POLITICAL SCIENCE
PAPER – II
Note : This paper contains hundred (100) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
1. Which one of the following statements is not correct in case of Kautilya ?
(1) He was the first to make political economy an independent subject.
(2) He propounded a theory of politics which dealt with immediate practical concerns of polity.
(3) He is credited with being the founder of nitisastra tradition.
(4) For the first time he emphasised the need for a strong political control in India.
2. Who among the following said that the Republic pictures a utopia not because it is a romance but because plato intended it to be the start of a scientific attack upon the “idea of the good” ?
(1) G.H. Sabine
(2) Dunning
(3) E. Barker
(4) Ebenstein
3. Who among the following said that in order of time state is latter than the family or the individual, but in order of nature, prior to them ?
(1) Cephalus
(2) Thrasymachus
(3) Aristotle
(4) Lacophon
4. For Locke which of the following is not true in case of social contract ?
(1) Contract, once made, is irrevocable
(2) Contract to which each generation must not consent
(3) Contract in which men give up some of the rights they possessed in the state of nature
(4) Contract does not put an end to the Law of Nature
5. For Rousseau which one of the following is not true ?
(1) For man’s self-love, which satisfies his real needs, is only too apt to become pride.
(2) Pride becomes incompatible with sympathy.
(3) From pride all evil has grown.
(4) Pride does not seduce reason.
6. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : For J.S. Mill will is the basis of all institutions including the state.
Reason (R) : Will is not only dependent on number, it has a qualitative foundation and the Will which makes the institutions takes on the form of a belief.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
7. Match the List – I (Sources) and List – II (Ideas) which influenced Gandhi and select the correct answer from the code given below :
8. Who among the following had started two weeklies, the Karmayogin and the Dharma ?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Aurobindo
(3) Ranade
(4) Tilak
9. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) :
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : M.N. Roy did not accept Marx’s materialistic interpretation of history.
Reason (R) : It had an element of determinism and idealism.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
10. Who among the following said in the context of States Reorganisation Commission Report : “The Lambs are shorn of the wool” and “They are feeling the intensity of cold” ?
(1) J. Nehru
(2) B.R. Ambedkar
(3) B.N. Rau
(4) K.T. Shah
11. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Traditional political theory is prescriptive and normative.
(2) Behavioural political theory concerned with uniformities and regularities.
(3) Post-behavioural political theory is tied to action and relevancy.
(4) Post-behavioural political theory is not holistic.
12. Which one of the following contentions of Isaiah Berlin is not true in the context of resurgence of political theory (political philosophy) ?
(1) Politics exists in a society where ends collide. In a liberal order political theory can never see its end.
(2) The responsibility for causing decline of political theory should be laid on rank empiricists who have displaced classical tradition.
(3) Political theory shall continue to exist as a result of the inquisitive and rational inquiry of man.
(4) He is sheptical about the resurgence of political theory (philosophy).
13. Who among the following conceived society as a ‘Cooperative venture for mutual advantage’, more or less self-sufficient, and necessarily governed by rules ?
(1) Robert Nozick
(2) Friedrich Hayek
(3) John Rawls
(4) Karl Marx
14. Who among the following has written the article “The Zigzag of Politics” ?
(1) John Rawls
(2) H.A. Hayek
(3) R. Nozick
(4) J. Habermas
15. Who among the following is not a proponent of commuritarianism ?
(1) Alasdair Maclntyre
(2) Michael Sandel
(3) Michael Walzer
(4) Friedrich Hayek
16. Which of the following are the features of democracy ?
(a) Democracy requires political equality.
(b) All citizens must be entitled to stand for election regardless of race, sex, colour or religion.
(c) All citizens must possess a vote (universal adult franchise).
(d) Political equality means ‘one person one vote, one vote one value’.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
17. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
18. Which of the following are features of Marx’s theory of surplus value ?
(a) It is an extension of Ricardo’s theory.
(b) Labour power equals the brain, muscle and nerve of the labourer.
(c) The value of every commodity is not proportional to the quantity or labour contained in it.
