UGC NET Exam August 2016 Home Science Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

HOME SCIENCE

PAPER – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Folic acid deficiency results in

(1) Hypochromic microcytic anaemia

(2) Megaloblastic anaemia

(3) Pernicious anaemia

(4) Normochromic microcytic anaemia

Answer: (2)

2. The following method is used for the estimation of amino acids :

(1) Kjeldhal’s test

(2) Fehling’s test

(3) Ninhydrin test

(4) Benedict’s test

Answer: (3)

3. As per ATP classification the desirable level of cholesterol in the serum is

(1) < 240 mg/dl

(2) < 200 mg/dl

(3) < 220 mg/dl

(4) < 260 mg/dl

Answer: (2)

4. A structural method of learning better processes or techniques from other similar establishments and implementing them in your own system is called

(1) Forecasting

(2) Scheduling

(3) Directing

(4) Benchmarking

Answer: (4)

5. Which of the following is obtained from leaf ?

(1) Palm

(2) Hemp

(3) Milk-weed

(4) Kapok

Answer: (1)

6. Thickener that does not require washing out after printing is

(1) Emulsion binder

(2) Gelatin

(3) Starch

(4) Gum

Answer: (1)

7. Managerial and psychosocial sub-systems are parts of which environment ?

(1) Household environment

(2) Near environment

(3) Large environment

(4) External environment

Answer: (1)

8. Indicate the institution related to energy conservation measures :

(1) ICMR

(2) NBO

(3) HUDCO

(4) BEE

Answer: (4)

9. Inadequate oxygen supply during labour and delivery is called _____ in babies.

(1) Anorexia

(2) Anoxia

(3) Amnesia

(4) Arrhythmia

Answer: (2)

10. An organised pattern of physical growth that proceeds from the centre of the body outward :

(1) Proximodistal

(2) Cephalocaudal

(3) Preformationism

(4) Epigenesis

Answer: (1)

11. The total number of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), to be achieved by the year 2030 are

(1) 10

(2) 12

(3) 15

(4) 17

Answer: (4)

12. The full form of SITE in context of development communication and extension education is

(1) Satellite Information and Training Experiment

(2) Satellite Information and Training Education

(3) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(4) Satellite Instructional Tele-communication Education

Answer: (3)

13. Following are Class I preservatives used in foods :

I. Salt II. Dextrose

III. Acetic acid

IV. Sulphur dioxide

V. Spices

VI. Benzoic acid

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) II, III, V, VI

(3) I, II, III, V

(4) I, III, IV, VI

Answer: (3)

14. Following are the services provided by ICDS to the beneficiaries :

I. Supplementary nutrition

II. Antenatal checkup

III. Non-formal education

IV. Growth monitoring

V. Supply of iodized salt

Codes :

(1) I, III, IV

(2) I, II, III

(3) I, II, V

(4) II, III, IV

Answer: (1)

15. Assessment of obesity can be done by following :

I. BMI

II. Weight for height

III. WHR

IV. BMR

V. Blood Pressure VI. Skin Fold measurement

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV, VI

(2) I, II, IV, V

(3) II, III, IV, VI

(4) I, II, III, VI

Answer: (4)

16. Following foods have a high cholesterol content :

I. Butter

II. Cottage cheese

III. Egg Yolk

IV. Liver

V. Milk

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV

(2) I, III, IV

(3) III, IV, V

(4) I, II, V

Answer: (2)

17. Following are the symptoms of Cirrhosis of liver :

I. Jaundice

II. Dehydration

III. Ascites

IV. Peripheral neuropathy

V. Oesophageal varices

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) I, IV, V

(3) I, II, V

(4) I, III, V

Answer: (4)

18. Which of the following are characteristics of a commissary food service system ?

I. Centralized purchasing is done for all service units.

II. Food is transported to satellite serving units.

III. All convenience and prepared foods are purchased, assembled and served.

IV. Purchase is for own unit.

V. Central production kitchen is in building separate from service units.

Codes :

(1) II, III, V

(2) I, II, V

(3) III, IV, V

(4) II, IV, V

Answer: (2)

19. Which of the following stitch classes are examples of chain stitch ?

I. 100

II. 200

III. 300

IV. 400

Codes :

