FORENSIC SCIENCE
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Expert witness :
(1) is nowhere defined in law.
(2) Legally defined U/S 45 IEA (Indian Evidence Act).
(3) Legally defined U/S 176 Cr PC (Criminal Procedure Code).
(4) Legally defined U/S 320 IPC (Indian Penal Code).
2. Match the following :
3. The Principle of exchange was authored by which of the following ?
(1) Hans Gross
(2) Sir Francis Galton
(3) Henry Faulds
(4) Edmond Locard
4. In photography, high ISO numbers are used in which of the following ?
(1) High lighting conditions
(2) Low lighting conditions
(3) Average lighting conditions
(4) Conditions where flash is used
5. The “Innocence Project” with the purpose to re-examine post-conviction cases and to provide conclusive proof of guilt or innocence was first carried out in a university located at :
(1) London
(2) New York
(3) Amsterdam
(4) Delhi
6. Which of the following explosives was first prepared for medicinal use in 1899 ?
(1) RDX
(2) PETN
(3) ANFO
(4) HMX
7. In which language “Tswett” has published his work on chromatography for the first time ?
(1) French
(2) German
(3) Russian
(4) Dutch
8. In which year Sir Robert Robinson was awarded Noble Prize in Chemistry “for his investigation on plant products of biological importance, especially the alkaloids” ?
(1) 1946
(2) 1947
(3) 1948
(4) 1949
9. Oath is administered to a witness before recording his statement. What purpose does it serve?
(1) It puts the witness under fear of God, so that he speaks the truth.
(2) It is merely a relic of the past which serves no useful purpose today.
(3) It is done mainly to satisfy the lawyer of the opposite party.
(4) It makes a witness liable to perjury if he does not speak truth.
10. The term ‘Eddy Diffusion’ is used in which of the following analytical techniques ?
(1) Microscopy
(2) Chromatography
(3) Spectrophotometry
(4) Differential Thermal Analysis
11. Write the correct sequence for the set up of a HPLC system :
(a) Solvent reservoir
(b) Recorder
(c) Pump
(d) Guard Column
(e) Detector
(f) Injector
(g) Analytical column
Code :
(1) (a), (f), (c), (g), (d), (b), (e)
(2) (c), (a), (f), (g), (d), (e), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (f), (g), (d), (e), (b)
(4) (a), (c), (f), (d), (g), (e), (b)
12. Thermal Conductivity Detector in Gas-Chromatography consists of __________ identical filaments.
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Eight
13. Assertion (A) : Derivatization prior to gas chromatography is often desirable.
Reason (R) : It improves the thermal stability of compounds, particularly those containing polar functional groups.
Code :
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
14. Dark current is associated with which of the following ?
(1) Photomultiplier tube
(2) Diffraction grating
(3) Atomizer
(4) Band pass filter
15. In FTIR spectrophotometer DTGS detector operates at __________.
(1) Ambient temperature
(2) Liquid Nitrogen temperature
(3) Liquid Oxygen temperature
(4) Liquid Hydrogen temperature
16. In Neutron Activation Analysis, Crompton scattering results in which of the following ?
(1) Interference with the resulting signal
(2) Increase in peak intensity
(3) Increase in signal to noise ratio
(4) High resolution
17. In electrophoresis, with the increase in applied voltage there is also increase in flow of current.
The increase in flow of current results in :
(a) More generation of heat.
(b) Increase in buffer viscosity.
(c) Fast movement of ions.
(d) Works best with thermally instable compounds.
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) (b) and (d) are correct.
(3) (a) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
18. Performing electrophoresis on agarose gel where two electric fields are applied alternately at different angles for a defined time period, such an electrophoretic technique is known as :
(1) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
(2) Capillary electrophoresis
(3) Two dimensional gel electrophoresis
(4) Gradient gel electrophoresis
19. Many forensic scientists keep a hand magnifier with them for preliminary examination of some exhibits, such as tattooing around a gun-shot hole in clothes. In connection with hand magnifier, which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) The object is within ‘F’ of the lens and it forms large virtual image.
(2) The object lies between ‘F’ and ‘2F’ and real image is formed at a distance greater than ‘2F’.
(3) The object is at ‘2F’ and the image is also formed at ‘2F’.
(4) The object is beyond ‘2F’ and the image is formed between ‘F’ and ‘2F’.