(d) The worker must be paid a price proportional to the number of Labour hours that entered into its production.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
19. Which of the following are Lenin’s contribution to Marxist theory ?
(a) His theory of the party as ‘the vanguard of the proletariat’ which guides the masses both before and after the revolution.
(b) His theory or capitalist imperialism, which he held to constitute the intermediary stage of capitalism.
(c) His version for the reconstruction of the world’s first proletarian state.
(d) His theory of the strategy and tactics of revolution.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
20. Which one of the following is not a feature of ideology ?
(1) A political belief system
(2) An action-oriented set of political ideas
(3) The world view of a particular social class or social group
(4) The political ideas that do not embody or articulate class or social interests
21. Who among the following described comparative politics as primarily concerned with “parties, interests and leadership structure” ?
(1) Gabriel Almond
(2) Sigmund Neuman
(3) Roy C. Macridis and Ward
(4) M.G. Smith
22. Who was the author of the book “The Presidential Republic” ?
(1) Jean Blondel
(2) Dorothy Pickles
(3) Walter Bagehot
(4) E.H. Carr
23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the code :
Assertion (A) : Systems approach to comparative politics believes in the balance between the input structure and the output structure to maintain the equilibrium.
Reason (R) : Systems approach is criticised as a ‘status quoist’ model.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
24. Arrange the interest groups as given by Gabriel Almond in sequential order :
(a) Institutional groups
(b) Non-associational groups
(c) Associational groups
(d) Anomic groups
Code :
(1) (c), (b), (d), (a)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (b), (d), (a), (c)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
25. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Chartist Movement – Demand for Manhood suffrage in England.
(2) Philadelphia Convention – Declaration of independence and signing of the Constitution in US.
(3) Mayflower Compact – Abolition of Slavery in US.
(4) 1832 Reform Act – Changes in the electoral system of Britain.
26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Many Afro-Asian nations emerged independent after World War II.
Reason (R) : Absence of economic developmental largely tended to make their independence more formal than substantive.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched ?
(1) Political Continuity and change – Peter H. Merkil
(2) Comparative Politics Today – S.P. Huntington
(3) The Man on the Horseback – Samuel Finer
(4) Modern Political Systems : Asia – R.C. Macridis
28. Which of the following are true regarding a revolution ?
(a) Change of Constitution
(b) One ruling elite is replaced by another
(c) Transformation in Political Institutions
(d) Fundamental change in the Socio-economic and political structures
Code :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
29. Which of the following are true regarding a Unitary System of Government ?
(a) It is most effective in protecting the unity and integrity of the nation.
(b) Power is delegated to the local units for administrative convenience.
(c) There is single law making body.
(d) The local administrative units do not derive their power from the Constitution.
Choose the correct answer :
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only
30. Which of the following amendments of American Constitution laid down “Due process of law” relating to judicial scrutiny of legislative and executive actions :
(a) 4th Amendment
(b) 5th Amendment
(c) 14th Amendment
(d) 16th Amendment
Choose the correct answer from the below :
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
31. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Administrative Law – France
(2) Appointment of Judges for life – Switzerland
(3) Equal Representation of States – USA in the House of Senate
(4) Rule of Law – England
32. Who among the following described political development as “administrative and legal development” ?
(1) Paul Baron
(2) James S. Coleman
(3) Edward Shills
(4) Max Weber
33. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The system of democracy recognises the equality of all people and stands for the government of common people.
Reason (R) : It is commonly believed that government is largely controlled and managed by ‘power elite’.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
34. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(a) It is an iron cage of rule-based rational control.
(b) It is a key part of the “rational-legal authority.”
(c) Bureaucracy means “domination through knowledge” in the form of merit.
(d) It enjoys popular acceptability in a democracy.
Choose the correct answer from the below :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
35. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II by selecting the correct code :
36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Presidential system provides for a stable governance model for a full term.
Reason (R) : Centralization of power is inherent in presidential system.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
37. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II by selecting the correct answer from code :
38. Modernization is commonly understood as being analogous to :
(a) Westernization
(b) Europeanization
(c) Rise of Nation State System
(d) Industrialization
Choose the correct answer from the below :
(1) (c), (d)
(2) (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
39. Examine the following statements regarding the media :
(a) Print media is witnessing a marginalised role in contemporary democracies.