(1) I and II

(2) II and III

(3) III and IV

(4) I and IV

Answer: (4)

20. Which of the following are varieties of Kashida Stitches ?

I. Zalakdozi

II. Rafuqari

III. Bagh

IV. Vata-Chikan

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV

(2) II, III, IV

(3) III, IV, I

(4) I, II, III

Answer: (1)

21. Which of the following finishes enhance comfort and aftercare properties ?

I. Bacteriostatic

II. Durable press

III. Antistatic

IV. Flame resistance

Codes :

(1) I and II

(2) II and III

(3) III and IV

(4) I and IV

Answer: (2)

22. Which among the following satisfy ergonomic benefits ?

I. Safer jobs

II. Improved efficiency and productivity

III. Fewer injuries

IV. Increase in absenteeism

V. Effective financial management

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) III, IV and V

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II and III

Answer: (4)

23. Identify the major contributors to human energy (work) studies :

I. Munsell

II. Taylor

III. Khushoo

IV. Gilbreth

V. Mundell

Codes :

(1) I, II and IV

(2) II, IV and V

(3) II, III and V

(4) I, IV and V

Answer: (2)

24. Laws of mechanics that apply to body mechanics are :

I. Arm position

II. Working height

III. Gravitational force

IV. Leverage

V. Momentum

Codes :

(1) I and II

(2) II and III

(3) III and IV

(4) III and V

Answer: (4)

25. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index calculated by using 3 basis dimensions :

I. Life expectancy at birth

II. Adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio

III. Infant mortality rate

IV. GDP per capita

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV

(3) I, II and IV

(4) I, III and IV

Answer: (3)

26. The following telephone numbers are important helpline numbers :

I. 1098

II. 1000

III. 181

IV. 100

Codes :

(1) I, III and IV

(2) I, II and III

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II and IV

Answer: (1)

27. The following are examples of diseases caused by recessive gene inheritance :

I. PKU

II. Sickle cell anaemia

III. Huntington disease

IV. Hemophilia

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV

(3) I, III and IV

(4) II, III and IV

Answer: (2)

28. Promotion in a social marketing plan includes

I. Messages

II. Messengers

III. Internships

IV. Creative strategies

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, II, IV

(4) III, IV, I

Answer: (3)

29. The major objectives behind non-formal education are

I. To raise the extent of functional literacy.

II. To prepare for self-employment.

III. To educate school drop-outs.

IV. To promote sports and extra-curricular activities.

Codes :

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, III and IV

(3) II, III and IV

(4) I, II and IV

Answer: (1)

30. Experiential learning for adult learners would include the following learning methods :

I. Lectures

II. Case studies

III. Role play

IV. Internships

Codes :

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, IV

(3) I, III, IV

(4) I, II, IV

Answer: (2)

31. Assertion (A) : The Impact Indicators measure the outcomes of a programme.

Reason (R) : In an Iodine Deficiency Disorder Control programme the impact indicators measures the median urinary iodine concentration among school children.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

32. Assertion (A) : Mayonaise is a stable emulsion.

Reason (R) : Iron present in egg yolk acts as the stabalizing agent for emulsions. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (3)

33. Assertion (A) : Populations consuming large amounts of fruits and vegetables are at higher risk of developing cancer.

Reason (R) : Fruits and vegetables are good sources of micronutrients and phytochemicals.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (4)

34. Assertion (A) : Gout patients are recommended diets rich in protein from plant sources.

Reason (R) : Pulses and legumes are high in purine content.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (4)

35. Assertion (A) : Job specification is a tool used by the employing officer in the selection of the right person for a specific position.

Reason (R) : Job specification is a statement indicating standards to be achieved for a particular job.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

36. Assertion (A) : Nanowire coating for clothes reduces the reliance on conventional energy sources.

Reason (R) : Nanowire clothes trap body heat far more effectively as these coatings are made out of conductive materials.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(4) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Answer: (2)

37. Assertion (A) : Super fabric materials are cut, abrasion and puncture resistant.

Reason (R) : Guard plates present in the super fabric materials act as a protective barrier.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2)

38. Assertion (A) : Fibers containing high proportion of crystalline regions do not permit easy entry of water and dyes.

Reason (R) : Polymers are extended and packed together giving a 3D molecular orientation within fibers.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1)

39. Assertion (A) : Bureau of energy efficiency has developed a voluntary scheme for energy efficiency labelling of equipment.

