that of 2006, what would have been its approximate percentage share in the total production of 2007?
(A) 15
(B) 13
(C) 11
(D) 9
(E) None of these
79. In the case of which of the following types of cars was the percentage increase from 2006 to 2007 the maximum?
(A) D
(B) E
(C) A
(D) C
(E) None of these
Directions (Qn. 80): The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states P, Q, R, S and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex. Study the table and answer the question based on it.
80. What will be the number of females above poverty line in the State S if it is known that the population of S is 7 million?
(A) 1.33 million
(B) 2.43 million
(C) 3 million
(D) 5.7 million
(E) None of these
SECTION-V
ENGLISH USAGE
Directions (Qns. 81-100): In each of the following sentences four words or idioms of phrases have been underlined. Only one underlined part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pickup that part-)(A), (B), (C), (D). If there is not mistake mark (E).
81. His derogatory remark humiliated me, but
(A) (B)
I kept my cool and didn’t allow my work to
(C)
be affected by it. No error.
(D) (E)
82. The suspected criminals who were accused
(A) (B) (C).
of snatching ladies necklesses were finally booked.
(D)
No error
(E)
83. The objective of the programme is to
(A) (B)
antertain the spectators. No error
(C) (D) (E)
84. Enforcement of laws and clean and efficiency
(A)
administration are fundamental functions of the government
(B)
machinery known as bureaucracy. No error
(C) (D) (E)
85. The quantification of intellectual property
(A)
is more complicating than most pricing
(B)
because today it is relatively inexpensive
(C) (D)
to make copies of most intellectual property. No error
(E)
86. All the players / of this team / are friendly /
(A) (B) (C)
they love each other. /No error
(D) (E)
87. The two brothers / struck / one another /
(A) (B) (C)
at the school. / No error
(D) (E)
88. It being vacation / every student wanted / to leave
(A) (B) (C)
for their home town. / No error
(D) (E)
89. With each academic year / the number of applicants /
(A) (B)
are increasing / in the professional colleges. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
90. Nobody offered to give up / their seat to / the old lady /
(A) (B) (C)
holding luggage in her / No error
(D) (E)
91. Prabhakar was unhappy / to hear the news /
(A) (B)
of his son’s failing / in the examination. / No error.
(C) (D) (E)
92. If I was / You I would not / attend / the function.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
/ No error
(E)
93. Kamal was happy that Sunil and / his brother was going
(A) (B)
/ on the same bus / next day. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
94. No sooner / had the teacher entered / the class
(A) (B) (C)
/ than the students stood up. / No error
(D) (E)
95. The / patient had been laid for an hour / in an
(A) (B)
unconscious state / until the doctor came. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
96. The whole of the buildings / including two houses /
(A) (B)
were destroyed / in fire. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
97. The driver said / that his bus carried /
(A) (B)
not less than fifty passengers / last evening. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
98. He told his wife / is she heard / any one knocking /
(A) (B) (C)
she should not to open the door. / No error
(D) (E)
99. He would not have / done the job / if he
(A) (B)
would not have / heard the news. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
100. As soon as the teacher / entered the class /
(A) (B)
all the boys approached him / and reports the matter. / No error
(C) (D) (E)
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