SOCIAL MEDICINE & COMMUNITY HEALTH
Paper – II
Note : This paper contains fifty (50) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which of the following nutritional programme comes under the purview of M.O.H.F.W ?
(A) Prophylaxis against nutritional anaemia.
(B) Mid-day Meal Programme
(C) ICDS Programme
(D) Special Nutrition Programme
2. The Central Council of Health was constituted with Union Health Minister as Chairman and the Health Ministers of the States as members in the year
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1954
(D) 1957
3. Which of the following is not an element of Primary Health Care ?
(A) Immunization
(B) Appropriate treatment of common diseases
(C) Appropriate technology
(D) Provision of essential drugs
4. ‘The Conditions of the Working Class in England’ was written by
(A) A Gidders
(B) K. Marx
(C) F. Engels
(D) Adam Smith
5. Which year was ‘caste’ test enumerated in the Census of India ?
(A) 1941
(B) 1931
(C) 1911
(D) 1921
6. Approach to bio-medical model is
(A) Collectivism
(B) Positivism
(C) Participatory
(D) None of the above
7. Reporting of female-morbidity will be enhanced by
(A) Careful gender-sensitive probing of the respondent
(B) Engaging male-nurses to respond
(C) Engaging other female nurses to respond
(D) Engaging mother-in-laws to respond
8. ‘The Role of Medicine’ was written by
(A) Patricia Oberoi
(B) Thomas McKeowa
(C) Shiela Zirbrigg
(D) D. Banerjee
9. Work on social constructionism using ‘power’ and ‘knowledge’ was done by
(A) M. Foucault
(B) I. Ellich
(C) B. Turner
(D) T. Parsons
10. Pearl Index is related to measure of
(A) contraceptive efficacy
(B) child nutrition
(C) maternal nutrition
(D) infant mortality
11. Measures of group variability from sample to sample or sample to population involve several steps :
I. Selection of sufficiently large and random sample.
II. Finding the probability or relative frequency of the sample.
III. Application of Standard Error differences
IV. Paired t-test
(A) I and II are true
(B) I and III are true
(C) II and IV are true
(D) III and IV are true
12. The immediate complications of menstrual regulation :
I. Uterine preforation
II. Infertility
III. Premature labour
IV. Uterine trauma
(A) I and II
(B) II and III
(C) II and IV
(D) I and IV
13. Criteria for causal-association are
I. Temporality
II. Strength of association
III. Consistency
IV. Probability
(A) I, II, III
(B) III, IV
(C) I, II, IV
(D) II, III, IV
14. Modes of direct transmission of agents of infectious diseases are
I. droplet infection
II. droplet nuclei
III. transplacental
IV. fomite-borne
(A) I, III, IV
(B) II, IV
(C) I, IV
(D) I, III
15. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Malaria disease ?
I. Clinical features of malaria disease are the cold stage, hot stage and sweating stage.
II. Anti-malaria month is observed every year in the month of June in India.
III. There is a very effective vaccine for malaria.
IV. Malarial parasites are of two types only – Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium falciparum.
(A) I & II are correct.
(B) II & III are correct.
(C) III & IV are correct.
(D) I & IV are correct.
16. Which of the following statements are true regarding International Organizations ?
I. The WHO has its origin in April 1945.
II. The Red Cross Society of India is an international NGO.
III. UNICEF is an organization looking for maternal and child health.
IV. The headquarters of WHO is in Geneva.
(A) I and II are correct.
(B) I, II and III are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, III and IV are correct.
17. In occupational hazards, the following are the physical hazards :
I. Heat and Cold
II. Ionizing Radiation
III. Industrial Neurosis
IV. Ultraviolet Radiation
(A) II, III and IV are correct.
(B) I, II and IV are correct.
(C) I, II and III are correct.
(D) III, IV and I are correct.
18. Which of the following statements are correct ?
I. Vitamin D is stored largely in the fat depots of the body.
II. Deficiency of Vitamin C results in Scurvy.
III. The signs of Vitamin A deficiency are predominantly ocular.
IV. Beri-beri is caused by deficiency of Vitamin E.
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) I, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.
19. Which of the following statements regarding the Geriatrics community is true ?
I. Certain chronic diseases are more frequent among the older people than in the younger people.
II. Ageing is an unnatural process.
III. HelpAge India is the largest voluntary organization working for the aged.
IV. Geriatric gynaecology is a new branch of specialization to look after the aged women.
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) III, IV and I are correct.
(D) II, IV and I are correct.
20. The following three are the milestones of the National AIDS Control Programme :
I. In 1986, the first case of HIV was detected in India.
II. In 1989 the NACP was first set-up.
III. In 1992 NACO (National AIDS Control Organisation) was set up.
IV. In 2004, Anti-retroviral treatment was initiated under the NACO.
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) II, III and IV are correct.
(C) I, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.
21. Assertion (A) : Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) can occur if measles vaccines are contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus.
Reason (R) : TSS T-1 causes TSS.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. Assertion (A) : Roll Back Malaria (RBM) sets targets of > 80% coverage for four key interventions.
Reason (R) : Global Fund for AIDS, TB and Malaria (GFATM) was established in 2002.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
23. Assertion (A) : Global Action Plan for Pneumonia (GAPP) was proposed by WHO in 2006.
Reason (R) : GAPP addresses multi-dimensional strategies for control of pneumonia.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. Assertion (A) : IMNCI guidelines address needs of children aged less than 3 years.
Reason (R) : IMNCI uses a syndromic approach.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
25. Assertion (A) : Risk of chronic complications are higher in type 2 Diabetes Mellitus than Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.