Reason (R) : Initially the scheme was applicable to frost free refrigerators and tubular fluroscent lamps.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

40. Assertion (A) : The primary advantage of drawing up time plans enables people to become aware of all problems in advance.

Reason (R) : This exercise helps to overcome delays and indecision later. 

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

41. Assertion (A) : Fatigue is of two types – physiological and psychological.

Reason (R) : Physiological fatigue is caused by some chemical changes in the body and can be reduced by introduction of rest periods.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (2)

42. Assertion (A) : The social model views disability as a form of social oppression like sexism and racism.

Reason (R) : The social model of disability emphasizes that obstacles to participation in society result due to the various environmental barriers rather than the disabled individual.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answer: (1)

43. Assertion (A) : The emotional capacity for empathy is relatively underdeveloped in early childhood.

Reason (R) : Children are egocentric during this period and fail to distinguish the view points of others from one’s own.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

44. Assertion (A) : Communication for Development C4D is a needed ingredient of development programmes.

Reason (R) : Communication for development enhances stakeholders participation leading to better planning.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

45. Assertion (A) : Entertainment education is an important approach used in development communication.

Reason (R) : Entertainment education comprises of the products and dissemination of messages that are educational in substance, entertaining in structure and popular in style.

Codes :

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(2) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Answer: (3)

46. Arrange the foods in decreasing order of their protein content per 100 g of food.

I. Bengal Gram Dal

II. Beans

III. Egg

IV. Curd

V. Soyabeans

Codes :

(1) V, I, III, II, IV

(2) I, V, III, IV, II

(3) V, II, III, IV, I

(4) V, I, III, IV, II

Answer: (1)

47. Arrange in correct sequence the steps in refining of edible oils :

I. Neutralization of oil

II. Alkali treatment of oil

III. Addition of chemical bleaching agents to oil for removing colouring agent

IV. Filteration and centrifugation of oil

V. Deodourization of oil by injecting steam under pressure

Codes :

(1) IV, II, I, III, V

(2) II, I, IV, III, V

(3) I, II, IV, V, III

(4) I, IV, II, V, III

Answer: (1)

48. Arrange in correct sequence the steps in planning of diets using exchange list :

I. Decide on the total food exchanges to be used as per the RDA.

II. Determine RDA using ICMR tables.

III. Distribute the food exchanges between different meals.

IV. Record personal data of the individual.

V. Plan menu for the day.

Codes :

(1) II, IV, I, III, V

(2) IV, II, I, V, III

(3) II, I, IV, III, V

(4) IV, II, I, III, V

Answer: (4)

49. Arrange in correct sequence the stages of the development of chronic renal failure.

I. Rise in blood urea

II. Polyuria

III. Dehydration

IV. Inability of nephrons to reabsorb water

V. Metabolic acidosis

VI. Anuria

Codes :

(1) II, III, IV, I, V, VI

(2) IV, II, III, VI, I, V

(3) I, IV, II, VI, III, V

(4) IV, V, II, III, VI, I

Answer: (2)

50. Arrange the steps for purchasing equipment for a food catering establishment in the correct sequence :

I. Specification of required item

II. Recognition of need

III. Enquiries regarding the price

IV. Checking the equipment and invoices received against specification

V. Selection of sources of supply

VI. Placing the order

Codes :

(1) I, V, III, II, VI, IV

(2) II, I, V, III, VI, IV

(3) III, I, II, V, IV, VI

(4) II, III, I, V, VI, IV

Answer: (2)

51. Give the correct sequence of dry spinning.

I. Washing, drying and dissolving of flakes in acetone.

II. Blending in kneading machine.

III. Mixing of shredded cellulose with glacial acetic acid.

IV. Formation of flakes

V. Ripening in storage tanks.

VI. Dry spinning in warm air.

Codes :

(1) III, II, V, IV, I, VI

(2) II, III, I, V, IV, VI

(3) I, II, III, V, IV, VI

(4) III, I, II, IV, V, VI

Answer: (1)

