LABOUR WELFARE & INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
Read the passage and answer the questions raised below : (For Questions Nos. 1 – 7)
Passage
The past decade has upset many preconceptions about development and this, more than anything else, makes it difficult to be overly definite about what the next decade has in store. But there are a few things that one can assert with some confidence. First, education, health and productive employment are crucial both for growth and for equity. We have tended to assume that all of these are the consequences of rapid economic growth and that only growth can generate the resources required for these purposes. But, increasingly, it appears that these are better seen as the causes rather than as consequences of development. Virtually every case of successful development involves a prior improvement in literacy, technical skills, health status and access to productive work.
Second, technological competence is the most important resource endowment and it explains a far large proportion of growth in output and trade than more conventional factors like natural resources or capital accumulation. The competence required is not just in research. In fact technological dynamism in the factory and the farm is more important than the presence of large research establishment.
Third, the environmental imperative can no longer be ignored. Today, as an international issue, it is second only to disarmament. Nationally, the developmental consequences of environmental neglect are increasingly obvious.
In the Indian context there are atleast two further factors which reinforce the above propositions. The first is population growth. Given the pace of expansion of the population and the work force, human resource development acquires an added urgency. Population growth is also one, but not necessarily the most important factor, which underlines environmental stress in rural and urban areas. The second factor is that as a large country we cannot carve out an independent position in the global system without building up a substantial capacity for self-reliant growth. The acquisition of technical competence is crucial for this purpose.
Until now we have tended to treat human resource development, technology and environment as subsidiary to the main task of planning. The thrust has been on-quantitative expansion of infrastructure and production with a focus on targets like tonnes of steel, kWh of electricity etc, capacity targets like road length, rail kilometres; and coverage targets like number of schools and students, number of villages electrified etc, catching up with known technologies-fuller use of natural resources – maximum mobilization of financial resources.
1. What seems to be the purpose of the author in writing this passage ?
(1) To appreciate the steps taken by our Government in the past and doubts about the future.
(2) To show how the policy makers have failed.
(3) A review of world affairs with special emphasis on developed countries.
(4) To prove how his predictions have turned out to be correct.
2. According to the author, at the national level, with passage of time, the effects of which of the following are being felt ?
(1) Lack of attention and action for protecting environmental wealth.
(2) Reduction in growth rate of population.
(3) Progressive degradation of technological competence in urban areas.
(4) Emphasis on slow rate of disarmament as compared to other nations.
3. What seems to be the approach of the author regarding present status of research ?
A. He desires that more research establishments should come up.
B. Application of new technologies in factories and field is more vital than setting up of research laboratories.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Both A and B
4. According to the author, which of the following is a less important factor resulting in environmental stress in rural and urban areas ?
(1) Rapid economic growth
(2) Availability of productive employment
(3) Rate of growth of population
(4) Continued environmental neglect
5. According to the passage, we have so far placed more emphasis on which of the following ?
(1) More use of available natural resources
(2) Increased number of basic facilities and meeting number targets
(3) Maximum utilisation of available finances
(4) Following known technologies
6. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) We have to now emphasize on aspects of human resource development.
(2) Technological competence has to be given due priority over more conventional factors.
(3) We cannot afford to ignore the importance of environment.
(4) We will have bright future by only catching up with known technologies.
7. According to the passage, which is not viewed as cause of development ?
(1) Betterment in health services
(2) Increase in underdevelopment
(3) Enhancement in technical skills
(4) Improvement in literacy
8. In his book “The Time Bind : When Home becomes work and work becomes Home”, Arlie Hochschild highlights the danger of total integration between work and home leading to either ‘workholics’ or ‘work busters’. The first neglecting the family and realizing it too late. The second ‘soldering’ on work compromising with efficiency.
From the above observation, which of the following inferences can be drawn ?
(a) Home becoming work and work becoming home is an ideal condition.
(b) Home becoming work and work becoming home may create ‘workholics’ who are good employees and bad home-makers resulting into family break-down.
