PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Consider the following statements concerning deeply ingrained philosophical orientation and articulation of L.D. White :
(i) He assumes that there is an essential unity in the process of administration.
(ii) The study of Public Administration should start from foundation of law.
(iii) Administration is still primarily an art, having significant tendency to transfer it into science.
(iv) Administration is at the heart of the problems of modern government.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
2. The New Public Administration is considered as anti-Positivist which means
(A) It rejects the definition of Public Administration as ‘value-free’.
(B) It advocates for social change.
(C) Realization of social equity is the purpose of Public Administration.
(D) Meaningful studies in Public Administration.
3. Which one of the following is not a root of New Public Service Theory ?
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) Theories of Democratic Citizenship
(C) Models of Community and Civil Society
(D) Organizational Humanism and Discourse Theory
4. ‘Catalytic Government’ is a feature of
(A) Private Administration
(B) Entrepreneurial Government
(C) New Public Administration
(D) Principal-Agent Relationship
5. Who of the following was acknowledged by Woodrow Wilson for his source of the idea of Politics-Administration dichotomy ?
(A) Hamilton
(B) Bluntschili
(C) Medison
(D) Bentham
6. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :
7. “Before a Science can develop principles, it must possess concepts.” This statement is made by
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Rensis Likert
8. What is not true regarding the Theory – X ?
(i) Subordinates have little participation in seeking the organizational goals.
(ii) The communication is both upward and downward.
(iii) The control is internal, based on self-consciousness.
(iv) The focus of performance appraisal is on fault-finding.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
9. Arrange the major works of McGregor in a chronological order (ascending) of publication.
I. The Professional Manager
II. The Human Side of Enterprises
III. Leadership and Motivation
Select the correct answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(A) III, I, II
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) II, I, III
10. Which of the following styles is not described in the Management Grid Theory of Blake and Mouton ?
(A) (9.9) – Team Management
(B) (1.9) – Country Club Management
(C) (9.1) – Task Management
(D) (1.1) – Consultative Management
11. A formal organization is mainly concerned with
(A) Satisfaction of organizational members
(B) Profitability of enterprises
(C) Service to the society
(D) Harmonious relations within organization
12. Consider the following statements about Henry VIII Clause in Britain :
(i) It gave power to the king to legislate by proclamation.
(ii) It has not been used in Britain since 1900.
(iii) Such Act resembles the Statute of Proclamation 1539.
(iv) The Donoughmore Committee on Minister’s powers called for discontinuance of Henry VIII Clause.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and
(iv) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
13. Which of the following statements about legislative control over administration in U.S.A. are correct ?
(i) Congress defines the organization, powers and duties of Administrative authorities.
(ii) It appoints Legislative Committees for investigation of Administrative lapses.
(iii) Legislative confirmation of appointments to certain high-ranking posts is a prerequisite.
(iv) All international treaties come into force only after the ratification by the Congress.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
14. ‘The extent to which formally differentiated structures of a diffracted society co-exist with undifferentiated structures of a fused type’ is called
(A) Heterogeneity
(B) Formalism
(C) Overlapping
(D) Poly-communalism
15. Great Britain became the first country to develop a democratic code for civil services that is characterized by
(i) Loyalty
(ii) Secrecy
(iii) Neutrality
(iv) Anonymity
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
16. Which of the following Committee for the first time examined the role of training for civil servants in U.K. ?
(A) Masterman Committee
(B) Brownlow Committee
(C) Assheton Committee
(D) Fulton Committee
17. The IMF promotes the use of fiscal reform to address environmental problems through
(i) Analytical work
(ii) Technical assistance
(iii) Outreach activities
(iv) Controlling energy prices
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
18. Which of the following is not the feature of Development Administration ?
(i) It is people oriented.
(ii) It is change oriented.
(iii) It is unresponsive.
(iv) It promotes status quo.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
19. “All major decisions involving important deviation from the policy or where the policy is not clear should be reduced to writing with reasons attached.” This recommendations was made by
(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(B) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(C) K. Santhanam Committee
(D) None of the above
20. What is correct about the constraints of Development Administration in developing countries ?
(i) Political Instability
(ii) Lack of Resources
(iii) Committed Bureaucracy
(iv) Cultural Hesitants
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
21. Which of the following are the recommendations of the 2nd ARC regarding allocation and discharge of work by a State Secretariat ?
(i) Allocation of work to different departments should be based on the analysis of task to be performed by the government.
(ii) Ideally each of the secretariat departments should deal with inter-related and more or less homogeneous segment of administrative activities.
(iii) It should provide for an in-built mechanism for coordination of policies and programmes.
(iv) There should be larger delegation of power to the executive agencies/departments.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
22. Which of the following are the primary functions of the State Secretariat ?
(i) Carrying out regulatory work.
(ii) Drafting legislations, rules and regulations.
(iii) Issuing detailed implementation strategy.
(iv) Carrying out interdepartmental coordination.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
23. Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Governor of the State to appoint Advocate General for the State ?
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 164
(D) Article 165
24. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :
25. Which of the following documents are presented to the Parliament along with the budget ?
(i) Economic Survey
(ii) An explanatory memorandum on the budget
(iii) A summary of demands for grants
(iv) An Appropriation Bill
(v) A Finance Bill
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
26. Assertion (A) : The Public Accounts Committee is sometime described as the ‘twinsister’ of the Estimate Committee.
Reason (R) : The work of the Public Accounts Committee and the Estimate Committee is complementary.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has empowered the Parliament to establish a Contingency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The purpose of the Contingency Fund is to enable the Government to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
28. In second performance audit report of Comptroller and Auditor General of India 2013 regarding Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) which factor has not been high-lighted ?
