GEOGRAPHY
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. The most fundamental principle of Earth Science “Uniformitarianism” for the first time presented in the book entitled
(A) Principles of Geology
(B) Geomorphology from the Earth
(C) Unstable Earth
(D) Theory of the Earth
2. Which of the following phrased the concept “Landscape is function of process, structure and stage” ?
(A) W.M. Davis
(B) L.C. King
(C) A.N. Strahler
(D) Thornbury
3. What are the evidences in favour of the Continental Drift Theory ?
i. Zig-Saw fit
ii. Trans current faults
iii. Fossils in different areas
iv. Convection in mantle
Codes :
(A) i and iv
(B) ii and iv
(C) i and iii
(D) i and ii
4. The theory of sea-floor spreading was proposed by
(A) Holmes and Davis
(B) Airry and Pratts
(C) Hess and Dietz
(D) Wegner and Ratzel
5. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
6. The net result of water inputs and water outputs in Earth’s hydrosphere is in a
(A) Steady-state equilibrium
(B) Dynamic equilibrium
(C) Quasi-steady-state equilibrium
(D) Quasi-dynamic equilibrium
7. Which of the following condition is not essential for a limestone landscape to develop into karst topography ?
(A) The limestone formation must contain 100% calcium carbonate for solution processes.
(B) Complex patterns of joints in the otherwise impermeable limestone.
(C) There must be an aerated zone between the ground surface and the water table
(D) Good vegetation cover
8. Identify the correct sequence of terminology used for denoting different parts along a sloping ground from top to bottom :
i. Debris slope
ii. Waning slope
iii. Waxing slope
iv. Free face
(A) ii, iii, i, iv
(B) iii, ii, iv, i
(C) iii, iv, ii, i
(D) iii, iv, i, ii
9. Which one of the following places on the earth is the hottest ?
(A) Quetta
(B) Al Aziza
(C) Jacobabad
(D) Jaisalmer
10. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
11. Find the sequence of the onset of South-West monsoon of the following areas from the earlier to later dates :
i. Kerala
ii. Mumbai
iii. Andaman-Nicobar
iv. Odisha
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iii, i, ii, iv
(C) ii, iii, iv, i
(D) iv, ii, i, iii
12. Find the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) Equatorial regions receive heavy convectional rain.
(B) High rainfall totals are linked to westerlies in both hemispheres.
(C) There is an increase of precipitation at an altitude above 2 kms.
(D) On the eastern side of the ocean in the sub-tropical region are dry regions.
13. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Trans-humane type of population movement is noticed in Kashmir valley.
Reason (R) : Rainfall in Kashmir valley during winter is due to Westerly disturbances.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the reason of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not reason of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
14. Which of the two following cyclones did occur in India in 2014 ?
i. Hudhud
ii. Phailin
iii. Nilopher
iv. Lehar
(A) i and ii
(B) i and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii and iv
15. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
16. Which of the following is a cold current ?
(A) Brazil current
(B) Gulf stream
(C) Benguela current
(D) Agualhas current
17. The term “brine” is applicable to
(A) Arabian Sea
(B) Baltic Sea
(C) China Sea
(D) Sargasso Sea
18. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Sahara desert enjoys a dry climate.
Reason (R) : The eastern side of ocean in sub-tropics along with cold oceanic current.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
19. The Challenger Expedition of 1874 was headed by the country :
(A) United States of America
(B) United Kingdom
(C) U.S.S.R.
(D) India
20. Which of the following group of statements are correct ?
i. Tropical grassland located in Brazil are known as Llanos and Campose.
ii. Savanna is a type of equatorial rainy forest in Africa.
iii. Temperate grassland in Argentina is known as Pampas.
iv. Selva is a coniferous of Europe and Asia.