(c) Employee ‘soldering’ means taking the job easy leading to inadequate performance.
(d) The passage advocates for work-life balance.
(1) (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
9. The National Association of manufacturers in America is a
(1) Purely Advisory Body
(2) Purely Administrative Body
(3) Purely Negotiating Body
(4) Purely Legislative Body
10. The Constitution of India gives its citizens certain fundamental rights. Some of these fundamental rights concerns working class directly. Match the subject matter included in List – 1 with the Articles of the Constitution of India mentioned in List – 2.
11. The voluntary arbitration in Britain was first introduced under the
(1) Conciliation Act, 1896
(2) Trade Union Act, 1913
(3) The Trade Disputes and Trade Union Act, 1927
(4) The Employment and Protection Act, 1975
12. Assertion (A) : The cause of labour was just but it needed the support of humanitarians and social reformers.
Reason (R) : The need was to preach and persuade people against the powerful social prejudices and barriers.
Codes :
(1) (A) is wrong and, therefore, (R) becomes irrelevant in the context.
(2) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A).
(3) (A) is correct and (R) does not explain (A).
(4) (A) is correct and (R) is wrong.
13. Which of the following statements relating to the Wagner Act is/are not wrong ?
a. It recognizes an employee’s right to engage in union activities.
b. It recognizes employees’ right to organize and bargain collectively.
c. It has a provision regarding the establishment of a National Labour Relations Board.
d. It has a provision relating to unfair labour practices by employers.
(1) only a
(2) only a, and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
14. From among the following, who focused on the ‘soft side of organisation’ as a sequel to globalization comprising adhocracy, simple structure, the divisionalized form, the machine and professional bureaucracy ?
(1) Henry Mintzberg
(2) Barlett and Ghosal
(3) Galbraith and Kazanjaam
(4) Burns and Stalker
15. “Marx states that the mass of surplus value is a definite quantum and exists across the system as a whole. It is a product of capitalist mode of production and capitalists compete for a share of this surplus. This surplus can be increased either through a longer working day or by raising productivity of labour. The ‘rate of surplus value’ is a function of direct labour employed. Constant capital in the form of machinery and raw materials transmits
its own value to products but does not create additional value.”
Read the passage carefully and answer the question :
(1) Additional Surplus value is created by constant capital.
(2) Additional Surplus value is created by modern technology
(3) Additional Surplus value can only be created by labour.
(4) Labour has no role in creation of Additional Surplus Value
16. Which of the following types of Trade Unions groups the workers’ unions horizontally, vertically or on the basis of political ideology with a view to coordinating them ?
(1) Territorial Unions
(2) Occupational Unions
(3) Industrial Unions
(4) General Unions
17. Read the two statements given below :
Statement – I : Marxian Political Economy (MPE) championed the cause of employment, income and social security and kept them within the bargaining power of the working class.
Statement – II : With the onset of globalization, New Institutional Economics (NIE), being driven by market forces, championed the cause of competitiveness, efficiency and cost-effectiveness. It supported the contractual freedom for both the employer and employee to transact on employment and employee cost fundamentals.
Which of the following logics can be inferred ?
(a) The statements take opposing stands.
(b) The statements are explainable in terms of assertion-reasoning compatibility.
(c) The first statement explains the union control on employment and other securities.
(d) The second statement advocates for the imperatives of limited employment security by giving greater freedom to both employers and employees the choice of employment contract severance.
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and
(c) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
18. Labour welfare, though, is not exactly social work but any welfare is the result of social work. Social work lead to states of welfare both of individuals and groups. And, therefore, it can be derived that labour welfare is an area of social work.
There exists four methods of undertaking social work. Match the subject matter given in List – 1 with the method of social work given in List – 2 :
19. In which year India became a member of the ILO ?
(1) 1919
(2) 1921
(3) 1926
(4) 1934
20. A situation, which is very serious, has arised and it warrants that the member of the Trade Union be financially assisted. As per the Trade Unions Act, 1926, what is the maximum quantum of benefit which a Trade Union can offer to its member out of the total gross income in the year and the balance of the credit of the preceeding year :
(1) One tenth
(2) One sixth
(3) One fourth
(4) Half
21. Who said that a trade union is a “continuous association of wage-earners for the purpose of maintaining or improving the conditions of their working lives.” ?
