UGC NET Exam June 2014 Labour Welfare and Industrial Relations Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

LABOUR WELFARE AND INSUTRIAL RELATIONS

Paper – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. According to Henry Fayol, which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Management is a part of Administration.

(B) Administration is a part of Management.

(C) There is no difference between Management and Administration.

(D) There is great difference between Management and Administration.

Ans: (C)

2. Which of the following is a long term plan regarding enterprise objectives, course of action and allocation of resources ?

(A) Mission

(B) Strategy

(C) Policy

(D) Programme

Ans: (B)

3. The tests to assess a person’s ability to undertake a particular type of work or to learn particular skills are called 

(A) Aptitude tests

(B) Knowledge tests

(C) Intelligence tests

(D) Attitude tests

Ans: (A)

4. Match the following styles related to managerial grid :

Ans: (C)

5. Match the following :

Ans: (D)

6. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a transformational leader ?

(A) Inspiring by communicating high expectations.

(B) Promoting intelligence and rationality.

(C) Treating employees individually. 

(D) Avoiding making decisions. 

Ans: (D)

7. Which of the following is a machinery for settlement of industrial disputes ?

(A) National Commission on Labour 

(B) Wage Board

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Standing Labour Committee

Ans: (C)

8. The New Economic Policy led to : 

(A) Weak bargaining power of workers’ unions.

(B) Strong union leadership.

(C) Decreased managerial militancy.

(D) Increased union membership.

Ans: (A)

9. Who was the first President of the Indian Federation of Labour ?

(A) M.N. Roy

(B) Jamna Das Mehta

(C) R.S. Ruirkar

(D) V.V. Giri

Ans: (B)

10. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees ‘just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief’ ?

(A) Article 41

(B) Article 42

(C) Article 43

(D) Article 45

Ans: (B)

11. A Certifying Officer under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act enjoys all powers of a Civil Court under the section 345 of Cr. P.C., 1973 for purposes of 

(A) receiving evidence, administering oaths but not for enforcing the discovery or production of documents.

(B) receiving evidence, administering oaths, enforcing attendance of witnesses and/or compelling discovery/production of documents.

(C) receiving evidence, enforcing attendance of witnesses compelling discovery/production of documents, but not enforcing attendance of witnesses. 

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (B)

12. 5 ‘S’ Japanese Model is associated with

(A) Quality Management

(B) Cost effective activities

(C) Housekeeping

(D) All the above

Ans: (C)

13. Assertion (A) : Labour migration has been accentuated by globalization. 

Reason (R) : Low unionization is both a cause and an outcome of migration.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) wrong.

(B) (A) is right and (R) validates (A).

(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(D) (A) is right, but (R) does not validate (A).

Ans: (D)

14. According to Robert F. Hoxie, the ‘Business Unionism’ is also known as 

(A) Friendly Unionism

(B) Uplift Unionism

(C) Predatory Unionism

(D) Bread and butter Unionism

Ans: (D)

15. Which of the following designations was suggested by the Royal Commission on Labour in its report ?

(A) Welfare Officer

(B) Labour Officer

(C) Personnel Officer

(D) All the above

Ans: (B)

16. Which of the following statements about the role of Government in Industrial Relations in India is not true ?

(A) The Government Continues to play a controller’s role.

(B) The Government moved away from the controller’s role to enabler’s role.

(C) The Government is generally reticent, if not reluctant, to dole out administrative clearances for lay offs, closures, or retrenchment.

(D) The Government has hardly made any efforts to shift its emphasis from conflict  resolution to conflict avoidance.

Ans: (B)

17. Which of the following states pioneered the practice of setting up of ‘Labour Lokadalats’ for the speedy disposal of industrial disputes ?

(A) Haryana

(B) Gujarat

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Punjab

Ans: (D)

18. Which of the following principles were taken into account while formulating the Model Grievance Procedure ?

a. Conformity with the existing legislation.

b. Make the grievance handling machinery simple.

c. Make the grievance handling machinery expeditious.

d. Designating the authorities to be contacted at various levels of grievance procedure.

