COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. The definitions in an XML document are said to be __________ when the tagging system and definitions in the DTD are all in compliance.
(1) well-formed
(2) reasonable
(3) valid
(4) logical
2. Consider the JavaScript Code :
If M is the number of alert dialog boxes generated by this JavaScript code and D1, D2, …., DM represents the content displayed in each of the M dialog boxes, then :
(1) M=3; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”; D3 displays ”12”.
(2) M=3; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”; D3 displays ”6”.
(3) M=2; D1 displays ”6”; D2 displays ”12”.
(4) M=2; D1 displays ”12”; D2 displays ”6”.
3. What is the output of the following JAVA program ?
(1) 12 : 15
(2) 15 : 12
(3) 12 : 12
(4) 15 : 15
4. What is the output of the following ‘C’ program ? (Assuming little – endian representation of multi-byte data in which Least Significant Byte (LSB) is stored at the lowest memory address.)
(1) 5, 2, 1282
(2) 5, 2, 52
(3) 5, 2, 25
(4) 5, 2, 517
5. Given below are three implementations of the swap( ) function in C++ :
Which of these would actually swap the contents of the two integer variables p and q ?
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (c) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
6. In Java, which of the following statements is/are True ?
S1 : The ‘final’ keyword applied to a class definition prevents the class from being extended through derivation.
S2 : A class can only inherit one class but can implement multiple interfaces.
S3 : Java permits a class to replace the implementation of a method that it has inherited. It is called method overloading.
Code :
(1) S1 and S2 only
(2) S1 and S3 only
(3) S2 and S3 only
(4) All of S1, S2 and S3
7. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
P : C programming language has a weak type system with static types.
Q : Java programming language has a strong type system with static types.
Code :
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
8. A graphic display system has a frame buffer that is 640 pixels wide, 480 pixels high and 1 bit of color depth. If the access time for each pixel on the average is 200 nanoseconds, then the refresh rate of this frame buffer is approximately :
(1) 16 frames per second
(2) 19 frames per second
(3) 21 frames per second
(4) 23 frames per second
9. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding the solution to the visibility problem in 3D graphics ?
S1 : The Painter’s algorithm sorts polygons by depth and then paints (scan – converts) each Polygon on to the screen starting with the most nearest polygon.
S2 : Backface Culling refers to eliminating geometry with backfacing normals.
Code :
(1) S1 only
(2) S2 only
(3) Both S1 and S2
(4) Neither S1 nor S2
10. Consider the matrix 
representing a set of planar (2D) geometric transformations in homogeneous coordinates. Which of the following statements about the matrix M is True ?
(1) M represents first, a scaling of vector (2, 1) followed by translation of vector (1, 1)
(2) M represents first, a translation of vector (1, 1) followed by scaling of vector (2, 1)
(3) M represents first, a scaling of vector (3, 1) followed by shearing of parameters (−1, 1)
(4) M represents first, a shearing of parameters (−1, 1) followed by scaling of vector (3, 1)
11. Assume the following regarding the development of a software system P :
– Estimated lines of code of P : 33, 480 LOC
– Average productivity for P : 620 LOC per person-month
– Number of software developers : 6
– Average salary of a software developer : Rs 50,000 per month
If E, D and C are the estimated development effort (in person-months), estimated development time (in months), and estimated development cost (in Rs Lac) respectively, then (E, D, C)=_________.
(1) (48, 8, 24)
(2) (54, 9, 27)
(3) (60, 10, 30)
(4) (42, 7, 21)
12. Match the following in Software Engineering :
13. Which one of the following is not typically provided by Source Code Management Software ?
(1) Synchronisation
(2) Versioning and Revision history
(3) Syntax highlighting
(4) Project forking
14. A software system crashed 20 times in the year 2017 and for each crash, it took 2 minutes to restart. Approximately, what was the software availability in that year ?
(1) 96.9924%
(2) 97.9924%
(3) 98.9924%
(4) 99.9924%
15. Match the 5 CMM Maturity levels/CMMI staged representations in List- I with their characterizations in List-II :
16. Coupling is a measure of the strength of the interconnections between software modules.
Which of the following are correct statements with respect to module coupling ?
P : Common coupling occurs when one module controls the flow of another module by passing it information on what to do.
Q : In data coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another through parameters.
R : Stamp coupling occurs when modules share a composite data structure and use only parts of it.
Code :
(1) P and Q only
(2) P and R only
(3) Q and R only
(4) All of P, Q and R
17. A software design pattern often used to restrict access to an object is :
(1) adapter
(2) decorator
(3) delegation
(4) proxy
18. Reasons to re-engineer a software include :
P : Allow legacy software to quickly adapt to the changing requirements
Q : Upgrade to newer technologies/platforms/paradigm (for example, object-oriented)
R : Improve software maintainability
S : Allow change in the functionality and architecture of the software
Code :
(1) P, R and S only
(2) P and R only
(3) P, Q and S only
(4) P, Q and R only
19. Which of the following is not a key strategy followed by the clean room approach to software development ?
(1) Formal specification
(2) Dynamic verification
(3) Incremental development
(4) Statistical testing of the system
20. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
P : Refactoring is the process of changing a software system in such a way that it does not alter the external behavior of the code yet improves the internal architecture.