(1) G.D.H. Cole
(2) Clyde E. Dankert
(3) J. Cunnison
(4) Sydney and Beatrice Webb
22. Which of the following are the four key HR challenges, identified by Deloitte, in its ‘Compensation trends Survey Report’ for 2012-2013 ?
(a) Reducing operating cost (e) Increasing productivity
(b) Retaining critical talent (f) Engaging the employees
(c) Reducing capital investment (g) Restructuring
(d) Hiring of skilled talent (h) Training and Developing potential leaders
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (g)
(2) (b), (d), (f) and (h)
(3) (c), (e), (a) and (g)
(4) (d), (f), (g) and (h)
23. Which of the following statements relating to the V.V. Giri National Labour Institute is wrong ?
(1) The institute was set up in the year 1976.
(2) The institute was set up as a registered society.
(3) The institute’s affairs are governed by the General Council.
(4) Research occupies a primary place in the activities of the Institute.
24. Members of the Trade Union are required to pay a subscription per annum as per the provisions of the Trade Unions Act, 1926. For workers working in other unorganized sectors, excepting rural workers, the annual rate of subscription should not be less than
(1) Rs. 1 per annum
(2) Rs. 3 per annum
(3) Rs. 12 per annum
(4) Rs. 24 per annum
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Spaghetti organization structure’ adopted by MNCs ?
(1) Paperless organisation
(2) Smart office design
(3) ‘Meat Balls’ or knowledge centres
(4) Formal communication between people
26. The term ‘Social Security’ was officially first used in
(1) ILO
(2) The United States of America
(3) The U.S.S.R.
(4) Germany
27. Which of the following conventions of ILO relates to the ‘Right of Association’ ?
(1) Convention No. 87
(2) Convention No. 90
(3) Convention No. 121
(4) Convention No. 147
28. Examine the following statements about span of control and identify the ones which are true ?
a. More task complexity requires narrower span of control.
b. Routine tasks can have greater span of control than Exceptional tasks.
c. When tasks are dissimilar, then span of control can be larger.
d. Spans of control are generally narrower at the top and broader at the bottom of the hierarchy.
(1) a and b
(2) a, c and d
(3) b and d
(4) a, b and d
29. As per an amendment of the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 in 2010 who among the following have been included for getting medical benefits subject to payment of contribution and such other conditions as may be prescribed by the Central government ?
a. An insured person who has attained the age of superannuation.
b. An insured person who retires under a Voluntary Retirement Scheme.
c. An insured person who takes premature retirement
d. The spouse of the insured person.
(1) c and d only
(2) a, b and d only
(3) b, c and d only
(4) a, b and c only
30. Examine the following statements and identify the ones which are right and wrong :
a. Industrial relations as an activity is of recent origin.
b. Industrial relations as a field of study is of recent origin.
c. The early writings on industrial relations were mostly reflective of prevailing practices rather than theories and explanations.
d. Initially industrial relations subsumed all aspects of work, including problems and issues affecting both employers’ and workers’ organizations, and covered only unionized employment relations.
(1) b and d are right, a and c are wrong.
(2) only b is right, a, c and d are wrong.
(3) b, c and d are right and a is wrong.
(4) b and c are right a and d are wrong.
31. The Central Board for Workers’ Education was renamed in 2016 as
(1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Board for Workers’ Education and Development
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Central Board for Workers’ Education
(3) Dattopant Thengadi National Board for Workers’ Education and Development
(4) Dattopant Thengadi Central Board for Workers’ Education
32. The maximum permissible threshold limits of exposure of chemical and toxic substances in manufacturing processes are provided under which, Schedule of the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) The First Schedule
(2) The Second Schedule
(3) The Third Schedule
(4) The Fourth Schedule
33. Based on a series of studies on managerial decision making behaviour. Vroom and Yetton (1973) found evidence in support of which of the following propositions ?
a. Managers tend to be more participative when the quality of the decision is important.
b. Managers tend to be more participative when subordinate acceptance of the decision is critical for its effective implementation.
c. Managers tend to be less participative when they have all the necessary information to make a high quality decision.
d. Managers tend to be less participative when time is limited and immediate action is required.
Codes :
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b and d
34. Which of the following for the first time made provisions for compulsory rest interval of half an hour each day ?
(1) Factories Act, 1911
(2) Factories Act, 1891
(3) Factories Act, 1934
(4) Factories Act, 1948
35. Which of the following Central Labour Organisations voluntarily adopted the ‘Inter-union code of conduct’ in 1958 ?
(1) INTUC, AITUC, NFITU
(2) AITUC, NFL, BMS, NLO
(3) INTUC, AITUC, HMS, UTUC
(4) BMS, HMS, CITU, TUCC
36. MBTI is the most widely used instrument for personality analysis. Which of the following statements about MBTI is/are true/false ?
a. MBTI has 108 items
b. Sixteen personality types are generated by the instrument
c. MBTI has 100 items
d. Sixteen personality types are based on a combination of four basic elements of psyche.
e. MBTI was developed by a father-daughter team.
f. MBTI was developed by a mother-daughter team.
Codes :
(1) a, d and e are true
(2) b, c, d and f are true
(3) c, d and e are true
(4) a, b, e and f are true
37. An employee is employed in an industry on a wage of Rupees Eight Thousand and Five Hundred per month, which is fixed as the minimum wage as a scheduled employment by the appropriate Government. What is the amount of bonus he shall be entitled to, if it is to be paid at the minimum rate of 8.33% by the employer under the payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
(1) Rupees seven thousand only
(2) Rupees nine thousand only
(3) Rupees eight thousand and five hundred only
(4) Rupees three thousand and five hundred only
38. The inter-union code of conduct aims to
(1) Check Unfair Labour Practices
(2) Control Trade Union Rivalries
(3) Promote Labour Management Cooperation
(4) Promote collective bargaining in India
39. Which of the following are known as ‘Big Five’ dimensions of personality ?
Dimensions :
a. Extraversion f. Rule-consciousness
b. Dominance g. Self-reliance
c. Sensitivity h. Emotional Stability
d. Agreeableness i. Openness to experience
e. Conscientiousness j. Perfectionism
Codes :
(1) a, d, e, h and i
(2) a, e, h, b and j
(3) d, e, f, g and h
(4) a, d, g, i and j
40. Which of the following statements characterize the objectives of labour legislation ?
a. Improve the conditions of labour
b. To protect the rights of labour unions
c. To protect employers
d. To protect the public from possible excess on the part of organized labour
Codes :
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
41. In Britain if the Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services (ACAS) fails to settle the claims at its level, it must refer the same to
(1) Independent Arbitrator
(2) Board of Arbitration
(3) Central Arbitration Committee
(4) Industrial Tribunal
42. Match the sources of resistance (List – A) and the steps that can be taken to deal with such resistance (List – B) :
43. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with “Securing just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief” ?
(1) Article 42
(2) Article 41
(3) Article 46
(4) Article 38
44. Which of the following statements relating to ILO Declaration on Fundamental Principles is not correct ?
(1) The Declaration was adopted at the 86th Session of the International Labour Conference.
(2) The Declaration reiterates the binding nature of the ILO’s Philadelphia Declaration.
(3) The Declaration requires compliance of Convention Nos. 88 and 89 even by those countries that have not ratified the same.
(4) The Declaration requires compliance of convention No. 138 even by those countries that have not ratified the same.