(b) Electronic media assumes a decisive role.
(c) Media is dispassionate and objective in all political systems.
(d) Instruments of media are controlled by the industrial and corporate groups.
Choose the correct answer from the below :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
40. Match the items of List – I with items of List – II by selecting the correct answer from the given code below :
41. Which of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1919 ?
(1) Provision for a bicameral legislature at the centre.
(2) The Legislative Assembly would have an elected majority and control over ministers.
(3) Communal representation was not only retained but extended.
(4) Enlarged the electorates both for provinces and emperial legislature.
42. Who amongst the following provided a link between pre and post independence institutional framework to study Indian politics ?
(1) Rajni Kothari
(2) Myron Weiner
(3) Morries Jones
(4) Paul R. Brass
43. Which of the following is true about the fundamental rights under Indian Constitution ?
(a) It is protected and enforced by the Constitution.
(b) It can be changed by the common legislative process.
(c) Supreme Court is the guardian of fundamental rights.
(d) All Constitutional rights are fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
45. Which of the following is not true about the amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 ?
(1) The Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(2) The Bill must be passed by special majority (2/3rd present and voting and more than 50% of the total membership).
(3) In case of disagreement between the Houses joint sitting may be called.
(4) The President is bound to give assent to the Bill duty passed and ratified.
46. Put the following Presidents of India since 1989 in their chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below :
K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, R. Venkatraman, Shankar Dayal Sharma, Pratibha Patil
Code :
(1) K.R. Narayanan, R. Venkatraman, Pratibha Patil, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma.
(2) R. Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Shankar Dayal Sharma, Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan.
(3) Pratibha Patil, K.R. Narayanan, Shankar Dayal Sharma, R. Venkatraman, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.
(4) R. Venkatraman, Shankar Dayal Sharma, K.R. Narayanan, A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, Pratibha Patil.
47. Which article of the Indian Constitution empower the Parliament to make provisions for a contingency when the offices of both the President and the Vice-President fall vacant by reasons of death, resignation, removal or otherwise ?
(1) Article 123
(2) Article 72
(3) Article 70
(4) Article 58
48. “India since 1989 has witnessed fewer abuses of power by Prime Ministers than the United Kingdom experienced under either Margaret Thatcher or Tony Blair”. Whose statement is this ?
(1) Atul Kohli
(2) Granville Austin
(3) James Manor
(4) Christophe Jafferlot
49. Who of the following regard the Supreme Court of India as having a dual personality – a legal institution and a public institution ?
(1) Granville Austin
(2) Upendra Baxi
(3) Madhav Khosla and Ananth Padmanabhan
(4) N. Robinson
50. Who calls Election Commission of India as an effective ‘bulwork of free and fair elections’ ?
(1) Alistair McMillan
(2) Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph
(3) R.P. Bhalla
(4) M. Katju
51. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
52. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
53. Who describes Indian federation as a “holding together federation and not a ‘coming together federation” ?
(1) P. Bardhan
(2) R.L. Watts
(3) Douglas Verney
(4) D.D. Basu
54. Which committee on Panchayati Raj in India takes of three phases : “The phase of ascendency The phase of stagnation and The phase of decline” ?
(1) Sadiq Ali
(2) L.M. Singhvi
(3) Asoka Mehta
(4) B.R. Mehta
55 The grounds on which President’s Rule has been imposed on the states in India are :
(a) If no stable government can be formed.
(b) If the Cabinet has lost majority and no other ministry commanding a majority in the Assembly can be formed at once.
(c) If the state government does not obey the directives given by the Union government or breakdown of federal structure.
(d) Corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
56. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
57. Which of the following have been discussed as crisis of India’s national unity by Paul R. Brass in his book The Politics of India since Independence ?
(a) Punjab
(b) The North East
(c) Casteism
(d) Kashmir
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
58. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Lant Pritchett Calls India a “flailing state.”
Reason (R) : The state in India appears to undertake highly complex takes with relative efficiency – such as running atomic weapons programme or regulating monetary policy – while struggling to perform more ordinary governance tasks – such as delivering basic health and education.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
59. Which one of the following Commissions was not related to Backward Classes ?
(1) Bakshi Commission
(2) Mandal Commission
(3) Havnoor Commission
(4) Shah Commission
60. “If Hume and other English liberals hoped to use Congress as a safety-valve, the Congress leaders hoped to use Hume as a lightening-conductor”. Who said this ?
(1) S.R. Mehrotra
(2) Sumit Sarkar
(3) Bipan Chandra
(4) Tapan Raychaudhuri
61. Who among the following was the first to advance the idea of worker’s participation in management ?
(1) Henry Fayol
(2) Herbert Simon
(3) F.W. Taylor
(4) Mary Parker Follet
62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
63. Which of the following are the features of New Public Management ?
(a) Contracting out
(b) Devolution of authority
(c) Focus on performance appraisal
(d) Focus on management
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
64. Who among the following has criticized classical theory as ‘homely proverbs, myths, slogans and pompous identities’ ?
(1) W.F. Willougbhy
(2) Luther Gulick
(3) Henri Fayol
(4) Herbert Simon
65. Who among the following said that behaviour in administration should be studied through psycho-analysis ?
(1) Alex Bavelas
(2) Orway Tead
(3) Abraham Maslow
(4) Chester Banard
66. The Hawthorne experiments belong to the era of :
(1) Mid 1930’s
(2) Late 1930’s
(3) Early 1920’s
(4) Late 1920’s
67. Who among the following described bureaucracy as “The continental nuisance” ?
(1) Max Weber
(2) Thomas Carlyle
(3) M. Crozier
(4) Karl Marx
68. ‘Unity of Command’ means :
(1) That the subordinate will have only one supervisor.
(2) That the subordinate will have more than one supervisor.
(3) That all the units are put under one head.
(4) That the work is divided among all the subordinates.
69. The Governor of a state in his capacity as Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory discharges his functions independently of :
(1) The President of India
(2) The Union Cabienet
(3) The Union Home Minister
(4) The State Council of Ministers
70. Which of the following are the factors determining the length of span of control ?
(a) Age of the organisation
(b) Personality of the supervisor
(c) Calibre of the subordinates
(d) Organisational structure
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
71. Which of the following are the benefits of E-governance ?
(a) It makes government more accountable.
(b) It minimises people’s participation in government affairs.
(c) It encourages bureaucratic tendencies.
(d) It lowers transaction costs.
(e) It helps in building trust between government and citizen.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (d) and (e)
72. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : According to Gleen Stahl, unless the recruitment is sound, there is very little hope for recruiting a first rate staff.
Reason (R) : He considers recruitment as the cornerstone of the whole public personnel structure.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
73. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Classical theory views organisation as a formal structure of authority based on Universal principles.
Reason (R) : Classical theory views human beings who run an organisation as mere cogs in the machine.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
74. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
75. The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts have resulted in :
(a) Transparency in the governance
(b) Accountability in governance
(c) Gender empowerment
(d) Deepening of democracy
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (c) and (d)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
76. After independence, the role of the District Magistrate has undergone a substantial change mainly due to :
(1) Political awakening
(2) The role of mass media
(3) Democratic decentralisation
(4) Periodical elections
77. The report ‘Right to Information : Master key to Good Governance’ was submitted by :
(1) The Sarkaria Commission
(2) Punchhi Commission
(3) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
78. Which one of the following Commissions/Committees/Thinkers has identified 27 modes of corruption ?
(1) Kautilya
(2) Vohra Committee
(3) Santhanam Committee
(4) Central Vigilance Commission
79. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(1) Fisrt Pay Commission
(2) Second Pay Commission
(3) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(4) Paul Appleby Report
80. Which of the following Commissions/Committees has identified ‘weak governance’ as the main reason for corruption in India ?