(A) Only a

(B) a and b

(C) a, b and c

(D) a, b, c and d

Ans: (D)

19. Which of the following have emerged as new ‘actors’ in the changing industrial relations scenario ?

a. Consumers

b. Community

c. Journalists

d. Environmental activists

Codes :

(A) Only a

(B) a and b

(C) a, b, c and d

(D) a, b and c

Ans: (C)

20. Which of the following statements is/are considered as the portents for future of Industrial Relations in India ?

a. The plurality of Industrial Relations will be seen not merely in terms of the organized and the unorganized, but also union and non-union firms.

b. Industrial Relations will increasingly be driven by contextual factors.

c. Trade unions have to search for a new form and structure for maintaining voice and representation.

d. Increasingly the young, new and diverse workforce will resist joining unions.

(A) only a

(B) a and b

(C) a, b and c

(D) a, b, c and d

Ans: (D)

21. Which of the following statements about tripartism in India is not true ?

(A) It began in India before independence.

(B) It is relatively more widespread in the Central Government than in State Government.

(C) It became virtually defunct for a while and did not receive any impetus from the economic reforms initiated in 1991.

(D) As carried out presently, it has weaknesses both in terms of structure and process.

Ans: (C)

22. Arrange the following in a chronological sequence sharing from the latest to the earliest.

a. 20-point Economic Programme.

b. Appointment of the First National Commission on Labour.

c. Appointment of the Whitley Commission on Labour.

d. Enactment of the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act.

Codes :

(A) a, b, c and d

(B) d, a, b and c

(C) b, c, d and a

(D) c, b, a and d

Ans: (B)

23. What is the full form of AFL – CIO ?

(A) Asian Federation of Labour and Confederation of International Organizations.

(B) Asian Federation of Labour and Congress of Industrial Organizations.

(C) American Federation of Labour and Confederation of Industrial Organizations.

(D) American Federation of Labour and Congress of Industrial Organizations.

Ans: (D)

24. Match the following :

Ans: (C)

25. Match the following Japanese words relating to the ‘5S’ concept and their meanings.

Ans: (B)

26. Which of the following characteristics of an economy is a barrier to globalization of business ?

(A) Shift of labour intensive  industry to low cost technology and advanced processes.

(B) Surplus labour.

(C) Flexible production chains. 

(D) Global production chains and integrated supply chain.

Ans: (B)

27. Which one of the following is not an object of the Indian Labour Conference ?

(A) To promote uniformity in labour legislation.

(B) To lay down procedure for settlement of industrial disputes. 

(C) To mediate between labour and management to resolve conflict.

(D) To discuss all matters of all India importance between employers and employees.

Ans: (C)

28. Match the themes with approaches to industrial relations :

Ans: (C)

29. Which is not a feature of lockout ?

(A) Temporarily closing the establishment.

(B) Suspending work.

(C) Workers refraining from work.

(D) Employer refusing to provide work to employees.

Ans: (C)

30. Which of the following Acts was passed in USA to balance the power of employers and unions ?

(A) Clayton Antitrust Act 

(B) Narris – Laguaradia Act

(C) Wagner Act

(D) Taft – Hartley Act

Ans: (D)

31. Who used the term ‘collective bargaining’ first ?

(A) J.H. Richardson

(B) John T. Dunlop

(C) Sidney and Beatrice Webbs

(D) Neil W. Chamberlain

Ans: (C)

32. Which organization has made a declaration on Fundamental principles and Human Rights at the work place as one of the components of ‘Decent Work’ ?

(A) First National Commission on Labour.

(B) Indian Labour Conference.

(C) International Labour Organization.

(D) Sachar Committee on Worker’s participation.

Ans: (C)

33. Which of the following states that “a socialist society is built not solely on monetary incentives, but on ideas of service to society and willingness on the part of the latter to recognize such service ?”

(A) First Five Year Plan

(B) Second Five Year Plan

(C) Fifth Five Year Plan

(D) Eleventh Five Year Plan

Ans: (B)

34. Name the legislation which empowers government of United Kingdom to bring settlement in an industrial dispute in the event of the parties not reaching an agreement.