Reason (R) : ‘Honeymoon phase’ is a feature seen is Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
26. Assertion (A) : Pasteurisation of milk is a sterilization process.
Reason (R) : Its purpose is to destroy all the pathogenic organisms.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Assertion (A) : Birth dose of Hepatitis B vaccine can be given to new born within 24 hours.
Reason (R) : The birth dose of Hepatitis B vaccine is effective in preventing perinatal transmission of hepatitis B if given within the first 24 hours.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
28. Assertion (A) : Hepatitis B vaccine should be stored at 2 – 8 °C and freezing must be avoided.
Reason (R) : Freezing process dissociates antigen from the alum adjuvant.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
29. Assertion (A) : Yaws is transmitted by sexual route.
Reason (R) : Yaws is an endemic disease.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. Assertion (A) : Copper T (IUD) insertion can be taken up during the 1st week after the delivery.
Reason (R) : Special care is required with insertion because of the greater risk of perforation during this time.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
31. Arrange the following States in order of institutional deliveries (lowest to highest) as reported in DLHS-III :
(A) Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Kerala
(B) Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand
(C) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, Kerala
(D) Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala
32. What is the correct sequence of data analysis of qualitative data ?
(A) Domain identification, Free-listing, Familiarisation, Emergence of Model
(B) Free-listing, Emergence of model, Domain identification, Familiarisation
(C) Familiarisation, Free-listing, Domain-identification, Emergence of Model
(D) Emergence of model, Familiarisation, Domain-identification, Free-listing
33. As per 2006-07 National Survey on Blindness in India, arrange the causes of blindness from low to high percentage :
(A) Refractive error, Glaucoma, Corneal opacity, Cataract
(B) Corneal opacity, Glaucoma, Refractive error, Cataract
(C) Cataract, Refractive error, Corneal opacity, Glaucoma
(D) Glaucoma, Refractive error, Corneal opacity, Cataract
34. Arrange the following milk/milk products (per 100 ml/100 g) in terms of fat content (ascending order) :
(A) Milk (human), Milk (buffalo), Curd (cow’s milk), Cheese
(B) Cheese, Milk (human), Curd (cow’s milk), Milk (buffalo)
(C) Milk (human), Curd (cow’s milk), Milk (buffalo), Cheese
(D) Curd (cow’s milk), Milk (human), Cheese, Milk (buffalo)
35. Arrange the following health events in chronological order as per their occurrence :
(A) Launching of NACP I by Govt. of India, Return of plague in India, Emergence of SARS in India, Declaration of India as guinea worm free
(B) Return of plague in India, Declaration of India as guinea worm free, Emergence of SARS in India, Launching of NACP I by Govt. of India.
(C) Launching of NACP I by Govt. of India, Return of plague in India, Declaration of India as guinea worm free, Emergence of SARS in India.
(D) Emergence of SARS in India, Return of plague in India, Declaration of India as guinea worm free, Launching of NACP I by Govt. of India
36. Arrange the following malaria endemicity terminologies, based on ascending order (lowest to highest) of spleen rates :
(A) Holoendemic, Hyperendemic, Mesoendemic, Hypoendemic
(B) Hypoendemic, Mesoendemic, Hyperendemic, Holoendemic
(C) Hypoendemic, Holoendemic, Mesoendemic, Hyperendemic
(D) Mesoendemic, Holoendemic, Hypoendemic, Hyperendemic
37. Choose the correct sequence of procedures in Descriptive Studies in Epidemiology :
(A) (i) Defining the population to be studied.
(ii) Describing the disease by time, place and person.
(iii) Defining the disease under study
(iv) measurement of disease
(B) (i) Defining the population to be studied.
(ii) Defining the disease under study.
(iii) Describing the disease by time, place and person.
(iv) Measurement of disease.
(C) (i) Measurement of Disease.
(ii) Describing the disease by time, place and person.
(iii) Defining the disease under study.
(iv) Defining the population to be studied.
(D) (i) Defining the population to be studied.
(ii) Defining the disease under study.
(iii) Measurement of Disease.
(iv) Describing the disease by time, place and person.
38. Arrange the symptomatology of SARS in descending order of frequency :
(A) Fever > 38 °C, sore throat, rigor, headache
(B) Fever > 38 °C, headache, rigor, sore throat
(C) Fever > 38 °C, sore throat, headache, rigor
(D) Fever > 38 °C, rigor, headache, sore throat
39. Arrange the following modes / routes of transmission of HIV in descending order of probability(highest to lowest) :
(A) Blood transfusion, sexual intercourse, perinatal, mucous membrane
(B) Blood transfusion, perinatal, sexual intercourse, mucous membrane
(C) Mucous membrane, perinatal, sexual intercourse, blood transfusion
(D) Blood transfusion, mucous membrane, perinatal, sexual intercourse
40. Identify the correct sequence for the levels of prevention :
(A) (i) Primary prevention
(ii) Primordial prevention
(iii) Secondary prevention
(iv) Tertiary prevention
(B) (i) Primordial prevention
(ii) Secondary prevention
(iii) Primary prevention
(iv) Tertiary prevention
(C) (i) Primordial prevention
(ii) Primary prevention
(iii) Secondary prevention
(iv) Tertiary prevention
(D) (i) Primary prevention
(ii) Secondary prevention
(iii) Tertiary prevention
(iv) Primordial Prevention
Questions 41 to 50 are matching items. This consist of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II :
47. Vaccine and adverse event :
Latest Govt Job & Exam Updates: