PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. “Administration is now so vast an area that a philosophy of administration came close to being a philosophy of life.” This statement was made by
(1) L.D. White
(2) Marshal Dimock
(3) Chester Barnard
(4) Willoughby
2. Consider the following statements regarding the public choice theory :
(i) It came into existence as a critique of Bureaucratic Model of administration.
(ii) It promotes democratic administration.
(iii) It locates Public Administration within the domain of politics.
(iv) It advocates for institutional monopoly.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
3. Which of the following is not a philosophical base for New Public Management ?
(1) New Public Administration
(2) Public Choice Theory
(3) New Liberal Ideology
(4) New Right Philosophy
4. Assertion (A) : Today public-private differences are fading.
Reason (R) : Public sector is increasingly penetrated by the metaphor of the market, of running government like a business.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
5. Behavioural approach makes a plea for
(i) micro level analysis
(ii) deductive reasoning
(iii) empirical study of data from the field
(iv) value free scientific method
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
(1) (i), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
6. While advocating specialization in the techniques of supervision, which of following is recommended by W.F. Taylor ?
(1) Functional Foremanship
(2) The one best way to perform a job
(3) Cooperation not Individualism
(4) Mental Revolution
7. In order to address the difficulties due to lack of coordination among various governmental institutions/agencies, the IIIrd Minnowbrook Conference introduced a new concept of
(1) Interoperability
(2) Boundary Spanning
(3) Interdisciplinary
(4) Supportive collaborative research
8. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding the features of Entrepreneurial government ?
(1) It is result-oriented
(2) It is market-oriented
(3) It promotes bureaucratic mechanism
(4) It is a catalytic government
9. Which of the following is not advocated by Herbert Simon ?
(1) Satisficing man
(2) Bounded Rationality
(3) Intelligence, Design and Choice Model
(4) Implicit favourite
10. Consider the following characteristics of Job Enrichment given by Herzberg. Select correct answer by using codes given below :
(i) It is concerned with internal motivation to work.
(ii) It designates a production and profit-oriented way of managing.
(iii) It is a means of making work experience meaningful for the people.
(iv) People are motivated by rewards, privileges or punishment.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
11. In which of the following area the Theory Y is not relevant in line-staff relationship ?
(1) Policy-making
(2) Line-staff conflicts of complex nature
(3) Team work at each level of organisation
(4) Managers who have both line and staff responsibilities
12. ‘Bureaucracy changes knowledge into secrecy and competence into mystery.’
Who attributed this idea ?
(1) Hegel
(2) Karl Marx
(3) Martin Albrow
(4) Peter Blau
13. Who among the following referred ‘Gopher Delegation’ and ‘Stewardship Delegation’ ?
(1) J.D. Millet
(2) Stephen R. Covey
(3) George R. Terry
(4) Albert K. Wickesberg
14. Assertion (A) : Moral and productivity are directly related.
Reason (R) : The motivation thinkers find solution of industrial problems in human psychology.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
15. In Leadership theory, the idea of ‘positive reinforcement’ was developed by
(1) Robert Blake
(2) Kurt Lewin
(3) B.F. Skinner
(4) Ralph White
16. Which of the following is not the approach to the concept of decentralisation as identified by James W. Fesler ?
(1) Doctrinal Approach
(2) Conceptual Approach
(3) Political Approach
(4) Administrative Approach
17. Who among the following deserves credit for making a beginning in the area of decisional studies in Comparative Public Administration ?
(1) Herbert Simon
(2) William Gore
(3) Martin Landau
(4) James March
18. Who among the following is called ‘the prophet of management’ ?
(1) M.P. Follett
(2) Frederick Taylor
(3) Henri Fayol
(4) Chester Barnard
19. Which of the following books are written by F.W. Riggs ?
(i) The Ecology of Administration.
(ii) Thailand : The Modernization of Bureaucratic polity.
(iii) Administration in Developing Countries : The Theory of Prismatic Society.
(iv) Models and priorities in the Comparative study of Public Administration.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
20. The institution of Parliamentary Commissioner in United Kingdom was established in which of the following year ?
(1) 1967
(2) 1991
(3) 2000
(4) 2005
21. ‘Filibustering tactics’ in USA mean
(1) Lobbying for Signing Treaty
(2) Delaying or Preventing the Passage of a Bill
(3) Passing a Financial Bill
(4) Preparing ground work for impeachment
22. Who is immediate successor to U.S. President if both the posts of President and Vice-President fall vacant ?
(1) Chief Justice of USA
(2) President Protempore (Senate)
(3) Secretary of State
(4) Speaker of the House of Representatives
23. Which of the following statements about Administrative System of U.S.A. is not correct ?
(1) Senate has 100 members.