(A) Trade Unions and Labour Relations Act

(B) Employment Protection Act

(C) Conciliation Act

(D) Voluntary Arbitration Act

Ans: (C)

35. Match the following outcomes with the processes of Industrial Relations.

Ans: (B)

36. Globalization refers to 

a. the process of growing interdependence among elements of global economy.

b. worldwide interdependence of resource flows, product markets and business competition.

c. interdependence of product markets only.

d. interdependence for resources only 

(A) All the above statements are correct.

(B) a and b are correct.

(C) only c is correct.

(D) only d is correct.

Ans: (B)

37. Quality circle members are 

(A) paid by management for participation in quality circles.

(B) formally trained for participation in quality circles.

(C) external consultants who improve quality.

(D) led by active trade union leaders. 

Ans: (B)

38. Which of the following models is popular for its comparison of personnel management and human resource management on the basis of ‘Hard’ and ‘Soft’ approach ?

(A) David Guest’s Model

(B) John M. Story’s Model

(C) C.J. Fomburn’s Model

(D) Karen Legge’s Model.

Ans: (B)

39. Burnout is

(A) Depletion of Physical and Mental Resources due to excessive striving to reach unrealistic work goals.

(B) Lowest level of productivity due to excessive strikes or lockouts.

(C) Depreciation of human resource due to changes in technology.

(D) Boredom due to repetitive work. 

Ans: (A)

40. Performance management is a system that :

a. ensures that employee’s performance is supporting company’s aims.

b. Starts with fixing performance standards and ends with comparing results with those standards.

c. Includes daily or weekly interactions to ensure continuous improvement in employee’s performance.

d. ensures that employee has requisite training to perform the job.

(A) a only

(B) a and d only

(C) a, c and d

(D) a, b, c and d

Ans: (C)

41. A business firm may opt for Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS) under the following circumstances

(A) recession in business.

(B) intense competition and thus firm becomes unviable.

(C) joint ventures with foreign collaborations.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D)

42. How many defects per million products or services are permitted under Six Sigma Technique ?

(A) 3.4

(B) 4.3

(C) 2.3

(D) 3.2

Ans: (A)

43. Greet Hofstede’s cultural dimensions do not include

(A) Individualism/Collectivism

(B) Power distance

(C) Uncertainty avoidance

(D) Political dominance

Ans: (D)

44. Which of the following does not help in meeting the needs of dual-career couples ?

(A) Flexitime

(B) Compressed work week

(C) Job sharing

(D) Life-cycle accounts

Ans: (D)

45. A polycentric organization has

(A) Parent country oriented approach.

(B) Host country oriented approach

(C) Global approach.

(D) Third country oriented approach.

Ans: (B)

46. A multicultural organization

(A) reflects interests of diverse socio – cultural groups in its mission and operations.

(B) is committed to eradicate social oppression in all forms within the organization.

(C) includes members of diverse cultural and social groups in decision making.

(D) All of the above. 

Ans: (D)

47. Who popularized Quality of work life as a global phenomena ?

(A) T.V. Rao, Biju Varkkey and Hasmukh Adhia.

(B) James Austin, Peter Villanova and Hugh Hindwar.

(C) Einar Thorsrud, Fred Emery and Eric Tryst.

(D) Richard Reilly, James Smithy and Nicholas Vasilopolous.

Ans: (C)

48. Match the following :

Ans: (A)

49. What is the full form of SQCDM which characterizes Toyota Perfection ?

(A) Systematic, Questioning, Comparing, Discussing, Measurement.

(B) Statistical, Qualitative, Comprehensive, Directive, Measurement.

(C) Systematic, Qualitative, Collaborative, Diversifying, Monitoring.

(D) Safety, Quality, Cost, Delivery, Morale.

Ans: (D)

50. Who gave the concept of ‘Life- Positions’ in the context of Transactional Analysis ?

(A) Eric Berne 

(B) Thomas A. Harris

(C) Joseph Lufth and Harry Inghams

(D) Jay Galbraith

Ans: (B)

51. Who developed the ‘Managerial Grid’ on the basis of Ohio State Study ?

(A) Rensis Likert.