(1) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(2) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(3) Vohra Committee
(4) Santhanam Committee
81. Which one of the following is the sequential order of the following states becoming acknowledged nuclear powers ?
(1) America, Britain, Soviet Union, France and China
(2) America, Soviet Union, France, Britain and China
(3) Soviet Union, America, Britain, China and France
(4) America, Soviet Union, Britain, France and China
82. Which Chapter of the United Nations deals with the ‘Pacific Settlement of Disputes’ ?
(1) Chapter II
(2) Chapter III
(3) Chapter IV
(4) Chapter I
83. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The Cold War and decolonisation process had discouraged more active involvement by United Nations within state.
Reason (R) : States have national interest as its prime interest.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
84. India has signed strategic partnership agreements with :
(1) France, Russia, Iran and South Africa
(2) China, America, Britain and Argentina
(3) ASEAN, Japan, Australia and Tanzania
(4) Vietnam, Seychelles, Mongolia and Singapore
85. Consider the following statements with regard to India and ASEAN.
(a) India became Sectoral partner of ASEAN in 1992.
(b) Delhi Dialogue is on Politico-economic issues between ASEAN and India.
(c) India became Dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1996.
(d) India became summit level partner of ASEAN in 2000.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
86. Which of the following statements are true about SAARC ?
(a) Australia, America, Japan and Russia are observers.
(b) Promote and strengthen collective defense among member states.
(c) Indian become Secretary General of SAARC twice.
(d) The Second Summit of SAARC was held in India.
Choose the correct statement from code given below :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4)
(b), (c) and (d)
87. Who have argued that far from an objective reality, international politics is a ‘World of our making’ ?
(1) Realists
(2) Feminists
(3) Idealists
(4) Constructivists
88. Consider the following statements :
(a) India’s ‘Link West Policy’ is an attempt to reconnect to the Western World.
(b) ‘Project Mausam’ is an Indian initiative for maritime cooperation in Indian ocean region.
(c) ‘Operation Rahat’ was conducted by India to rescue Indians from Libya.
(d) India has become member of Shanghai’ cooperation organisation.
Choose the correct statements from the code given below :
(1) (c), (d) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and
(d) (4) (b) and (d)
89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : Security is a Contested Concept.
Reason (R) : Security is multidimensional in it’s realization.
Code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
90. Consider the following statements :
(a) OPEC was created at Riyadh conference in 1960.
(b) The charter of OAS was signed in 1948.
(c) Indonesia is a member of OPEC.
(d) Cuba is a member of OAS.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
91. Neo Liberals, from their Lockean Universe Seek to create international regimes that optimize the :
(1) Rational exploitation of nature
(2) Rational functioning of the state system
(3) Rational application of power
(4) Rational utilisation of weapons
92. Democratic peace theory has been largely associated with the writings of :
(1) Immanuel Kant and Voltaire
(2) Michael Doyle and Bruce Russett
(3) Thomas Christensen and Thomas Schelling
(4) Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru
93. Which one of the following is not part of the four main criteria set out by 1933 Montevideo Convention on the Rights and Duties of the state ?
(1) Capacity to enter into relations with other states
(2) A defined territory
(3) Strength to wage a war
(4) A permanent population
94. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
95. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Collective Security aims to defend the Status quo.
(2) Collective Security Operates in an institutional framework.
(3) The diffusion of Gulf crisis 1990-91 is a successful experiment of Collective Security.
(4) Collective Security and balance of power policy are compatible under usual circumstances.
96. Morgenthau’s classification of ideologies doesn’t include :
(1) Ideology of status quo
(2) Ideology of imperialism
(3) Ambiguous ideologies
(4) Ideology of hegemony
97. Which one of the following is not part of five global commons ?
(1) The High Seas
(2) The Climate System
(3) The Deep Ocean floor
(4) The Arctic region
98. Consider the following statements about arms control :
(a) It’s meant to build the security dilemma.
(b) It’s a defensive strategy in principle.
(c) It does take a peace without weapons stance.
(d) It aims at mutual security between partners and over stability.
Choose the correct statements from the code given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
99. Which one of the pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Realism – States
(2) Globalizm – Non state actors
(3) Dependency – Economic interests
(4) Feminism – Gender
100. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
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