(2) House of Representative has 435 members.
(3) The retirement age of a Judge of Supreme Court in U.S.A. is 75.
(4) The Legislature, Executive and Judiciary are separate at the State level also.
24. Which of the following is not a trend of Development Administration in the 1990s ?
(1) An enabling administration
(2) Micro-management
(3) Management culture
(4) Decentralization and Managerial autonomy
25. Which one of the following role designates bureaucracy as an agent of political development ?
(1) Provision of education and health services
(2) Working for the removal of untouchability
(3) Promoting cultural and sports activities
(4) Engaged in the welfare of labourers
26. In which year ‘Department of Financial Services’ under the Ministry of Finance was created ?
(1) 2005
(2) 2006
(3) 2007
(4) 2008
27. Which of the following subjects falls outside the exclusive power of the Union Government to levy taxes ?
(1) Customs Duty
(2) Toll Tax
(3) Capital Gains Tax
(4) Corporation Tax
28. Assertion (A) : To maintain the independence of action and the dignity of its position members of Parliament have certain privileges.
Reason (R) : A member of Parliament is exempted from arrest in any case during the continuance of a meeting of the chamber or committee and during period of 40 days before and after such meeting.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
29. Which of the following is not correct regarding the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(1) It is the coordinating agency of the Central Government in personnel matters.
(2) It is under the overall charge of the Prime Minister.
(3) It works for promotion of responsive and people oriented administration.
(4) It comprises of two Departments.
30. By which of the following procedure a member of Union Public Service Commission is removed on the grounds of misbehaviour ?
(1) By the President on the recommendation of Cabinet
(2) By the Impeachment of Parliament
(3) By the Chairman of UPSC
(4) By the President after enquiry and verdict of Supreme Court
31. Consider the following about ‘Sevottam’ and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(i) It is related with Benchmarking excellence in service delivery.
(ii) It focuses on improving the quality of services provided to citizens.
(iii) The nodal ministry for this is the ministry of Home Affairs.
(iv) It aims at speedy disposal of the grievances of citizens.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
32. Consider the following regarding the scope of personnel administration and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(i) Classification and Recruitment(ii)
Assessment and training needs
(iii) Performance evaluation and maintenance of service records
(iv) Appreciation, Rewards & Incentives
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
33. Which of the following are the components of Budget in India ?
(i) Revenue Receipts
(ii) Capital Receipts
(iii) Revenue Expenditure
(iv) Capital Expenditure
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(1) (i) & (iii)
(2) (ii) & (iii)
(3) (ii) & (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
34. According to 14th Finance Commission, which State got the highest amount as grant-in-aid for Revenue Deficit States (2015-2020) ?
(1) Jammu & Kashmir
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh
(4) West Bengal
35. Which of the following statements about the functions and role of the CAG are correct ?
(i) The scope and extent of audit is determined by the CAG.
(ii) CAG can carry out economy, efficiency and effectiveness audit.
(iii) CAG’s power to audit can be curtailed, conditional or prohibited under any law applicable to the Body or Authority.
(iv) CAG’s report is always subject to scrutiny by the Parliament.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
36. Which one of the following statements is wrong about Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council in India ?
(1) Prime Minister of India is ex-officio chairman of GST Council.
(2) Minister of State for Finance, Government of India is a member of GST Council.
(3) Finance Ministers of States are its members.
(4) Union Finance Minister is the Chairman of GST Council.
37. Which of the following statements regarding the Central Information Commissioners is incorrect ?
(1) They are appointed by the President of India.
(2) The Committee comprising of the Prime Minister, leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister recommends their names for appointment.
(3) They can be removed from the office on the like manner as that of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
(4) They hold office for a term of 5 years or upto the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
38. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Central Vigilance Commission ?
(1) It is a statutory body.
(2) It comprises of one chairperson and maximum 4 members.
(3) They are appointed on the recommendation of a committee comprising of Prime Minister, Home Minister and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
(4) It enjoys the powers of a Civil Court.