Q : An example of refactoring is adding new features to satisfy a customer requirement discovered after a project is shipped.
Code :
(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) Both P and Q
(4) Neither P nor Q
21. The solution of the recurrence relation
T(m) = T( 3m 4) + 1 is :
(1) θ (lg m)
(2) θ (m)
(3) θ (mlg m)
(4) θ (lglg m)
22. Consider the array A=<4, 1, 3, 2, 16, 9, 10, 14, 8, 7>. After building heap from the array A, the depth of the heap and the right child of max-heap are _________ and _________ respectively. (Root is at level 0).
(1) 3, 14
(2) 3, 10
(3) 4, 14
(4) 4, 10
23. A hash function h defined h(key)=key mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the keys 44, 45, 79, 55, 91, 18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of key 18 ?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
24. Which of the following algorithms solves the single-source shortest paths ?
(1) Prim’s algorithm
(2) Floyd – Warshall algorithm
(3) Johnson’s algorithm
(4) Dijkstra’s algorithm
25. A text is made up of the characters A, B, C, D, E each occurring with the probability 0.08, 0.40, 0.25, 0.15 and 0.12 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of :
(1) 2.4
(2) 1.87
(3) 3.0
(4) 2.15
26. A binary search tree in which every non-leaf node has non-empty left and right subtrees is called a strictly binary tree. Such a tree with 19 leaves :
(1) cannot have more than 37 nodes
(2) has exactly 37 nodes
(3) has exactly 35 nodes
(4) cannot have more than 35 nodes
27. Match the following with respect to algorithm paradigms :
28. The maximum number of comparisons needed to sort 9 items using radix sort is (assume each item is 5 digit octal number) :
(1) 45
(2) 72
(3) 360
(4) 450
29. A 5-ary tree is tree in which every internal node has exactly 5 children. The number of left nodes in such a tree with 8 internal nodes will be :
(1) 30
(2) 33
(3) 45
(4) 125
30. Consider a Boolean function of ‘n’ variables. The order of an algorithm that determines whether the Boolean function produces a output 1 is :
(1) Logarithmic
(2) Linear
(3) Quadratic
(4) Exponential
31. Two finite state machines are said to be equivalent if they :
(1) Have the same number of edges
(2) Have the same number of states
(3) Recognize the same set of tokens
(4) Have the same number of states and edges
32. The finite state machine given in figure below recognizes :
(1) any string of odd number of a’s
(2) any string of odd number of b’s
(3) any string of even number of a’s and odd number of b’s
(4) any string of odd number of a’s and odd number of b’s
33. A pushdown automata behaves like a Turing machine when the number of auxiliary memory is :
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 1 or more
(4) 2 or more
34. Pushdown automata can recognize language generated by_________.
(1) Only context free grammar
(2) Only regular grammar
(3) Context free grammar or regular grammar
(4) Only context sensitive grammar
35. To obtain a string of n Terminals from a given Chomsky normal form grammar, the number of productions to be used is :
(1) 2n−1
(2) 2n
(3) n+1
(4) n2
36. Consider the following two Grammars :
Which of the following option is correct ?
(1) Only G1 is ambiguous
(2) Only G2 is ambiguous
(3) Both G1 and G2 are ambiguous
(4) Both G1 and G2 are not ambiguous
37. Context sensitive language can be recognized by a :
(1) Finite state machine
(2) Deterministic finite automata
(3) Non-deterministic finite automata
(4) Linear bounded automata
38. The set A={ 0n 1n 2n | n=1, 2, 3, ……… } is an example of a grammar that is :
(1) Context sensitive
(2) Context free
(3) Regular
(4) None of the above
39. A bottom-up parser generates :
(1) Left-most derivation in reverse
(2) Right-most derivation in reverse
(3) Left-most derivation
(4) Right-most derivation
40. Consider the following statements( ) :
S1 : There exists no algorithm for deciding if any two Turing machines M1 and M2 accept the same language.
S2 : The problem of determining whether a Turing machine halts on any input is undecidable.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(1) Both S1 and S2 are correct
(2) Both S1 and S2 are not correct
(3) Only S1 is correct
(4) Only S2 is correct
41. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames using a shared channel with a 200 Kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput of the system, if the system (all stations put together) produces 250 frames per second :
(1) 49
(2) 368
(3) 149
(4) 151
42. The period of a signal is 100 ms. Its frequency is _________.
(1) 1003 Hertz
(2) 10−2 KHz
(3) 10−3 KHz
(4) 105 Hertz
43. The dotted-decimal notation of the following IPV4 address in binary notation is _________.
10000001 00001011 00001011 11101111
(1) 111.56.45.239
(2) 129.11.10.238
(3) 129.11.11.239
(4) 111.56.11.239
44. Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) Advanced Mobile Phone System (AMPS) is a second generation cellular phone system.