52. Give the correct sequence of making patolas.

I. Marking of yarns

II. Preparation of yarns

III. Checking of inaccuracies (if any)

IV. Tieing and dyeing of yarns

V. Weaving VI. Removing of knots

Codes :

(1) II, I, IV, VI, III, V

(2) I, III, II, IV, V, VI

(3) II, III, IV, V, VI, I

(4) III, IV, V, VI, I, II

Answer: (1)

53. Arrange in descending order the year of enactment of the following :

I. MRTP

II. CPA

III. PFA

IV. FPO

Codes :

(1) I, II, IV, III

(2) III, I, II, IV

(3) II, I, IV, III

(4) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (3)

54. Give in sequence the order in which the manager performs the managerial functions in an organization :

I. Organising

II. Controlling

III. Planning

IV. Leading

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) IV, I, III, II

(3) III, IV, II, I

(4) III, I, IV, II

Answer: (4)

55. Arrange the legislations in order of their enactment : earliest to latest :

I. The Right to Education Act

II. The Juvenile Justice Act

III. The Guardians and Wards Act

IV. The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 

Codes :

(1) IV, III, II, I

(2) III, IV, II, I

(3) III, IV, I, II

(4) III, I, IV, II

Answer: (2)

56. Arrange in order of developmental sequence :

I. Climbs stairs with help

II. Stands alone

III. Steady head holding

IV. Crawls

V. Rolls from side to back

Codes :

(1) III, V, IV, II, I

(2) III, V, IV, I, II

(3) III, IV, V, II, I

(4) III, IV, II, V, I

Answer: (1)

57. Arrange according to developmental sequence :

I. Embryo

II. Blastocyst

III. Fetus

IV. Single cell zygote

V. Neonate

Codes :

(1) II, IV, I, III, V

(2) IV, III, II, I, V

(3) IV, I, II, III, V

(4) IV, II, I, III, V

Answer: (4)

58. Arrange the following steps of the process of listening in the sequential order :

I. Receiving

II. Evaluating

III. Responding

IV. Remembering

V. Understanding

Codes :

(1) I, IV, V, II, III

(2) I, V, IV, II, III

(3) I, V, II, III, IV

(4) I, II, III, IV, V

Answer: (2)

59. Arrange the following steps of ‘Coming together’ in the relationship formation as given by Mark Knapp :

I. Initiating

II. Integrating

III. Bonding

IV. Experimenting

V. Intensifying

Codes :

(1) I, IV, III, II, V

(2) I, V, II, III, IV

(3) I, IV, V, II, III

(4) I, V, II, IV, III

Answer: (3)

60. As per Bloom’s Taxonomy, the learning behaviours can be arranged from simple to complex in the following order :

I. Knowledge

II. Application

III. Analysis

IV. Comprehension

V. Evaluation

VI. Synthesis

Codes :

(1) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(2) I, IV, II, III, VI, V

(3) I, III, IV, II, V, VI

(4) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

Answer: (2)

61. Match the nutrients in List – I with their deficiency disorder in List – II.

Answer: (3)

62. Match the active ingredient in List – I with the food sources in List – II.

Answer: (4)

63. Match the category / age in List – I with their RDA for calcium in List – II.

Answer: (2)

64. Match the terms in List – I with their explanation in List – II.

Answer: (1)

65. Match the items in List – I with their description in List – II.

Answer: (3)

66. Match the finishes given in List – I with their purpose given in List – II.

Answer: (2)

67. Match the items given in List – I with their description given in List – II.

Answer: (2)

68. Match the seams given in List – I with their descriptions given in List – II.

Answer: (2)

69. Match the items given in List-I with items given in List-II.

Answer: (4)

70. Match the items given in List-I with items given in List-II.

Answer: (2)

71. Match the theorists from List – I with the concepts from their theories in List – II.

Answer: (3)

72. Match the milestones in List – I with their age of achievement in List – II.

Answer: (1)

73. Match the items in List – I with List – II.

Answer: (1)

74. Match the Adopter category given by Evrett Rogers in List – I with their main characteristic feature given under List – II.

3

Answer: (2)

75. Match the name of the Programme given under List – I with the main issue it deals with given under List – II. 

Answer: (4)

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