LABOUR WELFARE AND INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS
PAPER – III
Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given at the end by picking up the appropriate answer from the given alternatives.
In principle, a cohesive group-one whose members generally agree with one another and support one another’s judgements-can do a much better job at decision-making than it could if it were non-cohesive. When cohesiveness is low or lacking entirely, compliance out of fear of recrimination is likely to be strongest. To overcome this fear, participants in the group’s deliberations need to be confident that they are members in good standing and that the others will continue to value their role in the group, whether or not they agree about a particular issue under discussion. As a member of a group feel more accepted by the others,
they acquire greater freedom to say what they really think, becoming less likely to use deceitful arguments or to play it safe by dancing around issues with conventional comments. Typically, then, the more cohesive a group becomes, the less its members will deliberately censor what they say out of fear of being punished socially for antagonizing their fellow members.
But group cohesiveness can have pitfalls as well. While the members of a highly cohesive group can feel much free to deviate from the majority, their desire for genuine concurrence on every important issue often inclines them not to use this freedom. In a highly cohesive group of decision makers, the danger is not that individuals will conceal objections they harbour regarding a proposal favoured by the majority, but that they think the proposal is a good one without attempting to carry out a critical scrutiny that could reveal grounds for strong objections. Members may then decide that any misgivings they feel are not worth
pursuing- that the benefit of any doubt should be given to the group consensus. In this way, they may fall victim to a syndrome known as ‘groupthink’. Collective decision making has been defined as “a deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing and moral judgement that results from in-group pressures”.
Based on analyses of major fiascos of international diplomacy and military decision making, researchers have identified group think behaviour as a recurring pattern that involves several factors; overestimation of the groups power and morality, manifested, for example, in an illusion of invulnerability, which creates excessive optimism; close- mindedness to warnings
of problems and to alternative view points; and unwarranted pressures toward uniformity, including self-censorship with respect to doubts about the group’s reasoning and a concomitant shared illusion of unanimity concerning group decisions. Cohesiveness of the decision making group is an essential antecedent condition of this syndrome but not a sufficient one. So it is important to work toward identifying the additional factors that determine whether group cohesiveness will deteriorate into groupthink or allow for effective decision making.
1. Why the author does think that the cohesive group can do a much better job at decision making than it could if it were non-cohesive ?
(a) The members of a highly cohesive group can feel much free to deviate from the majority
(b) Individuals will not conceal objection they harbour regarding a proposal favoured by the majority.
(c) Participants in the group’s deliberations are confident that they are members in good standing and that the others will continue to value their role in the group, whether or not they agree about a particular issue under discussion.
Code :
(1) only (a)
(2) only (b)
(3) both (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
2. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage ?
(1) Despite its value in encouraging frank discussions, high cohesion can lead to a debilitating type of group decision making called groupthink.
(2) Group members can guard against group thinking if they have a good understanding of the critical role played by cohesion.
(3) Only diplomacy and military affairs would suffer if there is tendency of groupthink
(4) Low cohesion is better than high cohesion resulting in groupthink.
3. A group of closely associated colleagues has made a disastrous diplomatic decision after a series of meetings marked by disagreement over conflicting alternatives. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely to say that this Scenario.
(1) Provides evidence of chronic indecision, thus indicating a weak level of cohesion in general.
(2) Indicates that the group’s cohesiveness was coupled with some other factor to produce a groupthink fiasco.
(3) Provides no evidence that groupthink played an effective role in group decision making.
(4) Provides evidence that groupthink can develop even in some groups that do not demonstrate an ‘Illusion of Unanimity’.
4. The passage mentions which one of the following as a component of groupthink ?
(1) Unjustified suspicions among group members regarding an adversary’s intentions
(2) Group members working under unusually high stress, leading to illusions of invulnerability.
(3) strong belief that the group’s decision are right.
(4) The deliberate use of conventional comments.
5. What the author of the passage ultimately concludes ?
(1) Group cohesiveness is always good
(2) It is important to work towards identifying the additional factors that determine whether group cohesiveness will deteriorate into groupthink or allow for effective decision-making.
(3) Groupthink is solely responsible for ineffective decision-making.
(4) The causal factors that transform group cohesion into groupthink are unique to each case.