Where ‘F’ stands for focal length of the hand magnifier.
20. Polarising microscope has been used to study which of the following ?
(1) Density of soil particles
(2) Texture of soil particles
(3) Presence of humus in soil
(4) Presence of some minerals in soil
21. Which of the following reagents are used for precipitating DNA ?
(1) Ethanol
(2) Methanol
(3) Chloroform
(4) Phenol
22. STR DNA analysis can help in determining which of the following ?
(1) Age of an individual
(2) Race of an individual
(3) Sex of an individual
(4) Height of an individual
23. Assertion (A) : In cases of mass disaster involving very high temperature incidents, teeth is considered most suitable material for DNA analysis.
Reason (R) : Cellular material present in the pulp cavity may remain unaffected by the extreme conditions.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(3) (A) is correct but not (R).
(4) (R) is correct but not (A).
24. Which of the following is correct about the DNA finger print pattern of a child ?
(1) It is exactly similar to the DNA finger print pattern of both the parents.
(2) 50% bands of DNA finger print pattern of the child will be similar to mother and rest similar to father.
(3) 100% similar to the father’s DNA finger print pattern.
(4) 100% similar to the mother’s DNA finger print pattern.
25. Which of the following techniques is used in DNA finger printing ?
(1) Northern Blotting
(2) Western Blotting
(3) Flow Cytometry
(4) Southern Blotting
26. Which of the following methods is used to locate specific gene in chromosomes ?
(1) In situ hybridization
(2) Colony hybridization
(3) Dot blot technique
(4) Western Blotting
27. Which of the following may be categorised as immunogens ?
(a) Hapten S
(b) Antigen A
(c) Anti Rh
(d) Antigen B
Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
28. Which of the following test is used to determine the blood group from a blood stain ?
(1) Haemin crystal test
(2) Kastle-Meyer test
(3) Lattes crust method
(4) Luminol spray test
29. The restriction enzymes were discovered by which of the following scientists ?
(1) Watson and Crick
(2) Boyer and Cohen
(3) Nathan, Arber and Smith
(4) Jacob and Monad
30. Which of the following can distinguish human salivary amylase and human pancreatic amylase ?
(1) Starch-iodine assay
(2) Phadebas assay
(3) RNA based assay
(4) Use of anti human salivary amylase antibodies
31. Cyanide derived from antimortem toxic exposure may be lost rapidly with advanced decomposition of the body. Still in which of the undermentioned organ toxicologically significant levels of cyanide may be found ?
(1) Heart
(2) Kidney
(3) Spleen
(4) Lungs
32. N-demethylation of cocaine gives which of the following metabolite ?
(1) Ecgonine methyl ester
(2) Benzoyl ecgonine
(3) Cocaethylene
(4) Norcocaine
33. Match the THC content in cannabis plant parts :
34. Which of the following drugs of abuse is over 100 times as potent as morphine ?
(1) Fentanyl
(2) Psilocybin
(3) Mescaline
(4) Mandrex
35. Pristane and Phythane are present only in which of the following ?
(1) Gasoline
(2) Heavy petroleum distillate
(3) Light petroleum distillate
(4) Medium petroleum distillate
36. Heneicosane is a characteristic component of which of the following ?
(1) Kerosene
(2) Diesel
(3) Petrol
(4) Aviation Fuel
37. Denarcotized opium is prepared by treating opium with which of the following ?
(1) Petroleum ether
(2) Chloroform
(3) Benzene
(4) Acetone
38. After smoking of the opium the left out residue is known as __________.
(1) Raw opium
(2) Opium Dross
(3) Prepared opium
(4) Deodorized opium
39. Toddy is manufactured from which of the following ?
(1) Rice
(2) Palm
(3) Wheat
(4) Molasses
40. Pyknometer method is used to estimate which of the following property of alcoholic beverage?
(1) Ethyl alcohol content
(2) Total acidity
(3) Volatile acidity
(4) Higher alcohol content
41. For the extraction of metallic poison from viscera dry ashing method is not recommended for which of the undermentioned element ?