39. Which of the following is the correct ratio of Members taken in each of standing Departmental Committees of Parliament from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha respectively ?
(1) 21 and 10
(2) 15 and 10
(3) 24 and 8
(4) 16 and 8
40. Who among following has given the concept of ‘National Surveillance State’ ?
(1) Paul Krugman
(2) Jack Balkin
(3) Nandan Nilekani
(4) Wajahat Habibullah
41. Assertion (A) : Chief Secretary of a State is the king-pin of the Secretariat.
Reason (R) : He has absolute control over all the administrative officer of the State.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
42. Which one of the following is the nodal Ministry for National Human Rights Commission ?
(1) The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(2) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) The PMO
(4) The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
43. A model of Development does not relate to which one of the following factors ?
(1) Status quo
(2) Planning
(3) Innovation
(4) People orientation
44. Research concerning some natural phenomenon is an example of which of the following ?
(1) Descriptive research
(2) Analytical research
(3) Applied research
(4) Fundamental research
45. Which one of following sampling design is based on the ease of access of population elements to be selected for inclusion in the sample ?
(1) Judgement sampling design
(2) Accidental sampling design
(3) Convenience sampling design
(4) Area sampling design
46. Which of the following statements are correct regarding merits of interview method of data collection ?
(i) The method provides greater flexibility for obtaining information.
(ii) It helps in obtaining personal information in an easy manner.
(iii) The presence of interviewer sometimes over-stimulates the respondents.
(iv) Observation method can as well be applied to recording verbal answers.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
47. Who introduced the case study method to the field of social investigation ?
(1) William Healey
(2) Frederick Le Play
(3) Charles Hoston Cooley
(4) H. Odam
48. Which one of the following is incorrect regarding Right to Education ?
(1) Free and Compulsory Education to all Children (6 – 14 years).
(2) Inclusion of backward religious minorities children in private unaided schools.
(3) Seats in unaided private schools are reserved for inclusion at Grade I or pre-primary level.
(4) The rules for inclusion has been framed by State Governments.
49. Which of the following is not correct regarding the functions of National Commission for Protection of Child Right ?
(1) To examine and analyse the laws and safeguards for protection of children.
(2) To enquire into the cases of violation of child rights and make suitable recommendations in such cases.
(3) To enquire into cases pending before the State Commission for Child Rights.
(4) To promote research activities in area of child rights.
50. Which of the following statements about civil society organization are correct ? Answer by using codes given below :
(i) They play an active and constructive role in political life.
(ii) They can create opportunities for the people to gain participatory experience.
(iii) They make laws for social development.
(iv) They help foster honest, transparent, democratic and accountable governance.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(2) (ii), (iii), & (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iv)
51. “The public and the private sector has to be integrated together. The Government’s object is not to build a monolithic state of socialism but to make people as partners in a common enterprise.” This statement was made by
(1) T.T. Krishnamachari
(2) J.L. Nehru
(3) S.S. Khera
(4) Narendra Modi
52. Which of the following measures formed part of the new economic policy, 1991 ?
(i) Devaluation
(ii) Disinvestment
(iii) Foreign Direct Investment
(iv) Extension of facilities available to foreign investors to the Non-Resident Indians.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
53. The advantages of globalization include which of the following ?
(i) It has created consumer friendly environment.
(ii) It has enabled Indian companies to find international market.
(iii) It has facilitated increased flow of investment from developed to developing countries.
(iv) Technological development has resulted in reverse brain-drain in developing countries.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), & (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(4) (iii) & (iv)
54. Select the correct objectives of International Monetary Fund by using codes given below from following :
(i) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation.
(ii) IMF facilitates expansion of balanced growth of international trade.
(iii) Laying down commonly accepted code of conduct with view to reducing trade barriers.
(iv) IMF promotes exchange stability.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv)
55. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
56. Which of the following is not the objective of Rural development in India ?
(1) Changing the attitude of the people towards the development of the rural community.
(2) Establishment of grass-root democracy with Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(3) Fulfilment of basic needs.
(4) Strengthening Political Leadership at the State level.
57. Which of the following statements about the funding pattern of Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) are correct ?
(i) The Centre bears 75% and the States share 25% of the expenditure.
(ii) 90% funds are provided by Centre in case of the North-East States while 10% is born by the N-E State.
(iii) The Ratio of sharing the fund is 50 : 50 between the Centre and the States.
