POLITICAL SCIENCE
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Who among the following defined civil power as “the right of making laws with penalties… for the regulating and preserving of property, and of employing the force of the community, in the execution of such laws… all this only for the public good.” ?
(A) Rousseau
(B) Karl Marx
(C) John Locke
(D) J.S. Mill
2. Who of the following said that, “the emancipation of the working class is the work of the working class itself” ?
(A) Mao Tse Tung
(B) V.I. Lenin
(C) Engels
(D) Karl Marx
3. Who of the following gave the slogan “Turn the imperialist war into a civil war, that is, into to a proletarian revolution.” ?
(A) Kautsky
(B) Trotsky
(C) Engels
(D) Lenin
4. Which of the following is not a feature of liberal communitarian debate ?
(A) Conception of self : ‘encumbered’ vs. ‘unencumbered’
(B) ‘Universalism’ vs. ‘Particularism’
(C) ‘State neutrality’ vs. ‘non-neutrality of State’
(D) Totalitarianism : ‘procedural’ vs. ‘communitarian’
5. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : For Plato great diversity of wealth was inconsistent with good government.
Reason (R) : He saw no way to abolish the evil except by abolishing wealth itself, so far as soldiers and rulers are concerned.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
6. Identify the correct sequence of the books written on Mahatma Gandhi on ascending order :
i. Richard Attenborough – In Search of Gandhi
ii. C.F. Andrews – Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas
iii. B. Bhattacharya – Evolution of the Political Philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi
iv. J.B. Kripalani – Gandhian Thought
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) ii, iv, iii, i
(B) i, ii, iii, iv
(C) iii, i, iv, ii
(D) iv, iii, i, ii
7. St. Augustine’s De Civitate Dei is divided into
(A) 19 books
(B) 20 books
(C) 21 books
(D) 22 books
8. Which of the following is not a reason for the decline of political theory of David Easton ?
(A) Historicism
(B) Moral Relativism
(C) Ideological Reductionism
(D) Hyperfactualism
9. Which of the following is not a feature of Jayaprakash Narayan’s partyless democracy ?
(A) Dispersal of political power
(B) Constant watch of the representatives by the electing bodies
(C) Maximum propaganda
(D) Comparatively less expensive elections
10. Who of the following advocated economic theory of democracy ?
(A) J. Lively
(B) C.B. Macpherson
(C) Anthony Downs
(D) D. Held
11. Comparative politics as an autonomous discipline emerged
(A) in the 1970s
(B) in the 1960s
(C) in the 1950s
(D) in the 1930s
12. Which of the following are the characteristics of a system, according to Almond ?
1. Comprehensiveness
2. Inter-dependence
3. Existence of boundaries
4. Availability of resources
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
13. Who among the following has used the concepts of goal changing, feedback and learning ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Gabriel Almond
(D) Lucian Pye
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
15. The cultural thrust in comparative politics became prominent during
(A) the 1950s
(B) the 1960s
(C) the early 1970s
(D) the late 1970s
16. Riots and demonstrations are the examples of
(A) Institutional interest groups
(B) Associational interest groups
(C) Non-associational interest groups
(D) Anomic interest groups
17. Who among the following has defined legitimacy as “conviction on the part of the member that it is right and proper to accept and obey the authorities” ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Seymour Lipset
(C) Mark Suchman
(D) Karl Friedrich
18. Who among the following has classified dependency into ‘Colonial dependency’, ‘Financial-industrial dependency’ and ‘Technological-industrial dependency’ ?
(A) Andre Gunder Frank
(B) Dos Santos
(C) Maurice Wallerstein
(D) Samir Amin
19. Who said, “Revolutions are the festivals of the oppressed and the exploited” ?
(A) Karl Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Mao
(D) Skocpol
20. Which of the following are the characteristics of Weber’s bureaucracy ?
1. Selection on the basis of professional qualifications
2. Appointment on contract basis
3. Staff members personally free
4. Officials free to leave the post
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Khilafat Movement in India was started to show solidarity with the Sultan of
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) Turkey
(C) Iran
(D) Iraq
22. Which one of the following writs is issued against an inferior tribunal which has declined to exercise its jurisdiction ?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Prohibition
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Mandamus
23. Who was the protem speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha ?
(A) Sumitra Mahajan
(B) Meira Kumar
(C) Kamal Nath
(D) L.K. Advani
24. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
25. Who of the following is associated with the concept “Congress System” ?
(A) Morris Jones
(B) Paul R. Brass
(C) Rajni Kothari
(D) Subrata K. Mitra
26. In India, ‘Collegium System’ was first introduced in relation to
(A) Executive
(B) Legislature
(C) Judiciary
(D) Union-State Relations
27. Which one of the following does not qualify for curtailing the freedom of speech and expression under Indian Constitution ?
(A) Security of the state
(B) Public order, decency, morality
(C) Demand for autonomy
(D) Contempt of Court
28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The transformation of the party system in India has centralized power at tier two of the government, namely at the State level.