45. Match the ‘Style of Leadership’ with the ‘numbers’, as they are denoted by, in Managerial Grid :
46. Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, nursing breaks are to be provided to every women who returns to duty after delivery of a child, until the child attains the age of
(1) Eighteen months
(2) Fifteen months
(3) Twelve months
(4) Twenty four months
47. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry was founded by
(1) G.D. Birla and Vallabhbhai Patel
(2) Purushottam Takkar and Mahatma Gandhi
(3) G.D. Birla and Purushottam Takkar
(4) Mahatma Gandhi and Vallabhbhai Patel
48. Process consultation, Confrontation Meetings, Organisational Mirroring and Team Building are commonly used as tools for
(1) Human Resource Accounting
(2) Human Resource Audit
(3) Recruitment Techniques
(4) OD Intervention
49. Under the Employee’s Compensation Act, 1923, the minimum amount of compensation payable to an employee suffering from permanent total disablement from the injury is
(1) Rupees one lakh and twenty thousand
(2) Rupees one lakh and ten thousand
(3) Rupees one lakh and forty thousand
(4) Rupees one lakh and seventy thousand
50. An employee working in an organization dies resulting from injury by an accident arising out of and in course of his employment. What is the amount of compensation his dependants are entitled to if his monthly wages was rupees eighteen thousand per month and the relevant factor is 186.90 under the Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923 ?
(1) Rs. 7,47,600
(2) Rs. 8,97,120
(3) Rs. 16,82,100
(4) Rs. 7,76,300
51. Match the following tests (List – A) with the tools used (List – B) for carrying out these tests :
52. Which of the following statements relating to Industrial Truce Resolution, 1962 is not correct ?
(1) The resolution was passed on December 12, 1962
(2) The Resolution was passed in a joint meeting of employers’ and workers’ representatives.
(3) Part IV of the Resolution referred to the price stability.
(4) Part V of the Resolution referred to the imperative need for increasing savings, particularly through contribution to the National Defence Fund and / or to investments in Defence Bonds.
53. The bipartite consultative machinery comprises
(1) Works committees and steering committee on wages
(2) Works committees and standing labour committee
(3) Joint management councils and works committees
(4) Joint management councils and standing labour committee
54. Blum and Naylor defined job satisfaction as “the result of various attitudes that the employee holds towards his/her job and organization on account of his/her experience (good or bad) in the organization and a feeling of contentment derived out of these attitudes. Lack of it is job dissatisfaction.”
Which of the following inferences cannot be considered as logical from the above definition ?
a. The job satisfaction comes out of various attitudes of employees towards their jobs and organisations.
b. The attitudes are formed by the employees’ good or bad experience in the organization.
c. The employees shall be content with their experiences in the organization; failing which job satisfaction will result.
d. Job satisfaction will be less if a person becomes an ‘isolate’ from the group.
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) c and d
(4) only d
55. Below given are four figures (List – I). Match them with the communication pattern (List – II).
56. The term ‘Blackleg’ refers to
(1) A worker who forcibly joins those who are on strike.
(2) A worker who continues to work when his/her co-workers in the establishment are on strike.
(3) A worker who wears black shoes while on duty.
(4) A supervisor who breathes on the necks of his/her subordinates.
57. As per the proceedings of the 46th Indian Labour Conference, 2015, the Government of India has proposed to enhance the overtime hours from the present limit of fifty hours, under the Factories Act, 1948 to
(1) Seventy five hours
(2) One hundred ten hours
(3) One hundred hours
(4) Ninety hours
58. Match the following effects List – I with their meanings given in List – II :
59. Richard P. Calhoon observed that “Grievance procedure is a control necessary for protecting the standards of the employee as discipline is the control necessary for preserving standards of the company”.
Which of the following inferences cannot be derived from the above statement ?
(1) Grievance procedure is a control on employer’s HR decisions.
(2) Disciplinary actions are control on employee’s work related conduct.
(3) Grievance redressal and disciplinary actions are inimical to one another.
(4) Grievance redressal and disciplinary actions as control mechanisms shall be handled through a due, just and judicious process.