(iv) The ratio of sharing the funds between the Centre and the North-East States is 70 : 30 percent.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
58. Which of the following does not form part of the recommendations of the second administrative reforms commission as measures to ensure accountability and transparency at the local government level ?
(1) Creation of a separate standing committee of the State legislature for the local bodies to function in the manner of a Public Accounts Committee.
(2) A mechanism to assess the performance of local bodies involving there in citizens’ participation.
(3) Constitution of Audit Committees at the district level to exercise oversight.
(4) Empowering the State Finance Commission to allocate grants to the Zila Parishads.
59. Rural development programmes can be categorized in which of the following categories ?
(i) Programmes for self-employment and wage employment.
(ii) Programmes for rural infrastructure and minimum basic needs.
(iii) Programmes for natural resource management.
(iv) Programmes for social security.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)
60. The Multi-state Co-operative Societies Act was passed by Parliament in which of the following year ?
(1) 2000
(2) 2001
(3) 2002
(4) 2003
61. Assertion (A) : A statement by government what it intends to do such as law, regualtion, decision, order or a combination of these, is known as policy.
Reason (R) : The lack of policy statement may also be an implicit statement of policy.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
62. Who wrote ‘Politics : Who Gets What, When, How’ ?
(1) Harold D. Lasswell
(2) John Rawls
(3) B. Guy Peters
(4) Jackie Calms
63. Which one of the following theories believes that people are passive, apathetic and ill informed about public policy ?
(1) Group Theory
(2) Elite Theory
(3) Institutional Theory
(4) Game Theory
64. Who is the key proponent of the bottom-up approach of policy implementation ?
(1) Richard Elmore
(2) Carl Van Horn
(3) Donald Van Meter
(4) Daniel Mazmanian
65. The term “backward mapping” refers to
(1) Top-Down approaches to policy implementation
(2) Bottom-up approaches to policy implementation
(3) Third Generation of policy implementation approaches
(4) A way of studying policy designs
66. Assertion (A) : Public policy refers to the action and intentions of the government.
Reason (R) : The intentions in real sense determine the action of the government.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
67. Which of the following statements are correct regarding bureaucracy ?
(a) Collective name given to the body of employees.
(b) Body of officials in authority relationship within an organization.
(c) Comprises of appointed employees only.
(d) Employees of autonomous corporations are also said to belong to the bureaucracy.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
68. Training under Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gramin Kaushalya Yojana includes :
(i) Generic Training
(ii) Trade Specific Training
(iii) On the Job Training
(iv) Long-term training of 5 years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (iii), (iv)
69. Failure of community development programmes in India can be attributed to which of the following causes ? Answer by using codes given below :
(i) Uneven distribution of the benefits of the programme.
(ii) Untrained personnel.
(iii) Lack of functional responsibility.
(iv) Absence of clearly defined priorities in the programme.
Codes :
(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(2) (iii) & (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) & (iv)
70. Which of the following is not a part of the implementation model of the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya-Gramin Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) ?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) DDU-GKY Skills State Missions
(3) Project Implementation Agency
(4) Block Development Officer
71. Which of the following statements about MUDRA Bank are correct ?
(i) It is a financial institution in India under Public-Private partnership.
(ii) It provides loans at low rates to small entreprneurs.
(iii) It is an institution for micro-financing.
(iv) The bank will have an initial corpus of Rs. 20,000 crore and a credit guarantee fund of Rs. 3,000 crore.
Select the correct answer by using code given below :
Codes :
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
72. Which of the following statements about Economic Management Commission are correct ?
(i) It was constituted by a resolution of the government of India on 4th September, 2014.
(ii) It was created by an Act of Parliament.
(iii) It is concerned with review of budgetting process.
(iv) It is to suggest ways to improve allocative efficiencies in the existing expenditure classification system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
73. Assertion (A) : Balance of power between elected wing and Executive wing at the level of urban local bodies should be equal.
Reason (R) : This will ensure better working together towards a common development goal of the city.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
74. Which of the following is not a subject of 12th Schedule of Indian Constitution ?
(1) Public Amenities
(2) Regulation of Slaughter houses
(3) Planning for economic and social development
(4) Public Distribution System
75. Assertion (A) : Urban Local Bodies suffer from empowerment deficit.
Reason (R) : There is promise-performance gap in the capacity building of urban local bodies.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
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