6. When driven by group cohesion, a decision is taken only to be lamented for later is called :
(1) Abilene effect
(2) Placebo effect
(3) Hawthorne effect
(4) Halo effect
7. In which year the Amalgamated Society of Engineers was established in Great Britain ?
(1) 1837
(2) 1850
(3) 1854
(4) 1859
8. Assertion (A) : Workforce diversity requires employers to be more sensitive to the differences that each group brings to the work setting.
Reason (R) : Employees need to be responsive to the values, needs, interests and expectations of fellow employees.
Code :
(1) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(2) (A) is wrong but (R) is right.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).
9. A Commercial establishment has engaged one hundred and fifty workmen. If it wants to retrench any workman who has completed one year of continuous service in the establishment, then which of the conditions are to be followed under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ?
(a) It has to serve one month notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wages for the notice period.
(b) It has to serve three months notice in writing in advance or pay in lieu of such notice, wages for the notice period.
(c) Pay retrenchment compensation at the rate of fifteen days average pay for every completed year of continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months.
(d) Notice in the prescribed manner is served on the appropriate Government.
(e) Prior permission of the appropriate Government has been obtained on an application made in this behalf.
Code :
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
10. The National Association of Letter Carriers was started in USA in the year :
(1) 1887
(2) 1888
(3) 1889
(4) 1890
11. Which one of the following is not a benefit of Total Quality management ?
(1) Maximising cost
(2) Providing greater satisfaction to all concerned
(3) creating quality consciousness
(4) Creating good public image
12. A worker retires from a factory after putting in twenty years of continuous service. His last monthly wages drawn was ` 45,500. What is the amount of gratuity the worker is entitled to under the payment of Gratuity Act, 1972.
(1) Rs 5,75,000
(2) Rs 5,25,000
(3) Rs 7,50,000
(4) Rs 4,55,000
13. Who had given the pluralist approach to industrial relations indicating ‘job regulation’ drawing from the theories of anomie, collective bargaining and industrial democracy ?
(1) H.A. Clegg
(2) Alan Fox
(3) R. Commons
(4) Allan Flanders
14. Buzz-Sessions help in :
(a) making workers versatile
(b) making labour become more skilled and hard working
(c) eliminating those employees who sit through the conference session but do not participate
(d) stimulating discussion and participation from each member of group
Code :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (c), and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
15. An employee engaged in an industrial establishment draws wages of ` 20,000 per month. What is the amount of bonus he shall be entitled to, if it is to be paid at the rate of 9% by the employer for an accounting year under the provisions of the payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
(1) Rupees Seven thousand five hundred sixty only
(2) Rupees Eighteen thousand only
(3) Rupees Eight thousand one hundred thirty only
(4) Rupees Ten thousand six hundred forty only
16. Assertion (A) : Collective bargaining provides for procedural and substantial rules.
Reason (R) : It incorporates mechanism for dealing with interpretations and implementation of agreements as well as resolving conflicts and substantial rules concerning the substance of the agreements in both markets and managerial relationships.
Code :
(1) Assertion (A) is wrong and, thus, Reason (R) fails to explain (A).
(2) Assertion (A) is only partially true and, therefore, the Reason (R) only partially explains (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) explains (A).
(4) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is wrong.
17. In March 2017, the Government of India in the Ministry of labour and Employment has revised the administrative charges payable by the employers under the Employees Provident Fund Scheme, 1952. Which one of the following statements given is correct ?
(1) 0.65 percent (Zero point six five percent ) of the pay subject to a minimum of seventy five rupees per month for every non-functional establishments having no contributory member and five hundred rupees per month for other establishments
(2) 0.67 percent ( Zero point six seven percent ) of the pay subject to a minimum of one hundred rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory member and five hundred rupees per month for other establishments
(3) 0.75 percent (Zero point seven five percent ) of the pay subject to a minimum of one hundred rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory member and one thousand rupees per month for other establishments
(4) 0.50 percent (Zero point five zero percent ) of the pay subject to a minimum of seventy five rupees per month for every non-functional establishment having no contributory member and one thousand rupees per month for other establishments.
18. Assertion (A) : Both Weber’s Bureaucracy and Taylor’s scientific management emphasise on rationality, predictability, impersonality, technical competence and authoritarianism.
Reason (R) : Though Weber’s writings were less operational than Taylor’s, yet ‘ideal bureaucracy ‘ describes many contemporary organisations.
Code :
(1) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
(2) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are right.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
19. Which of the following are the trends in International Industrial Relations System ?
(a) MNCs try to cultivate centralised ethnocentric approach to the extent of pressurising the national Governments to bring out unprecedented economic and labour reforms.
(b) MNCs aspire for hassle free business climate and for this, adopt the practice of replacing expensive labour with cheap labour through outsourcing.
(c) MNCs promote individual centric Human Resource policies to keep trade unions at bay.
(d) MNCs act like ‘octopus’ . Nations, trade unions and other actors of Industrial Relations only grapple with the unfathomable strength of MNCs.
Code :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
20. Match List – A with List – B and select correct answer by using the code given below :
21. Recently the Government of India has enforced ‘the Ease of compliance to Maintain Registers under various Labour Laws Rules, 2017’ for maintenance of combined registers provided under various labour legislations. Which of the following legislations is not covered under the above Rules ?
(1) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
(2) Mines Act, 1952
(3) Factories Act, 1948
(4) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
22. According to which one of the following approaches, management is the function of planning, organising, leading and controlling ?
(1) Process approach
(2) Systems approach
(3) Quantitative approach
(4) Human behaviour approach
23. Which of the following statements about the definition of ‘Trade Union‘ as given in the Trade Unions Act, 1926 is not true ?
(a) A trade union is any combination, whether temporary or permanent.
(b) It regulates the relations between workmen and employer.
(c) It does not regulate the relations between workmen and workmen.
(d) It regulates relations between employers and employers.
Code :
(1) only (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) only (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
24. Calculate the amount of compensation to be paid to the dependants of a deceased employee, where death results from the injury, under the provisions of Employees, Compensation Act, 1923. (Monthly wages drawn was ` 15,000 and Relevant factor is 139.13)
(1) Rs 1,20,000
(2) Rs 4,52,400
(3) Rs 6,50,210
(4) Rs 5,56,520
25. Which one of the following is not a barrier to communication ?
(1) feedback
(2) ambiguity
(3) lack of trust
(4) distortions in communication
26. Which of the following statements relating to the industrial relations policy in India is/are not true ?
(a) Industrial relations in India is highly regulated by state intervention.
(b) Industrial relations policy in India tried to shift from Courts to Codes.
(c) Tripartism was a strong policy shift in industrial relations in India.
(d) Free and compulsory collective bargaining was the chief characteristic feature of industrial relations policy in India.
Code :
(1) only (a)
(2) only (b)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) only (d)
27. For the first time in India, medical benefit as a non-cash benefit was provided under :
(1) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(2) Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
(3) Factories Act, 1948
(4) Mines Act, 1952
28. Who has propagated the bipartite, tripartite and multi-partite aspects of industrial relations with human relations as the invisible energy binding them ?
(1) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
(2) H.A. Clegg
(3) John H. Richardson
(4) Alan Fox
29. In a conflict situation, which of the following errors makes the bargainers assume that their gain must come at the expense of the other party ?
(1) Mythical Fixed Pie
(2) Conflict Dilemma
(3) Winner’s Curse
(4) Escalation of Commitment
30. Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, which one of the following is not a prescribed wagesperiod for fixation of minimum rate of wages ?
(1) by the hour
(2) by the day
(3) by the week
(4) by the month
31. Allocable surplus for a banking company under the provisions of the payment of Bonus Act, 1965 means :
(1) Sixty seven percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(2) Sixty percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(3) Sixty six percent of the available surplus in an accounting year
(4) Sixty six percent of the available surplus in the financial year
32. Arrange the steps of designing Management Information System in correct sequence :
(a) Analyse information requirements
(b) Aggregate the decisions
(c) Design information processing
(d) Analyse the decision system
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (d), (b), (c)
33. Which of the following statements relating to primary unions in India is correct ?
(1) These unions fall only under the category of industrial unions
(2) These unions fall only under the category of general unions
(3) These unions fall only under the category of craft unions
(4) These unions fall under all the three categories i.e., industrial unions, general unions and craft unions
34. In which year the National Renewal Fund was abolished by the Government ?
(1) 1992
(2) 1996
(3) 2000
(4) 2004
35. Match the following :
36. An industrial establishment employing one thousand employees has to pay the wages to the employees within which period after the last day of the wage period in respect of which the wages are payable under the provisions of the payment of Wages Act, 1936 ?
(1) Before the expiry of the seventh day
(2) Before the expiry of the fifth day
(3) Before the expiry of the tenth day
(4) Before the expiry of the eighth day
37. Two distinct schools of thought have emerged in industrial relations. The first one, known as ‘Personnel Management School’, emphasised the “employers’ solution” to labour problems.
The second school of thought, known as ‘Institutional Labour Economics School’ emphasized the workers’ solution of trade unionism and the communities’ solution of protective labour legislation and social insurance to labour problems.
Which of the following inferences are right relating to the broad themes of the above two schools ?
(a) The first school takes an “internal” or inside-the-firm perspective on the solution of labour problems.
(b) The second school favoured institutional forms of power balancing and joint governance in the employment relationship.
(c) The first school takes an “external” or outside-the-firm perspective on the solution of labour problems.
(d) The second school emphasized upon building a community of interest between labour and management for which the employer has to take the initiative.
Code :
(1) only (a) and (b)
(2) only (b) and (c)
(3) only (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
38. Which of the following is not a characteristic of culture according to Hofstede ?
(1) Power distance
(2) Person’s relationship with natural world
(3) Masculinity and Femininity
(4) Individualism Vs Collectivism
39. Which of the following facilities is to be provided by an employer employing two hundred fifty workers covered under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) Ambulance Room
(2) Canteen
(3) Shelter and rest rooms
(4) Cooling drinking water
40. Which of the following statements relating to the source of industrial disputes in the Indian context is/are correct ?
(a) Disputes relating to the implementation of labour laws and regulations fall under the category of ‘disputes concerning rights’.
(b) Disputes relating to standing orders fall under the category of ‘disputes concerning rights.’
(c) Disputes concerning collective agreements and settlements fall under the category of ‘disputes concerning rights.’
Code :
(1) only (a) is correct.
(2) only (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) only (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
41. Which of the following are the three dimensions of Mendenhall and Oddou Training Model for expatriates ?
(a) Training Methods
(b) Effectiveness Measurement
(c) Levels of Training
(d) Duration of Training
(e) Selection of Trainer
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (c), (e)
(4) (b), (d), (e)
42. A woman who legally adopts a child below the age of three months shall be entitled to maternity benefit from the date the child is handed over to the adopting mother for a period of how many weeks under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment ) Act, 2017 ?
(1) Twelve weeks
(2) Twenty six weeks
(3) Eighteen weeks
(4) Eight weeks
43. Which of the following laydown Universal Ethical principles for multinationals ?
(a) The United Nations Declaration of Human Rights
(b) The OECD Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
(c) The Caux Roundtable Principles of Business
Code :
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
44. Various schemes of workers participation in management were launched in different years and with varied objectives. Match the schemes (List-I) with year of their introduction (List – II) :
45. In which of the following employments the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976 was first enforced ?
(1) Employments under Central and State Governments
(2) Plantations to which the Plantations Labour Act, 1951 applies.
(3) Mines as defined under the Mines Act, 1952
(4) Local Authorities
46. Who has advanced ‘coping styles’ for role stress combining avoidance and approach to role stress with laws of control of internality and externality ?
(1) Lorsch and Lawrence
(2) Litwin and Stringer
(3) Udai Pareek
(4) T.V. Rao
47. Selig Perlman, whose views are known as ‘Job-Consciousness Theory’ of trade Unionism, observed that the trade Union is the outcome of pessimistic outlook of a ‘manualist’ worker.
Which statement is not true in the context of Perlman’s theory :
(1) In order to protect one’s limited job opportunity, a worker starts uniting with his/her fellow ‘manualists’.
(2) Emergence of trade unions mainly from ‘Job-Consciousness’ is not tenable in all situations.
(3) Genuine Trade Unions are inherently ‘bread and butter’ trade unions.
(4) After studying the American situation, Perlman observed that during periods of expansion of economy, the American worker had the consciousness of abundance, but this phenomenon existed only for a few years. The optimism of the period of plenty was superseded by pessimism of scarcity. The moment such a situation emerged, trade unions also emerged.
48. Which of the following statements about disciplinary process are true ?
(a) Under Master-Servant doctrine, servant worked at the will of the master, with no subsisting right to continue in employment under laissez fair policy.
(b) Now no workman can be charge sheeted and punished unless one has committed a misconduct as per the relevant standing orders.
(c) Misconduct is not defined in any Act but given under the model standing orders which can be adopted in certified standing orders.
Code :
(1) (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
49. Under the power to make exempting orders of the Factories Act, 1948, the State Government can fix the maximum time of overtime work for any quarter is :
(1) Fifty hours
(2) Seventy five hours
(3) Sixty hours
(4) Ninety hours
50. Which one of the following statements relating to payment of subsistence allowance under the Industrial Employment (standing orders) Act, 1946 is not correct ?
(1) Subsistence allowance shall be at the rate of fifty percent of the wages which the workman was entitled to immediately preceding the date of such suspension, for the first ninety days
(2) Subsistence allowance shall be at the rate of Seventy-five percent of such wages for the remaining period of suspension if the delay in the completion of disciplinary proceedings against such workman is not directly attributable to the conduct of such workman
(3) If any dispute arises regarding the subsistence allowance payable to a workman, the workman or the employer concerned may refer the dispute to the Labour Court Constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(4) If any dispute arises regarding the subsistence allowance payable to a workman, the appropriate Government may refer the dispute to the Industrial Tribunal constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
51. ‘Knowledge workers’ are :
(a) the workers whose main capital is knowledge
(b) the workers whose jobs are designed around the acquisition and application of information
(c) the workers whose jobs concentrate on routine problems
Code :
(1) (a) only
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
52. Which of the following is a statutory workers’ participation in management forum ?
(1) Joint Management Council
(2) Shop Council
(3) Joint Council
(4) Works Committee
53. ‘Pygmalion effect’ is associated with :
(1) Self-aggredisement
(2) Self-defence
(3) Self fulfilling prophecy
(4) Self denial
54. An adolescent who has been given a certificate of fitness to work, has worked for 232 days during the calendar year 2016 in a factory. He has been on leave with wages for ten days during the year. How many days of leave with wages he shall be entitled to during the year 2017 ?
(1) Ten days
(2) Twelve days
(3) Fifteen days
(4) Nil
55. When a union signs an agreement with management for wage revision and other benefits, in most of the cases non-members also get the benefit without either paying subscription or participating in union meetings and other struggles. Such non members are called :
(1) Parasites
(2) Fence sitters
(3) Free riders
(4) Opportunists
56. Match the following theories of leadership (List-I) with their propagator (List-II) :
57. Which of the following is the correct set of contingencies identified by William Beveridge in his comprehensive social security scheme ?
(1) Want, sickness, disability, squalor and idleness
(2) Want, disease, old age, squalor and unemployment
(3) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor and idleness
(4) Disease, invalidity, old age, unemployment and ignorance
58. Who is associated with the approaches to Disciplinary action such as judicial approach, human relations approach, human resource approach, group discipline approach and leadership approach ?
(1) N.N. Chatterjee
(2) Mirza S. Saiddain
(3) Arun Monappa
(4) C.B. Mamoria
59. Match phases of change process (List – I) with their propagators (List – II) :
60. Who among the following shall be the chairperson of the National Security Board constituted under the Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 ?
(1) Chief Labour Commissioner (Central)
(2) Director General (Labour Welfare)
(3) Chief Commissioner (Labour Welfare)
(4) Union Minister for Labour and Employment
61. Who defined grievance as, “any discontent or dissatisfaction, whether expressed or not and whether valid or not, arising out of anything connected with the company that an employee thinks, believes or even feels is unfair, unjust, or inequitable” ?
(1) Dale Yoder
(2) Paul Pigors
(3) Michael J. Jucius
(4) Charles A. Myers
62. Who has developed the ‘Learning and Performance Wheel’ ?
(1) Paul Brenthal et. al
(2) F.J. Roethlisberger et. al
(3) Leonard and Zeace Nadlar
(4) Udai Pareek et. al
63. Match the following List – I with List – II :
64. A dispute has arisen regarding admission of membership of a union which is a registered and recognised Trade Union. Few workers had filed a joint application for membership of that union. The application was not considered because the application was not in accordance with the procedure laid down by the union. Aggrieved by this, the workers filed a complaint before the Registrar of Trade Unions under Section 28 (1-A). Which one among the following is competent authority to settle the issue ?
(1) Registrar of Trade Unions
(2) Industrial Tribunal
(3) High Court
(4) Civil Court of the competent jurisdiction
65. The HRD matrix linking HRD subsystems to development dimensions has been advanced by :
(1) Dharani P. Sinha
(2) D.M. Pestonjee
(3) Udai Pareek
(4) T.V. Rao
66. Before the enactment of the Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979 by the Union Government which of the following States had an exclusive law relating to the migrant labour ?
(1) Odisha
(2) Assam
(3) Bihar
(4) Tamilnadu
67. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 empowers the appropriate Government to constitute a court of inquiry to inquire into any matter appearing to be connected with or relevant to an industrial dispute. It is the duty of the court of inquiry to inquire into matters referred to it and submit its report to the appropriate Government, ordinarily within which period from the commencement of its inquiry :
(1) One month
(2) Two months
(3) Four months
(4) Six months
68. Associate the following conditions (List-I) with the period in which they prevailed (List-II) :
69. Which of the following statements about HR score-card are true ?
(a) Measurement is central to HR score-card
(b) HR architecture inclusive of sum of HR function; the broader HR system and the resulting employee behaviour is crucial to HR scorecard
(c) Measurements generally include total compensation, cost per hire, employee turnover, job satisfaction levels, appraisal categories etc.
(d) Capability, commitment, competencies, learning outcomes are difficult to be measured resulting into a difference between ‘ What is measured ‘ and what is important in HR
Code :
(1) (a), (d)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
70. Which one of the following Acts, explains the meaning of “Badli workman” ?
(1) Factories Act, 1948
(2) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(3) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(4) Trade Unions Act, 1926
71. Which one of the following is not correct relating to working hours for children under the Factories Act, 1948 ?
(1) Maximum hours of work is four and half hours in any day
(2) No child shall be employed during night
(3) The hours of work including rest should be limited to a maximum spread over period of five and half hours
(4) No female child shall be allowed to work in any factory between 7 pm. to 8 am.
72. Assertion (A) : Between ‘hire and fire’ policy and VRS, the later is considered as a strategy of less severe severance.
Reason (R) : VRS is conceived as a win-win situation because organisations gain by reducing the surplus and in right sizing the employee structure. Employees, on the other hand may lose jobs, but gain sizeable severance benefits to face post-VRS problems.
Code :
(1) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
(2) (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains the (A).
(3) (A) and (R) are right but (R) doesn’t explain the (A).
(4) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
73. Michael Porter has given the ‘Five Forces’ model of strategic management. The sixth force is given by G. Ghemawat and D. Collis called ‘ COMPLEMENTORS’. Which of the following statements about the 6th force are true ?
(a) Complementors are groups from which buyers purchase complementary services and groups to whom suppliers sell complementary products.
(b) These are different competitive forces from the rest of the 5 forces given by Michael Porter.
(c) Complementors can help both buyers and suppliers to increase their pie by add-on values.
(d) If Complimentors are too Powerful ; then both buyers and suppliers can form coalitions.
Code :
(1) (a), (c), (d) only
(2) (a), (b), (d) only
(3) (b), (c), (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
74. Arrange the following Acts in a sequence according to their years of their enactment in USA starting from the earliest to the latest :
(a) Wagner Act
(b) Landrum-Griffin Act
(c) Narris-LaGuaradia Act
(d) Taft-Hartley Act
Code :
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(4) (b), (c), (a), (d)
75. Which one of the following does not find place under the Factories (Amendment) Bill 2016 initiated by the Government ?
(1) Enhance the limit of overtime hours to a maximum of one hundred hours per quarter under section 64.
(2) Enhance the limit of overtime hours to a maximum of one hundred twenty five hours per quarter in public interest under section 65.
(3) Empower the Central Government in addition to the State Governments to make exempting rules and exempting orders in respect of hours of work on overtime in a quarter.
(4) Enhance the limit of total number of hours of work in a week including overtime to a maximum of seventy five hours.
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