(B) Lewin, Lippitt and White.

(C) Robert Blake and Jane S. Mouton.

(D) Victor Vroom and Phillip Yetton.

Ans: (C)

52. In India, the scheme of workers’ education operates at which levels ?

(A) National

(B) Regional

(C) Unit/Village

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

53. A virtual organization has which of the following elements ?

a. E-mail integration and office systems integration.

b. Information technology.

c. Mobile data.

d. Voice mail alert.

(A) only a

(B) a and b

(C) a, b and c

(D) a, b, c and d

Ans: (D)

54. Dejobbing means

a. broadening responsibilities of jobs.

b. another form of retrenchment. 

c. limiting the chances of lay offs.

d. downsizing the organization.

(A) only a

(B) b and c

(C) only d

(D) b, c and d

Ans: (A)

55. Total Quality Management is a

(A) responsibility of quality management staff to identify and solve quality related problems.

(B) commitment to quality that goes beyond internal company issues to suppliers and customers.

(C) system where top management takes decisions. 

(D) procedure which involves quantitative tools exclusively for quality improvements.

Ans: (B)

56. Employee compensation was denied by the employer on the pretext of certain traditional doctrines. Which of the following is/are part of those doctrines ?

a. Doctrine of Assumed Risk. 

b. Doctrine of Contributory negligence.

c. Doctrine of Common employment and fellow servants’ responsibility.

d. Doctrine of Employer’s Right.

(A) a, b, d

(B) a, b, c

(C) b, c, d

(D) c

Ans: (B)

57. Which out of the following is/are reasons for the low efficacy of ILO ?

a. The recommendations made by ILO are just advisory notes.

b. The conventions are not binding unless the member countries ratify them.

c. There is no power with ILO to instruct the member countries to adopt its recommendations and conventions.

d. The local conditions of the member countries are a constraint.

(A) a, b

(B) b

(C) a, b, c

(D) a, b, c, d

Ans: (D)

58. As per latest amendment of Industrial Disputes Act, in 2010 what is the wage limit of a ‘workman’ to be covered under the Act and what was the earlier limit ?

(A) Rs 10,000 per mensem enhanced from Rs 1,600 per mensem.

(B) Rs 10,000 per mensem enhanced from Rs 3,600 per mensem.

(C) Rs 5,000 per mensem enhanced from Rs 1,600 per mensem.

(D) Rs 7,500 per mensem enhanced from Rs 3,600 per mensem.

Ans: (A)

59. Which of the following historical reasons were responsible for the enactment of the Trade Unions Act ?

a. Formation of ILO.

b. Emergence of Provincial Governments.

c. The strike spearheaded by the Madras Labour Union in Buckingham & Carnatic Mills.

d. The ascendance of Labour Party to the British Government as the ruling party.

(A) a, c

(B) b, c

(C) a, c, d

(D) b, c, d

Ans: (C)

60. Match the following Committee/ Commissions with the chairpersons.

Ans: (C)

61. In which year the first Factories Act was enacted ?

(A) 1881

(B) 1891

(C) 1911

(D) 1948

Ans: (A)

62. The principle of social justice regulating labour legislations which envisages the policy that “All human beings irrespective of race, creed or sex have the right to pursue both their material well-being, and their spiritual development in conditions of freedom and dignity, of economic security and equal opportunity” was propagated by

a. The Philadelphia chapter 

b. The Magna Carta

c. The Constitution of India

d. The League of Nations

(A) Only a

(B) Both a and c

(C) a, b, c

(D) a, c, d

Ans: (B)

63. Which of the following statements about implementation machinery of Labour legislation is/are not true ?

a. The State Government is the appropriate authority to implement Labour Legislations in the jurisdiction of the State.

b. The State Government is the appropriate implementing authority of Labour Legislation even for Central Government Organizations located in the State.

c. The State Government has no authority to implement Labour Legislations in the Central Government Organisations even though they are located in the state.

d. The Central Government can over rule the State Government in implementing Labour Legislations in any organization irrespective of their location.