(1) Copper
(2) Mercury
(3) Lead
(4) Cadmium
42. Name the colour test in which the reagent is made up of Selenous acid :
(1) Mecke’s test
(2) Marqui’s Test
(3) Van-Urk’s Test
(4) Chen’s Test
43. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
44. Parathion is metabolised to which of the following ?
(1) p-nitrophenol and diethyl phosphate
(2) o-nitrophenol and ethyl phosphate
(3) o-nitrophenol and methyl phosphate
(4) m-nitrophenol and dimethyl phosphate
45. Blackening around gun-shot holes is clothes, means :
(1) Deposit of smoke
(2) Deposit of lead vapours
(3) Deposit of black powder
(4) Lead ring / Dirt ring around the hole
46. Assertion (A) : The firing – pin marks found on a fired cartridge case by a hammerless shotgun are both impressed and striated.
Reason (R) : In a hammerless shotgun, the hammers are hidden from view and move to cocked position when the breech end of the barrel is moved upward for re-loading.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
47. Florence test for the detection of seminal stains depends on the formation of :
(1) Choline iodide
(2) Hematin
(3) Seminal vesicle specific antigen
(4) Creatine phospho kinase
48. Regarding Gustafson’s method :
(a) It can be used to estimate age in both living and dead.
(b) It can be used to estimate age only in living.
(c) One of the criterias are secondary dentin formation.
(d) Single most reliable criteria is root transparency.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (b) are correct.
49. Stack’s method is used for :
(1) determination of age from size and weight of teeth.
(2) determination of sex from size and weight of teeth.
(3) Corroborating the age estimated by Gustafson’s method.
(4) determination of age from long bones.
50. Outermost layer of hair is known as :
(1) Medulla
(2) Cortex
(3) Cuticle
(4) Pigment layer
51. Consider the following statements regarding Coir :
(a) Comes from husk of coconut.
(b) Dark brown or opaque.
(c) Chemical tests for lignin are negative.
(d) Very light and elastic fibre.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (b) are correct.
52. Assertion (A) : Urine stains can be detected by radio immuno assay.
Reason (R) : Urine contains a high molecular weight glycoprotein Tamm – Horsfall Protein (THP).
In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
53. Which type of finger print pattern among the following pattern types is found to be the most common ?
(1) Tented arch
(2) Central pocket loop
(3) Twinned Loop
(4) Whorl
54. Assertion (A) : Evidence with individual characteristics can lead to the determination of common origin/single source.
Reason (R) : Sufficient number of individual characteristics common in questioned and standard writings leads to the opinion of common origin.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(3) (A) is correct, but not the (R).
(4) (R) is correct, but not the (A).
55. Z comes home unexpectedly and sees his wife in bed with Y. He becomes enraged and kills Y with a scissors, which he finds on the table nearby. Which of the following crimes Z has commited ?
(1) Death by rash and negligent act.
(2) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(3) Culpable homicide amounting to murder.
(4) Voluntary causing of grievous hurt.
56. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) at autopsy may be removed by :
(a) Lumbar Puncture
(b) Withdrawing fluid from cisterna magna
(c) Puncturing the lateral ventricles directly
(d) Passing a plastic catheter in the brain through the nose.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (b) are correct.
57. Which of the following chemical treatment results in white appearance of latent finger prints ?
(1) Iodine fuming
(2) Super glue fuming
(3) Ninhydrin treatment
(4) Crystal violet treatment
58. ‘Sear’ is a part of which of the following ?
(1) Lock of firearm
(2) Barrel of firearm
(3) Stock of firearm
(4) Ammunition
59. The muzzle-velocity of bullet fired from AK-47 Assault rifle is :
(1) Less than 2000 ft/sec.
(2) More than 3000 ft/sec .
(3) Lies between 2500 and 3000 ft/sec.
(4) Lies between 2250 and 2500 ft/sec.
60. Consider following statements about hanging :
(a) Masochistic hanging is a form of suicidal hanging.
(b) Lynching is a form of accidental hanging.
(c) Suicidal hanging is the commonest mode of hanging.
(d) Another name for sexual hanging is Kotzwarrism.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (b) are correct.
61. Consider following statements regarding cause of death in hanging :
(a) Asphyxia is the main cause of death in complete hanging.
(b) Occlusion of neck blood vessels is the main cause in incomplete hanging.
(c) Reflex vagal inhibition theory is no more considered a common cause of death in hanging.
(d) Commonest cause of death in hanging is combined asphyxia and venous congestion.
Code :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
(2) (a) and (c) are correct.
(3) (c) and (d) are correct.
(4) (a) and (b) are correct.
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