(A) i and ii
(B) ii and iii
(C) iii and iv
(D) i and iii
21. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
22. Which one of the following marine ecosystems has the highest primary production ?
(A) Open seas
(B) Tidal estuaries
(C) Continental shelves
(D) Algae beds and reefs
23. Hekistothermal plants are found in
(A) Mediterranean climate
(B) Hot desert
(C) Equatorial climate
(D) Cold desert
24. Who wrote the book ‘Civilization and Climate’ ?
(A) Jafferson
(B) Semple
(C) Trewartha
(D) Huntington
25. The term ‘anthropogeographic’ was coined by Ratzel and was used by him for the
(A) Geography of man in terms of individuals and races.
(B) Geography of man and his works in relation to earth’s surface.
(C) Organic theory of society and state.
(D) Study of harmonious reciprocal relation of man and nature.
26. Find the sequence of the following contributions by geographers :
i. The origin of species
ii. Cosmos
iii. Anthropogeographic
iv. Erd knude
(A) i, ii, iii, iv
(B) iii, iv, ii, i
(C) ii, iv, i, iii
(D) iv, iii, i, ii
27. Who among the following is the protagonist of Neo-Determinism ?
(A) Blache
(B) Griffith Taylor
(C) Bruhnes
(D) Saur
28. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
29. Who was the author of Cosmos ?
(A) Ritter
(B) Humbolt
(C) Ratzel
(D) Bruhnes
30. Which of the following region does have the highest population density as per 2011 Census ?
(A) Punjab Plain
(B) Upper Ganga Plain
(C) Ganga Delta
(D) Brahmaputra Valley
31. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
32. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Amazon basin has very low density of population.
Reason (R) : The Amazon basin is endowed with hot and humid climate that led to luxuriant selvas.
Codes :
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains the (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A).
33. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages of urban development as postulated by Lewis Mumford ?
i. Polis
ii. Ecopolis
iii. Megalopolis
iv. Metropolis
(A) ii, i, iv, iii
(B) i, ii, iii, iv
(C) iii, iv, ii, i
(D) iv, iii, i, ii
34. What is the trend of Urbanization in India ?
(A) Urban population is rising slowly.
(B) Urban population is rising rapidly.
(C) Growth rate of urban population is lower than total.
(D) Urban population is falling.
35. Which one of the following densely populated areas of the world does not rely basically on agriculture ?
(A) The Nile Valley of Egypt
(B) The Plains of Mainland China
(C) The Island of Java
(D) The North Eastern U.S.A.
36. Both Ulanbator in Mongolia and Lagos in Nigeria are example of
(A) Primate cities
(B) World cities
(C) Enclaves
(D) Edge cities
37. Which of the following is an example of a quinary-sector of economic activity ?
(A) Working at a cash register McDonald’s
(B) Serving as a researcher for human cloning.
(C) Serving on the U.S. President’s Cabinet.
(D) Converting crude oil into gasoline.
38. In which country of the world petroleum is treated as ‘source of power’ not the economy ?
(A) United States of America
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Iraq
(D) Kuwait
39. Which one of the following types of agriculture of India is classified in the world agriculture system by D. Whittellesey ?
(A) Nomadic Herding
(B) Livestock Ranching
(C) Intensive Subsistence Agriculture
(D) Commercial Agriculture
40. On the map of Mexico given below at which point ‘maquiladra’ is most likely to be found ?
41. Consider the following costs and revenue lines of four firms located in a region :
Select the best location of maximizing the profit of a firm.
(A) b
(B) a
(C) d
(D) c
42. All of the following have been considered growing industrial countries except :
(A) India
(B) Indonesia
(C) Brazil
(D) China
43. Consider the following road network diagram of an area :
Select the correct connectivity matrix for the above network :
44. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Air transport is a very useful means of transport in mountainous and hilly regions.
Reason (R) : It is very difficult to construct roads and railways in mountainous regions.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
45. Which of the following significantly weaken the strength of Mackinder’s geopolitical heartland theory ?
(A) Ascendance of the Untied States’ international influence after World War II.
(B) Existence of a pivot area.
(C) Growth of Soviet power in Eastern Europe.
(D) Rise of Nazi Germany
46. The relationship among power structures, the environment and economic inequalities is termed as
(A) Political ecology
(B) Gerrymandering
(C) Ecoterrorism
(D) Cultural diffusion
47. A primary differentiation between a state and a nation is that a State is a
(A) Political abstract, whereas a nation is a human group.