(A) b, d

(B) a, d

(C) b, c, d

(D) a, b, d

Ans: (A)

64. Assertion (A) : National Renewal Fund (NRF) to train the worker’s rendered unemployed and displaced due to restructuring was created as a sequel to new economic policy, was neither adequate nor used properly.

Reason (R) : Voluntary Retirement Schemes introduced by Public Sector Undertakings diverted much of the NRF.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(B) (A) is right, (R) is wrong.

(C) (A) is wrong, (R) is right.

(D) (A) is right and (R) validates (A).

Ans: (D)

65. Which of the following statements about labour legislation in India is true ?

(A) Labour Legislation is not a part of Social legislation.

(B) Labour Legislation is influenced by the Philosophy of Laissez faire.

(C) Majority of Legislations are influenced by ILO conventions and recommendations.

(D) Labour Legislation in India are largely result of trade union initiatives.

Ans: (C)

66. Which of the following is the Executive Council of ILO ?

(A) International Labour Conference.

(B) International Labour Office

(C) International Labour Institute

(D) The Governing Body

Ans: (D)

67. Which of the following has the power to apply all or any of the provisions of the Factories Act to certain premises ?

(A) The Chief Inspector of Factories of a State.

(B) The Central Government.

(C) The State Government.

(D) Both Central and State Governments.

Ans: (C)

68. According to recommendations of Second National Commission on Labour, which of the following must be regarded as ‘misconduct’ and not as ‘Industrial dispute’ ?

a. Go-slow

b. Work-to-rule

c. Strike

d. Lockout

(A) only d

(B) a, b, c 

(C) a and b

(D) only a

Ans: (C)

69. Which of the following statements are not true in relation to employment of contract labour in any establishment ? 

a. Supreme Court can abolish contract labour system in any establishment.

b. High Court can abolish contract labour and prohibit the principal employer from engaging contract labour where the Government has not abolished the same.

c. An appropriate Government and not the court can prohibit the employment of contract labour as per the provisions of law.

d. Neither the court nor the appropriate Government can abolish the contract labour in any establishment.

(A) a, b

(B) a, b, d

(C) a, b, c

(D) a, b, c, d

Ans: (B)

70. Who is an ‘inspector’ under the Payment of Wages Act for the purposes of factories in the local limit ?

(A) The Inspector appointed by the State Government in respect of such establishments.

(B) The Inspector of factories appointed under the Factories Act.

(C) The Inspector appointed by the Central Government for the said purpose.

(D) The Inspector appointed by the appropriate Government for the said purpose.

Ans: (B)

71. Assertion (A) : Conciliation machinery in India has been playing a positive role, but often it is not recognized and is considered as avoidable hurdle. 

Reason (R) : Due to the lack of professionalism and objectivity, and susceptibility to political pressures, conciliation becomes ineffective.

Codes :

(A) (A) is right, but (R) does not validate (A).

(B) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong. 

(C) (A) is right and (R) validates (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Ans: (C)

72. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Legislation ? 

(A) Social Justice

(B) Social Welfare

(C) National Economy

(D) Control of Environment

Ans: (D)

73. Which of the following had not been responsible for initiating enactment of labour legislations in India ?

a. Colonial Rule

b. Adoption of Indian Constitution

c. Indian tradition/social system

d. Nationalist Movement for freedom

(A) a, b

(B) a, b, c

(C) a, b, c, d

(D) a, b, d

Ans: (B)

74. Which of the following is not a modification of any existing legislation, but a proposed new legislation by the Second National Commission on Labour ?

(A) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill.

(B) Labour Management Relations Bill.

(C) Small Enterprises (Employment Relations) Act.

(D) Unorganized Sector Social Security Act.

Ans: (C)

75. The Minimum Wages Act in India is the outcome of recommendations of which of the following ?

a. Rege Committee

b. Indian Labour Conference

c. Labour Investigation Committee

d. Royal Commission on Labour

(A) a, b

(B) a, b, d

(C) a, b, c, d

(D) a, b, c

Ans: (B)

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