(A) Skill-enhancement
(B) Mismanagement
(C) Institutional incapacity
(D) Lack of Public Awareness
29. On which of the following grounds the facts can be considered as the productive of theory ?
(i) Facts help to initiate theories.
(ii) Facts lead to the reformation of existing theory.
(iii) Facts change the focus and orientation of theory.
(iv) Facts cause the rejection of theories which do not fit the facts.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
30. Who stated that “Science is for life; not life for Science” ?
(A) Robert S. Lynd
(B) Morris Cohen
(C) Karl Pearson
(D) John Dixie
31. Explain the purpose of using lottery method in sampling.
(A) Theorisation
(B) Interpretation
(C) Randomization
(D) Conceptualisation
32. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from codes given below :
33. Which of the following are the objectives of disinvestment policy ?
(i) To ensure better customer service.
(ii) To make effective use of disinvestment funds.
(iii) To focus more on social development.
(iv) To improve effectiveness of the public sector.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
34. ‘Central Board of Direct Taxes should be an autonomous body independent of the Ministry of Finance.’ This recommendation was made by
(A) Wanchoo Committee 1971
(B) Estimates Committee 1991 – 1992
(C) Choksi Committee 1978
(D) Expenditure Reforms Commission 1999 – 2000
35. Which of the following are the functions of the Department of Expenditure in the Ministry of Finance ?
(i) Pre-sanction appraisal of major schemes/projects.
(ii) Implementation of the recommendations of the Finance Commission.
(iii) Assisting Central Ministries/Departments in controlling the costs and prices of Public Services.
(iv) Reviewing systems and procedures to optimize outputs and outcomes of public expenditure.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
36. Which one of the following is not the merit of disinvestment ?
(A) In Public Sector the decision making process is quick and decisions are linked with the competitive market changes.
(B) The market participation in capital of PSUs through stock exchanges would evaluate the market to discover the Latent Worth of PSUs.
(C) Selling of profit-making and dividend paying PSUs would result in loss of regular source of income to the government.
(D) The disinvestment process would bring in better corporate governance, exposure to competitive corporate responsibility etc.
37. In which year, the Department of Disinvestment was set up as a separate department ?
(A) December 10, 1999
(B) September 6, 1999
(C) September 6, 2001
(D) May 27, 2004
38. The Ministry of Finance of Government of India consists of
(A) 7 Departments
(B) 6 Departments
(C) 5 Departments
(D) 4 Departments
39. Assertion(A) : Social Welfare is an organized system of Social Services.
Reason (R) : Social Welfare includes the intent to strengthen individual’s capacity to cope with their life situation.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
40. Match List – I with List – II and answer from codes :
41. Which of the following is not under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment ?
(A) Minorities Commission
(B) National Institute of Social Defence
(C) National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development.
(D) National Commission for Women.
42. The Government grants recognition to an association of employees only when the following conditions are fulfilled :
(i) It should consist of government employees.
(ii) Its executive should be amongst its members only.
(iii) It should be neutral politically.
(iv) It should not entertain individual cases.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
43. “Motivation is a general term applying to the entire class of drives, desires, needs, wishes and similar forces.”
This statement belongs to :
(A) Koontz O’ Donnell
(B) A.H. Maslow
(C) Frederick Herzberg
(D) Douglas McGregor
44. Fifth Pay Commission recommended reduction of quantum of work by way of :
(i) Passing on certain task to State Governments.
(ii) Transferring certain task to Corporate entities in Public Sector.
(iii) Contracting out certain task to Private Sector.
(iv) Converting some institutions into autonomous bodies.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
45. The Foundational training of the IAS does not aim at –
(A) strengthening the understanding of the Political, Social environment in which an IAS Officer has to work.
(B) to develop values, ideas and attributes expected of an IAS Officer.
(C) emphasizing the understanding of public systems and their management.
(D) providing them inputs in Weaker Section Finance.
46. Which of the following match is wrong regarding the Committees and Commissions on Urban Local Governments ?
(A) Rural Urban Relationship – A.P. Jain
(B) National Commission on Urbanization – C.M. Correa
(C) Study Group on Constitution, Powers and Laws of Urban Local Bodies and Municipal Corporations – K.N. Sahaya
(D) Committee on Budgetary Reform in Municipal Administration – Rafiq Zakaria
47. Which one of the following is not true about the compulsory provisions made under 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act for Rural Local Government Institutions ?
(A) Indirect elections to the post of Chairman at the intermediate and apex tiers.
(B) Tenure of PRIs fixed at five years.
(C) Giving voting rights to MPs and MLAs in Rural Local Bodies.
(D) Creation of a State Election Commission.
48. At present which of the following is dealt by Central Council of Local Government ?
(A) Matters of Rural Local Government only.
(B) Matters of Urban Local Government only.
(C) Matters of Rural and Urban Local Governments both.
(D) Matters of Semi-Urban Local Governments.
49. Which of the following statements about the Local Bodies are correct ?
(i) There is no synchronization of the period of recommendations of State and Central Finance Commissions.
(ii) Powers, authority and responsibilities of the Local Bodies lack clarity.
(iii) Poor revenue efforts by the PRIs.
(iv) Lack of administrative machinery for collection of taxes.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
50. Which of the following Commission/Committee recommended that “There should be an integrated governing structure at the district level in the form of the ‘District Council’ with representation from both urban and rural areas.” ?
(A) First ARC
(B) Second ARC
(C) L.K. Jha Committee
(D) G.V.K. Rao Committee
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