Reason (R) : Regional parties have less willingness to decentralize power.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
29. Which one of the following, bearing names of Chief Election Commissioners of India, is arranged in chronological order ?
(A) S.P. Sen Verma, Sukumar Sen, J.M. Lyngdoh, T.N. Seshan
(B) Sukumar Sen, S.P. Sen Verma, T.N. Seshan, J.M. Lyngdoh
(C) S.P. Sen Verma, T.N. Seshan, Sukumar Sen, J.M. Lyngdoh
(D) Sukumar Sen, T.N. Seshan, S.P. Sen Verma, J.M. Lyngdoh
30. Which of the following kinds of special provisions are made for the Scheduled Tribes in India ?
1. Reservation of seats in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. Central Government to give special grants for welfare.
3. Reservation of seats in public services and in employment.
4. Reservation of seats in educational institutions.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Which one of the following statements about the disadvantages of territorial principle of administrative organization is wrong ?
(A) Not suitable for large areas
(B) Uniformity of administration becomes difficult
(C) Encourages localism
(D) Dominated by regional interests
32. Which one of the following was not a substitute of Merit System found earlier ?
(A) Exchange System
(B) Spoils System
(C) Sale of Offices
(D) Patronage System
33. What is the bill called that contains all the demands voted by the Lok Sabha and the consolidated fund charges ?
(A) The Appropriation Bill
(B) Voting of Demands Bill
(C) Fiscal Policy Bill
(D) The Finance Bill
34. Money received by the government of India under the State Provident Fund is credited to
(A) Consolidated Fund
(B) Treasury
(C) Public Account
(D) Contingency Fund
35. Arrange the following in correct chronological order of the hierarchy of human needs given by Maslow :
(A) Security – Social – Self-esteem – Biological – Self-actualization
(B) Self-esteem – Social – Biological – Self-actualization – Security
(C) Self-actualization – Self-esteem – Social – Security – Biological
(D) Biological – Security – Social –– Self-esteem – Self-actualization
36. In UK, merit-based recruitment was adopted on the recommendation of which report ?
(A) Fulton Committee Report
(B) Northcote – Trevelyan Report
(C) Redcliff – Maud Commission Report
(D) Tomlin Commission Report
37. Which one of the following was not included in the minimum criteria for ensuring good national governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in his book ‘Sustainable History and Dignity of Man’ ?
(A) Equity and Inclusiveness
(B) Rule of Law
(C) A system of checks and balances
(D) Transparency
38. Regarding the liability of holders of public office, when an official fails to perform a legal duty, it is known as
(A) Malfeasance
(B) Nonfeasance
(C) Disfeasance
(D) Misfeasance
39. Ombudsman in Sweden can take the following actions :
1. Can act against the judiciary
2. Can act on individual complaints
3. Can act against members of Parliament
4. Can act suo moto
Choose the correct answer from the code below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 4
40. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer with the help of the code given below :
41. Game theory owes a heavy debt to the seminal work entitled, “The Theory of Games and Economic Behaviour”. It has been written by
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) John Von Neumann and Oskar Morgenstern
(C) Karl Deutsch
(D) Michael Hass
42. Who among the following has remarked that, power in a political context means “the power of man over the minds and actions of other men” ?
(A) George Schwarzenberger
(B) Herman Heller
(C) Hans Morgenthau
(D) Bertrand Russell
43. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
44. Which one of the following factors contributed to the emergence of ‘New Detente’ after Cold War ?
(A) Pressure by the Non-aligned Movement
(B) The signing of INF Treaty by Reagan and Gorbachev.
(C) Emergence of Namibia as a free African Nation
(D) Deployment of RDF (Rapid Deployment Force) in Persian Gulf
45. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : India chose Non-alignment as a foreign policy choice in the post independence period.
Reason (R) : NAM was an assertion of independence, equality and sovereignty.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
46. The demand for New International Economic Order was first made at
(A) Tehran Summit
(B) Durban Summit
(C) Kuala Lumpur Summit
(D) Algiers Summit
47. Which one of the following is not correct about Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) ?
(A) First India ASEAN Summit was held in November, 2002.
(B) ASEAN declared South East Asian Nuclear Weapon free zone in 1995.
(C) ASEAN is working to remove trade barriers and develop economic relationship with China, Japan and South Korea.
(D) India became full dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1991.
48. Who among the following used the phrase – The United Nations is ‘sharing in the name of solidarity’ for underlining the necessity of the U.N. ?
(A) Winston Churchill
(B) Dag Hammarskjold
(C) Trygve Lie
(D) Woodrow Wilson
49. Which one of the following is not a feature of ‘Shopkeeper diplomacy’ ?
(A) It is based on peaceful approach.
(B) It is a means of diplomacy for maintaining peace through compromise.
(C) It is based on the sound business principles of moderation.
(D) It tries to safeguard national interest through war only.
50. Positive peace implies
(A) a ceasefire
(B) stopping the formation of death squads
(C) transformation of relationship
(D) social construction of war
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