(b) IS – 95 is a second generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS.
(c) The Third generation cellular phone system will provide universal personnel communication.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only
45. Match the following symmetric block ciphers with corresponding block and key sizes :
46. Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) Three broad categories of Networks are
(i) Circuit Switched Networks
(ii) Packet Switched Networks
(iii) Message Switched Networks
(b) Circuit Switched Network resources need not be reserved during the set up phase.
(c) In packet switching there is no resource allocation for packets.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
47. In Challenge-Response authentication the claimant ________.
(1) Proves that she knows the secret without revealing it
(2) Proves that she doesn’t know the secret
(3) Reveals the secret
(4) Gives a challenge
48. Decrypt the message “WTAAD” using the Caesar Cipher with key=15.
(1) LIPPS
(2) HELLO
(3) OLLEH
(4) DAATW
49. To guarantee correction of upto t errors, the minimum Hamming distance dmin in a block code must be ________.
(1) t+1
(2) t−2
(3) 2t−1
(4) 2t+1
50. Encrypt the Message “HELLO MY DEARZ” using Transposition Cipher with
(1) HLLEO YM AEDRZ
(2) EHOLL ZYM RAED
(3) ELHL MDOY AZER
(4) ELHL DOMY ZAER
51. At a particular time of computation, the value of a counting semaphore is 10. Then 12 P operations and “x” V operations were performed on this semaphore. If the final value of semaphore is 7, x will be :
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
52. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.40. The time required to access a page in secondary memory is equal to 120 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 15 ns. The average time required to access a page is ________.
(1) 105
(2) 68
(3) 75
(4) 78
53. In a multi-user operating system, 30 requests are made to use a particular resource per hour, on an average. The probability that no requests are made in 40 minutes, when arrival pattern is a poisson distribution, is _________.
(1) e−15
(2) 1−e−15
(3) 1−e−20
(4) e−20
54. Normally user programs are prevented from handling I/O directly by I/O instructions in them. For CPUs having explicit I/O instructions, such I/O protection is ensured by having the I/O instructions privileged. In a CPU with memory mapped I/O, there is no explicit I/O instruction. Which one of the following is true for a CPU with memory mapped I/O ?
(1) I/O protection is ensured by operating system routines.
(2) I/O protection is ensured by a hardware trap.
(3) I/O protection is ensured during system configuration.
(4) I/O protection is not possible.
55. Which UNIX/Linux command is used to make all files and sub-directories in the directory “progs” executable by all users ?
(1) chmod− R a+x progs
(2) chmod −R 222 progs
(3) chmod−X a+x progs
(4) chmod −X 222 progs
56. Which of the following statements are true ?
(a) External Fragmentation exists when there is enough total memory space to satisfy a request but the available space is contiguous.
(b) Memory Fragmentation can be internal as well as external.
(c) One solution to external Fragmentation is compaction.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
57. Page information in memory is also called as Page Table. The essential contents in each entry of a page table is/are _________.
(1) Page Access information
(2) Virtual Page number
(3) Page Frame number
(4) Both virtual page number and Page Frame Number
58. Consider a virtual page reference string 1, 2, 3, 2, 4, 2, 5, 2, 3, 4. Suppose LRU page replacement algorithm is implemented with 3 page frames in main memory. Then the number of page faults are_________.
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 10
59. Consider the following three processes with the arrival time and CPU burst time given in milliseconds :
Process Arrival Time Burst Time
P1 0 7
P2 1 4
P3 2 8
The Gantt Chart for preemptive SJF scheduling algorithm is _________.
60. In which of the following scheduling criteria, context switching will never take place ?
(1) ROUND ROBIN
(2) Preemptive SJF
(3) Non-preemptive SJF
(4) Preemptive priority
61. In RDBMS, which type of Join returns all rows that satisfy the join condition ?
(1) Inner Join
(2) Outer Join
(3) Semi Join
(4) Anti Join
62. Consider a relation book (title, price) which contains the titles and prices of different books. Assuming that no two books have the same price, what does the following SQL query list ?
(1) Titles of the six most expensive books.
(2) Title of the sixth most expensive books.
(3) Titles of the seven most expensive books.
(4) Title of the seventh most expensive books.
63. In a Hierachical database, a hashing function is used to locate the ________.
(1) Collision
(2) Root
(3) Foreign Key
(4) Records
64. Relations produced from E – R Model will always be in ________.
(1) 1 NF
(2) 2 NF
(3) 3 NF
(4) 4 NF
65. Consider the following schedules involving two transactions.
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to above ?
(1) Both S1 and S2 are conflict serializable.
(2) Both S1 and S2 are not conflict serializable.
(3) S1 is conflict serializable and S2 is not conflict serializable.
(4) S1 is not conflict serializable and S2 is conflict serializable.
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