60. Recently the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India has drafted a bill for regulating manufacturing factories employing less than 40 workers. The proposed name of the Bill is
(1) Small Factories (Facilitation and Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Services) Bill, 2015
(2) Small and Medium Factories Bill, 2015
(3) Small Factories (Conditions of services) Bill, 2015
(4) Medium and Small Factories (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Services) Bill, 2015
61. According to the provisions of the Unorganized Worker’s Social Security Act, 2008, which of the following schemes are deemed to be the welfare schemes under the Act ?
a. Janani Suraksha Yojana
b. National Family Benefit Scheme
c. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
d. Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme
e. Grameen Seekho and Kamao Scheme
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b and d
(3) c, d and e
(4) a, b, d and e
62. Which of the following is/are not a commonly used method of training ?
a. Buzzing
b. Regression
c. Role playing
d. Rationalisation
e. Brain Storming
f. Persuasion
Codes :
(1) b, d, f
(2) a, c, e
(3) d, e, f
(4) a, c, f
63. Assertion (A) : The MNCs had deeply entrenched themselves by the time unions realised the role of MNCs in spreading capitalism.
Reason (R) : For a pretty long time the international trade unions did not consider the MNCs as their natural opponents.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).
(3) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) does not explain (A).
64. Match the provisions given in List – I with the legislations they are covered given in List – II :
65. Assertion (A) : The unilateral HR decision making process partly gave way to negotiated decision making.
Reason (R) : Government norms and market forces imposed HR decisions.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) does not explain (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right ; and (R) explains (A).
66. In which year the ‘Change to Win Federation’ was formed in U.S.A. ?
(1) 2002
(2) 2003
(3) 2004
(4) 2005
67. Match the type of Managerial Decisions List – I with the examples given in List – II :
68. A workman working in an industry was demoted to a lower grade as a punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action. If the concerned workman intends to raise an industrial dispute on it, under which of the following conditions it shall be deemed to be an industrial dispute ?
a. If it is supported by a union in the establishment of which he is a member.
b. If it is supported by a minority union of the workmen in the establishment.
c. If it is supported by substantial number of workmen of the establishment in the absence of a union.
(1) Either a or b only
(2) Either a or c only
(3) Either b or c only
(4) a or b or c
69. Which of the following are the characteristic features of ‘social assistance’ ?
a. It is fully financed by the State.
b. Benefits provided under the scheme is for a short duration.
c. The Financial resources of social assistance scheme is for a short duration of time.
d. Social assistance is substitutive rather than supplemental to social insurance.
(1) a, b and d only
(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
70. Match the following inventions / processes in the field of industrial psychology (List – I) with their description (List – II) :
71. Indian Industrial Relations System can be considered as a mix of which of the following ?
a. North American MNCs’ strategic choice for union-free Industrial Relations System.
b. West European MNCs’ tradition of encouraging organized trade unions representing the employees’ interests.
c. Japanese MNCs’ preference for company promoted enterprise unions.
(1) only a
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c
72. What is the full form of ‘UBC’ in the context of trade union movement in U.S.A. ?
(1) United Brotherhood of Carpenters
(2) Union of Building and Construction workers
(3) Union of Buffalo Construction Inc.
(4) United Brotherhood of construction workers
73. The Deming Prize for Company Wide Quality Control (CWQC) is instituted by the
(1) International Organisation for Standardization (ISO)
(2) The Union of Japanese Scientists and Engineers (JUSE)
(3) CHEA International Quality Group.
(4) Institute of Quality and Control, Israel.
74. What is TQM ‘Kitemarks’ ?
(1) It is a set of TQM techniques.
(2) It is a set of TQM objectives.
(3) It is a set of TQM philosophies.
(4) It is a set of TQM awards.
75. Who among the following is/are workman under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
a. A person employed in a technical job draws wages of fifteen thousand rupees per month.
b. A person employed in a supervisory capacity draws wages of sixteen thousand rupees per month.
c. A person employed in a managerial or administrative capacity draws a salary of ten thousand rupees per month.
d. A person employed in a supervisory capacity draws wages of nine thousand rupees per month.
(1) a, b and d only
(2) a and d only
(3) a and b only
(4) a, c and d only
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