(B) Mutable concept, whereas a nation is permanent.
(C) Fixed geographical item, whereas a nation is not linked to a territory.
(D) Product of history, whereas a nation is a product of people.
48. The following question, consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as a Reason (R). Examine the two statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : There is hardly any pure race even in the remotest and isolated areas of the world.
Reason (R) : All human being comprise a single species, they manifest differences in certain physical traits, and being from one species, all members are mutually fertile.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list :
50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Central Asia has a number of groups such as Mongols, Kazakhs, Uzbeks and Kirghiz.
Reason (R) : Most of these people are herders and great horsemen.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
51. Which Arab geographer served in the Court of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq ?
(A) Al-Beruni
(B) Ibn-e-Khaldun
(C) Ibn-Batuta
(D) Al-Idrisi
52. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
53. Who did bring spatial dimension to the concept of growth ?
(A) Perraux
(B) Myrdal
(C) Bouldville
(D) Losch
54. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
55. Which one of the following suggested new method to measure regional imbalances in development and allocation of funds to different states of India ?
(A) A. Mitra
(B) Ashok Dutta
(C) Raghu Rajan
(D) A. Kundu
56. The Community Development Programme was initiated primarily to
(A) bring in development among people by raising the literacy level
(B) increase the control of the masses over the locally available resources.
(C) bring out overall development of the villages through self-help.
(D) bring out development of urban facilities.
57. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
58. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Bangaluru has grown into the hub of information technology and ITES.
Reason (R) : City is provided with world class infrastructure, power supply and security.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
59. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Golden Quadrilateral Express Highway is the visionary project to facilitate India joining the group of Developed Countries of the World.
Reason (R) : GQEH greatly reduced time distance in flow of transport and commodities and boosted urban growth and non-primary activities.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
60. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
61. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Indus and Ganges are the antecedent rivers.
Reason (R) : These rivers pass through the very narrow and deep gorges in the Himalayan mountain region.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
62. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
63. Main cause of difference between shifting cultivation and contour farming in India, is
(A) Environmental effect
(B) Technological development
(C) Availability of land
(D) Population density
64. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given :
65. Which one of the North-Eastern states has the highest concentration of tribal population ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Assam
(C) Mizoram
(D) Nagaland
66. Arrange the cities from the higher to lower temperature :
i. Jaipur
ii. Mumbai
iii. Bengaluru
iv. Jaisalmer
(A) iv, i, ii, iii
(B) i, ii, iii, iv
(C) ii, iii, i, iv
(D) iii, ii, iv, i
67. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Women status in the North-Eastern States of India is encouraging.
Reason (R) : Participation of women in economic activities in these States is quite good.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
68. Which of the following thematic maps is combined with complex themes ? Select the correct combination of complex-thematic map from the codes given below :
1. Soil spread
2. Forest cover
3. Crop combination
4. Rainfall potential
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
69. Which one of the following number of Parallels with one degree interval can be drawn between the poles on a globe ?
(A) 180
(B) 178
(C) 179
(D) 181
70. Which one of the following symbols does not represent a point data ?
(A) Spot heights
(B) Bench marks
(C) Contours
(D) Triangulation stations
71. The image of which satellite data product is used as substitute of cadastral map.
(A) Landstat TM
(B) SPOT Xs
(C) INSAT 1B
(D) IKONOS
72. Which one of the following Digital numbers is correctly matched with its byte value ?
73. Which one of the following locations is correct with reference to Ground control points ?
(A) Satellite control station
(B) Co-ordinates of places i.e., latitudes and longitudes.
(C) Places with established co-ordinates and height above MSL
(D) Height of places above MSL
74. Which one of the following is not an outcome of GIS modelling ?
(A) Binary model
(B) Index model
(C) Regression model
(D) Iconic model
75. Which one of the following circumstances Pearson’s coefficient of Correlation is used ?
(A) when the data set is positively skewed
(B) when the data set is negatively skewed
(C) when the data is normally distributed
(D) when the data is abnormally distributed
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